DSSSB 2019: 29 September, Legal Assistant
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MKG-XXIVrrECHLAl1T/01
Write here Roll Number and Answer Sheet No.
~~~~~~~
Roll No.1 3ijSflQicn Answer Sheet No./~~~
Time Allowed: 2 hours OBJECTIVE TYPE TIER-ONE EXAMINATION Maximum Marks: 200
Hmfur ~ : 2 tR qf1R6(3~-CR 1:IU&ll ~~ : 200
r::D~e~cl~a--ra~ti-on-'-bY-I:-n-:vi""'g"'ila""to';"r";;:~'-';:""""--------=' Declaration by Candidate:
I Certify that I have checked that the Roll Number and the Answer I undertake not to employ any unfair means in this exam. I have checked the Question
Sheet Number written by the Candidate on the question paper and Booklet Number and the Answer Sheet Number and both are identical and have been
the OMR Sheet are correct and the Answer Sheet Number matches correctly entered by me wherever indicated.
the Question Booklet Number exactly.
Sections Test Components
(A) i) General Awareness 20 2- 5 ii) mqr;:<! ~ om IT ~
ii) General Intelligence and ~ <iM«rr 20 6 - 11
Reasoning Ability 20 6 -11 iii) ~~~~ 20 12 -15 ~
iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability 20 12 -15 ~ .~ _"'-~, tr
iv) Hindi Language and Comprehension 20 16 - 17 iv) 'c-"'" .,,~, ,jm "ll'-l 20 16 -17 ~ ~
v) English Language and Comprehension 20 18 - 19 v) W;;fi \If!IT ~ .ntl 20 18 - 19
(B) Post Specific Subject-Related (Of) ~~~-tioitft~ 100 20-45
Questions 100 20 - 45 ~
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9. Use of Calculator/Palmtop/Laptop/Other Digital Instrument! 9. ~ / ~ / ~ / 3V<r ~ ~ / ~ / '~
Mobile/Cell Phone/Pager is not allowed. iffi'iH / ~ q:;r ~ ~~I it*
10. Candidates found guilty of misconduct/using unfair means in the 10. ~&lT-'1<Rit ~ ~ ~ q:;r<f if;~~~ TTlt ~ ~
Examination Hall will be liable for appropriate penalJ1egalaction. 1Fcf(H:11Id ~/~mf.rq:; ~ if; -qr;[ ~ I
11. The manner in which different questions are to be answered has 11. ~ ~ if; ~ ~ <f;t fcrftr ~ ~ if; ~ ~ ~ f.$it
been explained at the back of this Booklet, which you should
read carefully before actually answering the questions.
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Go through instructions given in Page No. 48 (Back Cover Page)
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MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1T/01
SECTION-A
i) General Awareness
To whom among the following the 6. Which of the following organizat~on
1. American Institute of Aeronautics and releases the state of World Population
Astronautics conferred the Missile Report ?
Systems Award 2019 ? (A) UNFPA
(A) Kiran Kumar (8) ILO
(8) G. Satheesh Reddy (C) WTO
.
(C) Kailasavadlvoo .
Sivan (0) None of the above
(0) None of the above
7. Which of the following Indo-Tibet main
2. Tansen Samman is given by trade routes are passes through Chumbi
(A) Uttara Pradesh valley?
(8) Gujarat (A) Jelep La and Nathu La Pass
(C) Madhya Pradesh (8) Goram Ghat and Haldi Ghat Pass
(0) None of the above (C) 8hor Ghat and Chorla Ghat Pass
(D) None of the above
3. India post joined with which of the
following tech giant to digitalize 1.5 lakh 8. Which of the following Articles of the
Post Offices and create world's biggest Indian Constitution grants special
e-postal network ? provision to the north eastern states of
India ?
(A) TCS
(A) Article 370
(8) Microsoft
(8) Article 371
(C) Infosys
(C) Article 333
(0) None of the above
(0) None of the above
4. National Girl Child Day is celebrated
every year on 9. What was the theme of World Wetland
Day 2019 ?
(A) March 22nd
(A) Wetlands and climate change
(8) January 24th
(8) Wetlands and wild animals
(C) August 3rd
(C) Wetlands for the avian fauna
(0) None of the above
(0) None of the above
5. What is the metamorphic form of
10. Coco Islands belong to which of the
Limestone?
following nations?
(A) Marble
(A) India
(8) Gypsum
(8) Myanmar
(C) Gold
(C) Indonesia
(D) None of the above (0) All the above
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MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1 T/01
11. Consider the following pairs. 16. Which one of the following states Gulf
1. Krishna Wildlife - Karnataka of Khambhat is situated ?
Sanctuary (A) Gujarat
2. Wayanad Wildlife - Tamil Nadu (B) Andhra Pradesh
Sanctuary
(C) West Bengal
Which of the above pairs are correctly
(D) None of the above
matched?
(A) 1 only 17. Which of the following river is a tributary
(B) 2 only of Cauvery ?
