Instruction
- Total number of questions : 20
- Time allotted : 30:00 Minutes:Seconds.
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Constitutional Law [ Question No: 1 To 20 ] :
Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed by the President except on joint House of Parliament by majority of total membership and majority of not less than two-third of members present and voting in each house on ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity in question stated in the article :
The power of amnesty for Capital Punishment is vested with :
Which of the following Constitution Amendments was the first Constitutional Amendment, which was rectified by the State Legislatures according to the requirements of the provision of the Article 368 (2) of the Constitution ?
In context of elections, consider the following statements regarding VVPAT :
1. It stands for Visible Voting Paper for Adding Transparency.
2. When a vote is cast, a slip is printed and remains exposed through a transparent window for seven seconds, showing the serial number, name and symbol for the candidate.
3. VVPATs were first used in a bye-election in Nagaland in 2013.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
What is the correct chronological sequence of the following advisory opinions given by the Supreme Court under Article 143.
(1) In re Special Courts Bill
(2) In re Berubari Union
(3) In re Delhi Laws Act
Who among the following Governors of Madhya Pradesh has been the Chief Minister of Haryana ?
Who among the following has not been the acting Governor of Madhya Pradesh?
As per the Indian Constitution, the essential qualifications to become a Chief Election Commissioner are:
Which of the three lists in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains an entry that explicitly includes 'land revenue' as a subject matter of legislation ?
In which case Supreme Court decided that not singing of National Anthem cannot be considered its disrespect or offence ?
Which of the following article is related to the representation of Anglo-Indian community in the legislative assemblies of the states ?
By which time Governor has to return an ordinary bill to the concerned State Legislative Assembly for re-consideration?
Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India makes the provision of Tribes Advisory Councils ?
Which among the following province secured highest representation in the Constituent Assembly of India as on 31st December 1947 ?
Who was the chairman of the drafting Committee of the constituent Assembly?
Which among the following bodies conducts the elections to the Municipalities ?
What is the name of the law passed in 2023 by the Indian Parliament which ensures reservation for women in legislatures ?
Choose the correct Option on the basis of an Assertion (A) and reasons(R) given below.
Assertion(A):- The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October; 1993.
Reason(R):- Section 2(1)(d) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, defines Human Rights as the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
Under the constitutional framework of India, the Supreme Court gradually relaxed the traditional rule of locus standi, thereby allowing public-spirited individuals to approach the Court for enforcement of fundamental rights of others. This development is most closely associated with :
In the context of the Constitution of India, a pension scheme differentiates between employees retiring before and after a specified cut-off date. Those excluded challenge the classification as arbitrary. The constitutional issue would primarily attract :
Total number of questions : 20
Number of answered questions : 0
Number of unanswered questions : 20
Constitutional Law [ Question No: 1 To 20 ] :
Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed by the President except on joint House of Parliament by majority of total membership and majority of not less than two-third of members present and voting in each house on ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity in question stated in the article :
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
The provision is Article 124(4).
Article 124(4) provides that a Supreme Court judge shall not be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament, supported by a majority of its total membership and by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, presented in the same session, on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Article 127 deals with the appointment of ad hoc judges, Article 129 makes the Supreme Court a court of record, and Article 125 concerns judges' salaries.
The power of amnesty for Capital Punishment is vested with :
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
The power to pardon a death sentence is vested in the President.
Under Article 72 of the Constitution the President may grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions, or suspend, remit or commute sentences, and this includes the power to pardon a sentence of death. The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
A Governor's power under Article 161 extends to offences against state laws, but does not include pardoning a death sentence. The Supreme Court and High Courts hear appeals and confirm sentences but have no power of clemency.
Which of the following Constitution Amendments was the first Constitutional Amendment, which was rectified by the State Legislatures according to the requirements of the provision of the Article 368 (2) of the Constitution ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
The first amendment ratified by the states was the Third Constitutional Amendment, 1954.
Under the proviso to Article 368(2), an amendment affecting certain federal provisions, including the lists of the Seventh Schedule, must also be ratified by the legislatures of at least half the states. The Third Amendment (1954) substituted entry 33 of the Concurrent List, on trade in foodstuffs and other essential goods, so it was the first amendment that needed, and received, state ratification (the paper prints 'rectified').
The First Amendment (1951) added the Ninth Schedule and Articles 31A and 31B, and the Second (1952) changed the scale of representation in the Lok Sabha; neither touched an entrenched provision. The Fourth dealt with compensation for acquired property.
In context of elections, consider the following statements regarding VVPAT :
1. It stands for Visible Voting Paper for Adding Transparency.
2. When a vote is cast, a slip is printed and remains exposed through a transparent window for seven seconds, showing the serial number, name and symbol for the candidate.
3. VVPATs were first used in a bye-election in Nagaland in 2013.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
Statements 2 and 3 are correct, so the answer is 2 and 3 Only.
When a vote is cast on an EVM, the VVPAT prints a slip showing the serial number, name and symbol of the chosen candidate, which stays visible behind a transparent window for seven seconds before dropping into a sealed box. VVPATs were first used in the Noksen assembly by-election in Nagaland in September 2013.
Statement 1 is wrong: VVPAT stands for Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail.
What is the correct chronological sequence of the following advisory opinions given by the Supreme Court under Article 143.
