DSSSB 2019: 29 September, Manager
Text of page 1
MKG-XXIV rrECHMMSC/1 T/07 POST CODE / ~ <nls :
Write here Roll Number and Answer Sheet No. 59/15
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'1111 'W8;11lTh m<tt~ ~~ ~
No. of Page
Sections Test Components (sr) i) ~~ 20 2-5
Questions No.
(A) i) General Awareness ii) ll'Rfi:!q; ~ om ~ ~ 20 6 -11
20 2-5 ~
ii) Mental Ability and ReasoningAbility 20 6- 11 tt"
iii) NumericalAptitude and Iii) ~ ~ ~ mGTf.I*R 20 12-15
~
iv)
Data Interpretation
Hindi Languageand ComprehenSion
20
20
12 -15
16-17
iv) ~~ 3ftt.m.. 20 16-17
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v) EnglishLanguageand Comprehension v) 3lfr;;ft ~ 3ftt .m..
JB) Post Specitic Subject-Related
20 18- 19
(Of) ..mc~~-~Wof 100
20 18 -19
20-45
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Questions 100 20-45
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read carefully before actually answering the questions.
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12. No Rough Work Is to be done on the Answer Sheet. 12. ~~<nN~~'Q\-::rtf~t I
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Go through instructions given in Page No. 48 (Back Cover Page)
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Text of page 2
M KG-XXIV rrECHMMSC/1 T/07
~
SECTION -A
r:
i) General Awareness
'..'
1. Which of the following country became 6. Which of the following is the India's third
the first country in the West Asia to highest war time gallantry medal recently
initiate the Indian indigenous system of conferred to IAF Wing Commander
electronic payment RuPay card? Abhinandan Varthaman ?
(A) UAE (A) Param Vir Chakra
(B) Turkey (B) Ashoka Chakra
(C) Yemen
(C) Vir Chakra
(0) None of the above
(0) None of the above
2. Who has become the first Indian to win
7. CANT is related to which of the following
the world title in motorsports ?
sports given below?
(A) Aishwarya Pissay
(A) Kabaddi
(B) Seema Punia
(B) Football
(C) Rahi Sarnobat
(0) None of the above (C) Table Tennis
(0) None of the above
3. Who has won the Best Actress award
in the National Film Award 2019 ? 8. Satyameva Jayate is part of which of
(A) Keerthy Suresh the following Upanishad?
(B) Oeepika Padukone (A) Chandogya Upanishad
(C) Shraddha Kapoor (B) Mundaka Upanishad
(0) None of the above (C) Aitareya Upanishad
(0) None of the above
4. Which film won the "Best Film on Social
Issues" (featurefilms category) title in the 9. The Mars 2020 Rover Mission is part
66th National Film Award 2019?
of
(A) Sarala Virala
(A) NASA's Mars Exploration
(B) Pad Man
Program
(C) Why Me
(B) ISRO's Mars Exploration Program
(0) None of the above
(C) ESA's Mars Exploration Program
5. Which of the following Card need to be (0) None of the above
holded by the immigrants to become a
permanent resident in the United States 10. Who was the first Governor General of
(US) ? India?
(A) Blue Card (A) Warren Hastings
(B) Pink Card (B) Lord Minto
(C) Green Card (C) Lord Irwin
(0) None of the above (0) None of the above
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Text of page 4
MKG-XXIVITECHMMSC/1T/07
~
11. Which of the following is the largest 17. Which of the following statements are
moon of Saturn ?
correct regarding Society for Worldwide
(A) Titan
(B) Tethys Interbank Financial Telecommunication
(C) Mimas (SWIFT) ?
(D) None of the above i. SWIFT isa leadingproviderofsecure
12. Which of the following species of
butterfly recently became the financial messaging services.
Tamil Nadu State butterfly? ii. It is used by all the financial
(A) Southern Bird Wing institutions around the world.
(B) Budha Mayoori
(C) Tamil Yeoman iii. Before SWIFT, Telex was the only
(D) None of the above available means of secure financial
13. Which of the following State has recently data transmission.
launched the Dastak campaign to
eradicate the deadly Acute Encephalitis (A) ii and iii (B) i and iii
Syndrome (AES) and Japanese (C) i, ii and iii (D) iii only
Encephalitis (JE) disease?
(A) Uttar Pradesh 18. Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park
(B) Maharashtra
is situated in
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(A) Andaman
(D) None of the above
(B) Gujarat
14. World Wildlife Day is celebrated every
year on (C) Odisha
(A) June 5th (D) None of the above
(B) August 22nd
(C) March 3rd 19. Which of the following beach in India is
(D) None of the above
the world's largest nesting site for Olive
15. Which of the following rivers are the ridley turtles?
tributaries of Brahmaputra ?
