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MH SET 2020: 27 December, Paper II, Environmental Sciences

  • Date: 27 December 2020
  • Paper code: JUN31220
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 20 pages
MH SET 2020 question paper, 27 December 2020, Paper II, Environmental Sciences, page 1 of 20
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                     A
                                           ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                                 Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................                                                   (In figures as in Admit Card)
      (Name) ................................................                     Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................                                                    (In words)

      (Name) ................................................                       OMR Sheet No.
JUN - 31220                                                                                          (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20                                                    Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                      Instructions for the Candidates
1.         Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided             1.
           on the top of this page.
2.         This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
           will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.     2.
3.         At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
           will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are           3.
           requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
           follows :
           (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
                    paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept               (i)
                    a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
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                    the booklet with the information printed on the cover                  (ii)
                    page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
                    or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
                    other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
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                    the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
                    Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
                    given. The same may please be noted.
           (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                                                                                           (iii)
                    should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.         Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
           (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on        4.                      (A), (B), (C)    (D)
           the correct response against each item.
           Example : where (C) is the correct response.

                              A        B                 D                                           (C)
5.         Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR                                      A         B              D
           Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
           other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.    5.
6.         Read instructions given inside carefully.
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8.         If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put                7.
           any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
                                                                                   8.
           allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
           identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
           means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.         You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
           end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with          9.
           you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
           to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
           conclusion of examination.
                                                                                   10.
10.        Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
                                                                                   11.
11.        Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12.        There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                     12.
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JUN - 31220/II—A




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MH SET 2020 question paper, 27 December 2020, Paper II, Environmental Sciences, page 3 of 20
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JUN - 31220/II—A
                           Environmental Science
                                         Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                                        [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
        carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   The temperature at Tropical                     4.   Coriolis force is a function of .......
     Tropopause (Ht 17 km) is about
                                                          (A) Altitude
     ............. °C.
     (A) –75                                              (B) Latitude

     (B) –95                                              (C) Longitude

     (C) –50                                              (D) Pressure
     (D) –60                                         5.   Warm ocean current flowing from
2.   In a thermodynamic system entropy                    east coast of U.S. towards Europe is
       is defined as ............. where dh is            known as :
     heat added, p and T are pressure
                                                          (A) Kurosio current
     and temperature.
     (A) dh/p                                             (B) Benguela current

     (B) dh/T                                             (C) Gulf stream

     (C) dh/T2                                            (D) Peru current
     (D) dh/pT                                       6.   Droughts of All India scale such as
3.   In case of temperature inversion :                   1972 drought are ............. associated
     (A) Lapse rate is positive                           with EL Nino events.

     (B) Temperature is constant with                     (A) Always
         height
                                                          (B) Never
     (C) Temperature is not a function
         of z                                             (C) Rarely

     (D) Lapse rate is negative                           (D) Sometimes

                                                 3                                        [P.T.O.
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7.   Prevailing wind direction at a                  10. The greenhouse gases trap the
     station ‘A’ is mostly NE’ly at the                  energy reflected :
     height of 10 m. A plume of smoke
                                                         (A) From the earth and keeps the
     at that height will drift towards :
                                                             earth cool
     (A) North
                                                         (B) From the earth and keeps the
     (B) East
                                                             earth warm
     (C) South-West
                                                         (C) On its way from the sun and
     (D) North-West                                          keeps the earth cool
8.   Evaporation and precipitation over                  (D) On its way from the sun and
     the earth changes with latitude.                        keeps the earth warm
     Evaporation exceeds precipitation in
                                                     11. Hydro energy is the energy produced
     ............. of the Northern hemisphere.
                                                         from :
     (A) Polar region
                                                         (A) Sunlight
     (B) Subtropical region
                                                         (B) Water
     (C) Equatorial region
                                                         (C) Coal
     (D) Latitude region
                                                         (D) Fossil fuel
9.   Harmful UV radiation emanating
     from the sun is prevented from                  12. Which one of the following is the
     reaching the earth surface by the                   most     abundant    gas   in   the
     presence of ozone in the :                          stratosphere ?

