Bihar Secondary Teacher 2024: TRE 3.0, Class 9 to 10, Physical Education
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12/MAV/M-2024-11 Booklet Series
Candidate’s Roll Number
E Serial No.
Question Booklet
LANGUAGE, GENERAL STUDIES AND
PHYSICAL EDUCATION
Time Allowed : 2:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet is divided into three Parts–Part–I, Part–II and Part–III. Part–I contains questions of
Language (Qualifying), Part–II contains questions of General Studies and Part–III contains questions of
Physical Education.
2. Part–I, Language (Qualifying) consists of Question Nos. 1 to 30. In Part–I, English Language consists of
Question Nos. E-1 to E-8 (common for all), Hindi Language consists of Question Nos. H-9 to H-30, Urdu
Language consists of Question Nos. U-9 to U-30 and Bengali Language consists of Question Nos. B-9 to B-30
(Students are required to choose the questions from any one language out of three languages). Part-II consists
of Question Nos. 31 to 70 and Part-III consists of Question Nos. 71 to 150. (the questions and their responses
are printed in English and Hindi versions both of Part-II and Part-III)
3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. An Answer Sheet has been supplied inside the question booklet to mark the answers. You must write your Roll
Number and other particulars in the space provided in the Answer Sheet, failing which your Answer Sheet will
not be evaluated.
5. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check up your Question Booklet and
attached answer sheet and ensure that the Question Booklet Series is printed on the top right - hand corner of
the Booklet and the series encoded in answer sheet are same. Also please check that the Booklet contains 48
printed pages including two pages (Page Nos. 46 and 47) for Rough Work and no page or question is missing
or unprinted or torn or repeated or question booklet and answer sheet have different series. If you find any
defect in this Booklet, get it replaced immediately by a complete Booklet with OMR sheet of the same series.
6. You must write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page. Do not write anything else on
the Question Booklet.
7. Each question comprises of Five responses–(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You are to select ONLY ONE correct
response and mark it in your Answer Sheet. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct responses
marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
8. In the Answer Sheet, there are Five circles– A , B , C , D and E against each question. To answer the
questions, you are to mark with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen ONLY ONE circle of your choice for each
question. Select only one response for each question and mark it in your Answer Sheet. If you mark more than
one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong. Use Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen only to
mark the answer in the Answer Sheet. Any erasure or change is not allowed.
9. If there is any sort of mistake either of printing or of factual nature, then out of English and Hindi versions of the
questions, the English version will be treated as standard.
10. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from the Question Booklet. You are not allowed to take this
Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the examination. After the
examination has concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Thereafter, you are
permitted to take away the Question Booklet with you.
11. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or penalty as the
Commission may decide at their discretion.
12. Candidates must assure before leaving the Examination Hall that their Answer Sheets will be kept in Self
Adhesive LDPE Bag and completely packed/sealed in their presence.
311 ܶmZ X| : AZwXoem| H$m {hÝXr ê$nmÝVa Bg nwpñVH$m Ho$ ApÝV‘ n¥ð> na N>nm h¡&
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PART - I
(English Language)
Directions (Q. Nos. E-1 to E-5) Read the passage E-4. When did Amitabh got recognition as a movie
given below and answer the questions that follow : star in India?
(A) 1966
Amitabh Bachchan, popularly known as big B, was
(B) 1969
born in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh on 11 October 1942.
(C) 1973
He is an iconic actor whose career in Indian Cinema
(D) More than one of the above
has spanned four decades. His father H.R. Bachchan
(E) None of the above
was a well-known Hindi poet. (Bachchan is actually
his father’s pen name but has now become the family E-5. Which film of the following is Amitabh’s first
surname) Amitabh attended boys’ High School in film?
Allahabad, followed by Sherwood College in (A) ‘Zanjeer’
Nainital and earned a degree in science from Delhi (B) ‘Abhiman’
university. His first film was ‘Saat Hindustani’(1969). (C) ‘Saat Hindustani’
He became well-known as a movie star in 1973 (D) More than one of the above
after the success of ‘Abhimaan’ and ‘Zanjeer’ which (E) None of the above
was followed by his box office successes such as
Directions (Q. Nos. E-6 and E-7) : Fill in the blanks
‘Sholay’ ‘Amar Akbar Anthony’, ‘Trishul’, ‘Don’
with suitable articles like ‘a’ ‘an’ ‘the’ :
and “Deewar’. He often played the role of an angry
young man fighting a corrupt establishment, a theme E-6. The shadow of moon fills on ______ Earth.
that had tremendous appeal in India at that time. (A) an
(B) a
E-1. Which city is the birth place of Amitabh in
(C) the
India?
(D) More than one of the above
(A) Bombay
(E) None of the above
(B) Delhi
(C) Bangalore E-7. I have always wanted to study abroad, not
(D) More than one of the above only for ____ degree but also for the
(E) None of the above experience.
E-2. How long has Amitabh Bachchan dominated (A) an
Indian Cinema? (B) a
(A) Three decades (C) the
(B) Four decades (D) More than one of the above
(C) Two decades (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above E-8. First May 2024 is Wednesday, what day of
the week would be 9th of May?
E-3. From which university did Amitabh earn his (A) Friday
degree in science? (B) Thursday
(A) Aligarh Muslim University (C) Monday
(B) Banaras Hindu University (D) More than one of the above
(C) Punjab University (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 2
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(Urdu Language)
.U-12
19384
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) 1953
.U-13
(A)
U-14 U-9
(B)
(C)
.U-9
(D)
(A)
(E) (B)
(C)
1953 .U-14
(D)
(E)
(A)
.U-10
(B)
(A)
(C) (B)
(D) (C)
(D)
(E)
(E)
.U-11
1941 15
(A)
1999 35
(B)
(C)
(D)
1964 (E)
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 6
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.U-18 (2001) 1967 :"(1977)
(A)
1988
(B)
(C)
(D) 1988 1955
(E) 2004
1998 .U-19
(A) U-20 U-15
(B)
(C) .U-15
(D)
(A)
(E)
(B)
.U-20 (C)
(A) (D)
(B) (E)
(C)
(D)
.U-16
(E)
(A)
.U-21 (B)
(C)
(A) (D)
(B)
(E)
(C)
(D)
(E) .U-17
(A)
.U-22 (B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(D) (E)
(E)
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 7 [P.T.O.
