Bihar Secondary Teacher 2024: TRE 3.0, Class 9 to 10, Music

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12/MAV/M-2024-15 Booklet Series
Candidate’s Roll Number
E Serial No.
Question Booklet
LANGUAGE, GENERAL STUDIES AND MUSIC
Time Allowed : 2:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet is divided into three Parts–Part–I, Part–II and Part–III. Part–I contains questions of
Language (Qualifying), Part–II contains questions of General Studies and Part –III contains questions of
Music.
2. Part–I, Language (Qualifying) consists of Question Nos. 1 to 30. In Part–I, English Language consists of
Question Nos. E-1 to E-8 (common for all), Hindi Language consists of Question Nos. H-9 to H-30, Urdu
Language consists of Question Nos. U-9 to U-30 and Bengali Language consists of Question Nos. B-9 to B-30
(Students are required to choose the questions from any one language out of three languages). Part-II consists
of Question Nos. 31 to 70 and Part-III consists of Question Nos. 71 to 150. (the questions and their responses
are printed in English and Hindi versions both of Part-II and Part-III)
3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. An Answer Sheet has been supplied inside the question booklet to mark the answers. You must write your Roll
Number and other particulars in the space provided in the Answer Sheet, failing which your Answer Sheet will
not be evaluated.
5. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check up your Question Booklet and
attached answer sheet and ensure that the Question Booklet Series is printed on the top right - hand corner of
the Booklet and the series encoded in answer sheet are same. Also please check that the Booklet contains 40
printed pages including two pages (Page Nos. 38 and 39) for Rough Work and no page or question is missing
or unprinted or torn or repeated or question booklet and answer sheet have different series. If you find any
defect in this Booklet, get it replaced immediately by a complete Booklet with OMR sheet of the same series.
6. You must write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page. Do not write anything else on
the Question Booklet.
7. Each question comprises of Five responses– (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You are to select ONLY ONE correct
response and mark it in your Answer Sheet. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct responses
marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
8. In the Answer Sheet, there are Five circles– A , B , C , D and E against each question. To answer the
questions, you are to mark with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen ONLY ONE circle of your choice for each
question. Select only one response for each question and mark it in your Answer Sheet. If you mark more than
one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong. Use Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen only to
mark the answer in the Answer Sheet. Any erasure or change is not allowed.
9. If there is any sort of mistake either of printing or of factual nature, then out of English and Hindi versions of the
questions, the English version will be treated as standard.
10. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from the Question Booklet. You are not allowed to take this
Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the examination. After the
examination has concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Thereafter, you are
permitted to take away the Question Booklet with you.
11. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or penalty as the
Commission may decide at their discretion.
12. Candidates must assure before leaving the Examination Hall that their Answer Sheets will be kept in Self
Adhesive LDPE Bag and completely packed/sealed in their presence.
315 ܶmZ X| : AZwXoem| H$m {hÝXr ê$nmÝVa Bg nwpñVH$m Ho$ ApÝV‘ n¥ð> na N>nm h¡&
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PART - I
(English Language)
Directions (Q. Nos. E-1 to E-5) Read the passage E-4. When did Amitabh got recognition as a movie
given below and answer the questions that follow : star in India?
(A) 1966
Amitabh Bachchan, popularly known as big B, was (B) 1969
born in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh on 11 October 1942.
(C) 1973
He is an iconic actor whose career in Indian Cinema
(D) More than one of the above
has spanned four decades. His father H.R. Bachchan
(E) None of the above
was a well-known Hindi poet. (Bachchan is actually
his father’s pen name but has now become the family E-5. Which film of the following is Amitabh’s first
surname) Amitabh attended boys’ High School in film?
Allahabad, followed by Sherwood College in (A) ‘Zanjeer’
Nainital and earned a degree in science from Delhi (B) ‘Abhiman’
university. His first film was ‘Saat Hindustani’(1969). (C) ‘Saat Hindustani’
He became well-known as a movie star in 1973 (D) More than one of the above
after the success of ‘Abhimaan’ and ‘Zanjeer’ which (E) None of the above
was followed by his box office successes such as
Directions (Q. Nos. E-6 and E-7) : Fill in the blanks
‘Sholay’ ‘Amar Akbar Anthony’, ‘Trishul’, ‘Don’
with suitable articles like ‘a’ ‘an’ ‘the’ :
and “Deewar’. He often played the role of an angry
young man fighting a corrupt establishment, a theme E-6. The shadow of moon fills on ______ Earth.
that had tremendous appeal in India at that time. (A) an
(B) a
E-1. Which city is the birth place of Amitabh in
(C) the
India?