(A) Manas, Jia Bhareli, Subansiri (A) Panamburu, Karnataka
(B) Yamuna, Ramganga, Mahananda (B) Gahirmatha, Odisha
(C) Godavari, Krishna, Aghanashini (C) Baga beach, Goa
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
16. Which of the following statement/s is/
are true about Indian equity benchmark 20. Who recently won the "World Badminton
index Nifty?
Championships 2019" gold in the
1. Nifty is introduced by the National
Stock EXChange(NSE) India. women's single category which was
2. The term Nifty is derived from held at Basel Switzerland?
the combination of two words
(A) P. V. Sindhu
"National" and "Fifty".
(A) 1 only (B) Saina Nehwal
(B) 2 only (C) Gadde Ruthvika Shivani
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
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Text of page 6
MKG-XXIVfTECHMMSC/1T/07 ii) Mental Ability and Reasoning Ability
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MKG-XXIVITECHMMSC/1 T/07
21. ~~~Ch~~"BBtT{1~{CIqdl~ I 25. ~ Cfol~R11~~"B20~ 3fu:~"B 18~
123 : 132.: : 235 : ? 31&R ~ efi:q ~ 31&R ~ ?
(A) 233 (A) 15
(8) 6
(8) 253
(C) 10
(C) 352
(D) 12
(D) 252.
26. ~ ~ R~d ~ ~ ~ 'NAME' q;)
22. ABCD, OPQR ~ ~ t "3'ffi >ICfiT\ 'OYPA' ~ ~ %, "ill 'TEAM' en) -m
WXYZ ~~%I
'1ro~~CfC%~~ ?
(A) EFGH (A) UCDI
(8) STUV (8) UCID
(C) KLMN (C) UICD
(D) QRST (D) UDCI
23. RJ;;fk1f@a
~"B~-m~wlmm% ? 27. ~~ R~a CfC'1ro~ 'economics is
not money' en) 'ka la ho ga', 'demand
(A) A8DF
and supply economics' en) 'rno ta pa ka',
(8) GHJM
'money makes only part' en) 'zi la ne ki',
(C) NOQS 'demand makes supply economics' en)
(D) TUWY 'zi mo ka ta' ~ ~ %, "ill 'demand
only more' ~ ~ -m cp: ~ ~ CRfT
24. ~ 5n = 729 , "ill n cfiTl:rH %
~mmCfCit~% ?
(A) 6 (A) xi ne mo
(B) 8 (8) mo zi ne
(C) 10 (C) ki ne mo
(D) 12 (D) mozi ki
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Text of page 8
MKG-XXIVITECHMMSC/1T/07
If
28. Replace the question mark (?) with the 32. Mohan is the son of Arun's father's
suitable option. sister. Prakash is the son of Reva, who
8,16,28,44, ? is the mother of Vikas and grandmother
(A) 60 (8) 64 of Arun. Pranab is the father of Neela
(C) 62 (D) 66
and the grandfather of Mohan. Reva is
29. In a row of girls, Veena is 12thfrom the the wife of Pranab. How is the wife of
start and 19th from the end. In another Vikas related to the Prakash?
row of girls, Sunitha is 14thfrom the start
(A) Sister
and 20th from the end. How many girls
(8) Sister-in-law
are there in both the rows together ?
(A) 72 (8) 65 (C) Niece
(C) 63 (D) 61 (D) None of these
30. Statement: H ~ I = J > K ~ L 33. What was the day on 1stJanuary, 1901 ?
Conclusions: I. K < H
(A) Monday
II. L ~ I
(8) Wednesday
Then
(C) Sunday
(A) Only conclusion I is true
(D) Tuesday
(8) Only conclusion II is true
(C) Either conclusion I or II is true 34. Ram walks 10m south from his house,
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
turns left and walks 25 m, again turns
31. Pointing towards a girl, Anurag says, left and walks 40 m, then turns right and
"This girl is the daughter of the only walks 5 m to reach the school. In which
child of my father." What is the relation
direction is the school from his house?
of Anurag's wife with the girl?
(A) North
(A) Sister
(8) Aunt (8) South-West
(C) Daughter (C) North-East
(D) Mother (D) East
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Text of page 10
11
35. A and 8 both are walking away from
MKG-XXIVITECHMMSC/1 T/07
38. Statements: Some houses are offices.
point X. A walked 3 m and 8 walked Some offices are schools.
Conclusions:
4 m from it,'then A walked 4 m North of
I. Some schools are houses.
X and 8 walked 5 m South of A. What is II. Some offices are houses.
the distance between them now? III. No house is school.