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.U-27 .U-23
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
(E)
(E)
.U-28
.U-24
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(D)
(E)
.U-29
(A) .U-25
(B) (A)
(C) (B)
(D) (C)
(E) (D)
(E)
.U-30
.U-26
(A)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(E)
(D)
(E)
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 8
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B-18. òòl# + ”†þéŸélyëû†þóó韟Ÿé~‡yöìl ²Ì•þÄëûîm* òòlyëû†þóó B-20. ö˜î#öì˜îû ôöì™Ä ö¤ylyîû æþ¡ !löìÇþþ› †þöìîûl
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(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
B-19. !îîy¥ ’þzþ›¡öìÇþ ö˜îöì˜î#îûy ’þzþ›!ßi•þ ¥l韟Ÿé
B-24. òò!îîy¥éŸé¤ôy¥yîûóó þ›˜!Øþé韟Ÿé
(A) ö˜î¤èþyëû (A) ë%_«þ›˜
(B) öíö줡yîû ˆ,öì¥ (B) ¤ôhßìþ›˜
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(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 10
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òlyîû# xyîû þ›%îû&£ì !ô!¡öìëû öëéŸé¤yô!@ý̆þ ôyl%£ì– B-26. þ›%îûyöì” •þöìþ›yèþDéŸé†þy!¥!lîû ô)öì¡ öëéŸé˜,!ÜTèþ!D
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¥öìëûöìSé ŸŸŸé
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(A) lyîû#îû ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
ö¤¥z ‹þ!†þ•þéŸéxyöì¡yîû ˜#!® !îFS%é!îû•þÐ lyîû#!‹þöì_îû
(B) þ›%îû&öì£ìîû !‹þ_¢!_«öì†þ
~¥z xyöì¡y îûî#wlyöìíîû †þ!îèþy£ìyëû òòôy™%ëÅóó ~¥z
(C) lyîû#îû !‹þ_¢!_« G ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
òòôy™%ëÅóóöì†þ îûî#wlyí òò¡y!¡•þÄóó öíöì†þ þ›,í†þ
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
†þöìîû !löìëûöìSélÐó
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
B-25. òòôyl%öì£ìîû ™ôÅóó î¡öì•þ îûî#wlyí öîyöìVþl韟Ÿé
B-30. òò¡y!¡•þÄóó ¢·!Øþîû î%Äêþ›!_ !lÁ¬îû*þ›é ŸŸŸé
(A) lyîû#éŸéþ›%îû&öì£ìîû !ô!¡•þ xy™Äy!d†þ ¤y™ly
(A) ¡!¡•þ + £ìøþÄ
(B) þ›%îû&öì£ìîû !‹þ_¢!_« G ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
(B) ¡!¡•þ + ëê
(C) lyîû#éŸéþ›%îû&öì£ìîû !ô!¡•þ ¤yô!@ý̆þ ÷î!¢ÜTÄöì†þ
(C) ¡y!¡•þä + ë
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 11 [P.T.O.
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PART - II
(GENERAL STUDIES)
31. A player makes 7 complete revolutions of a 3
circular path to complete a race of 2200 2
35. By what number should be divided
metres. The radius of the circular path is : 3
22 4
2
so that the quotient is ?
7 9
(A) 42 metres
2
(B) 45 metres (A)
3
(C) 50 metres
(D) More than one of the above 2
(B)
(E) None of the above 3
3
32. If the capacity of a cylindrical tank is 1848 m3 (C)
2
and the diameter of its base is 14 m, the depth (D) More than one of the above
22 (E) None of the above
of the tank is :
7
1
(A) 8 m 36. If x 5 , what is the value of x 4 14 ?
x x
(B) 12 m (A) 525
(C) 16 m (B) 527
(D) More than one of the above (C) 529
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
1 th 37. A bag contains 5-rupee, 2-rupee and 1-rupee
33. If of a number is 30, what will be 62% of
8 coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The total value of all
that number? the coins is N2,000. How many coins of
(A) 181.3 2-rupee are there in the bag?
(B) 178.24 (A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 148.8
(C) 400
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
34. The salary of an officer is increased by 25%. 38. The interior angle of a regular polygon exceeds
By what percent should the new salary be its exterior angle by 108º. How many sides
decreased to restore the original salary? does the polygon have?
(A) 10
(A) 25
(B) 9
(B) 22.5
(C) 8
(C) 20 (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 12
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39. Zinc Oxide is normally used in the 44. Velocity of sound at 15ºC and 380mm
manufacture of pressure is 340m. sec–1. If the pressure is
(A) Paints doubled without change of temperature, the
(B) Explosives velocity of sound would become
(C) Solvents (A) 680m. sec–1
(D) More than one of the above (B) 170m. sec–1
(E) None of the above (C) 190m. sec
(D) 340m. sec–1
(E) None of the above
40. Lenz’s law is derived from the law of
conservation of
(A) Magnetism 45. If a bacterium cell divides in every 15 min,
(B) Momentum how many bacteria will be formed in 2 hours.
(C) Charge (A) 8
(D) More than one of the above (B) 16
(C) 64
(E) None of the above
(D) 256
(E) None of the above
41. Glycogen stored in liver and muscles of human
body is in form of
(A) Monosaccharide 46. Plants and animal cell differ in which of the
following structure?