(C) Both 1 and 2 (A) Manas river
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (B) Arkavathi river
(C) Lohit river
12. The Man Booker International Prize,
2019 awarded to which of the following (D) None of the above
Novel? 18. She was British and supporter of Indian
(A) Seven Killings self-rule. Later she joined the Indian
(B) Celestial Bodies National Congress and in 1916 she
launched the All India Home Rule League.
(C) Milkman
The above said statements describes
(D) None of the above
who among the following freedom
13. What was the Theme of the World fighters of India?
Environment Day 2019 ? (A) Madam Cama
(A) Air pollution (B) Annie Besant
(B) Light pollution (C) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Soil pollution (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
19. Who among the following Indian women
14. World Ozone Day is celebrated every freedom fighters popularly known as
year on Grand Old Lady?
(A) September 16th (A) Sucheta Kriplani
(B) June 5th (B) Lakshmi Sahgal
(C) March 3rd (C) Aruna Asaf Ali
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
15. The Sardar Sarovar Dam built across 20. Washing soda is also known as
which of the following rivers? (A) Sodium carbonate
(A) Ganga
(B) Sodium bisulphite
(B) Chambal
(C) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Narmada
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
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MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1 T/01
ii) General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
21, What will be the next term in the series ? 26. In a certain language, 'sun shines
21,7,111,37,303,101,4275, ___ brightly' is written as 'ba 10 sui', 'houses
are brightly lit' as 'kado ula ari ba' and
(A) 12825 (8) 4475
'light comes from sun' as 'dopi kup 10
(C) 1425 (D) 725 nro'. What code words are written for
'sun' and 'brightly' ?
22. Choose the correct alternative from the (A) ba, sui
given ones.
(8) sui, 10
AYD,8VF,DRH,?,KGL
(C) 10, ba
(A) FMI (8) GMJ
(D) ba,lo
(C) GLJ (D) HLK
27. Pointing to a woman, Naman said,
23. Select the related alternative from the "She is the daughter of the only child
given. of my grandmother". How is the woman
Spring: Summer: : related to Naman ?
(A) Sunday: Monday (A) Sister
(8) Niece
(8) Thursday: Wednesday
(C) Cousin
(C) Tuesday: Friday
(D) Data inadequate
(D) Friday: Monday
28. Prashant Arora has three children -
24. Find the odd word from the given Sangeeta, Vi mal and Ashish. Ashish
alternatives. married Monika, the eldest daughter of
(A) Gallon Mr. and Mrs. Roy. The Roys married
(8) Ton their youngest daughter to the eldest
son of Mr. and Mrs. Sharma and they
(C) Quintal
had two children named Amit and
(D) Kilogram Shashi. The Roys have two more
children, Roshan and Vandana, both
25. If 'GLOSSORY' is coded as 97533562
elder to Veena. Sameer and Ajay are
and 'GEOGRAPHY' is coded as sons of Ashish and Monika. Rashmi is
915968402, then 'GEOLOGY' can be the daughter of Amit.
coded as What is the surname of Sameer ?
(A) 9156921 (A) Roy
(8) 9157592 (8) Sharma
(C) 9057592 (C) Arora
(D) 9157912 (D) Cannot be determined
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~
29. Six students A, B, C, D, E and Fare 32. Five plays A, 8, C, D and E are to be
sitting in the field. A and 8 are from staged from Monday to Friday of a
Nehru House while the rest belong to week. On each day, only one play will
Gandhi House. D and F are tall while the be staged, D or E should not be either
others are short. A, C and 0 are wearing the first or last to be staged. E should be
glasses while the others are not. immediately followed by C. 8 should be
staged immediately after D. One play is
Which two students, who are not
staged between A and 8. Then, which
wearing glasses are short ?
play was staged on Wednesday?
(A) A and F
(A) A
(8) C and E
(8) 8
(C) 8 and E
(C) Either 8 or C
(0) E and F (D) Cannot be determined
30. i. A, 8, C, D, E, F and G are Sittingaround
33. Oeepa moved a distance of 75 meters
a circle and are facing the centre.
towards the North. She then turned to
ii. G is second to left of C, who is to the the left and walking for about 25 meters,
immediate left of F. turned left again and walked 80 meters.
iii. A is third to the left of E. Finally, she turned to the right at an
iv. 8 is between 0 and E. angle of 45°. In which direction was
she moving finally?
Which of the following is false?
(A) North - East
(A) A is fourth to the right of E (8) North - West
(8) G is to the immediate right of 0 (C) South - East
(C) F is third to the right of D (0) South - West
(D) 8 is to the immediate left of 0
34. Radha moves towards South-East a
31. Anita, Mahima, Rajan, Lata and Deepti distance of 7 km, then she moves towards
are five cousins. Anita is twice as old West and travels a distance of 14 m. From
as Mahima. Rajan is half the age of here, she moves towards North-West a
distance of 7 m and finally she moves a
Mahima. Anita is half the age of Deepti
distance of 4 m towards East and stood
and Rajan is twice the age of Lata.
at that point. How far is the starting point
Then, who is the youngest? from where she stood?
