Machine-translated by Google. Questions are authored in English.
Top

Discussion

Suppose that the random vector \((X_{1}, X_{2}, X_{3})'\) has a multinomial distribution with parameters \(n\), \(p_{1}\), \(p_{2}\) and \(p_{3}\). Then, which of the following statements is FALSE ?

  • A.\(X_{1}\) and \(X_{2}\) are independent random variables having binomial distributions with parameters \(n\) and \(p_{1}\), and \(n\) and \(p_{2}\) respectively
  • B.Covariance \((X_{1}, X_{3}) = -n p_{1} p_{3}\)
  • C.Variance \((X_{3}) = n p_{3}(1 - p_{3})\)
  • D.\(X_{1} + X_{2}\) has binomial distribution with parameters \(n\) and \((1 - p_{3})\)

Answer: A

The false statement is that \(X_{1}\) and \(X_{2}\) are independent binomial variables.

Each margin of a multinomial is binomial, so \(X_{1} \sim B(n, p_{1})\) and \(X_{2} \sim B(n, p_{2})\), but they are not independent: they compete for the same \(n\) trials, and \(X_{1} + X_{2} \le n\). Their covariance is \(-np_{1}p_{2} \neq 0\).

The other statements are true. \(\text{Cov}(X_{i}, X_{j}) = -np_{i}p_{j}\) for \(i \neq j\), so \(\text{Cov}(X_{1}, X_{3}) = -np_{1}p_{3}\). The margin \(X_{3}\) is \(B(n, p_{3})\), with variance \(np_{3}(1 - p_{3})\). And merging categories 1 and 2 gives a binomial with success probability \(p_{1} + p_{2} = 1 - p_{3}\), so \(X_{1} + X_{2} \sim B(n, 1 - p_{3})\).

No comment is present. Be the first to comment.
Loading…

Post your comment

Please log in or register to post a comment.