Bihar Secondary Teacher 2023: TRE 2.0, Class 9 to 10, Persian
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23/MAV/M–2023–07 Booklet Series
Serial No.
Candidate’s Roll Number
Question Booklet
A
LANGUAGE, GENERAL STUDIES AND PERSIAN
Time Allowed : 2:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet is divided into three Parts—Part–I, Part–II and Part–III. Part–I contains
questions of Language (Qualifying), Part–II contains questions of General Studies and Part–III
contains questions of Persian.
2. Part–I consists of Question Nos. 1 to 30, Part–II consists of Question Nos. 31 to 70 (the questions
and their responses are printed in English and Hindi versions both) and Part–III consists of
Question Nos. 71 to 150.
3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check up your Question
Booklet and ensure that the Question Booklet Series is printed on the top right-hand corner
of the Booklet. Please check that the Booklet contains 40 printed pages including four
pages (Page Nos. 36 to 39) for Rough Work and no page or question is missing or unprinted
or torn or repeated. If you find any defect in this Booklet, get it replaced immediately by a
complete Booklet of the same series.
5. You must write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page. Do not write
anything else on the Question Booklet.
6. An Answer Sheet will be supplied to you separately by the Invigilator to mark the answers. You
must write your Name and other particulars in the space provided on Page–1 of the Answer
Sheet provided, failing which your Answer Sheet will not be evaluated.
7. You should encode your Roll Number and the Question Booklet Series A, B, C or D as it is
printed on the top right-hand corner of the Question Booklet with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen in
the space provided on Page–2 of your Answer Sheet. If you do not encode or fail to encode the
correct series of your Question Booklet, your Answer Sheet will not be evaluated correctly.
8. Each question comprises of five responses—(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You are to select ONLY ONE
correct response and mark it in your Answer Sheet. Your total marks will depend on the number
of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
9. In the Answer Sheet, there are five circles— A , B , C , D and E against each question. To
answer the questions, you are to mark with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen ONLY ONE circle of your
choice for each question. Select only one response for each question and mark it in your Answer
Sheet. If you mark more than one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong.
Use Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen only to mark the answer in the Answer Sheet. Any erasure
or change is not allowed.
10. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from the Question Booklet. You are not allowed to
take this Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the
examination. After the examination has concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator. Thereafter, you are permitted to take away the Question Booklet with you.
11. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or
penalty as the Commission may decide at their discretion.
12. Candidates must assure before leaving the Examination Hall that their Answer Sheets will be kept
in Self Adhesive LDPE Bag and completely packed/sealed in their presence.
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PART—I
( LANGUAGE )
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 and 2) : Fill in 5. Today is Sunday. The day before
the blanks with suitable articles like yesterday was
‘a’, ‘an’ and ‘the’ : (A) Tuesday
1. In this school, all _____ students (B) Friday
are given free education. (C) Thursday
(A) an
(D) More than one of the above
(B) a
(E) None of the above
(C) the
(D) More than one of the above
6. November comes after the
(E) None of the above
month of
2. I have a friend in Mumbai who (A) September
is _____ actress. (B) December
(A) a
(C) January
(B) an
(D) More than one of the above
(C) the
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
7. Husband’s brother is
3. Which of the following is not
(A) cousin
a river?
(A) Bay of Bengal (B) son
(B) Godavari (C) brother-in-law
(C) Ganga (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
8. Mother’s parents are
4. Which of the following is not
a part of drawing room? (A) son-in-laws
(A) Washing machine (B) maternal grandparents
(B) Chimney
(C) paternal grandparents
(C) Sofa set
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
23/MAV/M–2023–07/S3 (S)/114-A 2
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PART—II
( GENERAL STUDIES )
31. The cost of 5 bats and 18 balls is 34. The lengths of two sides of a
R 6,500 and the cost of 2 bats triangle are 8 cm and 9 cm, and
and 20 balls is R 4,200. What its area is 12 5 cm 2 . What is
are the costs of one bat and one the length of the third side?
ball respectively?
(A) R 850, R 125 (A) 5 cm
(B) R 630, R 115
(C) R 780, R 150 (B) 9 cm
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 7 cm
(E) None of the above
32. A shopkeeper purchases an item (D) More than one of the above
at R 615 and sells it at R 820.
What is his percentage profit? (E) None of the above
(A) 25%
(B) 33·33%
(C) 35·50% 35. There are 50 numbers. Each
number is subtracted from 53,
(D) More than one of the above
and the mean of the numbers so
(E) None of the above obtained is found to be -3 × 5.