IV. Some schools are offices.
(A) 9.5m
(A) Only II and III follows
(8) 9m (8) Only I and IV follow
(C) 16m (C) Only either III or IV and I follow
(0) Only II and IV and either I or III
(0) 11.40 m
follows
36. If the 7th day of a month is three days 39. Who is the tallest among 6 boys P, T,
N, 0, Q and R?
earlier than Friday, what day will it be
I. P is taller than 0 and N but not as
on the 19th day of the month?
tall as T.
(A) Sunday II. R is taller than Q but not as tall as T.
III. Q is not taller than T and R.
(8) Monday
Which of the statements are sufficient
(C) Wednesday to answer the above question?
(0) Friday (A) Only I and II
(8) Only II and III
37. There are some benches in a classroom. (C) Only I and III
If 4 students sit on each bench, then (0) All I, II and III
3 benches are left unoccupied. However, 40. How many 6's are there in the following
number sequence which are immediately
if 3 students sit on each bench,
preceded by 1 or 5 and immediately
3 students are left standing. How many followed by 3 or 9 ?
students are there in the class? 26375642961341639156923
1654321967163
(A) 36
(A) Three
(8) 48 (8) One
(C) 56 (C) Two
(0) None
(0) 64
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Text of page 12
MKG-XXIVfTECHMMSC/1T/07
iii) Numerical Aptitude and Data Interpretation
41. The difference between the squares of 46. If 50 is subtracted from two-third of a
number, the result is equal to sum of 40
two consecutive odd integers is always
and one-fourth of that number. What is
divisible by. the number?
(A) 174 (8) 216
(A) 3 (8) 6 (C) 246 (0) 336
(C) 7 (0) 8
47. Choose the correct alternative.
325,259,204,160,127,105, ?
42. If --144 = -,
14.4 t hen th e va If'
ue 0 x IS (A) 94 (8) 96
0.144 x (C) 98 (0) 100
(A) 0.0144 (8) 1.44 48. Choose the missing term.
AZ, CX, FU,?
(C) 14.4 (0) 144
(A) IR (8) IV
(C) JQ (0) KP
3x 21
43. If 4x + 5y = 83 and - = - ,
2y 22 49. Find the term which does not fit into the
then y - x = series.
1CV, 5FU, 91T, 15LS, 170R
(A) 3 (8) 4
(A) 5FU (8) 15LS
(C) 7 (0) 11 (C) 91T (0) 170R
50. 14: 9 : : 26: ?
44. If x * Y = x + y + .JXY, the value of (A) 12 (8) 13
6 * 24 is (C) 15 (0) 31
(A) 41 (8) 42 51. Choose the number which is different
from the others in the group.
(C) 43 (0) 44
(A) 48 (8) 12
(C) 36 (0) 59
45. The average of all the numbers between
52. Manik is fourteenth from the right end
6 and 34 which are divisible by 5 is
in a row of 40 boys. What is his position
(A) 18 (8) 20 from the left end ?
(A) 24th (8) 25th
(C) 24 (0) 30 (C) 26th (0) 27th
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Text of page 14
MKG-XXIVrrECHMMSC/1 T/07
Il
53. If A = [~~
o 0 -c
~1
where a :t: 0, b :t: 0,
55. Find the missing character from among
the given alternatives.
C :t: 0 then A-1 =
(A) n~~1 (A) 860 (8) 1140
1 0 0 (C) 2880 (0) 3240
a
(8) o 1 0 56. Find the missing character.
b
1 2 3
1
o 0 4 5 6
c 7 8 9
27 38 ?
(C) [~ ~ J1 (A) 49
(C) 51
(8) 50
(0) 52
57. The sum of prime numbers lying between
.! 0 0 60 and 75 is
a (A) 199 (8) 201
(0) abc 0 1 0 (C) 211 (0) 272
b
1 58. Which of the following has most number
o 0 of divisors?
c
(A) 99 (8) 101
54. If x is real, the minimum value of (C) 176 (0) 182
x2 - 8x + 17 is 59. 617 + 6.017 + 0.617 + 6.0017 =
(A) 6.2963 (8) 62.965
(A) -1 (C) 629.6357 (0) None of these
60. The value of (6 + 6 + 6 + 6) + 6 is equal
(8) 0
4+4+4+4+4
to
(C) 1
(A) 1 (8) 3
4 26
(0) 2 (C) 13 (0) 3-
13
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Text of page 18
MKG-XXIVrrECHMMSC/1T/07
v) English Language and Comprehension
~~3iRitu
Read the following sentences to find out Each question gives a word followed by four
whether, there is any error in them. The error, choices. From the choices, select the most
if any will be in one ~art of the sentence. The suitable synonym for the main word and mark
number of that part IS the answer. its corresponding letter as your answer.