     (A) Mesosphere                                      (A) O3

     (B) Thermosphere                                    (B) NO2
     (C) Stratosphere                                    (C) CO
     (D) Troposphere                                     (D) C6H6

                                                 4
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13. What      are   direct   effects   of        16. Which one of the following does not
                                                     contribute significantly to global
    increasing amount of smoke in the
                                                     warming ?
    atmosphere ?
                                                     (A) NO
    (A) Reduced visibility                           (B) O3

    (B) Poor air quality                             (C) SF6
                                                     (D) HFCs
    (C) Formation of acid rain
                                                 17. Scintillation counter is used mainly
    (D) All of the above                             for the determination of :

14. Which one of the following is a                  (A)   -particles

    secondary pollutant ?                            (B)   -particles
                                                     (C)   -particles
    (A) SO2
                                                     (D)    and -particles only
    (B) O3
                                                 18. Which clay mineral has hydrogen
    (C) CO                                           bond ?

                                                     (A) Kaolinite
    (D) NO
                                                     (B) Vermiculite
15. Solar energy can be converted
                                                     (C) Beidelite
    directly into electric energy with the
                                                     (D) Montniorillonite
    help of :
                                                 19. The chemical formula of Talc
    (A) Photovoltaic cell                            mineral is :

                                                     (A) CaF 2
    (B) Dry cell
                                                     (B) CaSO4.2H2O
    (C) Rechargeable cell
                                                     (C) MgSi4O10 (OH)2
    (D) Photothermal device                          (D) SiO2

                                             5                                    [P.T.O.
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20. Mass spectrometers are used to             23. Rate of water percolation is the
                                                   lowest in :
    determine :
                                                   (A) Sandy soil
    (A) Bulk properties of sample
                                                   (B) Clayey soil
    (B) Relative mass of atoms                     (C) Alluvial soil

    (C) Acidity of the sample                      (D) Desert soil

                                               24. Photomultiplier      Tube    (PMT)
    (D) Absorption of light
                                                   detector is used in :
21. Permanent hardness of water is                 (A) Ion chromatograph
    caused due to :                                (B) Gas chromatograph

    (A) Magnesium sulphate                         (C) Atomic absorption spectrometer

                                                   (D) TOC analyzer
    (B) Magnesium carbonate
                                               25. Which one of the following is not a
    (C) Magnesium bicarbonate                      nitrogenous fertilizer ?

    (D) Sodium chloride                            (A) Urea

                                                   (B) DAP
22. In the COD test of sewage, organic
                                                   (C) Ammonium sulphate
    matter is oxidized by K2Cr2O7 in the
                                                   (D) Superphosphate
    presence of :
                                               26. Which one of the following is not a
    (A) HCl                                        micronutrient for plants ?

    (B) H2SO4                                      (A) Zn

                                                   (B) Cu
    (C) HNO3
                                                   (C) Mn
    (D) HF
                                                   (D) S
                                           6
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27. Empirical formula CH2O will give             30. Which of the following is not a
                                                     flexible mechanism under the Kyoto
    the     following       compound   for
                                                     Protocol ?
    four number of its empirical
                                                     (A) Joint implementation
    formula .............
                                                     (B) Carbon trading
    (A) C4H16O4
                                                     (C) Clean development mechanism
    (B) C4H8O4                                       (D) Emissions trading

    (C) C4H6O6                                   31. The number of electrons in Fe++
                                                     is :
    (D) C4H10O8
                                                     (A) 26
28. How many moles of iron are there                 (B) 24
    in 122 of Fe ? (MW of iron is                    (C) 18
    55.858)                                          (D) 16

    (A) 1.28 mol Fe                              32. Facultative ponds method used for
                                                     treatment of organic waste
    (B) 1.18 mol Fe                                  involves :

