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MH SET 2021: 26 September, Paper II, Chemical Sciences

  • Date: 26 September 2021
  • Paper code: sep33221
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 36 pages
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                     A
                                                   CHEMICAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                          Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................                                                   (In figures as in Admit Card)
      (Name) ................................................
                                                                                  Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................                                              (In words)
      (Name) ................................................                 OMR Sheet No.
SEP - 33221                                                                                         (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                 [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 36                                                     Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                      Instructions for the Candidates
1.         Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided              1.
           on the top of this page.
2.         This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
           will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.      2.
3.         At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
           will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are            3.
           requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
           follows :
           (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
                    paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept                (i)
                    a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
           (ii)     Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
                    the booklet with the information printed on the cover                   (ii)
                    page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
                    or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
                    other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
                    booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
                    the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
                    Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
                    given. The same may please be noted.
           (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                                                                                            (iii)
                    should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.         Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
           (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on         4.                     (A), (B), (C)    (D)
           the correct response against each item.
           Example : where (C) is the correct response.

                              A        B                 D                                           (C)
5.         Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR                                      A        B               D
           Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
           other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.     5.
6.         Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.         Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.                     6.
8.         If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put                 7.
           any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
                                                                                    8.
           allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
           identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
           means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.         You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
           end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with           9.
           you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
           to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
           conclusion of examination.
                                                                                    10.
10.        Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
                                                                                    11.
11.        Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12.        There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                      12.
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SEP - 33221/II—A




2
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SEP - 33221/II—A
                              Chemical Science
                                    Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                          [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
       carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   The magnetic moment of potassium salt of [Fe(CN)6]3– is 2.3 µB. Choose the
     correct statement from the following :
     (A) It is spin only value of one unpaired electron
     (B) It is spin only value between one and two unpaired electron
     (C) The increase in magnetic moment because of ferromagnetic coupling
     (D) The increase in magnetic moment because of spin-orbit coupling
2.   According to Wade’s rules, the structures of B10C2H12 and B10H12(SEt2)2 are
     respectively :
     (A) nido and closo                       (B) closo and nido
     (C) closo and arachno                    (D) nido and arachno
3.   The geometry of [IF7]– is :
     (A) capped octahedron                    (B) cube
     (C) trigonal prismatic                   (D) pentagonal bipyramidal
4.   A complex that possess 5D ground term symbol for its metal ion is :
     (A) [Mn(CN)6]3–                          (B) [Cr(H2O)6]2+
     (C) [Fe(CN)6]4–                          (D) [Co(H2O)6]2+
5.   The magnetic moment of the complex [Mn(NCS)6]4– is 6.06 µB. Its electronic
     configuration is :
     (A)   t2 g5 eg 0                         (B)   t2 g3 eg 2

     (C)   t23 e2                             (D)   t2 g 2 e g3

6.   Mülliken symbol(s) possible for ‘G’ term in octahedral ligand field is/are :
     (A) A 1g                                 (B) T2g, Eg
     (C) A1g, Eg, T1g, T2g                    (D) A2g, T2g, T1g

                                         3                                   [P.T.O.
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7.   For metal olefin complexes :
     (i)   [PtCl3(C2F4)]– and
     (ii) [PtCl3(C2H4)]–
     Which of the following statements is correct ?
     (A) Carbon-carbon bond length is same in both (i) and (ii)
     (B) Carbon-carbon bond length in (ii) is smaller than (i)
     (C) Carbon-carbon bond length in (i) is smaller than (ii)
     (D) Olefin coordinates to Pt in a     1   mode
8.   X-band EPR spectrum of CH2OH radical will show ................... lines.
     (A) 6                                     (B) 3
     (C) 2                                     (D) 5
9.   n-type of semiconductor(s) among Fe2O3, FeO, FeS, CuI and Cu2O is/are :
     (A) FeO, FeS and Fe2O3
     (B) CuI and Cu2O
     (C) Fe2O3, FeO and Cu2O
     (D) Fe2O3 only
10. Oxygen molecule binds as a hydroperoxide ligand to the metal ion in :
     (A) Oxyhemoglobin                         (B) Oxyhemocyanin
     (C) Oxyhemerythrin                        (D) Oxymyoglobin
11. The spin state and oxidation state of iron in deoxyhemerythrin and
     oxyhemerythrin respectively are :
     (A) high spin iron (II) and high spin iron (III)
     (B) low spin iron (II) and low spin iron (III)
     (C) high spin iron (II) and low spin iron (III)
     (D) low spin iron (II) and high spin iron (III)
12. In Ziegler-Natta catalyst titanium acts as a :
     (A) Lewis base                            (B) Neutral
     (C) Lewis acid                            (D) Bronsted base