81. Today student counsellorseven receive/
(A) 87. DOGMATIC
freshers at the airport / and offer tips on (A) repugnant (B) doctrinaire
(B) (C) (C) durable (D) flexible
which airlines/ accept excess baggages.
(D) 88. ANTIPATHY
82. Abdul Kalam was / a honour / to his / (A) malice (B) affinity
(A) (B) (C) (C) pseudonym (D) antithesis
profession.
(D) Each question has a word followed by four
choices. From the choices, identify the one
83. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics /
(A) which is opposite in meaning (antonym) to
is a direct offshoot of the / overdose of the main word and mark its corresponding
(B) letter as your answer.
drugs and the more doctors prescribe
(C) 89. FRAGILE
antibiotics / the more likely they are to (A) transgressive (B) protean
pass its resistance to bacteria.
(D) (C) infrangible (D) utopian
84. I shall spend / my remaining life / in the 90. GREGARIOUS
(A) (B) (A) fortuitous (B) equivocal
service/ of the poor and downtrodden.
(C) egregious (D) hostile
(C) (D)
85. Last but not the least,/ we shoulddiscuss Add suitable question tags to the following
(A) (B) statements from among the choices given
thoroughly / the problem of the side below them.
(C)
effects of / the most popular drugs. 91. Let us salvage the current situation,
(D)
---?
86. It took nearly / one and half hour / (A) shall we
(A) (B) (B) won't we
for me to reach office, / as I was caught (C) aren't we
(C) (D)
(D) weren't we
in a traffic jam.
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Text of page 19
\
\
MKG-XXIVITECHMMSC/1T/07
\
92. Sammathi dived into the stream Which of the phrases given below each
question as alternatives should replace the \
fearlessly, ?
phrase underlined in the following sentences
(A) did she (8) does she to make it meaningful and grammatically \
(C) has she (D) didn't she correct.
\
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions 97. The game started before I reached the
from among the choices given below them. stadium. \
(A) will be starting
93. He stood reverence. (8) had started
(C) has started
(A) with (8) on
(D) has been started
(C) in (D) ahead
98. I never drove a car till now, which is
94. Children clamoured sweets. why I feel quite nervous to sit behind
(A) with (8) on the wheel.
(C) for (A) have never driven
(D) underneath
(8) never drive
Identify the grammatically apt sentence from (C) will never drive
among the sentences given below and mark (0) had never driven
its corresponding letter as your answer. (Q. 99 and 100 Do as directed)
95. (A) One of my friends has gone to 99. Identify the complex sentence from
Zambia. among the sentences given below and
mark its corresponding letter as your
(8) Each of the boys were given a answer.
fountain pen.
(A) On seeing the potice he ran away.
(C) Everyone 'of the clerks have (8) Alexander, King of Macedon, tried
applied for casual leave today. to become a world conqueror.
(0) Tobacco and alcohol is not good (C) Only people who rely upon their
for health. own efforts can succeed.
(D) People living in glass houses
96. (A) My friend and colleague, Ani! cannot afford to throw stones.
Mukherji have gone abroad. 100. Identify the imperative sentence from
(8) Each man and each woman have among the sentences given below and
a vote. mark its corresponding letter as your
answer.
(C) Neither Ram nor Govind have any
(A) Will you get out of here or not ?
right to the property.
(8) Shut the door, will you?
(0) Either Mehta or his parents are (C) Tell Sreedhar to come here.
responsible for this. (0) There is no sense in doing that.
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Text of page 20
I
m SECTION-B
MKG·XXIVITECHMMSC/lT/07
Post Specific Subject - Related Questions
I 101. Which of the following is NOT correct 104. Arun Kumar has worked for a local hotel
regarding job analysis? for nearly three years and is interested in
I (A) It is the process of gathering and advancing his career in the organization.
organizing detailed information He notices one day on the bulletin board
I about jobs. that a promotion opportunity in his work
I (8) It helps managers to understand group is available, so he decides to apply
the processes through which jobs for the position. What type of recruiting
I are most effectively performed. method was used?
(C) It is a fundamental input to the human (A) Referral
I resource planning process. (8) Job posting
(D) It results from the design of (C) Direct applicant
recruitment and selection procedures (D) College recruit
for new employees.