    (C) 2.18 mol Fe                                  (A) Aerobic process
                                                     (B) Anaerobic process
    (D) 8.12 mol Fe
                                                     (C) Aerobic and anaerobic process
29. The mass of an ice cube having
                                                     (D) All of the above
    each side of 3.0 cm and density
                                                 33. Conversion of organic nitrogen into
    0.92 g/cm3 will be :                             inorganic nitrates which plant can
    (A) 28.4 g                                       take up is known as :
                                                     (A) Ammonification
    (B) 84.28
                                                     (B) Denitrification
    (C) 42.8
                                                     (C) Nitrification
    (D) 24.88                                        (D) Deeutrophication
                                             7                                    [P.T.O.
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34. A progressive accumulation of toxic        37. One of the major criteria used in
                                                   identification of biodiversity ‘Hot
    substances through food-chain result
                                                   spot’ is :
    into :
                                                   (A) Rare species
    (A) Bioaugmentation
                                                   (B) Endemic species
    (B) Biostimulation                             (C) Area covered by vegetation

    (C) Biofiltration                              (D) Area with economical species

    (D) Biomagnification                       38. In India higher endemic species are
                                                   reported from :
35. There is a relationship of D.O. and
                                                   (A) Desert
    free CO2 in water, which one of the
                                                   (B) Western Ghats
    following is correct ?
                                                   (C) Cold Himalayan region
    (A) Higher D.O. and high free CO2
                                                   (D) Runn of Kutch
    (B) Lower free CO2 and low D.O.            39. Fuel Bio-gas is predominantly :

    (C) Both D.O. and free CO2 equal               (A) Hydrogen
                                                   (B) Carbon monoxide
    (D) Low D.O. and high free CO2
                                                   (C) Ethane
36. Plant species which have developed
                                                   (D) Methane
    special     adaptation   such    as
                                               40. In potable water analysis
    pneumatophores for respiration are
                                                   Escherichia coli is used as indicator
    seen in :                                      because E. coli is :
    (A) Mangrove ecosystem                         (A) Enteropathogen

    (B) Lotic ecosystem                            (B) Opportunistic pathogen
                                                   (C) Common inhabitant of human
    (C) Lake ecosystem
                                                       intestine
    (D) Desert ecosystem                           (D) Easily cultured and detected

                                           8
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41. Which of these bacteria do not             45. Nuclear fusion requires high
    produce insecticidal proteins ?
                                                   temperature because :
    (A) Bacillus spherices
    (B) Paenibacillus popilae                      (A) All nuclear reactions absorb
    (C) Bacillus thuringiensis                         energy
    (D) Bacillus stearothermophilus
                                                   (B) The binding energy must be
42. Green India Mission is a part of :
                                                       supplied from an external
    (A) Millennium Development Goals
                                                       source
    (B) National Action Plan for
        Climate Change
                                                   (C) The mass defect must be
    (C) River Action Plan
                                                       supplied
    (D) Swatch Bharat Abhiyan
43. Influenza, measles and mumps are               (D) All nuclear reaction release
    .................. borne infections.               energy
    (A) Air
                                               46. Series of waves that propagate at
    (B) Water
    (C) Soil                                       high speeds, travel great distances,

    (D) Food                                       which occurs when a body of water

44. Electrical output of a solar cell              such as an ocean gets rapidly
    depends on :
                                                   displaced is termed as ..........
    (A) Intensity of solar radiation
    (B) Heat component          of solar           (A) Storm
        radiation
                                                   (B) Tsunami
    (C) UV component         of    solar
        radiation                                  (C) Flood
    (D) MIR component         of   solar
                                                   (D) Hurricane
        radiation
                                           9                                      [P.T.O.
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47. A ................ is an equatorial orbit of           50. Baseline data in EIA describes :
      satellite at approximately 36000 km                      (A) Cost Benefit analysis
      altitude, which completes one orbit
                                                               (B) Assessment of risk
      around the earth in the same time
                                                               (C) Environmental consequences
      needed for earth to rotate about its
      axis.                                                    (D) Existing environmental status
                                                                   of the identified study area
      (A) Sunsynchronous orbit
                                                           51. Public hearing is conducted :
      (B) Geostationary orbit
                                                               (A) Prior to site selection
      (C) Low earth orbit
                                                               (B) Prior to approval of terms of
      (D) Elliptical orbit                                         reference

