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The cost price of an article is ₹ 750. It is sold for ₹ 608 by giving 24% discount on its marked price. Had it been sold on its marked price, then what would have been the profit percent ?

  • A.\(6\frac{2}{3}\)%
  • B.5%
  • C.6%
  • D.\(5\frac{1}{3}\)%

Answer: A

The profit would have been \(6\frac{2}{3}\)%.

A 24% discount means the selling price is 76% of the marked price:

\[ \begin{aligned} \text{MP} &= \frac{608}{0.76} = 800 \\ \text{Profit} &= 800 - 750 = 50 \\ \text{Profit \%} &= \frac{50}{750} \times 100 = 6\tfrac{2}{3} \end{aligned} \]

Dividing the profit by the marked price instead of the cost price gives 6.25%, which is not offered, and 6% is the figure rounded down; 5% and \(5\frac{1}{3}\)% do not follow from a marked price of ₹ 800.

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