(B) Polysaccharide
(A) Enzymes
(C) Protein
(B) Nuclei
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Cell wall
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
42. In which of the following blood has defective
haemoglobin?
47. According to the recent report of forbes,
(A) Haematoma
which is the strongest currency in the world?
(B) Sickle cell Anaemia
(A) Omani Rial
(C) Haemophilia (B) Kuwaiti Dinar
(D) More than one of the above (C) Bahrain Dinar
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
43. In which of the following medicine production,
ethyl alcohol can be used? 48. In which city of Maharashtra did PM
(A) Antiseptic Narendra Modi launch 8 AMRUT projects?
(B) Antipyretic (A) Kollam
(C) Anti-allergic (B) Baroda
(D) More than one of the above (C) Solapur
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
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49. IIT Madras has tied up with whom to launch 54. India has acquired the right to operate the
e Mobility Simulation Lab? foreign Sittwe Port, it is in which country?
(A) Altair (A) Sri Lanka
(B) Starlink (B) Bangladesh
(C) Myanmar
(C) Farber Speciality Lab
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
55. Mangrove forest of Ganga Delta is called
50. Who won the Best Actor Award at the (A) Sunderban
Academy Awards 2024 (Oscars)? (B) Sundergarh
(A) Dwayne Johnson (C) Surendranagar
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Cillian Murphy
(E) None of the above
(C) Tom Cruise
(D) More than one of the above 56. Which river is frequently changing its course
(E) None of the above of flow in Bihar
(A) Gandak
(B) Kosi
51. Who was recently selected as the ICC (C) Punpun
Women’s T20i Cricketer of the year 2023? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Smriti Mandhana (India) (E) None of the above
(B) Nat Seiver - Brunt (England)
(C) Hayley Mathews (West Indies) 57. Plant roots gets water from soil as -
(A) Bound water
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Hygroscopic water
(E) None of the above (C) Capillary water
(D) More than one of the above
52. Who was Crowned Miss World 2024 in (E) None of the above
Mumbai?
58. How much equatorial diameter is larger than
(A) Miss Czech Kristina Pishkova
polar diameter?
(B) Miss India Sini Shetty (A) 36 km
(C) Miss Lebanon Yasmina Zaytoun (B) 43 km
(D) More than one of the above (C) 49 km
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
53. In which country will the clean Energy Investor 59. The Indian Standard Time (IST) is taken at
Forum be organised by IPEF? which longitude -
(A) France (A) 82.5º E
(B) Singapore (B) 78.5º E
(C) Spain (C) 87.5º E
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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60. In India ‘Green revolution’ is known to credit 66. Who intervened in a dispute between the
to whom? workers and mill owners of Ahmedabad in
(A) Dr. V. Kurian 1918?
(B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (A) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Sri. S.L. Bahuguna (B) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) More than one of the above (C) Jamshedji Tata
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
61. Highest Mountain peak of India is known as
(A) Everest 67. Name the left-wing leader of Bihar Provincial
(B) Kanchenjunga Kisan Sabha who popularised this in Bihar?
(C) K-2 (A) Karyanand Sharma
(D) More than one of the above (B) Wadhwa Ram
(E) None of the above (C) P.C. Joshi
(D) More than one of the above
62. Indian continent was earlier part of (E) None of the above
(A) Gondwanaland
(B) Tethys 68. Muddiman Committee was appointed to
(C) Pangea report on the working of the
(D) More than one of the above (A) Dyarchy
(E) None of the above (B) Communal representation
(C) Federalism
63. Who led the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Tatya Tope (E) None of the above
(B) Kunwar Singh
(C) Nana Saheb 69. “He was a great unifier in India who taught
(D) More than one of the above us not only bare tolerance of others but the
(E) None of the above willing acceptance of them as our friends and
comrades in common undertakings” who
64. The spiritual side of nationalism was voiced said it?
by (A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (B) Balgangadhar Tilak
(B) Swami Shraddhanand (C) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Swami Vivekananda (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
70. Who proceeded to organise the Provisional
65. Which newspaper propagated strong Government of Free India outside the
nationalist views during India’s freedom country?
struggle? (A) Raja Mahendra Pratap
(A) Pioneer (B) Rash Behari Bose
(B) Amrit Bazar Patrika (C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) Statesman (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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PART - III
(PHYSICAL EDUCATION)
71. Assertion A: Physical Education contributes 74. Match the following: Analyze the impact of
to cultural integration by bringing individuals cultural inclusivity on physical education
from different cultures together. programs
i) Traditional games a) Cultural
Reason R: Sports and physical activities
from different understanding
provide opportunities for participants to learn
cultures
about customs, traditions, and ways of life of
ii) Multilingual b) Skill diversity
others.
instruction
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the iii) Inclusive dance c) Social
correct explanation of A forms cohesion
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not iv) Adaptive sports d) Cognitive
the correct explanation of A for diverse abilities development
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(D) More than one of the above (C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
72. What does movement education emphasize 75. How does the integration of e-sports in
regarding individuals’ solutions to problems? physical education contribute to skill
development?
(A) Prescribed methods
(A) It enhances physical skill enhancement
(B) Teacher-guided movements (B) It promotes sedentary behavior
(C) Self-exploration and freedom (C) It enhances cognitive and strategic skills
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
76. In Olympic Value Education, what is the
underlying principle of the value “Pursuit of
73. According to Delbert Oberteuffer, what is Excellence”?
Physical Education? (A) Achieving perfection without
(A) Sum of man’s physical activities acknowledging improvement
(B) Improvement of human performance (B) Continuous self-improvement and
reaching one’s personal best
(C) Integral part of the total educational
(C) Discouraging the acknowledgment of
process
individual achievements
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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77. How does the Olympic value of “Fair Play” 80. Which of the following is correct regarding the
extend beyond sportsmanship in educational role of Olympism in shaping values in
settings? education?