(D) More than one of the above
(A) Bombay
(E) None of the above
(B) Delhi
(C) Bangalore E-7. I have always wanted to study abroad, not
(D) More than one of the above only for ____ degree but also for the
(E) None of the above experience.
E-2. How long has Amitabh Bachchan dominated (A) an
Indian Cinema? (B) a
(A) Three decades (C) the
(B) Four decades (D) More than one of the above
(C) Two decades (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above E-8. First May 2024 is Wednesday, what day of
the week would be 9th of May?
E-3. From which university did Amitabh earn his (A) Friday
degree in science? (B) Thursday
(A) Aligarh Muslim University (C) Monday
(B) Banaras Hindu University (D) More than one of the above
(C) Punjab University (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-15/S-315-E 2



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(Urdu Language)
.U-12
19384
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) 1953
.U-13
(A)
U-14 U-9
(B)
(C)
.U-9
(D)
(A)
(E) (B)
(C)
1953 .U-14
(D)
(E)
(A)
.U-10
(B)
(A)
(C) (B)
(D) (C)
(D)
(E)
(E)
.U-11
1941 15
(A)
1999 35
(B)
(C)
(D)
1964 (E)
12/MAV/M-2024-15/S-315-E 6
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.U-18 (2001) 1967 :"(1977)
(A)
1988
(B)
(C)
(D) 1988 1955
(E) 2004
1998 .U-19
(A) U-20 U-15
(B)
(C) .U-15
(D)
(A)
(E)
(B)
.U-20 (C)
(A) (D)
(B) (E)
(C)
(D)
.U-16
(E)
(A)
.U-21 (B)
(C)
(A) (D)
(B)
(E)
(C)
(D)
(E) .U-17
(A)
.U-22 (B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(D) (E)
(E)
12/MAV/M-2024-15/S-315-E 7 [P.T.O.
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.U-27 .U-23
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
(E)
(E)
.U-28
.U-24
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(D)
(E)
.U-29
(A) .U-25
(B) (A)
(C) (B)
(D) (C)
(E) (D)
(E)
.U-30
.U-26
(A)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(E)
(D)
(E)
12/MAV/M-2024-15/S-315-E 8

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(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
12/MAV/M-2024-15/S-315-E 10
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¥öìëûöìSé ŸŸŸé
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(B) þ›%îû&öì£ìîû !‹þ_¢!_«öì†þ
~¥z xyöì¡y îûî#wlyöìíîû †þ!îèþy£ìyëû òòôy™%ëÅóó ~¥z
(C) lyîû#îû !‹þ_¢!_« G ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
òòôy™%ëÅóóöì†þ îûî#wlyí òò¡y!¡•þÄóó öíöì†þ þ›,í†þ
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
†þöìîû !löìëûöìSélÐó
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
B-25. òòôyl%öì£ìîû ™ôÅóó î¡öì•þ îûî#wlyí öîyöìVþl韟Ÿé
B-30. òò¡y!¡•þÄóó ¢·!Øþîû î%Äêþ›!_ !lÁ¬îû*þ›é ŸŸŸé
(A) lyîû#éŸéþ›%îû&öì£ìîû !ô!¡•þ xy™Äy!d†þ ¤y™ly
(A) ¡!¡•þ + £ìøþÄ
(B) þ›%îû&öì£ìîû !‹þ_¢!_« G ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
(B) ¡!¡•þ + ëê
(C) lyîû#éŸéþ›%îû&öì£ìîû !ô!¡•þ ¤yô!@ý̆þ ÷î!¢ÜTÄöì†þ
(C) ¡y!¡•þä + ë
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
12/MAV/M-2024-15/S-315-E 11 [P.T.O.
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PART - II
(GENERAL STUDIES)
31. A player makes 7 complete revolutions of a 3
circular path to complete a race of 2200 2
35. By what number should be divided
metres. The radius of the circular path is : 3
22 4
2
so that the quotient is ?
7 9
(A) 42 metres
2
(B) 45 metres (A)
3
(C) 50 metres
(D) More than one of the above 2
(B)
(E) None of the above 3
3
32. If the capacity of a cylindrical tank is 1848 m3 (C)
2
and the diameter of its base is 14 m, the depth (D) More than one of the above
22 (E) None of the above
of the tank is :
7
1
(A) 8 m 36. If x 5 , what is the value of x 4 14 ?
x x
(B) 12 m (A) 525
(C) 16 m (B) 527
(D) More than one of the above (C) 529
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
1 th 37. A bag contains 5-rupee, 2-rupee and 1-rupee
33. If of a number is 30, what will be 62% of
8 coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The total value of all
that number? the coins is N2,000. How many coins of
(A) 181.3 2-rupee are there in the bag?
