Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : C

The right belongs to linguistic and religious minorities, so the answer is Only a and b.

Article 30(1) of the Constitution says that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

The Constitution recognises no category of 'regional minorities', so every option that includes c is wrong, and 'Only a' leaves out religious minorities.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : C

The Fundamental Rights are in Part III of the Constitution, from Article 12 to Article 35.

Part I is about the Union and its territory, Part II about citizenship, and Part IV about the Directive Principles of State Policy. Only Part III contains the Fundamental Rights.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : B

Residuary power is vested in the Parliament.

Article 248 gives Parliament exclusive power to make any law on a matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or the State List, including a law imposing a tax not mentioned in either list. Entry 97 of the Union List repeats this. It reflects the Constitution's tilt towards a strong Centre; in the United States and Australia the residue lies with the states instead.

State Legislatures have no residuary power. The President legislates only through ordinances when Parliament is not in session, and the Supreme Court decides whether a matter falls in the residue but does not hold the legislative power.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : A

The right to lodge a caveat is in Section 148A of the Code of Civil Procedure. A person who expects an application to be made in a suit may lodge a caveat with the court so that he is given notice before any order is passed.

Sections 145 and 146 deal with enforcement of the liability of sureties and with proceedings by or against representatives, and Section 147 with the persons under disability, so they relate to other matters. The year 1909 in the question is a misprint for 1908.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : A

Res judicata is dealt with in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908: no court is to try a suit or issue in which the matter directly and substantially in issue has been directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties, decided by a competent court.

Section 15 deals with the court in which suits are to be instituted (the lowest grade competent), Section 26 with the institution of suits, and Section 34 with interest. None of them states the rule against re-litigation.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : C

Default bail accrues after 60 days or 90 days, depending on the maximum punishment for the offence.

Under the proviso to Section 167(2) of the CrPC, a Magistrate may not authorise detention beyond ninety days where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years, and beyond sixty days for any other offence. If the charge-sheet is not filed within that period, the accused has an indefeasible right to be released on bail if he applies and is prepared to furnish it.

There is no uniform thirty-day limit, the Code sets no special 120-day period for offences against the State (longer periods exist only under special statutes such as the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act), and the end of the first fifteen days of custody does not by itself entitle the accused to bail.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : D

All three pairs are correct, so the answer is A, B and C. Section 389 of the Code of Criminal Procedure deals with suspension of the sentence pending the appeal and release of the appellant on bail, Section 390 with the arrest of the accused in an appeal from an acquittal, and Section 391 with the power of the appellate court to take further evidence or direct it to be taken.

The options naming only A, only B and C, or only C leave out a correct pair, so only the one listing all three is complete.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : D

The passage describes criminal trespass, which is defined in Section 441 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860: entering property in another's possession to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy the person in possession, or unlawfully remaining there with such intent.

Section 161 concerned a public servant taking a gratification other than legal remuneration, Section 242 deals with possession of a counterfeit coin by a person who knew it to be counterfeit when he became possessed of it, and Section 36 states the effect of causing a result partly by an act and partly by an omission. None of them concerns trespass.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : A

It came into effect in 2019.

The Central Government amended Rule 50 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 by a notification of December 2018 to require that every motor vehicle manufactured on or after 1 April 2019 be supplied by the manufacturer with high security registration plates fitted, rather than leaving fitment to separate vendors after registration.

2018 is the year of the notification, not of commencement. 2023 and 2024 are years in which States set deadlines for retro-fitting HSRP on older vehicles, which is a different requirement.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : A

The different terms related to consumers, such as complainant, consumer, consumer dispute, defect, deficiency, goods and service, are defined in Section 2 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, the definitions section.

Sections 4, 5 and 6 are in the chapter on the Consumer Protection Councils: Section 4 deals with the Central Consumer Protection Council, Section 5 with the procedure for its meetings, and Section 6 with its objects. They do not define terms.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : C

The statement that the objects of the Central Council are to render advice on the promotion and protection of consumers' rights is the heading of Section 5 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which follows the sections constituting the Central Consumer Protection Council.