(A) Encourages a competitive mindset (A) Olympism emphasizes individual
achievement
(B) Advocates for equal resource
(B) Olympism promotes respect and
distribution
friendship
(C) Promotes ethical decision-making and
(C) Olympism discourages international
integrity collaboration
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
78. Match the following keeping in mind how the 81. Explain the role of yoga in promoting mental
Olympic values align with the goals of well-being and its potential impact on
education. preventing lifestyle diseases.
i) Joy of Effort a) Moral Values (A) Yoga primarily focuses on physical
ii) Fair Play b) Physical fitness fitness
iii) Respect c) Character (B) Yoga enhances mental clarity and stress
resilience, reducing lifestyle disease risk
for Others development
(C) Yoga has minimal impact on overall
iv) Pursuit of d) Social health
Excellence interaction (D) More than one of the above
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (E) None of the above
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b 82. Correlate different yoga practices with their
(D) More than one of the above potential benefits in preventing lifestyle
(E) None of the above diseases.
i) Asanas a) Improved flexibility
and posture
79. Assertion A: Olympic education fosters
ii) Pranayama b) Stress reduction and
cultural exchange and understanding.
enhanced respiratory
Reason R: Exposure to diverse cultures function
through Olympic values promotes global iii) Meditation c) Increased mindfulness
citizenship. and emotional well-
being
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the
iv) Yoga Nidra d) Enhanced relaxation
correct explanation of A
and better sleep
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not (A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
the correct explanation of A (B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(C) A is correct but R is not correct (C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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83. Explore the connection between specific 85. Provide insights into the potential effects of
lifestyle diseases and the corresponding yoga meditation in yoga on preventing mental health
practices that can help manage or prevent disorders.
them. (A) Meditation has neither positive nor
negative impact on mental health
i) Hypertension a) Meditation
(B) Meditation enhances emotional well-
ii) Diabetes b) Surya Namaskar (Sun being
Salutation) (C) Meditation reduces anxiety and
depression risk
iii) Anxiety and c) Pranayama (Breath
Stress control) (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
iv) Insomnia d) Yoga for relaxation
and Yoga Nidra
86. Explain the importance of adapted physical
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d education for CWSN in fostering their overall
development.
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (A) Adapted physical education has no
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b relevance with respect to CWSN.
(B) Adapted physical education enhances
(D) More than one of the above motor skills, social interaction, and self-
esteem in CWSN
(E) None of the above
(C) Adapted physical education is only for
academic achievement
(D) More than one of the above
84. Explain how the integration of yoga (E) None of the above
philosophy in education can contribute to
preventing lifestyle diseases. 87. Correlate specific disabilities with appropriate
adaptations in physical education for CWSN.
(A) Yoga philosophy has demeaning impact
i) Visual a) Modified equipment
on preventive health measures impairment and tactile cues
(B) Yoga philosophy fosters a holistic ii) Intellectual b) Auditory cues and
disability simplified instructions
approach, promoting self-awareness,
iii) Mobility c) Braille materials and
mindfulness, and healthy lifestyle
impairment sensory activities
choices iv) Hearing d) Individualized
impairment instruction and visual
(C) Yoga philosophy is only for spiritual
aids
development
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(D) More than one of the above (B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(C) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
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88. Explore the connection between different 90. Provide insights into the role of adapted
types of disabilities and appropriate sports or physical education in addressing the unique
physical activities for CWSN. needs of children with intellectual disabilities.
(A) Adapted physical education has limited
i) Autism a) Swimming and water- effects on children with intellectual
spectrum based activities disabilities
disorder
(B) Adapted physical education focuses on
ii) Cerebral b) Team sports with physical fitness only
palsy modified rules (C) Adapted physical education
individualizes instruction, enhances
iii) Down c) Yoga and rhythmic motor skills, and promotes social
syndrome activities interaction in children with intellectual
disabilities
iv) Attention- d) Individual sports with
(D) More than one of the above
deficit/ clear instructions
hyperactivity (E) None of the above
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
91. During intense weightlifting sessions, an athlete
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c experiences muscle fatigue and cramping.
Analyze the potential nutritional deficiency
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b causing these issues.
(D) More than one of the above (A) Magnesium deficiency
(B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
(E) None of the above
(C) Vitamin C deficiency
(D) More than one of the above
89. Provide insights into the potential benefits of (E) None of the above
inclusive sports competitions for CWSN in
mainstream schools. 92. Assertion A: The timing of nutrient intake is
(A) Inclusive sports competitions have crucial for optimizing sports performance.
negative impact on CWSN Reason R: Consuming carbohydrates post-
workout replenishes glycogen stores more
(B) Inclusive sports competitions enhance effectively than pre-workout.
social skills, self-confidence, and peer
relationships in CWSN (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A
(C) Inclusive sports competitions are (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not
exclusively for academic achievement
the correct explanation of A
(D) More than one of the above (C) A is correct but R is not correct
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
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93. Provide insights into the role of sleep in the 95. Elaborate on the significance of cross-training
recovery and overall wellness of athletes. in achieving well-rounded physical fitness.
(A) Cross-training has leads to decline in
(A) Sleep has neither positive nor negative
overall physical fitness
impact on athletic performance or
overall wellness (B) Cross-training enhances cardiovascular
fitness, muscular strength, and reduces
(B) Quality sleep enhances recovery, the risk of overuse injuries
immune function, and mental well-being (C) Cross-training is exclusively for elite
in athletes athletes
(C) Sleep is irrelevant to physical fitness and (D) More than one of the above
wellness (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above 96. Elaborate on the role of self-assessment in
(E) None of the above student development and its contribution to
the cultivation of metacognitive skills.