48. .................... are basic and still widely            (C) After environmental clearance
      used form of Remote Sensing.                             (D) After preparation of Draft EIA
      (A) Radar data                                       52. Which      method      for    impact

      (B) MSS data                                             identification in EIA links action to
                                                               impact ?
      (C) Aerial photographs
                                                               (A) Overlays
      (D) Hyperspectral data
                                                               (B) Matrices
49. Remote sensing techniques make
                                                               (C) Checklists
      use of properties of ..................
                                                               (D) Ad hoc
      emitted, reflected or diffracted by
      sensed objects.                                      53. What    is   the    first    step   in
                                                               environmental clearance ?
      (A) Electric waves
                                                               (A) Project appraisal
      (B) Sound waves
                                                               (B) Project identification
      (C) Electromagnetic waves
                                                               (C) Project monitoring
      (D) Wind waves
                                                               (D) Project implementation

                                                      10
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54. Extended Producer Responsibility is        56. Which of the following is not an
    covered in :                                   objective of the National Forest
                                                   Policy ?
    (i)   Construction and Demolition
                                                   (A) Maintenance of environmental
          Waste Management Rules,
                                                        stability
          2016.
                                                   (B) Checking soil erosion and
    (ii) Plastic Waste Management                       denudation in catchment areas
          Rules, 2016.                                  of rivers

                                                   (C) Conservation and protection of
    (iii) E-Waste (Management) Rules,
                                                        wildlife
          2016.
                                                   (D) Increasing the forest/tree cover
    (A) (i) and (ii)                                    substantially in the country

    (B) (i) and (iii)                          57. Which Act led to the constitution of
                                                   CPCB/SPCB’s ?
    (C) (ii) and (iii)
                                                   (A) Air (P & CP) Act 1981
    (D) All of the above
                                                   (B) Water (P & CP) Act 1974
55. Contaminated waste (recyclable) is
                                                   (C) Wildlife Protection Act 1972
    to be stored in which colour coded
                                                   (D) Environmental Protection Act
    container as per the Biomedical
                                                        1986
    Waste (Management and Handling)
                                               58. Which of the following standards
    Rules, 2016 :                                  from the ISO 14000 series is a
    (A) Yellow                                     normative standard ?

                                                   (A) ISO 14001
    (B) Red
                                                   (B) ISO 14020
    (C) White
                                                   (C) ISO 14040
    (D) Blue
                                                   (D) ISO 14015

                                          11                                   [P.T.O.
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59. What is the last date for submission
                                                62. The largest scale of biogeographic
    of ESR to SPCB every year ?
    (A) 30 June                                     division of the land surfaces of the

    (B) 31 August                                   earth    based       on   evolutionary

    (C) 31 January                                  distribution patterns of terrestrial
    (D) 30 September
                                                    plants and animals is ............
60. Anaerobic treatment of effluents has
    the following advantage :                       (A) Biogeographic realms
    (A) Reduction of COD/BOD
                                                    (B) Oriental realm
    (B) Generation of methane
    (C) Low power requirement                       (C) Ethopian realm
    (D) All of the above
                                                    (D) Neotrophic realm
61. Which of the following sequences of
    unit operations in waste water              63. Which is a decentralised system
    treatment is correct ?
                                                    set up created by MOEFCC using
    (A) Grit removal        Screening
        Clarification         Biological            distributed network of databases for
         treatment
                                                    collection      of     environmental
    (B) Screening        Grit removal
        Biological       treatment                  information ?
         Clarification
                                                    (A) ENVIS
    (C) Biological    treatment
        Screening     Grit removal
                                                    (B) NEAC
        Clarification
    (D) Screening        Grit removal               (C) NCERT
         Clarification        Biological
         treatment                                  (D) NMNH