105. Which external recruitment technique
102. The approach to job analysis is typically targeted toward higher-level
requires the specification of effective positions?
arid ineffective performance. (A) Public employment agencies
(A) Skill variety (8) Headhunters
(8) Fleischman (C) Advertisements
(C) PAQ (D) Private employment agencies
(D) Critical incidents
106. A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness
103. Judd is a Human Resource Manager because it
responsible for creating a pool of (A) overlooks the passage of time in
qualified applicants from which his regardS to staffing
employer can choose. Judd is involved (8) addresses only the financial impact
in human resource of employment changes
(A) Alternative work arrangements (C) assumes constant increases in
(8) Recruiting worker productivity
(C) Selecting (D) overlooks the potential for changes
(D) Planning in skills needed
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Text of page 22
MKG-XXIVfTECHMMSC/1T/07
11
107. Human Resource Managers generally 110. Ina interview,a panel questions
exert withinthe humanresource several candidates simultaneously.
department and outside the
(A) formal
human resource department.
(8) topical
(A) line authority; staff authority
(8) staff authority; line authority (C) panel
(C) functional authority; line authority (0) mass
(0) staff authority; implied authority
111. Which of the following would most likely
108. What is the type of interview which lists
increase candidate-order errors?
the questions ahead of time?
(A) Applicant gender
(A) Structured interview
(8) Unstructured interview (8) Recruiting pressure
(C) Situational interview (C) Poor first impression
(0) 8ehavioural interview (0) Lack of job knowledge
109. Which of the following questions would
112. Which of the following characteristics
most likely be asked during a stress
of an interview would most likely raise
interview?
(A) "I see that you switched colleges concemsabout interviewdiscrimination?
four times before finally earning (A) Job-related questions
your degree. I think that reflects
(8) Multiple interviewers
an inability to make good decisions
and remain focused. What do you (C) Subjective interview questions
think ?" (0) Standardized interview
(8) "Can you tell me about a time in administration
the past when you used leadership
skillsto handle a difficultsituation ?" 113. The information r-esulting from a job
(C) "Mike and Todd have $ 21 between analysis is used for writing
them. Mike has $ 20 more than
(A) job descriptions
Todd has. How much does Mike
have and how much does Todd (8) corporate objectives
have ?" (C) personnel questionnaires
(0) 'Why are you leaving your current (0) training requirements
position and changing careers ?"
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Text of page 24
MKG-XXIVfTECHMMSC/1T/07
rI
114. Which of the following terms refers to all 118. Which of the following is NOT an
formsof payor rewardsgoingto employees advantage of programmed learning?
and arisingfrom their employment? (A) Training time is significantly
reduced
(A) salary
(8) Trainees can work at their own
(8) employee benefits pace
(C) wage reimbursement (C) Trainees benefit from a skilled
(D) employee compensation coach
(D) Trainees receive immediate
115. All of the following are types of on-the-job feedback
training EXCEPT
119. Air India uses flight simulators to train
(A) programmed learning pilots about airplane equipment and
(8) understudy method safety measures. This is an example of
(C) special assignments (A) on-the-job training
(8) vestibule training
(D) job rotation
(C) virtual reality training
116. A graphic model that presents a precise (D) programmed learning
overview of the knowledge, skills and
120. Which of the following is the primary
behaviors someone would need to disadvantage of using structured
perform a job well is known as interviewsduring the employee selection
(A) scatter plot process?
(A) Higher potential for bias
(8) competency model
(8) Limited validity and reliability
(C) classification table
(C) Inconsistency across candidates
(D) organizational chart (D) Reduced opportunities for asking
tollow-up questions
117. is a detailed study of the job
to determine what specific skills the job 121. Which of the following terms refers to a
requires. group of interviewers working together
to question and rate one applicant?
(A) Needs analysis
(A) serial interview
(8) Task analysis (8) board interview
(C) Training strategy (C) sequential interview
(D) Development planning , (D) mass interview
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122. The primary purpose of conducting a 126. Which of the following terms refers
stress interview is to determine to a performance appraisal based
(A) why an applicant wants to work for on surveys from peers, supervisors,
the firm subordinates and customers?
(8) how an applicant solves complex
(A) 360-degree feedback
problems
(8) team appraisals
(C) why an applicant lied on the
resume (C) upward feedback
(0) how an applicant handles (0) rating committee
criticism
127. All of the following are usually measured
123. Which of the following terms refers to by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT
helping new employees appreciate the
(A) generic dimensions of
values and culture of a firm?
performance
(A) Onboarding
(8) performance of co-workers
(8) Outsourcing
(C) Organizing (C) achievement of objectives
(0) Offshoring (0) job-related competencies
124. SMART goals are best described as 128. Which of the following is NOT a type of
(A) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, direct financial payment?
Relevant and Timely
(A) wages
(B) Straightforward,Meaningful,
(8) insurance
Accessible, Real and Tested
(C) incentives
(C) Supportive, Meaningful, Attainable,
Real and Timely (0) commissions
(0) None of the above
129. Which form of equity refers to how a job's
125. What is the first step of any performance pay rate in one company compares to
appraisal? the job's pay rate in other companies?