(B) 178.24 (A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 148.8
(C) 400
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
34. The salary of an officer is increased by 25%. 38. The interior angle of a regular polygon exceeds
By what percent should the new salary be its exterior angle by 108º. How many sides
decreased to restore the original salary? does the polygon have?
(A) 10
(A) 25
(B) 9
(B) 22.5
(C) 8
(C) 20 (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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39. Zinc Oxide is normally used in the 44. Velocity of sound at 15ºC and 380mm
manufacture of pressure is 340m. sec–1. If the pressure is
(A) Paints doubled without change of temperature, the
(B) Explosives velocity of sound would become
(C) Solvents (A) 680m. sec–1
(D) More than one of the above (B) 170m. sec–1
(E) None of the above (C) 190m. sec
(D) 340m. sec–1
(E) None of the above
40. Lenz’s law is derived from the law of
conservation of
(A) Magnetism 45. If a bacterium cell divides in every 15 min,
(B) Momentum how many bacteria will be formed in 2 hours.
(C) Charge (A) 8
(D) More than one of the above (B) 16
(C) 64
(E) None of the above
(D) 256
(E) None of the above
41. Glycogen stored in liver and muscles of human
body is in form of
(A) Monosaccharide 46. Plants and animal cell differ in which of the
following structure?
(B) Polysaccharide
(A) Enzymes
(C) Protein
(B) Nuclei
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Cell wall
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
42. In which of the following blood has defective
haemoglobin?
47. According to the recent report of forbes,
(A) Haematoma
which is the strongest currency in the world?
(B) Sickle cell Anaemia
(A) Omani Rial
(C) Haemophilia (B) Kuwaiti Dinar
(D) More than one of the above (C) Bahrain Dinar
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
43. In which of the following medicine production,
ethyl alcohol can be used? 48. In which city of Maharashtra did PM
(A) Antiseptic Narendra Modi launch 8 AMRUT projects?
(B) Antipyretic (A) Kollam
(C) Anti-allergic (B) Baroda
(D) More than one of the above (C) Solapur
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
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49. IIT Madras has tied up with whom to launch 54. India has acquired the right to operate the
e Mobility Simulation Lab? foreign Sittwe Port, it is in which country?
(A) Altair (A) Sri Lanka
(B) Starlink (B) Bangladesh
(C) Myanmar
(C) Farber Speciality Lab
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
55. Mangrove forest of Ganga Delta is called
50. Who won the Best Actor Award at the (A) Sunderban
Academy Awards 2024 (Oscars)? (B) Sundergarh
(A) Dwayne Johnson (C) Surendranagar
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Cillian Murphy
(E) None of the above
(C) Tom Cruise
(D) More than one of the above 56. Which river is frequently changing its course
(E) None of the above of flow in Bihar
(A) Gandak
(B) Kosi
51. Who was recently selected as the ICC (C) Punpun
Women’s T20i Cricketer of the year 2023? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Smriti Mandhana (India) (E) None of the above
(B) Nat Seiver - Brunt (England)
(C) Hayley Mathews (West Indies) 57. Plant roots gets water from soil as -
(A) Bound water
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Hygroscopic water
(E) None of the above (C) Capillary water
(D) More than one of the above
52. Who was Crowned Miss World 2024 in (E) None of the above
Mumbai?
58. How much equatorial diameter is larger than
(A) Miss Czech Kristina Pishkova
polar diameter?
(B) Miss India Sini Shetty (A) 36 km
(C) Miss Lebanon Yasmina Zaytoun (B) 43 km
(D) More than one of the above (C) 49 km
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
53. In which country will the clean Energy Investor 59. The Indian Standard Time (IST) is taken at
Forum be organised by IPEF? which longitude -
(A) France (A) 82.5º E
(B) Singapore (B) 78.5º E
(C) Spain (C) 87.5º E
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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60. In India ‘Green revolution’ is known to credit 66. Who intervened in a dispute between the
to whom? workers and mill owners of Ahmedabad in
(A) Dr. V. Kurian 1918?
(B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (A) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Sri. S.L. Bahuguna (B) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) More than one of the above (C) Jamshedji Tata
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
61. Highest Mountain peak of India is known as
(A) Everest 67. Name the left-wing leader of Bihar Provincial
(B) Kanchenjunga Kisan Sabha who popularised this in Bihar?