                                           12
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64. Why is it good to buy Eco-marked               66. The plants growing on soils with
    products, because ?
                                                       high      salt     concentrations are
     (i)   These products have lower
                                                       called ................
           environmental impact.
     (ii) Their production involves the                (A) Cryptophytes
           use of non-renewable energy.
                                                       (B) Hemi-cryptophytes
     (iii) Buying such products makes a
           commitment to the future                    (C) Halophytes
           environment.
                                                       (D) Pteridophytes
     (iv) Products cannot be recycled.
                                                   67. Brown soils are generally associated
     (A) (i), (iv)
                                                       with areas originally covered by :
     (B) (iii), (iv)
     (C) (i), (iii)                                    (A) Ice

     (D) (ii), (iii)                                   (B) Water
65. The soil is a result of the actions and
                                                       (C) Deciduous forest
    reciprocal influence of parent rocks,
    climate, topography, plants, animals               (D) Mangrove forest
    and age of the land. It can be
     represented by the formula where              68. The addition of lime into the soil
     S-soil, g-geology, e-environment,                 will :
     b-biological influence and t-time :
                                                       (A) Increase porosity of soil
                 ( g.b)
     (A) S =            t
                    e                                  (B) Change soil texture

               (e.b)                                   (C) Reduce soil acidity
     (B) S =         t
                 g
                                                       (D) Cause decomposition of organic
     (C) S = ( g.e.t) b
                                                             material
     (D) S = ( g.e.b) t
                                              13                                          [P.T.O.
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69. The loam soil is composed of :            72. An urn shaped age pyramid
                                                  indicates :
    (A) Clay + Sand
                                                  (A) Declining population
    (B) Sand + Silt
                                                  (B) Stable population
    (C) Sand + Gravel + Silt + Clay
                                                  (C) Young population
    (D) Sand + Gravel + Clay
                                                  (D) Increasing population
70. The association between sea
                                              73. A narrow zone of habitat transition
    anaemone and Hermit crab is :
                                                  tends to increase in variety and
    (A) Protocooperation                          density of species is known as :
    (B) Exploitation                              (A) Ordination
    (C) Predation                                 (B) Continuum
    (D) Antibiosis                                (C) Edge effect

71. Which of the following sequence of            (D) Ecotype
    general process of succession is          74. Electrostatic precipitators work on
    correct ?                                     the principle of :
    (A) Stabilization      Nudation               (A) Gravity settling
        Invasion        Competition               (B) Centrifugal separation
        Reaction
                                                  (C) Charge separation
    (B) Nudation           Invasion
                                                  (D) All of the above
        Competition        Reaction
        Stabilization                         75. What is the maximum limit for BOD
                                                  of effluent to be discharged on
    (C) Invasion         Nudation                 land ?
        Competition        Reaction
                                                  (A) 30 mg/L
        Stabilization
                                                  (B) 100 mg/L
    (D) Competition        Reaction
        Stabilization       Invasion              (C) 250 mg/L
        Nudation                                  (D) 10 mg/L

                                         14
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76. In an ecosystem one species inhibits                 78. Match the following and select
      by another species by releasing                        the correct answer from the codes
      noxious or toxic substance is known                    given below :
      as :
                                                                   Nature of Hazardous
      (A) Chelation
                                                                             Substance
      (B) Allelopathy
                                                             (a) Ignitible
      (C) Mesocosms
                                                             (b) Corrosive
      (D) Microcosm
                                                             (c)    Carcinogenic
77. Match the following and select
      the correct answer from the codes                      (d) Toxic
      given below it :
                                                                             Example
      List-I                          List-II
                                                             (i)    Lead salts
(a)   Plastics                (i)     4500
                                                             (ii) Polyaromatic hydrocarbons
(b)   Paper                   (ii) 18500
                                                             (iii) Sulphuric acid
(c)   Food                    (iii) 32500
                                                             (iv) White phosphorous
(d) Wood                      (iv) 16500
                                                             Codes :
      Codes :
                                                                      (a)      (b)       (c)     (d)
               (a)     (b)          (c)      (d)