(A) Self-assessment has no impact on
94. Correlate different components of physical student development
fitness with their contributions to overall health. (B) Self-assessment fosters reflection, self-
awareness, and metacognitive skills,
i) Cardiovascular a) Improved bone enhancing student learning and
fitness density and joint autonomy
health
(C) External assessments are more effective
ii) Muscular b) Efficient metabolism than self-assessment
strength and weight (D) More than one of the above
management (E) None of the above
iii) Flexibility c) Enhanced endurance
and heart health 97. Investigate the drawbacks and benefits of
standardized testing.
iv) Body d) Reduced risk of (A) Standardized testing has no drawbacks
composition chronic diseases and is the most effective measure of
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d student abilities
(B) Standardized testing may introduce
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c biases
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (C) Standardized testing provides a uniform
measure of student performance
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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98. Examine the suitability of different types of 100. Arrange the steps of skill test construction in
tests for Physical Education objectives. ascending order
i) Objective a) Assess higher-order a. Establish the exact procedures for the
tests thinking skills and administration and scoring of the test
problem-solving
b. Analyze the game or physical qualities
abilities
c. Determine the reliability and compute
ii) Subjective b) Measure knowledge
objectivity
tests of specific facts and
recall d. Establish validity
iii) Performance c) Evaluate practical e. Select the test items that measure
tests skills and application desired qualities
of knowledge (A) b, e, a, d, c
iv) Aptitude d) Gauge attitudes, (B) b, e, a, c, d
tests interests, and values
(C) b, a, e, c, d
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(D) More than one of the above
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(E) None of the above
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(D) More than one of the above
101. Explain the importance of understanding
(E) None of the above physiological adaptations to exercise in sports
science
99. Explain the significance of formative (A) Physiological adaptations have little
assessments in the context of Physical meaning in the context of sports
Education. science
(A) Formative assessments are irrelevant in (B) Understanding physiological
this curriculum adaptations aids in optimizing training
programs and improving athletic
(B) Formative assessments offer
performance
continuous feedback
(C) Sports science solely relies on
(C) Aids teachers in adjusting instruction
anatomical knowledge
based on students’ needs
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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102. Explore the relationship between energy systems 104. Elaborate on the role of nutrition in supporting
and types of sports activities. physiological functions and athletic
i) ATP-PC a) Sustained energy for performance
(A) Proper nutrition is essential for energy
system endurance sports
production, muscle repair, and overall
ii) Aerobic b) Quick bursts of energy athletic performance
system for high-intensity (B) Nutrition has no significant impact on
exercises physiological functions or athletic
iii) Oxidative c) Immediate energy for performance
system explosive activities (C) Nutrition is irrelevant in sports science
(D) More than one of the above
iv) Anaerobic d) Predominantly used
(E) None of the above
system during prolonged, low-
intensity activities 105. Investigate the impact of altitude on
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d physiological adaptations in athletes.
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (A) Training at altitude induces adaptations
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b like increased red blood cell
production, enhancing endurance
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Altitude has no significant impact on
(E) None of the above physiological adaptations in athletes
(C) Altitude training is ineffective for
103. Correlate anatomical structures with their physiological adaptations
functions in the context of sports. (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
i) Skeletal a) Facilitates oxygen
system transport and carbon 106. Correlate kinesiological principles with their
dioxide removal application in sports activities.
ii) Nervous b) Provides support, i) Range of a) Harmony of joint
system protection, and motion movements and angles
facilitates movement ii) Muscle b) Evaluation of force
function generation and
iii) Respiratory c) Regulates body
coordination
system temperature and iii) Biomechanical c) Assessment of
electrolyte balance analysis flexibility and joint
iv) Thermoreg- d) Transmits nerve mobility
ulatory system impulses and iv) Coordination d) Understanding muscle
coordinates contractions
movement (A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(A) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d (B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(C) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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107. Explore the impact of body composition on 110. Assertion A: Understanding joint
biomechanical aspects of sports performance. biomechanics is crucial for designing effective
(A) Body composition has a complex exercise programs.
impact on biomechanical aspects of Reason R: Joint biomechanics provide insights
sports performance
into movement patterns, load distribution, and
(B) Optimal body composition influences
injury prevention.
factors like balance, agility, and overall
biomechanical efficiency in sports (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(C) Biomechanics is solely determined by correct explanation of A
muscle strength, not body composition (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not
(D) More than one of the above the correct explanation of A
(E) None of the above (C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) More than one of the above
108. Investigate the role of joint stability in (E) None of the above
preventing injuries and optimizing
biomechanical efficiency. 111. Which Indian wrestler won gold at the Asian
(A) Joint stability has no significant impact Wrestling Championships in 2023?
on injury prevention or biomechanical (A) Aman Sehrawat
efficiency
(B) Rupin Gehlawat
(B) Optimal joint stability is crucial for injury
(C) Vikas Dalal
prevention and enhancing
(D) More than one of the above
biomechanical efficiency in sports
(E) None of the above
(C) Biomechanical efficiency is solely
dependent on joint flexibility, not
stability 112. Who holds the current Indian national record
in men’s 100 m sprint as of 2023?
(D) More than one of the above
(A) Amiya Kumar Mallick
(E) None of the above
(B) Amlan Boroghain
(C) Manikanta Hoblidhar
109. Provide insights into the influence of equipment
design on biomechanical efficiency in sports. (D) More than one of the above
(A) Equipment design has very little impact (E) None of the above
on biomechanical efficiency in sports
(B) Well-designed equipment enhances 113. Who has been elected as the first female
biomechanical efficiency president of Indian Olympic Association
(C) Well-designed equipment helps in (IOA)?
optimizing performance and reducing (A) Mary Kom
injury risks (B) P.T. Usha
(D) More than one of the above (C) Karnam Malleswari
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
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114. The Indian Athletics team qualified for the finals 118. Who is the first Indian woman to be named
of 4 × 400m relay at the World Athletics as a ‘Wisden Cricketer of the Year’?