(C) K-2 (A) Karyanand Sharma
(D) More than one of the above (B) Wadhwa Ram
(E) None of the above (C) P.C. Joshi
(D) More than one of the above
62. Indian continent was earlier part of (E) None of the above
(A) Gondwanaland
(B) Tethys 68. Muddiman Committee was appointed to
(C) Pangea report on the working of the
(D) More than one of the above (A) Dyarchy
(E) None of the above (B) Communal representation
(C) Federalism
63. Who led the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Tatya Tope (E) None of the above
(B) Kunwar Singh
(C) Nana Saheb 69. “He was a great unifier in India who taught
(D) More than one of the above us not only bare tolerance of others but the
(E) None of the above willing acceptance of them as our friends and
comrades in common undertakings” who
64. The spiritual side of nationalism was voiced said it?
by (A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (B) Balgangadhar Tilak
(B) Swami Shraddhanand (C) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Swami Vivekananda (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
70. Who proceeded to organise the Provisional
65. Which newspaper propagated strong Government of Free India outside the
nationalist views during India’s freedom country?
struggle? (A) Raja Mahendra Pratap
(A) Pioneer (B) Rash Behari Bose
(B) Amrit Bazar Patrika (C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) Statesman (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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PART - III
(MUSIC)
71. In the word ‘Naad’ the meaning of the letter 75. In the Sarana Chatushtai, how many strings
‘Na’ is :- did Bharat Muni tied in the Veenas?
(A) Prana Vayu (A) 7-7 strings
(B) Agni Shakti (B) 12-12 strings
(C) Omkar (C) 22-22 strings
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
72. How many shrutis are there in note
76. What is referred to as ‘Ati Swar’?
‘Madhyam’?
(A) Auxiliary sound
(A) 2
(B) 3 (B) Upper partials notes
(C) 4 (C) Over tones
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
73. Which author among the following has 77. Which musician established modern shruti –
mentioned the number of Vikrit swaras as swar system?
five? (A) Acharya Brihaspati
(A) Sharang Dev
(B) Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar
(B) Ahobal
(C) Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande
(C) Venkatmakhi
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
78. Which category do Consonance and
74. The origin place of the notes of the lower
Dissonance belong to?
octave is -
(A) Harmony
(A) Kantha Sthan (Throat area)
(B) Hriday Sthan (Heart area) (B) Melody
(C) Udar Sthan (Abdominal space) (C) Swar-Samvad
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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79. The difference of microtones between the 83. How many Ragas and Raginies are considered
notes ‘Shadja’ and ‘Pancham’ is :- in the ‘Krishna Mat’?
(A) Nine microtones (A) 5 Ragas 36 Raginies
(B) 6 Ragas 30 Raginies
(B) Eleven microtones
(C) 6 Ragas 36 Raginies
(C) Thirteen microtones (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
84. What is meant by the term Raganga?
(A) Musical phrases of Main Raga
80. The proportion between the notes ‘Ma’ and (B) Shadow of Equivalent Ragas
‘Ga’ will be :- (C) Types of Ragas
(A) 9/8 (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(B) 16/15
(C) 10/9 85. Among the following, which classification is
(D) More than one of the above known as Janya Janak Thaat Rag classification?
(A) Raga-Ragini classification
(E) None of the above
(B) Raganga classification
(C) Mel Raag classification
81. Which Thaat has Flate notes of Re, Ga, Dha, (D) More than one of the above
Ni from the following - (E) None of the above
(A) Asawari
(B) Bhairavi 86. In which text is the term ‘Gram Raag’
mentioned for the first time?
(C) Todi (A) Natya Shastra
(D) More than one of the above (B) Brihaddeshi
(E) None of the above (C) Sangeet Ratnakar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
82. In the Raga-Ragini classification, 6 Raags and
36 Raginies are considered according to
87. What falls under the category of Nibaddha
which opinion or Mat?
Gaan?
(A) ‘Shiv Mat’ (A) Prabandha
(B) Kallinath Mat (B) Vastu
(C) Someshwar Mat (C) Rupak
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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88. In Anibaddha Gaan in which type of Alaap 93. In Khyal style of singing, the word ‘Khyal’ is
is the Aavirbhav-Tirobhav shown? originated from which Language?
(A) Ragalap (A) Urdu
(B) Aalapti Gaan (B) Arabi
(C) Rupakalap (C) Pharsi
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
89. How many parts are there in the Prabandh? 94. The singer of the Dhrupad style was :
(A) Two (A) Swami Haridas
(B) Four (B) Miya Tansen
(C) Six (C) Baiju
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
90. According to Sangeet Ratnakar Uttam, 95. The Thumri of the Purab Ang is -
Madhyam and Adham are related to whom? (A) Thumri Punjab and Jaipur
(A) Gayak (B) Thumri of Lucknow and Banaras
(B) Kalawant (C) Thumri of Sindh and Punjab
(C) Vaggeykar (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
96. Which among the following is not a style of
singing?