The mean of the given numbers
33. A hacker finds that the ATM PIN is
of a person has first two digits
ranging from 3 to 8, and the
(A) 56·5
fourth digit is either 0 or 9. How
many attempts must the hacker
try in order to decode the PIN? (B) 53·5
(A) 48
(C) 49·5
(B) 24
(C) 720
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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36. The ratio of the ages of two 39. The Sun observation point of
brothers is 4 : 3. If the elder Aditya-L1 satellite is
brother is 6 years older than the
younger one, then their ages (in (A) L1
years) are
(B) L2
(A) 24, 18
(B) 36, 30 (C) L3
(C) 15, 9 (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
37. The value of 40. Ginger is an underground stem
and not a root because
æ 1ö æ 1ö æ 1ö æ 1ö
ç1 - ÷ ç1 - ÷ ç1 - ÷ L ç1 - ÷
è 2ø è 3ø è 4ø è nø (A) it stores food material
is (B) it has nodes and inter-
n -1 nodes
(A)
n
(C) it lacks chlorophyll
1
(B)
n (D) More than one of the above
1
(C) (E) None of the above
n +1
(D) More than one of the above
41. The focal length of a convex lens
(E) None of the above
is f L = 10 cm. On immersing in
water, it will act as a
38. The quadratic equation with
roots -1 and 4 is (A) convex lens of f L = 10 cm
(A) x 2 - 3x - 4 = 0
(B) concave lens of f L = 10 cm
2
(B) x + 3x + 3 = 0
(C) convex lens of f L > 10 cm
(C) x 2 - 4x + 1 = 0
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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42. Though water is transparent to 44. The speed of an electron in the
visible light, it is not possible to orbit of the hydrogen atom in
see distant objects in fog which the ground state is
consists of fine drops of water.
This is so because (A) c
(B) c /2
(A) fine drops of water are
opaque to visible light (C) c /137
(D) More than one of the above
(B) most of the light is scattered
to create apparent opacity (E) None of the above
(C) light rays suffer total 45. A blackbody radiates energy at
internal reflection and so the rate of E watt per metre 2 at
unable to reach observer’s a high temperature T K. When
eyes the temperature is reduced to
T /3 K, the radiant energy
(D) More than one of the above (in watt per metre 2 ) will be
(A) E /16
(E) None of the above
(B) E /27
(C) E /81
43. Monochromatic light enters from
one medium to the other. Which (D) More than one of the above
one of the following properties
(E) None of the above
does not change?
(A) Frequency 46. The acid which can destroy the
colour of acidic KMnO 4 is
(B) Amplitude (A) CH 3COOH
(B) C 6H 8O 7
(C) Velocity
(C) CH 3CH 2COOH
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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47. Who was the writer of ‘Banglar 50. Azali Assoumani, who attended
Mati, Banglar Jal’, which was the G20 Summit in New Delhi as
originally a protest song against the current Chairperson of the
the Partition of Bengal in 1905 African Union which has
by Lord Curzon, and for which become the newest member of
the West Bengal Assembly G20, is the President of which
passed a resolution as the new country in the African Union?
State Anthem recently?
(A) Kazi Nazrul Islam (A) Republic of the Congo
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Sukanta Bhattacharya (B) Gabon
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (C) Comoros
48. Who is the architect of the new (D) More than one of the above
Parliament of India building
inaugurated recently?
(E) None of the above
(A) Bimal Patel
(B) Rahul Mehrotra
(C) Yogesh Kapoor
51. When is the ‘Human Rights Day’
(D) More than one of the above
celebrated annually?
(E) None of the above
(A) 10th November
49. Which one of the following
Indian films was screened at
the 76th Cannes Film Festival (B) 10th December
in May 2023?
(A) Anurag Kashyap’s Kennedy
(C) 24th October
(B) Kanu Behl’s Agra
(C) Neeraj Pandey’s Khakee (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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52. Who was the founder of ‘Indian 55. In which of the following states
National Army (INA)’? is black soil found?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(A) Karnataka
(B) Mohan Singh
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai (B) Gujarat
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Uttarakhand
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
53. ‘ Tana Bhagat Movement’ was
related to
(E) None of the above
(A) Dalit Movement
(B) Tribal Movement
56. How many types of species of
(C) Peasant Movement flora and fauna are there in
India?
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (A) 81000 species of fauna and
47000 species of flora
54. In which State is ‘Raksha
Bandhan’ celebrated as ‘ Tree (B) 70000 species of fauna and
Safety Day’? 50000 species of flora
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(C) 50000 species of fauna and
(B) Uttar Pradesh 40000 species of flora
(C) Bihar
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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57. Minerals are deposited and 60. Stalactite and stalagmite
accumulated in the strata of structures are formed by
which of the following rocks?