(A) Deepti (A) 3m
(8) Rajan (8) 4m
(C) Lata (C) 10 m
(0) Anita (0) 11 m
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m
35.
.' .
Choose the Venn diagram which best
MKG-XXIVITECHLAI1T/Ol
38. If the second day of a month is Friday,
illustrates the three given classes.
which of the following would be the
Dog, Animal, Pet.
last day of the next month which has
(A) 31 days?
@O (A) Sunday
(B)
(§~?) (B) Monday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Data inadequate
(C) @ 39. Two bus tickets from city A to B and three
tickets from city A to C cost ~ 77 but three
r
(D) CJDO tickets from city A to B and two tickets
from city A to C cost ~ 73. What are the
36. Statements : fares for cities Band C from A ?
Some fabrics are silks.
(A) ~ 4, ~ 23
Some silks are cottons.
Conclusions: (B) ~ 13, ~ 17
I. At least some cottons are silks.
(C) ~ 15, ~ 14
II. At least some fabrics are cottons.
(D) ~17,~13
(A) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(B) Only conclusion II is true
.r
40. FJMPOWRNBEYCKAVLDG
(C) Only conclusion I is true
XUHQISZT
(D) Both conclusions I and II are true
Which of the following pairs of letters
37. Aman is 16th from the left end in a row
of boys and Vivek is 18th from the right has as many letters between them in
end. Gagan is 11th from Aman towards the above arrangement as there are
the right and 3rd from Vivek towards the
between them in the English alphabet?
right end. How many boys are there in
the row? (A) AI
(A) 40
(B) EL
(B) 41
(C) 42 (C) LS
(D) 48 (D) MO
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MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1T/01
iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
41. The smallest value of n, for which 2n + 1 46. If the sum of two numbers is 33 and their
is not a prime number, is difference is 15, the smaller number is
(A) 3 (8) 4 (A) 9
(C) 5 (0) None of these
(8) 12
(C) 15
42. If 1.5x = 0.04y, then the value of y - x
y+x (0) 18
is
730 47. Complete the series.
(A) 77 19,23,26,30,33, ?
(A) 31
73
(8) 77 (8) 35
(C) 37
73
(C) 770 (0) 39
(0) None of these 48. Choose the missing term.
43. Select the correct set of symbols which 8, 0, F, I, L, P, ?
will fits in the given equation. (A) R
5 0 3 5 20= (8) S
(A) X,X,x (8) -, +,x
(C) T
(C) x, +, x (0) +, +, x
(0) U
44. If Y = 5, then what is the value of
49. Choose the missing term.
10yJy3 -y2 ?
3F, 6G, 111, 18L, ?
(A) 50.J2 (8) 100 (A) 21 C
(C) 200.[5 (0) 500 (8) 25N
(C) 25P
45. The average of first nine prime numbers
is
(0) 27P
(A) 9 50. 2,A,9, 8,6,C, 13, O,?
(8) 11 (A) 9
(C) 11~ (8) 10
9
(C) 12
(0) 113.
9 (0) 19
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MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1T/01
51. Choose the number which is different 56. Find the missing character.
from the group.
18 24 32
(A) 8
12 14 16
(8) 28
3 ? 4
(C) 64 112
72 128
(0) 125
(A) 2 (8) 3
52. Sam ranked ninth from the top and (C) 4 (0) 5
thirty-eighth from the bottom in a class.
How many students are there in the 57. Find the number which is nearest to 457
class? and is exactly divisible by 11.
(A) 45 (A) 450 (8) 451
(8) 46 (C) 460 (0) 462
(C) 47
58. The greatest number of four digits which
(0) 48 is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is
(A) 9000 (8) 9400
53. If a means +, 13 means -, y means x,
8 means -7 then 30 8 10 y 5 a 10 13 20 (C) 9600 (0) 9800
is
(A) 3 59. Simplify 0.2 x 0.2 + 0.2 x 0.02 .
(8) 10 0.044
(C) 5 (A) 0.004
(0) 15 (8) 0.4
(C) 1
54. Reena is twice as old as Sunita.
(0) 2
Three years ago, she was three times as
old as Sunita. How old is Reena now?
3
(A) 6 years 60. The difference of 11 6and its reciprocal
(8) 7 years
is equal to
(C) 8 years
(0) 12 years (A) 1.!
8
55. Evaluate ~41-J21+~19-J9 . 4
(8) 3
(A) 3
(8) 5 15
(C) 16
(C) 6
(0) 5.4 (0) None of these
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MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1 T/01
v) English Language and Comprehension
~~~itu
Fill in the blanks with suitable articles from 86. Myna ran her bicycle over a colony of
among the choices given below them: ants,?