                                          4
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13. The correct order of Rh–C bond lengths in the complexes
     (i)   Rh(CO) Cl(PPh3)2
     (ii) Rh(CO) Cl(PEt3)2 and
     (iii) Rh(CO) Cl{P(C6H5)3}2
     will be :
     (A) (i) > (ii) > (iii)                    (B) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
     (C) (iii) > (ii) > (i)                    (D) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
14. The point group of phosphorus pentafluoride is :
     (A) C5 h                                  (B) C3 h
    (C) D3h                             (D) D h
15. Which among the following beryllium alkyl compounds are stable ?
     (i)   Be(Me)2
     (ii) Be(Et)2
     (iii) Be(B t)2
     (iv) BeCH2 (B t)2
     (A) (i) and (iii)                         (B) (ii) and (iv)
     (C) (i) and (iv)                          (D) (i) and (ii)
16. Operational, Personal and Instrumental errors are types of :
     (A) determinate errors                    (B) indeterminate errors
     (C) additive errors                       (D) proportional errors
17. The kinetics of the isomerization of cis to trans - [Mo(CO)4(PEt3)2] can be followed
    by IR spectroscopy. Which of the following regions of the IR spectrum would
    you focus on to monitor the reaction ?
     (A) 3500 – 3000 cm–1                      (B) 2000 – 1800 cm–1
     (C) 1600 – 1400 cm–1                      (D) 1200 – 800 cm–1
18. In a base catalyzed substitution of Cl– by OH– in [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ under strongly
    basic conditions the first step in the mechanism will be :
     (A)   substitution of Cl– by OH–
     (B)   dissociation of Cl– to give five coordinate intermediate
     (C)   association of OH– to give a seven coordinate intermediate
     (D)   Conversion of an ammine ligand to amido ligand
                                           5                                      [P.T.O.
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19. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) of an octahedral Ti 3+ complex
    is 20,100 cm–1. CFSE of its tetrahedral complex will be :
    (A) 10,050 cm–1                            (B) 20,100 cm–1
    (C) 8933 cm–1                              (D) 11,187 cm–1
20. The reactions of [PtCl4]2– with NH3 (reaction I) and of [PtCl4]2– with [NO2]–
    followed by NH3 (reaction II) are ways of forming :
    (A) I : cis [PtCl2(NH3)2]; II : cis [PtCl2(NH3)(NO2)]–
    (B) I : trans [PtCl2(NH3)2]; II : trans [PtCl2(NH3)(NO2)]–
    (C) I : cis [PtCl2(NH3)2]; II : trans [PtCl2NH3(NO2)]–
    (D) I : trans [PtCl2(NH3)2]; II : cis [PtCl2NH3(NO2)]–

21. SF4 reacts with 11BF3 to form [SF3] [11BF4]. 19F NMR of anion will exhibits

    (11B = I = 3/2) :

    (A) Five equally spaced lines with equal intensity

    (B) A quartet with intensity 1 : 3 : 3 : 1

    (C) A quintet with intensity 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1

    (D) Four equally spaced lines with equal intensity

22. Which statement about the trans-effect and the trans-influence is correct ?
    (A) trans effect is a ground state effect, whereas the trans-influence is an axcited
        state effect
    (B) both trans effect and trans-influence are ground state effects

    (C) rates of substitution are affected by the trans-effect but not by trans-influence

    (D) trans-influence is a ground state effect, whereas trans-effect is an excited
         state effect