(A) Giving feedback (A) distributive
(8) Setting work standards
(8) internal
(C) Making plans to provide training
(C) external
(0) Supportive, meaningful, attainable,
(0) procedural
real and timely
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130. When using the job evaluation method 134. Diversity always involves
of job classification, raters categorize (A) employee's individual differences
jobs into groups of similar jobs called (8) a quota system
(A) classes (C) similarities in product offerings
(8) sections (D) mandatory affirmative action plans
(C) grades
(D) cohorts
135. Looking around the room at a recent
committee meeting, Eileen noticed
131. A manager who assists and advises line that most of the participants were white
managers males, although they differed in their
(A) Organization national origin, their age, their religion
(8) Strategic Plan and their lifestyle. Eileen's Committee is
(C) Staff Manager (A) completely diverse
(D) HR Audit (8) somewhat diverse, but on the low
end of the continuum
132. A StrategicHumanResourceManagement (C) not at all diverse
tool that shows the "big picture" of (D) exactly in the middle of the diversity
how each departments performance continuum
contributes to achieving the company's
overall strategic goals. 136. Under a geocentric staffing model,
(A) Strategic Management (A) host-country nationals are used
(8) Strategic Human Resource heavily because they know the
Management local markets
(C) Strategic Map (8) the organization will have a skeleton
(D) Functional strategy human resource department at the
host-country location, while the
133. The Vice President of HR department home-country human resource
tells a HR Manager to prepare a department retains all control
presentation by the end of the week. (C) the organization seeks to hire the
The Vice President is most likely best person available for a position
exercising which of the following? regardless of where the individual
(A) Staff authority comes from
(8) Procedural authority (D) expatriate home-country nationals
(C) Line authority are hired to fill higher-level foreign
(D) Functional authority positions
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137. Which of the following is NOT likely to 141. Under which needs the customer wants
be a part of a compensation package friends to see him or her as a savvy
designed for an expatriate? consumer?
(A) Housing benefits (A) Stated
(B) Job location assistance for the (B) Real
spouse
(C) Secret
(C) Unlimited travel to and from the
(D) Delight
home country
(D) A hardship premium 142. The process is gathering
and acting upon information about the
138. A laborer who is responsible for
market.
landscaping a local golf course likely
receives (A) Market Sensing
(A) salary (B) New Offering Realization
(B) wage (C) Customer Acquisition
(C) broad incentive pay (D) Fulfillment Management
(D) pension but no worker's
compensation 143. Under which behaviour marketers must
exercise their social conscience in
139. A method of performance specific dealings with customers and
appraisalinvolvesdirectlyassessingeach stakeholders?
employee next to other employees.
(A) Legal
(A) Paired comparison
(B) Ethical
(B) 360-degree
(C) Social responsibility
(C) BARS
(D) Social
(D) Rating
144. are necessary to ensure
140. What is the general method used to
determine the relative value or worth of customer satisfaction and repeat
jobs to an organization? business.
(A) Job analysis (A) Overcoming Objections
(B) Comparable worth (B) Closing
(C) Job evaluation (C) Pre-approach
(D) Compensable factors correct (D) Follow-up and Maintenance
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145. means presenting the 150.
MKG-XXIVrreCHMMSC/1T/07
Exponential Smoothing is
product concept to target consumers, method in forecasting market size.
physically or symbolically and getting (A) Casual Factor Method
their reactions.
(B) Judgemental Method
(A) Concept Development
(C) Linear Method
(B) Concept Testing
(D) Time Based Method
(C) Concept Strategy
(D) Concept Reality 151. Life style is an example of
segmentation.
146. captures the idea of enduring (A) Demographic
and distinct human or emotional
(B) Psychographic
characteristics associated with a brand.
(C) Geographic
(A) Brand Associations
(D) Sociographic
(B) Brand Identity
(C) Brand Image 152. products are those for which
(D) Brand Personality customers have strong brand preference
and very fussy about them.
147. Which advertising focuses only on
(A) Speciality
positive product attributes?
(B) Unsought
(A) One sided (B) Two sided
(C) Shopping
(C) Primacy (D) Recency
(D) Convenience
148. In BCG matrix has low market
153. Price discounts is an example for
growth and high market share.
promotion.
(A) Cash Cows
(A) Advert
(B) Stars
(B) Shelf
(C) Dogs
(C) Consumer
(D) Problem Children
(D) Trade
149. where the firms sends
154. brands are created by producers
the intended message but the receiver
and bear their chosen brand name.
doesn't receive the sent message.