(A) has she (8) did she
81. It was truly memorable party.
(A) the (C) didn't she (D) doesn't she
(8) a
Choose the correct synonym of the word
(C) an
underlined in each sentence from the
(D) not needed
alternatives given below it :
82. sloth is too slow to run a race. 87. A dozen gentlemen were engaged in a
(A) A warm dispute.
(8) An (A) discussion (8) speech
(C) The (C) conversation (D) argument
(D) No article required
88. The Dutch were considered to be
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions industrious.
from among the choices given below them: (A) diligent (8) effortless
83. People will have to walk the (C) considerate (D) beneficial
stream to reach the highway.
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate antonym
(A) among (8) across of the words underlined from among the
(C) at (D) for choices given below them:
84. I found myself seated two 89. The criminal received the judgement
illustrious ladies at the banquet. bitterly whereas the public received
it ------
(A) between (8) among
(A) piercingly (8) bitingly
(C) into (D) by
(C) gladly (D) over bitterly
Add suitable question tags to the following
statements from among the choices given 90. An infant left alone will feel _
below them: but the mother's presence will bring a
85. He has a huge fan following, ? sense of comfort.
(A) haven't he (8) hasn't he (A) uncomfort (8) ease
(C) doesn't he (D) isn't he (C) solace (D) discomfort
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MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1 T/01
Fill in the blanks using the correct tenses of the Identify the form of each sentence given here
from among the choices given below it :
verbs given in brackets and choose the right
95. Being innocent, he never thought of
answer from among the options given below running away.
them: (A) Complex sentence
(B) Simple sentence
(C) Compound sentence
91. ___ my friend last week. (meet)
(D) Exclamatory sentence
(A) had met (B)' meet
96. She was so poor that she could not
(C) have met (D) met educate her son.
(A) Compound sentence
92. You have (B) Imperative sentence
to me. (lie)
(C) Complex sentence
(A) lied (B) laid (D) Simple sentence
(C) lying (D) lain 97. 'May God bless you'!
(A) Complex sentence
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate forms (B) Declarative sentence
(C) Interrogative sentence
of the verb given in brackets by choosing the
(D) Imperative sentence
correct alternative from among the alternatives
Read each sentence to find out whether there
given below each sentence': is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one
part of the sentence. The number of that part
93. Neither you nor your friend done is the answer:
the homework. (form of 'have')
98. I think / Raveena is the / most talented /
(A) (B) (C)
(A) have of the two.
(0)
(B) has 99. The whole town / turned enthusiastically
(A) (B)
(C) have been
out / to welcome the cricket team /
(D) none of these
(C)
when it came back with the cup.
(D)
94. The cost of the apples high.
100. They decided to part as / they thought
(form of 'be') (A) (B)
that any / farther discussion on the /
(A) are (B) were (C)
issue would be pointless.
(C) is (D) not required (D)
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MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1 T/01
SECTION-B
Post Specific Subject - Related Questions
101. A banker can allow a minor to open a 105. A card which enables a customer to
Savings 8ank Account provided the purchase goods or services from certain
minor is retail and service establishments upto a
(A) 10 years of age or above certain limit without making immediate
(8) Eighteen years payment is a
(C) Twenty-one years
(A) Postcard
(D) Thirty years
(8) Cheque
102. A document, the legal title of which (C) Credit card
can be transferred by mere delivery or (D) Visiting card
endorsement and delivery is a
(A) Gift deed 106. Donatio Mortis causa means
(8) Sale deed (A) A gift made in contemplation of
(C) Negotiable instrument death
(D) Receipt (8) Right to hearing
103. An instrument in writing containing an (C) Remedy without compensation
unconditional undertaking, signed by the (D) Donation without taxes
maker to pay a certain sum of money only
to or to the order of a certain person is 107. A guardian appointed by a will of the
natural guardian is called as
(A) A cheque
(8) ATM card (A) Adhoc guardian
(C) Credit card (8) Testamentary guardian
(D) Promissory Note (C) De jure guardian
104. Any change in any instrument, which (D) De facto guardian
makes it to speak a different language,
108. Property in which a person acquires an
for all legal purposes from what it spoke
interest by birth is called
originally would Constitute
(A) Crossing (A) Unobstructed heritage
(8) Material Alteration (8) Dominant heritage
(C) Endorsement (C) Servient heritage
(D) Negotiation (D) Easement
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·[1 MKG-XXIVrrECHLAl1 T/01
. 109. A sues B for default against Promissory 113. Art. 16 of the Constitution of India
note. B denies execution of Promissory guarantees equality of opportunity for
note. The questions and also the all citizens in matters of
answers in this example constitute
(A) Employment or appointment
(A) Relevant fact
(B) Marriage and maintenance
(B) Facts in issue
(C) Adoption and succession
(C) Lithograph
(D) Bills of exchange (D) Inheritance and succession
110. A statement which is oral or documentary 114. Abolition of untouchability is enumerated
(or contained in electronic form) which in
suggests any inference as to any fact in (A) Art. 365 of the Constitution of India
issue or relevant fact and which is made
(B) Art. 65 of the Constitution of India
by any of the persons is called
(C) Art. 17 of the Constitution of India
(A) Affidavit
(D) Art. 18 of the Constitution of India
(B) Oath
(C) Admission 115. The fundamental right of the freedom
(D) Statement of the press is implicit in the
111. The parliament may by-law admit into (A) Right to residence
the union or establish new states on (B) Right to speech and expression
such terms and conditions as it thinks (C) Right to assemble peacefully
fit, this provision is in
(D) Right to association
(A) Art. 2 of the Indian Constitution
(B) Art. 12 of the Indian Constitution 116. The Supreme Court held that right to
(C) Art. 22 of the Indian Constitution speedy trial is a fundamental right which
(D) Art. 24 of the Indian Constitution is implicit in the guarantee of life and
personal liberty in
112. Art. 14 permits classification but
prohibits (A) O.K. Basu v. Union of India
(A) Discrimination (B) Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.