      (A)      (iii)   (iv)         (i)      (ii)            (A)     (iii)     (iv)      (ii)    (i)

      (B)      (i)     (ii)         (iii)    (iv)            (B)     (iv)      (iii)     (ii)    (i)

      (C)      (iv)    (iii)        (ii)     (i)             (C)      (i)      (ii)      (iii)   (iv)

      (D)      (ii)    (iii)        (iv)     (i)             (D)      (ii)     (iv)      (i)     (iii)

                                                    15                                              [P.T.O.
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79. Match the following and select               81. Recent data on the vertical
    the correct answer from the codes                distribution of ozone in the
    given below :                                    atmosphere show :
                                                     (A) Increase in ozone both
          Method of Waste
                                                         stratosphere and troposphere
             Management                              (B) Decrease in ozone both in
    (a) Sanitary landfill                                stratosphere and troposphere
    (b) Incineration                                 (C) Decrease in stratospheric ozone
                                                         and increase in troposphere
    (c) Recycling                                        ozone
    (d) Sedimentation                                (D) Increase in tropospheric ozone
                                                         and decrease in stratosphere
                   Process
                                                         ozone
    (i)   Removal of larger particles            82. Match the following and select
    (ii) Conversion of waste into                    t h e correct answer from the codes
         usable items                                given below :

    (iii) Burning of waste                                 Noise intensity (dB)
                                                     (a) 80
    (iv) Burying below earth surface
                                                     (b) 110
    Codes :
                                                     (c) 120
            (a)     (b)      (c)    (d)
                                                     (d) 140
    (A)     (i)     (ii)    (iii)   (iv)
                                                             Health Hazards
    (B)    (iv)     (i)     (ii)    (iii)            (i)   Stimulation of reception in skin
    (C)    (iv)     (iii)   (ii)    (i)              (ii) Annoying
    (D)     (ii)    (iv)     (i)    (iii)            (iii) Pain in ear, insanity
80. What is the estimated per capita                 (iv) Pain threshold
    solid waste generation in the small              Codes :
    towns of India ?
                                                             (a)     (b)       (c)     (d)
    (A) 0.1 kg                                       (A)     (ii)    (i)       (iv)    (iii)
    (B) 0.3 to 0.4 kg                                (B)      (i)    (ii)      (iii)   (iv)
    (C) 0.5 kg                                       (C)     (iv)    (iii)     (ii)    (i)
    (D) 0.5 to 0.6 kg                                (D)     (iii)   (iv)      (ii)    (i)

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83. The range of sound frequencies              86. What is the sound velocity in the
    for normal human conversation                   air at 0°C ?
    are ..............
                                                    (A) 1269 m/s
    (A) 500 to 2000 Hertz
    (B) 10 to 10,000 Hertz                          (B) 331 m/s
    (C) 100 to 10,000 Hertz
                                                    (C) 1435 m/s
    (D) 50 to 5,000 Hertz
84. The sound velocity is high in the               (D) 5130 m/s
    .............. media.                       87. The last period’s forecast was 70 and
    (A) Liquid                                      demand was 60. What is the simple
    (B) Solid                                       exponential smoothing forecast
    (C) Gases
                                                    with alpha of 0.4 for the next
    (D) Vapors
                                                    period ?
85. Match the following and select
    the correct answer from the codes               (A) 63.8
    given below :                                   (B) 65
            Method of Impact
                  Identification                    (C) 62
    (a) Simple matrix                               (D) 66
    (b) Cross impact matrix
                                                88. Which of the following is true
    (c) Descriptive checklist
                                                    regarding the two smoothing
    (d) Simple checklist
                     Example                        constants of the Forecast Including
    (i) Asian Development Bank                      Trend (FIT) model ?
            (1987)                                  (A) Their values are determined
    (ii) Carstea et al (1976)                           independently
    (iii) Johnson and Bell (1975)
    (iv) Leopold et al (1971)                       (B) They are called alpha and beta,
    Codes :                                             producer risk and consumers
                (a)    (b)    (c)  (d)                  risk
    (A)          (i)   (ii)  (iii) (iv)             (C) Alpha is always smaller than
    (B)        (iv) (iii)    (ii)   (i)                  beta
    (C)         (ii)   (iv)   (i)  (iii)
    (D)        (iii)    (i)  (iv)  (ii)             (D) All of the above