Section 9 establishes the Central Consumer Protection Authority, and Section 22 deals with its power of search and seizure, so they concern the Authority and not the Council. Section 15 also belongs to the provisions on the Authority and its proceedings. Only Section 5 states the objects of the Central Council.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : A

The conditions for a Hindu marriage are laid down in Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955: neither party has a spouse living at the time of the marriage, neither is incapable of giving valid consent through unsoundness of mind, the bridegroom is twenty-one and the bride eighteen, and the parties are not within the degrees of prohibited relationship or sapindas of each other unless custom permits.

Section 2 deals with the application of the Act, Section 4 with the overriding effect of the Act, and Section 6, now omitted, dealt with guardianship in marriage. So only Section 5 sets out the conditions.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : C

It must be transferred within three months.

Section 6(1)(a) of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 requires a person who received dowry before the marriage to transfer it to the woman within three months after the date of marriage. Dowry received at or after the marriage must be transferred within three months of its receipt, and dowry received while the woman is a minor within three months of her attaining eighteen.

Failure to transfer is itself punishable under Section 6(2). The five, six and seven month figures do not appear in the section.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : B

The Marriage Notice Book and the publication of notice are provided for in Section 6 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954: the Marriage Officer enters the notice of the intended marriage in the Marriage Notice Book, and publishes it by affixing a copy in a conspicuous place in his office.

Section 12 deals with the place and form of solemnisation of the marriage, which comes after the notice and objection stages. Section 10 deals with the procedure on receipt of objection by a Marriage Officer abroad, so it is also a different subject. Section 23 belongs to a later chapter on matrimonial relief, not to the notice procedure.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : B

The bar of limitation is the heading of Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963: subject to Sections 4 to 24, every suit instituted, appeal preferred and application made after the prescribed period is to be dismissed, although limitation has not been set up as a defence.

Section 7 deals with the disability of one of several persons, and Section 15 with the exclusion of time in certain other cases. They are exceptions to the bar, which is why they are listed. Section 28 is not the provision for the bar of limitation.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : B

The appointment and qualifications of directors are provided for in Chapter XI of the Companies Act, 2013, which runs from Section 149 on the company to have a Board of Directors up to the later sections on directors' duties and disqualifications.

Chapter X deals with audit and auditors, Chapter VIII with declaration and payment of dividend, and Chapter V with the acceptance of deposits by companies. None of these deals with directors, so only Chapter XI fits.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : C

Both statements are correct, but the Reason is not the explanation of the Assertion, so the answer is both correct, R not the explanation of A. Chapter IV of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with share capital and debentures, and Section 41 deals with global depository receipts, which is a provision found within that chapter.

The Reason gives the location of one provision among many in the chapter and does not explain why the chapter is called share capital and debentures. The options calling either statement false, or treating the Reason as the explanation, are wrong.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : D

The power to take samples of effluents and the procedure to be followed in connection with them is in Section 21 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974: the State Board or an authorised officer may take samples of effluent from any stream, well or sewer, or of trade effluent, and have them analysed.

Section 23 gives the power of entry and inspection and Section 25 provides restrictions on new outlets and new discharges, so those are different provisions. Section 22 is a neighbouring provision on another step of the process and is not the sampling provision.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : A

Statements I, II and III are correct, so the answer is I, II and III.

Section 2(1)(t) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 defines 'electronic record' as data, record or data generated, image or sound stored, received or sent in an electronic form, or micro film or computer generated micro fiche. That covers digital data (I), electronically stored or transmitted images and sound (II), and microfilm and computer-generated microfiche (III).

Statement IV is the odd one out. Information recorded only on paper, with no electronic processing at all, is an ordinary document, not an electronic record, so any option that includes IV is wrong.

Your Answer : (Not Answered)

Correct Answer : D

Neither conclusion follows. The statements say that the arbitration agreement is dealt with in Section 7 of the 1996 Act and that the UNCITRAL Model Law was adopted on 21 June 1985. Conclusion I adds the number of articles in the Model Law and Conclusion II describes the purpose of the Model Law, and neither is stated or implied by the two statements.

The two conclusions add new information, however accurate it may be in itself, rather than deriving anything from the statements. In a statement and conclusion question a conclusion must be drawn from the statements, so the keyed answer is that neither follows.