(B) Class legislation (C) Ajay Hasia v. Kalid Mujib
(C) Arbitrariness (D) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of
(D) Evasion Bihar
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117. The Part IV of the Constitution set out 121. To litigate with each other to settle a point
the aims and objectives to be taken up concerning a third party is called as
by the States in the governance of the
(A) Interpleader suit in C.P.C.
country are known as
(A) Public Interest Litigation (B) Jurisdiction suit
(B) Directive Principles of State (C) Public interest litigation
Policy (D) Partition suit
(C) Directive Policy of the State
(D) Natural Justice 122. The power or authority of a court of
law to hear and determine a cause or
118. The minimum age which a person
a matter is
must attain for being elected to be the
President of India in addition to other (A) Judgement
qualifications is (B) Jurisdiction
(A) 35 years (B) 40 years
(C) Award
(C) 45 years (D) 50 years
(D) Decree
119. The salaries and allowances of the
Judges of the Supreme Court are fixed 123. Once a matter is finally decided by
by the Constitution and charged on the a competent court, no party can be
(A) Heserve Bank of India permitted to reopen it in a subsequent
(B) Consolidated Fund of India litigation is called as
(C) State Bank of India (A) Habeas corpus
(D) Finance Fund of India (B) Double jeopardy
120. An order by a superior court commanding (C) Res judicata
a person or a public authority to do or (D) Res subjudice
forbear to do something in the nature
of public duty or in certain cases of a 124. Mobilia sequuntur personam means
statutory duty is called
(A) Right to property
(A) Habeas corpus
(B) Mobile is compulsory
(B) Injunction
(C) Mandamus (C) Right to possess mobile
(D) Certiorari (D) Movables follow the person
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125. A private memorial tendered to a court 129. A sworn statement in writing made
in which the person sets forth his cause especially under oath or an affirmation
of action, the exhibition of an action in beforean authorisedofficer or magistrateis
writing is a (A) Affidavit
(A) Plaint
(8) Admission
(8) Procedure
(C) Confession
(C) Res subjudice
(0) Oral statement
(0) Jurisdiction
130. Under Order 38 Rule 12, a court cannot
126. The contents and particulars in a plaint
are explained in order attachment or production of
(A) Rule 2 to 8 of Order 8 (A) Confidential documents
(8) Rule 1 to 8 of Order 7 (8) Personal jewellery in possession
(C) Rule 3 to 8 of Order 9 of a family
(0) Rule 4 to 8 of Order 10 (C) Currency notes
127. The object of issuing summons by the (0) Agricultural produce in possession
court is to of an agriculturist
(A) Give the defendant an opportunity
as to what he has to say against 131. An injunction can only be issued against
the prayer made by the plaintiff
a party and not against
(8) To arrange for the money to be
given as compensation (A) The state or the government which
(C) To get an opportunity to apply leave is not a party
in his institution
(8) A stranger or a third party
(0) To search a good advocate to
defend his case (C) The head of the family
(0) To a working woman
128. The following is a privileged documents
and they are protected from production
132. The Transfer of Property Act came into
(A) Leave letter of a school student
(8) Confidential communications force on
between a client and his legal (A) 1st July 1982
adviser
(C) Letters between husband and the (8) 1st August 1892
wife (C) 1st July 1882
(0) Confidential communications
between a master and servant (0) 1st July 2002
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133. Transfer of Property Act mainly deals 137. According to Sec. 17 of Transfer of
with Property Act, a direction for accumulation
(A) Transfers of mortgages of income to operate in the life of the
(8) Pledge and hypothecation transferor or
(A) A period of 21 years from the date
(C) Transfers of immovable property
of transfer whichever is longer
(0) Money claims
(8) A period of 18 years from the date
134. The two types of notice are actual notice of transfer whichever is longer
and (C) A period of 32 years from the date
(A) Notice by default of transfer whichever is longer
(8) Void notice (0) A period of 18 years from the date