                                           6
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23. The oxidising tendency of chlorine oxoanions ClO 4–, ClO3–, ClO2– and ClO–
    follows the order .............................
    (A) ClO4–            ClO3– < ClO2– < ClO–
    (B) ClO4– > ClO3– > ClO2– > ClO–
    (C) ClO4– < ClO3– < ClO2–                         ClO–
    (D) ClO4– < ClO3–       ClO2– < ClO–
24. Keeping all parameters the same if the standard deviation is doubled, variance
    would be :
    (A) halved                              (B) doubled
    (C) remain same                         (D) quadrupled
25. Molecular geometry of XeOF 5– is :
    (A) Trigonal bipyramid                                   (B) Pentagonal pyramid
    (C) Octahedral                         (D) Square pyramidal
26. The only metal which forms nitride (M3N) among group(1) elements is :
    (A) K                                  (B) Na
    (C) Li                                 (D) Rb
27. Among tetrahedral complexes of cobalt :
    (i) [CoBr2Cl2]–
    (ii) [CoBrCl2(OH2)] and
    (iii) [CoBr I (OH2)Cl],
    the complex which shows optical isomers is/are :
    (A) (ii) only                          (B) (i) and (iii)
    (C) (i), (ii), (iii)                   (D) (iii) only
28. The rate law for substitution in square planar Pt(II) complexes contains two
    terms (Rate = k1 [Pt L3X] + k2 [Pt L3X] [Y] where [Pt L3X] is the starting
    complex and Y is the entering group. The reason for the two-term law is :
    (A) there are competitive associative and dissociative pathways
    (B) there are two competing dissociative pathways
    (C) the solvent enters in the rate determining step and then two competing
          fast steps follow
    (D) the solvent competes with Y in the rate determining step

                                                       7                                [P.T.O.
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35. Alkene metathesis reactions catalyzed by metal-carbene complexes proceeds by
    the formation of the intermediate :

    (A) Metallocene                         (B) Metallocarboborane

    (C) Metallocyclobutane                  (D) Metallocyclopropane

36. The ground state term symbol of Tb3+ is :

    (A) 7F 6                                (B) 7F 0

    (C) 2F 5/2                              (D) 2F 7/2
37. The correct order of polarity of the following functional groups is :


                      H3C — OH                           H3C — CH2 — C           N

         (I)             (II)               (III)                (IV)
    (A) I < II < III < IV
    (B) I < IV < III < II
    (C) IV < III < I < II
    (D) III < IV < II < I
38. Within the HSAB principle, a hard acid :
    (A) Is not very polarizable
    (B) Has a low charge density
    (C) Shows a preference for soft base

    (D) Shows a preference for donor atoms of lower electronegativity

39. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :




    (A) 4–Methyl–4–hexen–2–yne              (B) 4–Methyl–2–hexen–4–yne

    (C) 3–Methyl–4–hexen–2–yne              (D) 3–Methyl–2–hexen–4–yne

                                        9                                   [P.T.O.
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40. The correct statement for the following structures is that they are :




    (A) Not isomers                         (B) Conformational isomers
    (C) Enantiomers                         (D) Structural isomers
41. In the most stable conformation the molecule having the circled Me group
    equatorial is :




    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                                     (D)



                                       10
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42. The major product in the radical bromination of Ph       with NBS, heat
    is :




    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                                     (D)



43. Which among the following react fastest with NaOMe ?




    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                                     (D)




                                       11                            [P.T.O.
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44. The major product of the following reaction is :




                                                       hv




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)



                                      12
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45. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)                                       (B)




    (C)                                       (D)




46. Which one among the following arrows is the correct representation of resonance ?
    (A)                                       (B)
    (C)                                       (D)
47. The number of signals expected for the following compound in 1H–NMR is :




    (A) 08                                    (B) 03
    (C) 06                                    (D) 05

                                         13                                   [P.T.O.
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48. The methyl carbon of the acetone-d6 appears in the 13C–NMR as :
    (A) quintet (1 : 2 : 3 : 2 : 1)
    (B) sextet (1 : 5 : 10 : 10 : 5 : 1)
    (C) septet (1 : 3 : 6 : 7 : 6 : 3 : 1)
    (D) septet (1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1)
49. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)                                      (B)