Championship 2023 with a new Asian record (A) Smriti Mandana
time of: (B) Harmanpreet Kaur
(A) 2:59.18 sec (C) Mithali Raj
(D) More than one of above
(B) 2:59.93 sec
(E) None of the above
(C) 2:58.93 sec
(D) More than one of the above 119. How many medals were won by India at the
(E) None of the above recently concluded Asian Games held in
Hangzhou, China?
(A) 28 Gold, 38 Silver, 41 Bronze
115. Manisha Ramdass is related to which of the
(B) 38 Gold, 28 Silver, 41 Bronze
following:
(C) 28 Gold, 41 Silver, 38 Bronze
(A) Golf (D) More than one of the above
(B) Shooting (E) None of the above
(C) Wrestling
120. Kishore Kumar Jena won the silver medal in
(D) More than one of the above
the men’s javelin throw at the Asian Games
(E) None of the above
with a distance of:
(A) 88.57m
116. ‘Birsa Munda Hockey Stadium’ is located in (B) 87.54m
which state? (C) 85.55m
(A) Karnataka (D) More than one of the above
(B) Uttar Pradesh (E) None of the above
(C) Odisha
121. Explain the role of motivation in sports
(D) More than one of the above performance and its impact on athletes.
(E) None of the above (A) Motivation has limited scope for sports
performance
(B) Motivation influences goal-setting,
117. Kunlavut Vitidsarn who won the India Open
effort, and persistence, significantly
title, is from which country?
impacting athletes’ performance
(A) Japan
(C) Sports performance is solely
(B) Indonesia determined by physical abilities, not
(C) South Korea motivation
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 36
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122. Correlate psychological skills with their 124. Elaborate on the role of leadership in sports
application in sports contexts teams and its impact on team cohesion and
performance.
i) Visualization a) Enhancing
Concentration and (A) Leadership can lead to lack of team
Focus cohesion or performance in sports
(B) Effective leadership positively
ii) Goal setting b) Intrinsic Motivation
influences team cohesion, motivation,
iii) Relaxation c) Mental Imagery and overall performance
techniques (C) Team cohesion is solely determined by
iv) Positive d) Managing anxiety and individual player skills, not leadership
self-talk stress (D) More than one of the above
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (E) None of the above
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
125. The science of values is known as
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(A) Axiology
(D) More than one of the above (B) Sociology
(E) None of the above (C) Ontology
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
123. Examine the role of imagery and visualization
in enhancing motor skill acquisition and
performance. 126. Explain the significance of periodization in
sports training programs.
(A) Imagery and visualization create a
complex structure of motor skill (A) Periodization leads to early peaking in
acquisition sports training programs
(B) Periodization aids in optimizing
(B) Visualization techniques positively
performance by organizing training into
influence motor skill acquisition and
distinct phases, managing fatigue, and
enhance performance by reinforcing
preventing overtraining
neural pathways
(C) Sports training programs are solely
(C) Motor skill acquisition is solely determined by intensity, not
dependent on repetition, not imagery periodization
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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127. Correlate different training methods with their 129. Using multiple steroids at the same time is
specific goals in sports termed as:
i) Circuit a) Improving aerobic (A) Cycling
Training endurance (B) Loading
ii) Plyometric b) Enhancing power (C) Pyramiding
(D) More than one of the above
Exercises and explosive strength
(E) None of the above
iii) Fartlek c) Strength Endurance
training 130. Energy containing organic chemicals formed
as a result of incomplete breakdown of fats is
iv) Intensive d) Anaerobic
called:
interval capacity
(A) Liposis
training
(B) Ketones
(A) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d (C) Ketosis
(B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c (D) More than one of the above
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above 131. The cognitive reason of Plateau in motor
(E) None of the above learning is
(A) Chronic injury
(B) Variety of training
128. Explore the relationship between nutritional
(C) Overload
strategies and their impact on sports training.
(D) More than one of the above
i) Carbohydrate a) Enhancing recovery (E) None of the above
Loading and muscle repair
ii) Protein b) Optimizing energy 132. Diuretics in sports is used for
supplementation stores for endurance (A) To reduce muscle tension level
(B) To increase muscle strength
athletes
(C) To lose body weight
iii) Hydration c) Supporting muscle
(D) More than one of the above
strategies growth and repair
(E) None of the above
iv) Post-exercise d) Maintaining optimal
nutrition fluid balance 133. Which state is going to host the 39th National
Games:
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(A) Meghalaya
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(B) Goa
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 40
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134. Path of Projectile is called? 138. Which of the following statements reflects an
(A) Trajectory accurate understanding of a basic principle of
(B) Force motor development?
(A) Among children, motor skills generally
(C) Parabola
appear automatically and develop at
(D) More than one of the above approximately the same rate
(E) None of the above (B) Motor development is most related to
educational level, e.g., most fifth graders
135. Match the following: will exhibit about the same level of
motor skill development
i) Uniaxial a) Metacarpophalangeal
(C) Individuals reach large-motor skill
Joint Joint
milestones (e.g., walking, running,
ii) Biaxial b) Knee joint jumping) at the same age, but differ
Joint dramatically in fine-motor skill
iii) Multi axial c) Shoulder joint development
Joint (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
iv) Diarthrosis d) Freely movable
joints 139. Which of the following is the smallest of the
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d four muscles in the buttocks?
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d (A) Gluteus minimus
(C) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d (B) Gastrocnemius
(D) More than one of the above (C) Tensor fasciae latae
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
136. ‘Little League Elbow’ is the term related to 140. In NEP 2020, the current 10+2 system to be
(A) Development of muscles of the arm of replaced by a new curricular structure. What
young athletes is the new curricular structure?
(B) Overuse injuries of young athletes (A) 3+4+4+5
(B) 5+3+3+4
(C) Acute injuries of young athletes
(C) 4+3+3+5
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
137. Which one of the following is not a role of the 141. Under the chairmanship of whom ‘Committee
for Evolution of the New Education Policy’
school curriculum in promoting an active,
submitted its report in May 2016?
healthy lifestyle?