(C) Constructive notice of transfer whichever is earlier
(0) Voidable notice 138. Sec. 21 of Transfer of Property Act,
describes, when an interest is to take
135. Res nullis means
effect on the happening of an uncertain
(A) Nullified law
event it is
(8) Repealed law
(A) Simple interest
(C) Things valued
(8) Compound interest
(0) Things belonging to nobody
(C) Vested interest
136. Sec. 10 of the Transfer of Property (0) Contingent interest
Act, if any condition is imposed upon
139. According to provisions of the Transfer
the owner restricting the alienation or
of Property Act, 1882, the easement is
enjoyment of property, such condition
a right
is
(A) For the beneficial enjoyment of
(A) Valid
which the right exists
(8) Void
(8) For the sale of the property
(C) Voidable
(C) To mortgage or sell the property
(0) An offence (0) To pledge the property
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140. Sec. 123 of the Transfer of Property Act, 145. Sec. 3 of Evidence Act means any
describes, for the purpose of making a matter expressed or described upon
gift of immovable property, the transfer any substance by means of letters,
must be effected by a registered figures or marks or by more than one
instrument signed by the donor and of these means intended to be used is
(A) Accepted by the donee (A) Evidence (8) Document
(8) Attested by atleast two witness
(C) Crime (D) Cyber
(C) Tax must be paid by the receiver
(D) Probated by the court 146. According to Sec. 25 of Indian Evidence
Act, Confession made to Police Officer
141 . Transfer of ownership in exchange for is
price paid or price promised or part paid (A) Inadmissible (8) Valid
or part promised is
(C) Voidable (D) Useful
(A) Mortgage (8) Lease
(C) Charge (D) Sale 147. A declaration written or verbal made by
a person, as to the cause of his death
142. A system of rules for ascertaining or as to any of the circumstances of the
controverted questions of fact in judicial transaction, which resulted in his death
inquiries is known as is called as
(A) Justice (8) Law (A) Declaration of will
(C) Evidence (D) Future (8) Dying declaration
143. Lex fori means (C) Murder
(A) law of the place of the action (D) Culpable homicide
(8) law of the place of the person
148. Declarations made by a person under
(C) law of the place of the religion expectation of death are presumed to
(D) law of the place of the qualification be true, because
144. A sells his house to 8 for RS.50,000 and (A) He wishes the offenders are to be
executes a sale deed. In a dispute as to punished
the title, if 8 produces before the court the (8) Law knows that he is expecting
sale deed, it becomes death
(A) Hearsay evidence (C) He needs a decent burial
(8) Primary evidence (D) As the victim is sole eye witness,
(C) Secondary evidence exclusion of his evidence defeats
(D) Circumstantial evidence the ends of justice
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Text of page 32
tEl
149. An expert evidence to be relevant and
MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1 T/01
153. Actual and substantial loss without
admissible, the subject is such that infringement to any legal right and in
such cases
expert testimony is necessary and
(A) No action lies
(A) The witness in question is really an (8) Damages given
expert (C) The plaintiff can sue
(D) Court takes the case suo motu
(8) The witness fails to give the
evidence 154. Sec. 363 of IPC provides punishment for
Kidnapping is
(C) Court fail to identify the witness
(A) Imprisonment of either description
(D) More witnessed are needed for a term which may extend to
seven years and shall also be liable
150. Section 58 of Indian Evidence Act lays to fine.
down that (8) Imprisonment of either description
. (A) Expert opinion need not be taken for a term which may extend to
eight years and shall also be liable
(8) Hearsay evidences are admissible to fine.
(C) Facts admitted need not be proved (C) Imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to two years
(D) Of documentary evidence
and shall also be liable to fine.
(D) Imprisonment of either description
151. In tort the suit is for recovery of
for a term which may extend to
(A) Goods lost three years and shall also be liable
(8) Money stolen to fine.