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89. The sampling procedure in which an           92. The probability of type one error
    interviewer is asked to interview 25             is :
    teachers, 50 public servants and
                                                     (A) Probability of rejecting null
    25 farmers is called :
                                                            hypothesis           (accepting
    (A) Stratified sampling                                 alternative hypothesis) when
    (B) Accidental sampling                                 null hypothesis is true

    (C) Spatial sampling                             (B) Probability of accepting null
                                                            hypothesis            (rejecting
    (D) Quota sampling
                                                            alternative hypothesis) when
90. The Chi-square distribution is :
                                                            null hypothesis is false
    (A) Multimodal
                                                     (C) Probability of rejecting null
    (B) Symmetrical                                         hypothesis           (accepting
    (C) Continuous                                          alternative hypothesis) when
                                                            null hypothesis is false
    (D) Discrete
                                                     (D) Probability of accepting null
91. In a partially destroyed laboratory
                                                            hypothesis (rejecting) alternative
    record of an analysis of correlation
    data, the results only are legible as                   hypothesis) when null hypothesis

    variance of X = 9 and regression                        is true

    equations are 8X – 10Y + 66 = 0              93. In case of n attributes the total
    and 40X – 18Y = 214. What is the                 number of ultimate class frequencies
    mean values of X and Y ?                         is :

    (A) 12 and 17                                    (A) n
    (B) 13 and 17                                    (B) 2n
    (C) 17 and 12                                    (C) 2 n
    (D) 17 and 13                                    (D) 4 n

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94. If X1, X2, ........, Xn is a random         97. Documentation of comprehensive
                                                    information on availability and
    sample of size n from a normal
                                                    knowledge of local biodiversity
    population with mean µ and                      resources is known as :
    variance    2. What is the simple
                                                    (A) Community biodiversity record
    hypothesis of the following ?                   (B) People’s biodiversity registers
    (A) µ < µ0,   2 =    2
                                                    (C) Revenue record
                         0

    (B) µ = µ0,   2 =    2                          (D) Panchayat record
                         0
                  2 <    2                      98. National Biodiversity Authority is
    (C) µ = µ0,          0
                                                    setup at :
    (D) µ = µ0,   2 >    2
                         0                          (A) Bhopal
95. In a series of 100 houses actually              (B) Chennai
    invaded by smallpox, 70% of the                 (C) Bhubaneshwar
    inhabitants are attacked and 85%                (D) Ahemdabad
    have been vaccinated. What is the           99. What is the full form of UNFCCC
    lowest percentage of the vaccinated             with respect to global warming
    that must have been attacked ?                  convention ?
                                                    (A) United Nations Framework
    (A) 64.7%
                                                        Convention on Climate Change
    (B) 63.7%                                       (B) United Nations Federation
    (C) 62.7%                                           Convention on Climate Change
                                                    (C) United Nations Framework
    (D) 61.7%
                                                        Center on Climate Change
96. For a singular square matrix :                  (D) United Nations Federation
    (A) its determinant is greater than                 Center on Climate Change

        zero                                    100. Kaziranga National Park in Assam
                                                     is known for :
    (B) its determinant is less than
                                                    (A) One horn Rhino
        zero
                                                    (B) Crocodile
    (C) its determinant is equal to zero            (C) Bengal Tiger
    (D) all of the above                            (D) Bison

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ROUGH WORK




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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.