91. ‘Raagaalap’ falls under which category?
(A) Gat
(A) Nibaddha Gaan
(B) Tappa
(B) Anibaddha Gaan
(C) Paran
(C) Prabandha Gaan
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
97. In Vedic Music, which of the following types
92. The Artist of Gwalior Gharana is - of singing were prevalent?
(A) Ustad Nisar Hussian Khan (A) Sam Gaan
(B) Pandit Krishna Rao Shankar (B) Gatha Gaan
(C) Pandit Raja Bhaiya Puchh Wale (C) Gandharv and Folk
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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98. Among the following the vedic Note is - 102. Which Hindustani Tall is similar to the Carnatic
Taal ‘Atha Taal’?
(A) Krushta
(A) Choutaal
(B) Pratham
(B) Aada choutaal
(C) Dwitiya
(C) Kaharwa
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
99. In Vedic era, which is the predominant in
Veenas? 103. In Carnatic music the lowest form of a Note
is ‘Shuddha’.
(A) Baan Veena
(A) True
(B) Pichhola
(B) False
(C) Kapishirshani
(C) Nonpermanent
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
100. In the Vedic era the musical instrument called
‘Toon’ belongs to which category of 104. What is the equivalent term for the Hindustani
Instruments? Komal ‘Ni’ note in Carnatic music?
(A) Tata (A) Kakli ‘Ni’
(B) Ghana (B) Kaishik ‘Ni’
(C) Sushir (C) Shuddha ‘Ni’
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
101. Which note of ‘Prati Madhyam’ of Carnatic 105. The ancient Ashtottar Talam System belongs
Music is equivalent to Hindustani Music note? to which musical system?
(A) Shuddha Madhyam (A) Vedic Sangeet
(B) Teevra Madhyam (B) Ravindra Sangeet
(C) Komal Madhyam (C) Carnatic Sangeet
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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106. How many microtones are there between the 111. Among the following, the ‘Aashray Raag’ is :-
Vaadi and Samvadi (Sa-Ma and Sa-Pa) notes (A) Bhairav
in a Raag?
(B) Todi
(A) 7 and 9
(C) Kafi
(B) 8 and 11
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 9 and 13
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
112. Music instruments played with bow are -
(A) Israj
107. An example of a ‘Parmel Praveshak’ Raag is -
(B) Sarangi
(A) Raag Jog
(C) Violin
(B) Raag Bhatiyar
(C) Raag Jaijaiwanti (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
113. Which category of Instrument does ‘Jal Tarang’
belong to?
108. An example of a ‘Sandhi Prakash’ Raag is -
(A) Tata
(A) Miya ki Todi
(B) Shyam Kalyan (B) Awanaddha
(C) Madhuvanti (C) Ghana
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
109. In the given notes, the symbolic notation of 114. Orchestra is a style of -
‘meend’ is - (A) Single playing (solo)
(A) (Ga Ma) (B) Duet playing
(B) Ga Ma (C) Group playing
(C)
Ga Ma (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
115. Instruments played with ‘Java’ are
110. How many types of Gamak did Pandit (A) Veena
Sharang Dev mention? (B) Sitar
(A) 10 (C) Sarod
(B) 15 (D) More than one of the above
(C) 20 (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
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116. Among the following, Instruments made of 120. Which Western Musical Notation system is
‘Tumba’ and ‘Dand’ are - prevalent now a days?
(A) Tanpura (A) Solfa and Neumes Notation
(B) Staff Notation
(B) Sitar
(C) Chievh Notation
(C) Surbahar (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
121. How many main types of Harmony are there?
(A) Two
117. Sweet music characterized by sequential (B) Three
singing or playing of notes is called - (C) Four
(D) More than one of the above
(A) Melody
(E) None of the above
(B) Compound Harmony
(C) Simple Harmony 122. Who was the Guru of Pandit Omkarnath
Thakur?
(D) More than one of the above
(A) Pt. D.V. Paluskar
(E) None of the above (B) Pt. V.D. Paluskar
(C) Pt. V.N. Bhatkhande
(D) More than one of the above
118. In western music # symbol indicates -
(E) None of the above
(A) Natural Note
(B) Flat Note 123. Who founded the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya?
(A) Pt. Omkarnath Thakur
(C) Sharp Note
(B) Pt. Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande
(D) More than one of the above (C) Pt. Vishnu Digamber Paluskar
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
119. Scale with equal spacing between twelve 124. Book written by Pandit Vishnu Narayan
notes is - Bhatkhande is -
(A) Natural scale (A) Abhinav Raag Manjari
(B) Lakshya Sangeet
(B) Diatonic scale
(C) Swar Malika
(C) Tempered scale (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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125. Pandit Ram Chatur Mallik was artist of which 129. Who authored the Brihaddeshi Text?
genre?