    (C)                                      (D)




                                        14
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50. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)



                                      15                         [P.T.O.
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51. An organic compound with molecular formula C8H12O2 exhibit the following
    spectral data IR : 1720 cm–1; 1H-NMR :          6.95 (d, J = 8.5 Hz, 1H) 5.9
    (d, J = 8.5 Hz, 1H), 4.53 (q, J = 6Hz, 1H) 1.41 (d, J = 6Hz, 3H), 1.20 (S, 3H),
    1.15 (S, 3H).

    The correct structure of the compound is :




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)




                                       16
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52. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)




53. Which of the following molecule has enantiotopic protons ?

    (A) Butane                             (B) Cyclopropane

    (C) Ethane                             (D) Propane


                                      17                                [P.T.O.
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54. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)



                                      18
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55. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)




                                      19                         [P.T.O.
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56. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)


57. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)




                                      20
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58. Compound A, at 25°C undergoes acetolysis 140000 times faster than compound
    B. Select the reason for this behaviour :




    (A) Anchimeric assistance                (B) Inductive effect
    (C) Fields effect                        (D) Resonance effect
59. The reactant ‘P’ and product ‘Q’ in the following reaction are :




                                                                      Na N3
                                                                    Et   / 2
                                                                               Q



    (A) P =                                 , Q =




    (B) P =                             , Q =




    (C) P =                            , Q =




    (D) P =                            , Q =



                                       21                                      [P.T.O.
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60. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)


61. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)



                                      22
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62. The major product in the following reaction is :




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)




                                      23                         [P.T.O.
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63. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)



64. The correct match of the natural product in column II with class in column
    I is :
          Column I                               Column II
    (a)   Vitamin                          (i)   Glycogen
    (b)   Terpene                          (ii) Nicotine
    (c)   Polysaccharide                   (iii) Ascorbic acid
    (d) Alkaloid                           (iv) Carvone
    (A) (a—iv) (b—iii) (c—i) (d—ii)
    (B) (a—i) (b—iv) (c—iii) (d—ii)
    (C) (a—iii) (b—ii) (c—i) (d—iv)
    (D) (a—iii) (b—iv) (c—i) (d—ii)

                                      24
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65. Which of the following is not a natural amino acid ?




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)



66. The major product of the following reaction is :




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)


                                      25                             [P.T.O.
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67. The major product in the following reaction is :




                                                  h
                                                 MeOH




    (A)                                    (B)




    (C)                                    (D)




                                      26
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68. The major product in the following reaction is :



                                                       hv




    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)




                                      27                              [P.T.O.
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69. When 10 mL of 0.1M NaOH is added to 10 mL of 0.1M HCl, pH of the solution
    will be :

    (A) 2                                     (B) 7

    (C) 0                                     (D) 14

70. Activation energy (Ea) and the enthalpy of the reaction ( H ) are 134 kJ/mol
    and –234 kJ respectively for the following gas phase reaction :

                           CO + NO2           CO2 + NO2

    The activation energy for the reaction       CO2 + NO2       CO + NO2 is :

    (A)      kJ/mol                           (B) –134 kJ/mol

    (C) 368 kJ/mol                            (D) 184 kJ/mol

71. The rate ( ) of reaction catalyzed by a suitable enzyme is given by the
    Michaelis-Menton equation as

                                        Vmax [ s ]
                                        K M [ s]


    where [s] is the substrate concentration KM is Michaelis-Menton constant. Which
    of the following is correct ?

    (A) Unit of KM is dm3.mol–1 time–1

    (B) Unit of KM is mol.dm–3

    (C) When KM = [s] ;        = Vmax

    (D) at low substrate concentrations         varies exponentially with [s]

                                         28
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72. A compound contains two types of atoms X and Y. It crystallizes in a cubic
     lattice with atom X at the corners of the unit cell and Y at the body centre.
     The simplest possible formula of this compound is :

     (A) X2Y                                     (B) X4Y

     (C) XY                                      (D) XY4

73. How many initiator fragments are present in a polymer chain formed by coupling
     termination in addition polymerization ?