(C) Unliquidated damages 155. Two dogs were fighting and the
defendant was trying to separate them
(D) Special damages
with a stick and the plaintiff looking from
152. Capacity residing in one person of behind. When the defendant was rising
the stick to his shoulders to separate the
controlling with assent and assistance
dogs, he hit the plaintiff who was looking
of the state the action of others is a on from behind. The injury happened to
(A) Wrongful Act plaintiff is
(A) Necessity
(8) Offence
(8) Gods Act
(C) Legal Right (C) Inevitable accident
(D) Privilege (D) Grievous hurt
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Text of page 34
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156. 'Actio personalis motiiur cum persona' 160. Justification is the plea that the words
means
complained of are in substance or in fact
(A) Gift done at the death bed is not
are true. It is a complete defence in an
valid
action for
(B) Action and reactions gives the
same remedy (A) Negligence
(C) When death occurs that results in (B) Libel
damages (C) Strict liability
(D) Action for damages came to an end (D) Battery
with the death of the parties
161. The leading case on the subject of strict
157. The master is liable forthe tort committed
by his servant, if the servant committed liability is
the tort (A) Asby v. State
(A) Acting in the course of employment (B) Chasemore v. Richards
of his master
(C) Derry v. Peek
(B) Acting negligently in the work
(D) Rylands v. Fletcher
(C) With mens rea
(D) Without harming the plaintiff 162. An injury to the right of a person in
possession of property to undisturbed
158. The unlawful laying of hands on another enjoyment of it and results from an
or an attempt to render corporal hurt to improper use by another person of his
another, coupled with present ability own property is called
and intention to do the act is (A) Nervous shock
(A) Hurt (B) Remoteness of damage
(B) Assault (C) Nuisance
(D) Hurt
(C) Grievous hurt
(D) Battery 163. A schoolmaster caned a student who
had, contrary to the school regulations,
159. A verbal or oral statement in transitory been smoking in the street during the
forms intending to injure the reputation time after having returned home. The
action of the teacher was regarded as
of another without lawful jurisdiction or
(A) Quasi parental authority
excuse is
(B) Nuisance
(A) Libel (B) Assault (C) Defamation
(C) Battery (D) Slander (D) Assault
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.[1 MKG-XXIV ITECHLAl1 T/01
164. A house surgeon caused the death of a 168. A promises to sell his car to 8 for
patient by negligently injecting a wrong Rs. 20,000. His consent is obtained by
medicine force, this contract is
(A) He is liable to pay damages (A) Valid
(8) The hospital authorities were held (8) Void
liable (C) Legal
(C) It was an inevitable accident (D) Voidable at the option of A
(D) Doctors authority can not be
169. S sent his servant L to trace his missing
questioned
nephew. He then announced that
anybody who traced his nephew would
165. Two persons jointly wrote a letter
be entitled to a certain amount. L traced
containing defamatory matter about
the boy in ignorance of this reward. He
the plaintiff and sent the same to him
by registered post. The court held that claimed it
(A) There was no publication so no (A) He was entitled for the reward
defamation (8) He was not entitled for the reward
(8) There was publication so (C) There is the breach of contract
defamation (D) The contract is ab initio
(C) Publication is not an issue
170. A offers to 8, I will sell my car for
(D) Post office is liable
Rs. 50,000 and 8 replies I will purchase
166. Parties to a contract make the law for it for Rs. 45,000. This is
themselves, so long as they (A) Offer
(A) do not infringe some legal (8) Acceptance
prohibition (C) Not an offer
(8) do not infringe some friendship (D) Not an acceptance and amounts to
matters a counter offer
(C) are in the contractual liability 171. A borrows from 8 Rs. 100 at 20 percent
(D) are bound by the agreement per annum, but fails to pay the
amount. When 8 is about to file a suit,
167. A has two horses namely Rajhans A agrees to pay a higher rate of interest,
and Hansraj. A is selling Rajhans to 8, 8 as a result does not file the suit. This
8 thinks he is purchasing horse Hansraj,
forbearance on the part of 8 to file a
here there is no between the
suit is
parties.
(A) Offer
(A) Dispute
(8) Acceptance
(8) Ubi jus ibi idem remedium
(C) Sufficient consideration
(C) Audi alteram partem
(D) Consensus ad idem (D) Communication
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Text of page 38
[I MKG-XXIV fTECHLAl1 T/01
172. Agreements entered into by persons of 176. A promised to obtain an employment
unsound mind are to B in a public office and B promised
(A) Valid (B) Void to pay A, sum of Rs. 1,000. Held the
(C) Voidable (0) Not legal agreement is illegal and
(A) Immoral
173. Consent is free when it is not caused
(B) Invalid
by to coercion, undue influence, fraud,
mistake and (C) Against public policy
(A) Anger (0) Valid
(B) Ignorance
177. An agreement between two parties by
(C) Negligence which one promises to pay money or
(0) Misrepresentation money's worth on the happening of
some uncertain event in consideration
174. A spiritual guru, induced his devotee to gift
of the other party's promise to pay if the
to him the whole of his property in return
event does not happen. This contract is
of a promise of salvation of the devotee. called as
Held the consent of the devotee is given
(A) Wagering agreement
under
(B) Vested contract
(A) Fraud
(C) Valid contract
(B) Coercion
(0) Voidable contract
(C) Undue influence
(0) Mistake 178. When a contract becomes void, the
party who has received any benefit
175. A married woman was given money to under it must return it to the other party
enable her to obtain divorce from her or must compensate the other party by
husband and then to marry the lender, the value of the benefit. This action of
the agreement is the benefit is called as
(A) Valid (A) Performance of the contract
(B) Immoral (B) Restitution
(C) Voidable (C) Compensation
(0) Void (0) Benefit
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Text of page 40
m
179. Contracts which form the consideration 183.
MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1 T/01
When a subordinate legislation goes
or part of the consideration for each beyond the scope of authority conferred
other is called as on the delegate to enact, it is known
as
(A) Valid contracts
(A) Substantive ultra vires
(8) Invalid contracts
(8) Procedural ultra vires
(C) Reciprocal promises
(C) Simple ultra vires
(D) Invalid promises
(D) Complex ultra vires
180. A contracted to sell a large quantity of 184. Antecedent Publicity, Publ ication
potatoes to be grown on his farms. The and Consultation of interests are
crop largely failed, so the contract was the control on delegated
(A) Valid for performance legislation.