(A) Narad
(A) Vocalist
(B) Matang
(B) Instrumentalist
(C) Bharat
(C) Dancer
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
130. Which is the text called ‘Saptaddyayi’?
126. Artist from the lineage of Baba Allauddin
(A) Brihaddeshi
Khan is :
(B) Raag Tarangini
(A) Pt. Pannalal Ghosh
(C) Sangeet Ratnakar
(B) Pt. Nikhil Banerji
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Smt. Shishir Kana Dhar Choudhary
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
131. The time period of the composition of ‘Raag
Tarangini’ Text is
127. Book Authored by Pandit Vishnu Digambar (A) 14th century
Paluskar is -
(B) 15th century
(A) Raag Pravesh
(C) 16th century
(B) Nardiya Shiksha Sateek
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Bhartiya Sangeet Lekhan Paddhati
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
132. Which author among the following is also
known as ‘Nishank’?
128. How many chapters are there in the Natya (A) Pt. Lochan
Shastra?
(B) Pt. Sharang Dev
(A) 36
(C) Pt. Sriniwas
(B) 35
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 34
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
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133. How many versions of the ‘Natya Shastra’ 137. Which type of Raag is ‘Raag Shree’?
text are available at present? (A) Parmel Praveshak Raag
(A) 3 versions (B) Sandhi Prakash Raag
(B) 4 versions (C) Aashray Raag
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 5 versions
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 138. Key points of the classical introduction to Raag
Shankara are :
(A) Thata - Bilawal
134. When playing or singing Raag Darbari Kanda
in the higher octave, which other Raag’s (B) Uttarang Pradhan
essence starts to emerge? (C) Jati Audav-Shadav
(D) More than one of the above
(A) Jounpuri
(E) None of the above
(B) Aasawari
(C) Adana 139. Key points of the classical introduction to Taal-
(D) More than one of the above Ektaal are -
(A) 12 Matra Taal
(E) None of the above
(B) Taali on 1st, 3rd and 7th beat
(C) Khali on 9th and 11th beat
135. Which Raag is ‘Madhyam Vadi’ among the (D) More than one of the above
following?
(E) None of the above
(A) Raag Bahar
(B) Raag Gaud Sarang 140. How many times is the symbol ‘Dha’ used in
‘Tritaal’?
(C) Raag Hamir
(A) 4 times
(D) More than one of the above
(B) 6 times
(E) None of the above (C) 8 times
(D) More than one of the above
136. Which Ragas are combined in the Raag (E) None of the above
Shuddha Kalyan?
(A) Raag Bhoopali and Yaman 141. Among the following, Taal with an empty beat
(Khali) and consisting of three claps (Taali) is -
(B) Raag Deshkar and Shyam Kalyan (A) Jhaptaal
(C) Raag Bilawal and Yaman (B) Teentaal
(D) More than one of the above (C) Rupak
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
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142. The term for Kuaad Laya is - 147. People of which tradition sing ‘Nayakwaa’
(A) 5/4 song?
(B) 4/5 (A) Naayi
(C) 3/4 (B) Teli
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Dhobi
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
143. 1½ rhythm is called - (E) None of the above
(A) Sava-gun
(B) Paun-gun 148. ‘Jhakuria’ song is a type of -
(C) Dedh-gun (A) Kajari
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Chaiti
(E) None of the above
(C) Phaag
144. Group of eleven lines in western staff notation (D) More than one of the above
is called - (E) None of the above
(A) G-clef
(B) Clef signature
149. Among the following, the false statement is -
(C) Great Stave
(D) More than one of the above (A) Raag Miya Malhar is a Raag of Sarang
Ang.
(E) None of the above
(B) Raag Bahar is Raag of Kanhada Ang.