(A) wind action
(A) Sedimentary rocks
(B) underground water
(B) Metamorphic rocks
(C) snow action
(C) Igneous rocks
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
61. April 22 is celebrated as the
58. Which one of the following is a
leguminous crop? (A) World Earth Day
(A) Pulse (B) World Health Day
(B) Jowar (C) World Ozone Day
(C) Millet
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
62. Topographical map of India is
59. Which two of the following prepared by which organization?
extreme locations are connected
(A) The Geological Survey of
by the East-West Corridor?
India
(A) Mumbai and Nagpur
(B) The Survey of India
(B) Mumbai and Kolkata
(C) The Zoological Survey of
(C) Silchar and Porbandar India
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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63. Who first described the Revolt of 67. Who was the President of the
1857 as the ‘First Indian War of Indian National Congress at the
Independence’? Gaya Session of 1922?
(A) V. D. Savarkar (A) Chittaranjan Das
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (B) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(C) R. C. Majumdar (C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
68. Who led the peasants of Bihar
64. Which of the following events
during the Non-Cooperation
happened first?
Movement?
(A) Santhal Rebellion (A) Raj Kumar Shukla
(B) Rebellion of Birsa Munda (B) Swami Vidyanand
(C) Tana Bhagat Movement (C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
65. Which revolt is mentioned in 69. Who founded Hindu College at
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s Calcutta in 1817?
novel, Anandamath? (A) Henry Vivian Derozio
(A) Sannyasi (B) David Hare
(B) Pagalpanthi (C) Jonathan Duncan
(C) Indigo (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 70. Who among the following said
that “Congress is to tottering to
66. When were ‘Swadeshi’ and its fall and one of my great
‘Boycott’ first adopted as forms ambitions while in India is to
of struggle in India? assist it to a peaceful demise”?
(A) Partition of Bengal (A) Dufferin
(B) Home Rule Movement (B) Minto
(C) Non-Cooperation Movement (C) Curzon
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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PART—III
( PERSIAN )
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(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
(E)
(E)
- 75 - 72
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
(E)
(E)
- 76
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(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C)
(C)
(D) (D)
(E)
(E)
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(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(E)
(E)
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(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
(E)
(E)
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(A) (A)
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(C) (C)
(D)
(D)
(E)
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(C)
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(D)
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(E)
(E)
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(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D) (D)
(E)
(E)
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(E)
(E)
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(B) (A)
(C)
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(B)
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(E)
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Bihar Public Service Commission
School Teacher Written (Objective) Competitive Examination (Advt. No. 27/2023)
Examination Date : 08.12.2023
FINAL ANSWER KEY : LANGUAGE, GENERAL STUDIES AND PERSIAN
SERIES - A
1 C 31 A 61 A 91 B 121 A
2 B 32 B 62 B 92 B 122 C
3 A 33 C 63 A 93 D 123 D
4 D 34 C 64 A 94 B 124 C
5 B 35 A 65 A 95 A 125 B
6 E 36 A 66 A 96 C 126 A
7 C 37 B 67 A 97 A 127 D
8 B 38 A 68 B 98 Delete 128 A
9 B 39 A 69 B 99 C 129 A
10 C 40 B 70 C 100 B 130 A
11 A 41 C 71 E 101 D 131 B
12 A 42 B 72 E 102 C 132 E
13 C 43 A 73 A 103 B 133 B
14 B 44 C 74 A 104 C 134 A
15 D 45 C 75 C 105 A 135 B
16 D 46 B 76 E 106 E 136 Delete
17 B 47 B 77 Delete 107 Delete 137 C
18 C 48 A 78 C 108 D 138 B
19 D 49 D 79 E 109 D 139 C
20 D 50 C 80 C 110 B 140 B
21 B 51 B 81 C 111 C 141 C
22 D 52 B 82 E 112 D 142 A
23 E 53 B 83 A 113 D 143 C
24 A 54 C 84 Delete 114 D 144 A
25 A 55 D 85 D 115 D 145 C
26 C 56 A 86 A 116 D 146 C
27 B 57 A 87 A 117 A 147 B
28 A 58 A 88 B 118 D 148 Delete
29 D 59 C 89 E 119 C 149 A
30 A 60 B 90 B 120 B 150 APage 1 of 40
Source: Bihar Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Bihar Public Service Commission.