(A) Parliamentary control
(8) Void ab initio
(8) Judicial control
(C) Discharged by impossibility
(C) Procedural control
(D) Voidable
(D) Legislative control
181. The originator of the great principles of
185. The deciding authority must be impartial
Rule of Law is said to be
and neutral and this principle is
(A) Aristotle (A) Contributory negligence
(8) Plato (8) Rule against bias
(C) Substantive control
(C) Sir Edward Coke
(D) Rule of law
(D) John Austin
186. A judicial order which is issued to a
182. Law made by the great executive
judicial or quasi judicial authority, when
under the powers delegated to it by the such authority exceeds its jurisdiction or
legislature is called as tries to exercise jurisdiction not vested
in it, is called
(A) Delegated Legislation
(A) Habeas corpus
(8) Natural Justice
(8) Certiorari
(C) Discretion
(C) Prohibition
(D) Quasi Judicial Powers (D) Mandamus
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Text of page 42
· .. '
Text of page 47
MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1T/01
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
'{q; ~ ~ ~ wr.f
-47-
Text of page 48
MKG-XXIVITECHLAl1 T/01
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
3.:irl~qlij~~ ¥4~+tI,,!?i~
13. This booklet contains 48 pages. 13. ~ ~ -q 48 ~ ~I
14. Directions: Each question or incomplete 14. ~ :~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~
statement is followed by four alternative 'qR '3W ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ I~ ~
suggested answers or completions. In each -q 31ltfcfi1 M CfiT ~ it
case, you are required to select the one that ~ ~ Q ~ Cf)T~ '3W
correctly answers the question or completes the ~ ~ ~ CfiT~ ~ a:fu: 31ltfcfi1 '3W ~ -q
statement and blacken (e) appropriate circle ~ lfk11Cf>R
~ A, B, C ~ 0 CfiT;fTffi ~ 'Cf>R1T
A, B, CorD by Blue / Black Ball-Point Pen ~ _~ ~ it 'Cf>R1T
(e) cnGT ~ I (~f6liSllfUo
against the question concerned in the Answer
Sheet. (For V.H. candidates corresponding ~q)(p:ml <fi ~ ~110 l'Th;'lTcfin: f{;tfQCfl "«TU
circle will be blackened by the scribe) ~fc'nm\ffltt)
15. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate 15. ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ R1'i;iCh'l ~
'Cf)T 3N-{l
circle against each question. The circle "3Wm I 'rfcRw.rr~~~ R1~ifCM ~ I
should be shaded completely without leaving
any space. The correct method of shading is R1'i;ifCM m 'Cf)T
~ <100 ~ ~ lTCfT~ I
given below .
..,
I Wrong Method Wrong Method Wrong Method Correct Method
~~~~
I O~OO 0000 O@OO oeoo ~~~~
I CfiT3T'HT '3W '£41"1'{4Cf>
~ ~ ~ ~
The Candidate must mark his/her response ~
I after careful consideration.
I ~cnGT~1
I 16. There is only one correct answer to each 16. ~ ~ Cf)T~ ~ ~ ~ '3W ~ I 31ltfcfi1
I question. You should blacken (e) the circle of ~~~A,B,C~D~ln<1ICf>I(~
I
;.. .J
the appropriate column, viz., A, B, C or D. If
you blacken (e) more than one circle against
(e) cnGT ~ I ~
CfiT'Cf>R1T 3lf11 M ~ ~m
anyone question, the answer will be treated ~ it ~ In<1ICf>R~ CfiT ~ (e) it 3lIq<fif
as wrong. ~lJffif~~ I
17. In case of any discrepancy between the 17. ~M~~fR1~~~-q~
English and Hindi versions of any question, 3iffi:~it~~CfiT~~~~ I
the English version will be treated as final/
authentic.
18. Use the space for rough work given in the 18. ~ 'Cf>l""4 ~ ~ ~ >rB t[;f -q ~ ~ ~ Cf)T
Question Booklet only and not on the Answer m~I '3W gff{jCf>1-q"{ ~ 'Cf>l""4 ";f ~ I
Sheet.
19. You are NOT required to mark your answers 19. ~ gfi:dCflI ~ ~ 3W-lCh1 ~ ~ ~ em ~ I
in this Booklet. All answers must be indicated ~~~~-ijtt~1
in the Answer Sheet only.
Go through instructions given in Page No.1 (Facing Page)
-48-Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 48
Source: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board. Question paper published by Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board.