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Let \(\{X_{n}\}\) be a sequence of independent random variables. Define the \(\sigma\)-field :

\[ F = \bigcap_{n=1}^{\infty} \sigma(X_{n}, X_{n+1}, \ldots). \]

Suppose \(A \in f_{e}\). Then, which of the following statements is more appropriate ?

  • A.\(P(A) = 0\)
  • B.\(P(A) = 1\)
  • C.\(P(A) = P(A^{C})\)
  • D.\(P(A) = 0\) or \(P(A) = 1\)

Answer: D

The appropriate statement is P(A) = 0 or P(A) = 1.

F, the intersection of \(\sigma(X_{n}, X_{n+1}, \ldots)\) over all n, is the tail \(\sigma\)-field of the sequence (printed in the question as \(f_{e}\)). Kolmogorov's zero-one law says that when the \(X_{n}\) are independent, every tail event has probability 0 or 1.

Examples of tail events are 'the series \(\sum X_{n}\) converges' and 'the limit superior of \(X_{n}\) exceeds 5'. Each is unaffected by changing finitely many terms, and each is either almost certain or almost impossible.

Saying always 0 or always 1 is too strong, since both values occur for different tail events (A and its complement are both tail events). \(P(A) = P(A^{c})\) would force \(P(A) = 1/2\), which the law excludes.

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