     (A) 1                                       (B) 2

     (C) 3                                       (D) 0

74. Based on tacticity, the polymer is divided into .................... types.

     (A) Two                                     (B) Four

     (C) Three                                   (D) Five

75. Step reaction polymerization proceeds by :

     (A) Addition polymerization

     (B) Condensation polymerization

     (C) Anionic polymerization

     (D) Cationic polymerization

76. The polydispersity index of a polymer is given by the ratio of :

     (A) Mv / Mw                                 (B)   Mw / Mz

     (C) Mw / Mn                                 (D)   Mn / Mw
                                            29                                    [P.T.O.
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77. The diagram given below is of silicon crystal at 300 K.




    From the diagram it can be inferred that :

    (A) The Fermi level is 0.38 eV below the intrinsic level of conduction E i

    (B) The semiconductor is a p-type material

    (C) The semiconductor is a n-type material

    (D) Ec – Ev = 0.56 eV

78. At 445°C, Kc for the following equilibrium reaction

                          2HI (g)      I2(g) + H2(g)

    A mixture of H2, I2 and HI are present in a closed vessel at 445°C at the
    following concentrations :

                 [HI] = 2.0 M; [H2] = 0.50 M [I2] = 0.010 M.

    Which of the following is correct about Kc, the reaction quotent ?

    (A) Qc = Kc ; the system is in equilibrium

    (B) Qc < Kc ; more H2 & I2 will form

    (C) Qc < Kc ; more HI will form

    (D) Qc > Kc ; more H2 & I2 will form

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79. In a canonical ensemble, a system X of fixed volume is in contact with a large
    reservoir Y, then :
    (A) X can exchange only energy with Y
    (B) X can exchange only particles with Y
    (C) X can exchange neither energy nor particles with Y
    (D) X can exchange both energy and particles with Y
80. According to Fermi-Dirac the statistics following assumption is made :
    (A) the particles are distinguishable and any number of particles may occupy
        the same energy level
    (B) the particles are indistinguishable and any number of particles may occupy
        a given energy level
    (C) the particles are indistinguishable but only one particle may occupy a given
        energy level
    (D) the particles are distinguishable and only one particle may occupy a given
        energy level
81. The ratio of the energy of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom
    to that of the electron in the first excited state of Be 3+ is :
    (A) 1 : 4                                (B) 1 : 8
    (C) 2 : 9                                (D) 1 : 16
82. Which among the following nuclei are fissile ?
    (I)   233U

    (II) 238U
    (III) 239Pu
    (IV) 235U
    (A) (I) and (II)                         (B) (II) and (III)
    (C) (I), (III) and (IV)                  (D) (II), (III) and (IV)
83. Which detector works on the principle of ionization of gas molecules ?
    (A) Semiconductor detector               (B) Scintillation counter
    (C) GM counter                           (D) Surface barrier detector

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84. As radioactivity is a random phenomenon, the error in measuring activity in
    CPM can be reduced by :
    (A) Measuring the activity for a longer period of time
    (B) Measuring the activity for a short period of time
    (C) Measuring the activity by increasing the current
    (D) Measuring the activity at intermittent time intervals
85. A proton is 1836 times heavier than an electron. The ratio of the de Broglie
    wavelengths,       e
                           /   p   is :
    (A) 1 : (1836)2                                    (B) (1836)1/2 : 1
    (C) 1836 : 1                                       (D) (1836)2 : 1
86. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential. The ratio
    of their de Broglie wavelengths,             e /   p   is :
                    1/ 2
          mp                                                      me
    (A)        me                                      (B)             mp

                                                                            2
          mp                                                      mp
    (C)        me                                      (D)             me