145. In western music ‘ ♩’ symbol signifies - (C) Raag Miya Malhar has the same notes
as Raag Bahar has
(A) Hole Tone
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Half Note
(C) Quarter Note (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 150. The use of two notes in three quantities (beats)
is called in western staff notation -
146. The difference between Raag Chhayanat and (A) Triplet
Raag Kamod is -
(B) Duplet
(A) Vadi-Samvadi
(C) Quintuplet
(B) Use of two Madhyamas
(C) Use of Komal Ni, as a vivadi note (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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Text of page 1
Bihar Public Service Commission
Exam Date- 21-07-2024
Advt. No. 22/2024, Music, Class 9-10
Final Answer key
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
E-1 E E-4 E E-3 E E-4 E
E-2 B E-5 B E-4 C E-5 A
E-3 E E-6 E E-5 E E-1 E
E-4 C E-7 A E-1 B E-2 C
E-5 C E-8 A E-2 B E-3 C
E-6 C E-1 A E-7 B E-7 C
E-7 B E-2 B E-8 C E-6 A
E-8 B E-3 B E-6 C E-8 A
H-9 C H-15 A H-19 B H-16 C
H-10 A H-16 C H-20 A H-17 B
H-11 C H-17 A H-21 B H-18 C
H-12 B H-18 B H-22 C H-19 A
H-13 E H-19 E H-23 E H-20 E
H-14 B H-20 B H-24 C H-21 A
H-15 B H-21 B H-25 C H-22 A
H-16 E H-22 E H-26 E H-23 E
H-17 A H-23 C H-27 A H-24 B
H-18 C H-24 A H-28 B H-25 C
H-19 A H-25 C H-29 A H-26 B
H-20 C H-26 A H-30 B H-27 C
H-21 C H-27 A H-9 B H-28 C
H-22 B H-28 B H-10 C H-29 A
H-23 D H-29 D H-11 D H-30 D
H-24 D H-30 D H-12 D H-9 D
H-25 D H-9 D H-13 D H-10 D
H-26 B H-10 B H-14 C H-11 A
H-27 B H-11 B H-15 C H-12 A
H-28 A H-12 C H-16 A H-13 B
H-29 C H-13 A H-17 B H-14 C
H-30 B H-14 B H-18 C H-15 A
U-9 B U-15 B U-19 C U-16 A
U-10 A U-16 C U-20 A U-17 B
U-11 C U-17 A U-21 B U-18 C
U-12 C U-18 A U-22 B U-19 C
U-13 A U-19 C U-23 A U-20 B
U-14 B U-20 B U-24 C U-21 A
U-15 B U-21 B U-25 C U-22 A
U-16 A U-22 C U-26 A U-23 B
U-17 A U-23 C U-27 A U-24 B
U-18 A U-24 C U-28 A U-25 B
U-19 DELETED U-25 DELETED U-29 DELETED U-26 DELETED
U-20 B U-26 B U-30 C U-27 A
U-21 C U-27 A U-9 B U-28 C
U-22 B U-28 B U-10 C U-29 A
U-23 A U-29 C U-11 A U-30 B
U-24 B U-30 B U-12 C U-9 A
U-25 B U-9 B U-13 C U-10 A
U-26 A U-10 C U-14 A U-11 B
U-27 C U-11 A U-15 B U-12 C
Page 1 of 4
Text of page 2
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
As per firozul lughat (famous urdu
dictionary), the "Tedhi Kheer" is
said as Zarbul Masal but Zarbul
Masal is an Arabic word and in
U-28 D U-12 D U-16 D U-13 D urdu it is also said " Kahawat".
Hence Zarbul Masal & Kahawat
are synonyms. So Answer in option
A & B both are correct, therefore
the correct answer is option " D".
U-29 B U-13 B U-17 C U-14 A
U-30 C U-14 A U-18 B U-15 C
B-9 E B-25 E B-28 E B-21 E
B-10 B B-26 B B-29 C B-22 A
B-11 B B-27 B B-30 C B-23 A
B-12 C B-28 A B-9 B B-24 C
B-13 D B-29 D B-10 D B-25 D
B-14 C B-30 A B-11 B B-26 C
B-15 B B-9 B B-12 C B-27 A
B-16 A B-10 C B-13 A B-28 B
B-17 D B-11 D B-14 D B-29 D
B-18 B B-12 B B-15 C B-30 A
B-19 C B-13 A B-16 B B-9 C
B-20 B B-14 B B-17 C B-10 A
B-21 A B-15 C B-18 A B-11 B
B-22 A B-16 C B-19 A B-12 B
B-23 A B-17 C B-20 A B-13 B
B-24 B B-18 B B-21 C B-14 A
