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Suppose that X1, X2, ........, Xn are i.i.d. random variables such that X1 has uniform distribution over (0, \(\theta\)), \(\theta \gt 0\). Then, which of the following statements is true ?

(I) The conditional density \(f_{y}(\cdot)\) of \(X_{(1)} \mid X_{(n)} = y\) is given by :

\[ f_{y}(x) = \begin{cases} (n-1) \cdot \frac{1}{y}\left(1 - \frac{x}{y}\right)^{n-2}, & \text{if } 0 \lt x \lt y \\ 0, & \text{otherwise} \end{cases} \]

(II) The conditional distribution of \(X_{(1)} \mid X_{(n)} = y\) does not depend on \(\theta\).

  • A.Neither (I) nor (II) is true
  • B.Both (I) and (II) are true
  • C.Only (I) is true
  • D.Only (II) is true

Answer: B

Both (I) and (II) are true.

Given the maximum \(X_{(n)} = y\), the remaining n − 1 observations are independent and uniform on (0, y). The minimum of n − 1 such variables has

\[ \begin{aligned} &P(X_{(1)} \gt x) \\ &= \left(1 - \frac{x}{y}\right)^{n-1},\quad 0 \lt x \lt y \end{aligned} \]

Differentiating, its density is \((n - 1)\frac{1}{y}\left(1 - \frac{x}{y}\right)^{n-2}\), which is the density in (I).

This density involves only y, not \(\theta\), which is (II). It reflects the fact that \(X_{(n)}\) is sufficient for \(\theta\), so the conditional distribution of any other statistic given it is free of \(\theta\).

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