(A) Manufacturer
(A) Encoding Error
(B) Family
(B) DeCOding Error
(C) Individual
(C) Distortion
(D) Mass
(D) Extortion
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163. Under power the manufacturer 167. Which of the following is the first stage
request a behaviour that is warranted of perceptual map approach to targeting?
under the contract. (A) Product perceptions
(A) Coercive (B) Customer need dimensions
(B) Reward (C) Targeting decisions
(C) Legitimate (D) Market segments
(D) Expert
168. Which strategy where firm places
164. Which company used Dutch auction for most marketing efforts downstream
its IPO? on indirect customers, consumers/end
(A) Google users?
(B) IBM (A) Penetration
(C) PWC (B) Skimming
(0) EandY (C) Push
(0) Pull
165. The goal of isto create
a balanced portfolio of high-potential 169. Which differentiation results from added
new product ideas under new product features which give customers benefits
development process. that rivals cannot match?
(A) Idea generation (A) Product
(B) Concept development (B) Price
(C) Preliminary screening
(C) Promotion
(0) Concept testing (0) Place
166. is the value customers
170. When a company adds a similar items to
receive when the brand enhances the
an existing products line with the same
consumption experience.
brand name, it is called as
(A) Post purchase equity
(A) Mix extension
(8) Firm brand equity
(8) Line extension
(C) Pre purchase equity
(C) Product extension
(0) None of these
(0) Product mix extension
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~
171. includes revisions and 175. Magazines frequently bundle CDslDVDs
adjustments of existing products, and other gifts in with the magazine to
make it appear more attractive is called
repositioning and cost reductions.
as price bundling.
(A) Addition to existing lines
(A) Pure
(8) Product replacement
(8) Single
(C) New product lines (C) Double
(D) New to the world products (D) Mixed
172. Under pricing variable 176. Which model recognizes the messages
and fixed cost per unit is added and the which flow through various channels
and that people can influence the
desired profit margin is added to the
direction and impact of a message?
total cost.
(A) Action
(A) Direct cost
(8) Interaction
(8) Going rate
(C) Audience
(C) Full cost (D) Engagement
(D) Market oriented
177. Under demand consumer
173. is a set of learned behaviours dislike the product and may even pay to
avoid it.
that unites a group of people.
(A) Negative
(A) Customs
(8) Latent
(8) Traditions
(C) Full
(C) Conventions
(D) Overfull
(D) Culture
178. is the difference between
174. is the last stage of new the prospective customer's evaluation
product development process. of all the benefits and cost of an offering
and the perceived alternatives.
(A) Idea Generation
(A) Total customer benefits
(8) Screening
(8) Customer perceived value
(C) Commercialization
(C) Value benefits
(D) Test marketing (D) Total customer cost
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179. The market is the set of 183. is the ongoing process of
consumers with a sufficient level of identifying and creating new value with
interest in a market offer. individual customer and sharing these
benefits over a life time of association
(A) Grey
with them.
(B) Ambush
(A) Corporate social responsibility
(C) Potential
(B) Cause related marketing
(D) Ready (C) Customer relationship
management
180. Handling, examining and using the
(D) Meta marketing
product falls in to the category
of major information sources. 184. haspowerto impedeaccess
(A) Experiential to decision makers and influencers.
(A) Buyers
(B) Public
(B) Coach
(C) Commercial
(C) Decision maker
(D) Personal
(D) Gate keepers
181. In which stage of product life cycle 185. The firm sends signals so
there is a rapid market acceptance and that competitors will make decisions
substantial profit improvement? favourable to the firm.
(A) Introduction (A) Pre-Emptive
(B) Growth (B) Tit-For-Tat
(C) Warning
(C) Maturity
(D) Danger
(D) Saturation
186. Firms most often assess
182. In which pricing method the firm bases
fit through ongoing marketing research
its price largely on competitor's prices?
and market testing.
(A) Mark-up (A) Product- Market
(B) Mark-down (6) Product-Company
(C) Going rate (C) Company-Market
(D) Auction type (D) Company-Firm
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~
187. Focus group are one of the most popular 191. Under channel strategy buyers
qualitative data collection methods expectations is factors.
comprises of members. (A) Marketing
(A) 2-3
(B) Manufactu rer
(B) 4-6
(C) Product
(C) 8 -12
(D) Competitive
(D) 10 -15
192. In attacks an aggressor
188. In SERVQUAL variable
attacks unguarded or weakly guarded
highlights on provision of caring and
markets.
individualized attention to customers.
(A) Encirclement
(A) Reliability
(B) Frontal
(B) Responsiveness
(C) Bypass
(C) Assurance
(0) Flanking
(D) Empathy
193. is the sale of the same
189. is the process by which a
goods to many customers, who then
person selects, organizes and interprets
integrate it with other offerings and
sensory stimulation to form a meaningful
redistribute it.
picture of the world.