(A) Late Shri T.S.R. Subramanian
(A) Teaching motor skills (B) Dr. K. Kasturirangan
(B) Developing leadership roles (C) Rina Ray
(C) Encouraging participation in activities (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 42
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142. The transportation of heat in the body is 147. The process of turning molecules that are
mainly a property of the________ it contains. ingested into forms that are compatible with
(A) Water the organism is ________.
(B) Oxygen (A) Digestion
(C) Pressure
(B) Absorption
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (C) Assimilation
(D) More than one of the above
143. The following are examples of homeostatic (E) None of the above
parameters or body values except which one?
(A) Heart 148. Which of the following is the best activity to
(B) Blood pressure increase muscular endurance?
(C) Blood glucose level
(A) Resistance training using high repetitions
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above and light weight
(B) Resistance training using low repetitions
144. New modified Olympic Oath was taken and heavy weight
considering some desired changes in regard (C) Isotonic resistance training
to drugs and competing for the glory of the (D) More than one of the above
team instead of nation in the Olympic Games (E) None of the above
of
(A) Sydney 2000
149. Which macro mineral helps in hydro balance
(B) Athens 2004
(C) Beijing 2008 in body?
(D) More than one of the above (A) Potassium
(E) None of the above (B) Calcium
(C) Sodium
145. Olympia, site of the games, was also home to (D) More than one of the above
one of the seven wonders of the ancient world.
(E) None of the above
Which wonder was it?
(A) The ivory gold adorned statue of Zeus
sculpted by the legendary Phidias 150. Kinesiology and sports Biomechanics are
(B) The Colossus of Rhodes related with one another in the following
(C) The Olympic Stadium manner:
(D) More than one of the above (A) Kinesiology is a specialized area of
(E) None of the above sports Biomechanics
(B) Sports Biomechanics is a specialized
146. Why is a cool down important after exercise?
(A) To raise resting Heart Rate area of kinesiology
(B) To improve speed (C) Kinesiology and sports Biomechanics
(C) To make muscular contractions are completely different
stronger (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-11/S-311-E 44
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Bihar Public Service Commission
Exam Date- 21-07-2024
Advt. No. 22/2024, Physical Education, Class 9-10
Final Answer key
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
E-1 E E-4 E E-3 E E-4 E
E-2 B E-5 B E-4 C E-5 A
E-3 E E-6 E E-5 E E-1 E
E-4 C E-7 A E-1 B E-2 C
E-5 C E-8 A E-2 B E-3 C
E-6 C E-1 A E-7 B E-7 C
E-7 B E-2 B E-8 C E-6 A
E-8 B E-3 B E-6 C E-8 A
H-9 C H-15 A H-19 B H-16 C
H-10 A H-16 C H-20 A H-17 B
H-11 C H-17 A H-21 B H-18 C
H-12 B H-18 B H-22 C H-19 A
H-13 E H-19 E H-23 E H-20 E
H-14 B H-20 B H-24 C H-21 A
H-15 B H-21 B H-25 C H-22 A
H-16 E H-22 E H-26 E H-23 E
H-17 A H-23 C H-27 A H-24 B
H-18 C H-24 A H-28 B H-25 C
H-19 A H-25 C H-29 A H-26 B
H-20 C H-26 A H-30 B H-27 C
H-21 C H-27 A H-9 B H-28 C
H-22 B H-28 B H-10 C H-29 A
H-23 D H-29 D H-11 D H-30 D
H-24 D H-30 D H-12 D H-9 D
H-25 D H-9 D H-13 D H-10 D
H-26 B H-10 B H-14 C H-11 A
H-27 B H-11 B H-15 C H-12 A
H-28 A H-12 C H-16 A H-13 B
H-29 C H-13 A H-17 B H-14 C
H-30 B H-14 B H-18 C H-15 A
U-9 B U-15 B U-19 C U-16 A
U-10 A U-16 C U-20 A U-17 B
U-11 C U-17 A U-21 B U-18 C
U-12 C U-18 A U-22 B U-19 C
U-13 A U-19 C U-23 A U-20 B
U-14 B U-20 B U-24 C U-21 A
U-15 B U-21 B U-25 C U-22 A
U-16 A U-22 C U-26 A U-23 B
U-17 A U-23 C U-27 A U-24 B
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Text of page 2
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
U-18 A U-24 C U-28 A U-25 B
U-19 DELETED U-25 DELETED U-29 DELETED U-26 DELETED
U-20 B U-26 B U-30 C U-27 A
U-21 C U-27 A U-9 B U-28 C
U-22 B U-28 B U-10 C U-29 A
U-23 A U-29 C U-11 A U-30 B
U-24 B U-30 B U-12 C U-9 A
U-25 B U-9 B U-13 C U-10 A
U-26 A U-10 C U-14 A U-11 B
U-27 C U-11 A U-15 B U-12 C
As per firozul lughat
(famous urdu
dictionary), the
"Tedhi Kheer" is said
as Zarbul Masal but
Zarbul Masal is an
Arabic word and in
urdu it is also said "
U-28 D U-12 D U-16 D U-13 D
Kahawat". Hence
Zarbul Masal &
Kahawat are
synonyms. So Answer
in option A & B both
are correct, therefore
the correct answer is
option " D".