B-25 C B-19 A B-22 B B-15 C
B-26 A B-20 C B-23 A B-16 B
B-27 A B-21 C B-24 A B-17 B
B-28 C B-22 A B-25 B B-18 C
B-29 E B-23 E B-26 E B-19 E
B-30 A B-24 C B-27 A B-20 B
31 C 51 A 41 B 61 C
32 B 52 B 42 C 62 A
33 C 53 A 43 B 63 C
34 C 54 A 44 B 64 C
35 B 55 B 45 C 65 A
36 B 56 B 46 C 66 A
37 E 57 E 47 E 67 E
38 A 58 C 48 A 68 B
39 A 59 C 49 A 69 B
40 E 60 E 50 E 70 E
41 B 61 B 51 C 31 A
42 B 62 B 52 C 32 A
43 A 63 C 53 A 33 B
44 D 64 D 54 D 34 D
45 D 65 D 55 D 35 D
46 C 66 A 56 B 36 C
47 B 67 B 57 C 37 A
48 C 68 A 58 B 38 C
49 A 69 C 59 A 39 B
50 B 70 B 60 C 40 A
51 C 31 A 61 B 41 C
Page 2 of 4
Text of page 3
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
52 A 32 C 62 A 42 B
53 B 33 B 63 C 43 A
54 C 34 A 64 B 44 C
55 A 35 C 65 A 45 B
56 B 36 B 66 C 46 A
57 C 37 A 67 B 47 C
58 B 38 B 68 C 48 A
59 A 39 C 69 A 49 B
60 B 40 B 70 C 50 A
61 C 41 A 31 B 51 C
62 DELETED 42 DELETED 32 DELETED 52 DELETED
63 B 43 B 33 C 53 A
64 C 44 A 34 B 54 C
65 B 45 B 35 C 55 A
66 B 46 B 36 C 56 A
67 A 47 C 37 A 57 B
68 A 48 C 38 A 58 B
69 E 49 E 39 E 59 E
70 B 50 B 40 C 60 A
71 A 131 C 101 A 121 B
72 C 132 A 102 B 122 C
73 C 133 A 103 B 123 C
74 B 134 B 104 C 124 A
75 A 135 C 105 A 125 B
76 D 136 D 106 D 126 D
77 C 137 A 107 B 127 C
78 C 138 A 108 B 128 C
79 C 139 A 109 B 129 C
80 B 140 B 110 C 130 A
81 B 141 B 111 C 131 A
82 D 142 D 112 D 132 D
83 C 143 A 113 B 133 C
84 A 144 C 114 A 134 B
85 C 145 A 115 B 135 C
86 B 146 B 116 C 136 A
87 D 147 D 117 D 137 D
88 B 148 B 118 C 138 A
89 C 149 A 119 B 139 C
90 C 150 A 120 B 140 C
91 B 71 B 121 C 141 A
92 D 72 D 122 D 142 D
93 C 73 A 123 B 143 C
94 D 74 D 124 D 144 D
95 B 75 B 125 C 145 A
96 D 76 D 126 D 146 D
97 D 77 D 127 D 147 D
98 D 78 D 128 D 148 D
99 D 79 D 129 D 149 D
100 C 80 A 130 B 150 C
101 B 81 B 131 C 71 A
Page 3 of 4
Text of page 4
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
102 A 82 C 132 A 72 B
103 A 83 C 133 A 73 B
104 B 84 B 134 C 74 A
105 C 85 A 135 B 75 C
106 C 86 A 136 B 76 C
107 C 87 A 137 B 77 C
108 E 88 E 138 E 78 E
109 C 89 A 139 B 79 C
110 B 90 B 140 C 80 A
111 D 91 D 141 D 81 D
112 D 92 D 142 D 82 D
113 C 93 A 143 B 83 C
114 C 94 A 144 B 84 C
115 C 95 A 145 B 85 C
116 D 96 D 146 D 86 D
117 A 97 C 147 A 87 B
118 C 98 A 148 B 88 C
119 C 99 A 149 B 89 C
120 B 100 B 150 C 90 A
121 A 101 C 71 A 91 B
122 B 102 B 72 C 92 A
123 C 103 A 73 B 93 C
124 D 104 D 74 D 94 D
125 A 105 C 75 A 95 B
126 D 106 D 76 D 96 D
127 D 107 D 77 D 97 D
128 A 108 C 78 A 98 B
129 B 109 B 79 C 99 A
130 C 110 A 80 B 100 C
131 B 111 B 81 C 101 A
132 B 112 B 82 C 102 A
133 B 113 B 83 C 103 A
134 C 114 A 84 B 104 C
135 A 115 C 85 A 105 B
136 A 116 C 86 A 106 B
137 B 117 B 87 C 107 A
138 D 118 D 88 D 108 D
139 A 119 C 89 A 109 B
140 B 120 B 90 C 110 A
141 D 121 D 91 D 111 D
142 A 122 C 92 A 112 B
143 C 123 A 93 B 113 C
144 C 124 A 94 B 114 C
145 C 125 A 95 B 115 C
146 A 126 C 96 A 116 B
147 B 127 B 97 C 117 A
148 B 128 B 98 C 118 A
149 A 129 C 99 A 119 B
150 B 130 B 100 C 120 A
Page 4 of 4Page 1 of 40
Source: Bihar Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Bihar Public Service Commission.