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Let \((X, Y) \sim N(\underline{0}, \Sigma)\) where \(\Sigma = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & \rho \\ \rho & 1 \end{bmatrix}\), \(\rho \neq 0\) and

\[ W = \frac{X - Y}{X + Y}\sqrt{\frac{1 + \rho}{1 - \rho}}. \]

Then which of the following statements is not correct ?

  • A.\(W^{2} \sim F_{1,1}\)
  • B.\(1/W^{2} \sim F_{1,1}\)
  • C.(X - Y) and (X + Y) are independently distributed
  • D.\(W \sim \chi_{1}^{2}\)

Answer: D

The statement that is not correct is \(W \sim \chi_{1}^{2}\).

\(X - Y \sim N(0, 2(1 - \rho))\) and \(X + Y \sim N(0, 2(1 + \rho))\), and \(\mathrm{Cov}(X - Y, X + Y) = \mathrm{Var}X - \mathrm{Var}Y = 0\), so being jointly normal they are independent (C). Standardising,

\[ \begin{aligned} W &= \frac{(X - Y)/\sqrt{2(1 - \rho)}}{(X + Y)/\sqrt{2(1 + \rho)}} \\ &= \frac{Z_{1}}{Z_{2}} \end{aligned} \]

a ratio of independent standard normals, so W is standard Cauchy. Then \(W^{2} = Z_{1}^{2}/Z_{2}^{2} \sim F_{1,1}\) (A), and so is \(1/W^{2}\) (B). W takes negative values, so it cannot be chi-square.

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