U-29 B U-13 B U-17 C U-14 A
U-30 C U-14 A U-18 B U-15 C
B-9 E B-25 E B-28 E B-21 E
B-10 B B-26 B B-29 C B-22 A
B-11 B B-27 B B-30 C B-23 A
B-12 C B-28 A B-9 B B-24 C
B-13 D B-29 D B-10 D B-25 D
B-14 C B-30 A B-11 B B-26 C
B-15 B B-9 B B-12 C B-27 A
B-16 A B-10 C B-13 A B-28 B
B-17 D B-11 D B-14 D B-29 D
B-18 B B-12 B B-15 C B-30 A
B-19 C B-13 A B-16 B B-9 C
B-20 B B-14 B B-17 C B-10 A
B-21 A B-15 C B-18 A B-11 B
B-22 A B-16 C B-19 A B-12 B
B-23 A B-17 C B-20 A B-13 B
B-24 B B-18 B B-21 C B-14 A
B-25 C B-19 A B-22 B B-15 C
B-26 A B-20 C B-23 A B-16 B
B-27 A B-21 C B-24 A B-17 B
B-28 C B-22 A B-25 B B-18 C
B-29 E B-23 E B-26 E B-19 E
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Text of page 3
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
B-30 A B-24 C B-27 A B-20 B
31 C 51 A 41 B 61 C
32 B 52 B 42 C 62 A
33 C 53 A 43 B 63 C
34 C 54 A 44 B 64 C
35 B 55 B 45 C 65 A
36 B 56 B 46 C 66 A
37 E 57 E 47 E 67 E
38 A 58 C 48 A 68 B
39 A 59 C 49 A 69 B
40 E 60 E 50 E 70 E
41 B 61 B 51 C 31 A
42 B 62 B 52 C 32 A
43 A 63 C 53 A 33 B
44 D 64 D 54 D 34 D
45 D 65 D 55 D 35 D
46 C 66 A 56 B 36 C
47 B 67 B 57 C 37 A
48 C 68 A 58 B 38 C
49 A 69 C 59 A 39 B
50 B 70 B 60 C 40 A
51 C 31 A 61 B 41 C
52 A 32 C 62 A 42 B
53 B 33 B 63 C 43 A
54 C 34 A 64 B 44 C
55 A 35 C 65 A 45 B
56 B 36 B 66 C 46 A
57 C 37 A 67 B 47 C
58 B 38 B 68 C 48 A
59 A 39 C 69 A 49 B
60 B 40 B 70 C 50 A
61 C 41 A 31 B 51 C
62 DELETED 42 DELETED 32 DELETED 52 DELETED
63 B 43 B 33 C 53 A
64 C 44 A 34 B 54 C
65 B 45 B 35 C 55 A
66 B 46 B 36 C 56 A
67 A 47 C 37 A 57 B
68 A 48 C 38 A 58 B
69 E 49 E 39 E 59 E
70 B 50 B 40 C 60 A
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Text of page 4
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
71 A 91 C 101 A 121 B
72 C 92 A 102 B 122 C
73 E 93 E 103 E 123 E
74 C 94 A 104 B 124 C
75 C 95 A 105 B 125 C
76 B 96 B 106 C 126 A
77 C 97 A 107 B 127 C
78 C 98 A 108 B 128 C
79 A 99 C 109 A 129 B
80 B 100 B 110 C 130 A
81 B 101 B 111 C 131 A
82 A 102 C 112 A 132 B
83 A 103 C 113 A 133 B
84 B 104 B 114 C 134 A
85 D 105 D 115 D 135 D
86 B 106 B 116 C 136 A
87 C 107 A 117 B 137 C
88 A 108 C 118 A 138 B
89 B 109 B 119 C 139 A
90 C 110 A 120 B 140 C
91 D 111 D 121 D 141 D
92 C 112 A 122 B 142 C
93 B 113 B 123 C 143 A
94 C 114 A 124 B 144 C
95 B 115 B 125 C 145 A
96 B 116 B 126 C 146 A
97 D 117 D 127 D 147 D
98 C 118 A 128 B 148 C
99 D 119 D 129 D 149 D
100 B 120 B 130 C 150 A
101 B 121 B 131 C 71 A
102 C 122 A 132 B 72 C
103 C 123 A 133 B 73 C
104 A 124 C 134 A 74 B
105 A 125 C 135 A 75 B
106 E 126 E 136 E 76 E
107 D 127 D 137 D 77 D
108 B 128 B 138 C 78 A
109 D 129 D 139 D 79 D
110 C 130 A 140 B 80 C
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Text of page 5
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
111 A 131 C 141 A 81 B
112 C 132 A 142 B 82 C
113 B 133 B 143 C 83 A
114 E 134 E 144 E 84 E
115 E 135 E 145 E 85 E
116 C 136 A 146 B 86 C
117 E 137 E 147 E 87 E
118 B 138 B 148 C 88 A
119 A 139 C 149 A 89 B
120 B 140 B 150 C 90 A
121 B 141 B 71 C 91 A
122 C 142 A 72 B 92 C
123 B 143 B 73 C 93 A
124 B 144 B 74 C 94 A
125 A 145 C 75 A 95 B
126 B 146 B 76 C 96 A
127 A 147 C 77 A 97 B
128 E 148 E 78 E 98 E
129 E 149 E 79 E 99 E
130 B 150 B 80 C 100 A
131 E 71 E 81 E 101 E
132 C 72 A 82 B 102 C
133 A 73 C 83 A 103 B
134 A 74 C 84 A 104 B
135 B 75 B 85 C 105 A
136 B 76 B 86 C 106 A
137 E 77 E 87 E 107 E
138 E 78 E 88 E 108 E
139 A 79 C 89 A 109 B
140 B 80 B 90 C 110 A
141 A 81 C 91 A 111 B
142 A 82 C 92 A 112 B
143 A 83 C 93 A 113 B
144 A 84 C 94 A 114 B
145 A 85 C 95 A 115 B
146 E 86 E 96 E 116 E
147 C 87 A 97 B 117 C
148 A 88 C 98 A 118 B
149 A 89 C 99 A 119 B
150 B 90 B 100 C 120 A
Page 5 of 5Page 1 of 48
Source: Bihar Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Bihar Public Service Commission.