87. The energy of a particle in a three-dimensional box of equal side lengths is
    given as :
                                           h2    n2    n2         n2
                                     E
                                          8ma2   x      y          z
    The degeneracy of energy for the levels nx ny nz = 1, 1, 1, 2, 1, 1 and 3, 2, 1
    respectively are :
    (A) 3, 4, 6                                        (B) 1, 1, 1
    (C) 1, 3, 6                                        (D) 1, 3, 3
88. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV; the ionization energy for
    the ground state of Li2+ is approximately :
    (A) 27.2 eV                                        (B) 40.8 eV
    (C) 54.4 eV                                        (D) 122.4 eV

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89. Most of the light re-emitted at the same wavelength as the incident light is
    called as :
    (A) Raman scattering                     (B) Rayleigh scattering
    (C) Anti-Stokes scattering               (D) Stokes scattering
90. Given below is the phase diagram of a pure substance




    The substance at the conditions represented by the point ‘X’ is cooled to 30ºC,
    keeping the pressure constant. In this process, the phase of the substance :
    (A) Changes from gas to liquid
    (B) Changes from gas to liquid to solid
    (C) Remains as liquid
    (D) Remains as solid
91. Both the vapour pressure at 25°C and normal boiling point of toluene are higher
    than that of water, which of the following explains these observations ?
    (A) Liquids with higher vapour pressures typically have higher boiling points
    (B) Toluene has a higher molar mass than water
    (C) Toluene has a lower heat of vaporization than water
    (D) The density of toluene vapour is greater than that of water vapour

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92. P-Jump and T-Jump methods are used to study the kinetics of fast reactions.
    Which of the following is correct ?

    (A) P-jump method can be used for reactions for which         V = 0

    (B) T-jump method can be used for reactions for which         H = 0

    (C) Ionic reactions cannot be studied by P-jump method

    (D) P-jump method can be used to study the reactions for which          V    0

93. Which of the following is correct ?

    (I)   CMC of an anionic surfactant is higher than that of a non-ionic surfactant
          of the same chain length

    (II) CMC of an anionic surfactant is lower than that of a non-ionic surfactant
         of the same chain length

    (III) CMC of an ionic surfactant decreases in presence of small quantity of added
          electrolyte

    (IV) CMC of an ionic surfactant increases in presence of small quantity of added
         electrolyte

    (A) (I) and (II)                         (B) (I) and (III)

    (C) (II) and (III)                       (D) (III) and (IV)

94. Which of the following are directly related to surface tension phenomena ?

    (I)   Spherical shapes of droplets in the absence of external forces

    (II) A sail boat in water

    (III) A needle floating in water

    (IV) Water rising in the xylem of plants

    (A) (I) and (II)                         (B) (I), (II) and (III)

    (C) (I), (III) and (IV)                  (D) (II), (III) and (IV)
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95. The overall chemical reaction of photosynthesis is best described as ...........
    (A) an exothermic reaction that breaks down sugar
    (B) an endothermic reaction that breaks down sugar
    (C) an exothermic reaction that forms sugar
    (D) an endothermic reaction that forms sugar
96. In the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of HBr, of the following products are
    formed :
    (A) O2 at the cathode, H2 at the anode
    (B) H2 at the cathode, Br2 at the anode
    (C) OH– at the cathode, HOBr at the anode
    (D) Br3– at the cathode, HBrO4 at the anode
97. Thermonuclear reactions are responsible for energy production in :
    (A) Nuclear reactors                      (B) Atom bombs
    (C) Volcanoes                             (D) Stars
98. For the adsorption of N2 on activated carbon at 77 K :
    (A)    H = 0;    S < 0
    (B)    H < 0;    S < 0
    (C)    H > 0;    S < 0
    (D)    H = 0;    S = 0
99. For the reaction A   P, the graph of 1/[A] as a function of time is linear, what
    is the reaction order in A ?
    (A) Zeroth                                (B) First
    (C) Second                                (D) Half
100. A compound formed by element X and Y crystallizes in cubic structure in which
     atoms of ‘X’ are at the corners while that of ‘Y’ are at the face centre. The
     formula of the compound is :
    (A) 3XY                                   (B) X3Y
    (C) XY3                                   (D) X8Y6

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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.