(A) Originators
(A) Perpetual set
(B) Attribution (B) Syndication
(C) Perception (C) Distributors
(D) Attitude (D) Utilitarians
190. means believability and 194. involvescallingon prospects
trustworthiness. who mayor may not need the product.
(A) Competitiveness (A) Seller cycle
(B) Credibility (B) Buyer cycle
(C) Clarity (C) Cold Canvassing
(D) Consistency (0) Prospectors
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195. Underwhichtheory advertisingis believed
MKG-XXIVrrECHMMSC/1T/07
198. SERVQUAL model used in services
to be capable of increasing sales for a marketing is developed by whom?
brand and for the product class? (A) Gunnar Myrdal
(A) 8rand (8) Alfred Marshal
(8) Product (C) Eugene Von
(C) Strong (D) Parasuraman
(D) Weak
199. Which random sampling where the
196. Which strategy is used to communicate population elements are accorded a
with the range of stakeholders, number and a sample is selected by
such as the local community, trade generating random numbers, which
unions, suppliers, local and national correspond to the individual population
government? elements?
(A) Pull (A) Stratified
(8) Push (8) Snowball
(C) Skimming (C) Simple
(D) Profile (D) Systematic
197. refers to achieving the 200. is the means by which
optimum distribution costs without goods and services can be differentiated
losing decision making authority over from others and so give consumers a
the product. reason to buy.
(A) Control (A) Segmentation
(8) Coverage (8) Positioning
(C) Economies (C) Targeting
(D) Display (D) Relaunching
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
'{tf; ~ ~ ~ ~WR
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
"{tf)~~~~
·47·
Text of page 48
MKG-XXIVfTECHMMSC/1T/07
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
3ui1~ql;(i~~ ti~fq~i ~
13. This booklet contains 48 pages. 13. ~ ~ ~ 48 ~ ~I
14. Directions : Each question or incomplete 14. ~ :~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~
statement is followed by four alternative
suggested answers or completions. In each 'qR ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ I~ ~
case, you are required to select the one that ~ ~ M ~ q:;) ~ ~ \ill" ~ CfiT~ ~
correctly answers the question or completes the ~~ ~ q:;) ~ ~ 31tt ~ '3m ~ ~
statement and blacken (e) appropriate circle ~ lnt'llCflI{ ~ A, B, C <IT 0 q:;) -;:fl~,nrrCfiR1T
A, B, C or 0 by Blue / Black Ball-Point Pen
against the question concerned in the Answer ~-~ ¢, -B~ (e) ~ ~ I (~i!uRm
Sheet. (For V.H. candidates corresponding J¥O¥ftqcml cii ~ liTf1'f 11l"Rf('fiT\ ~ "[m
circle will be blackened by the scribe) qm;rr~~)
.
15. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate
circle against each question. The circle
15. m"Wo1 ~ 00 ~ ~ <:fiT~~iCf)r{ ~ 3N-!T
should be shaded completely without leaving ~~ 1<fl<R~~~~Rl~ifcM~ I
any space. The correct method of shading is
Rl~ifcM~ <:fiT~ ~ ~ ~ l](il ~ I
given below.
---.,
I Wrong Method Wrong Method II Wrong Method II Correct Methodl ~~~~
I I o ~ 0 0 00 0 0 II0 @ 0 0110•0 0 I ~~~~
I
The Candidate must mark his/her response ~ CfiT 31'RT ~ t:41'"1l(ciCfl-@:q~ ~ ~
I after careful consideration.
I ~Cfi8l~1
I 16. There is only one correct answer to each 16. ~~CfiT~~~~~~ I ~
I question. You should blacken (e) the circle of
~~ ~A, B, C<n D~ lnt'llCflI{~
I the appropriate column, viz., A, B, Cor D. If
.J
you blacken (e) more than one circle against
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anyone question, the answer will be treated ~ -B ~ lnt'llCflI< ~ q:;) ~ (e) m 3TItfCfiT
as wrong. ~ lJffif l1RT ~ I
17. In case of any discrepancy between the 17. ~M~~~~ ~ ~~~
English and Hindi versions of any question, 3icR~m~~q:;)~~~~ I
the English version will be treated as final/
authentic.
18. Use the space for rough work given in the 18. ~'Cfl'Rt~~~~~~~~~CfiT
Question Booklet only and not on the Answer w:itzT ~ I '3m ~ lR ~ 'Cfl'Rt-;:r~ I
Sheet.
19. You are NOT required to mark your answers 19. ~~cii~~~~~~fl
in this Booklet All answers must be indicated ~~~~-ijtt~1
in the Answer Sheet only.
Go through instructions given in Page No.1 (Facing Page)
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Source: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board. Question paper published by Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board.