(1) In re Special Courts Bill
(2) In re Berubari Union
(3) In re Delhi Laws Act
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : A
The chronological order is 3, 2, 1.
- In re Delhi Laws Act: 1951, the first advisory opinion, on the limits of delegated legislation.
- In re Berubari Union: 1960, holding that ceding Indian territory to Pakistan required a constitutional amendment.
- In re Special Courts Bill: 1978, on the Bill to set up special courts to try offences during the Emergency.
So the Delhi Laws Act opinion comes first and the Special Courts Bill opinion last. Every option placing the Special Courts Bill or Berubari first reverses that sequence.
Who among the following Governors of Madhya Pradesh has been the Chief Minister of Haryana ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
The Governor of Madhya Pradesh who had been Chief Minister of Haryana is Dr. Bhagwat Dayal Sharma.
Bhagwat Dayal Sharma was the first Chief Minister of Haryana when the state was formed in November 1966. He later served as Governor of Odisha and then of Madhya Pradesh.
Ram Prakash Gupta had been Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh and Ram Naresh Yadav also of Uttar Pradesh, and Dr. Balram Jakhar, a former Speaker of the Lok Sabha from Punjab, was never Chief Minister of Haryana.
Who among the following has not been the acting Governor of Madhya Pradesh?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
The person who has not been acting Governor of Madhya Pradesh is Justice G. D. Dixit.
The state's list of Governors records four spells of acting Governors, all of them High Court judges: Justice P. V. Dixit (3 to 9 February 1966), Justice Guru Prasanna Singh (26 May to 9 July 1981, and again 21 September to 7 October 1983) and Justice Narayan Dutta Ojha (1 to 29 December 1987). No Justice G. D. Dixit appears in the list.
So N. D. Ojha (A), P. V. Dixit (B) and G. P. Singh (D) all acted as Governor, and only option C does not belong. Do not confuse G. D. Dixit with P. V. Dixit, who did serve.
As per the Indian Constitution, the essential qualifications to become a Chief Election Commissioner are:
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
The answer is None of the above.
Article 324, which creates the Election Commission, prescribes no qualifications for the Chief Election Commissioner. The Constitution leaves appointment to the President, and the tenure and conditions are fixed by law.
In practice CECs have often been senior civil servants, but service in the IAS is not a constitutional requirement. A minimum age of thirty-five is a qualification for the President, and the Constitution lays down neither an age nor years of legal practice for the CEC.
Which of the three lists in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains an entry that explicitly includes 'land revenue' as a subject matter of legislation ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : B
The entry is in List II - State List.
Entry 45 of the State List reads 'Land revenue, including the assessment and collection of revenue, the maintenance of land records, survey for revenue purposes and records of rights, and alienation of revenues'. Land and land revenue have always been state subjects in India.
The Union List deals with taxes such as income tax other than on agricultural income and customs, and the Concurrent List has no entry on land revenue.
In which case Supreme Court decided that not singing of National Anthem cannot be considered its disrespect or offence ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : A
The case is the Bijoe Emmanuel case (1986).
Three Jehovah's Witness children in Kerala were expelled from school because they stood respectfully during the National Anthem but did not sing it, on grounds of faith. In Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala the Supreme Court held that standing in silence was not disrespect, that no law required them to sing, and that their expulsion violated their freedom of conscience and religion under Articles 19(1)(a) and 25.
Maneka Gandhi (1978) is about personal liberty under Article 21. No case named M.C. Mittal deals with the National Anthem; the similar-sounding M.C. Mehta cases are about environmental law. Brij Bhushan (1950) is about pre-censorship of the press.
Which of the following article is related to the representation of Anglo-Indian community in the legislative assemblies of the states ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : A
The article is Article 333.
Article 333 allowed the Governor of a State to nominate a member of the Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly if the community was not adequately represented. The 104th Amendment (2019) ended this nomination from January 2020, but the provision is still the one the question refers to.
Article 332 reserves seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in state assemblies. Article 334 sets the time limit on those reservations and on the special representation. Article 335 deals with the claims of SCs and STs to services and posts.
By which time Governor has to return an ordinary bill to the concerned State Legislative Assembly for re-consideration?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
The answer is no time limit.
Under Article 200 the Governor may assent to a bill, withhold assent, reserve it for the President, or return a bill other than a money bill to the legislature for reconsideration. The Article says the bill is to be returned "as soon as possible" after it is presented, but the Constitution fixes no period in days or months. If the House passes it again, with or without changes, the Governor cannot withhold assent.
One month and two months appear nowhere in Article 200. Six months is the period in Article 201 within which a state legislature must reconsider a bill that the President has directed the Governor to return, which is a different situation.
Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India makes the provision of Tribes Advisory Councils ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : A
Tribes Advisory Councils are provided for in the Fifth Schedule.
The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Paragraph 4 requires every state with Scheduled Areas to set up a Tribes Advisory Council of up to 20 members, three-fourths of them Scheduled Tribe members of the state assembly, to advise on tribal welfare.
The Sixth Schedule provides autonomous district councils for tribal areas of the four north-eastern states, the Seventh divides legislative subjects, and the Eighth lists the official languages.
Which among the following province secured highest representation in the Constituent Assembly of India as on 31st December 1947 ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : A
Among the four options, the province with the highest representation was Madras.
After Partition, the reorganised Constituent Assembly's figures as on 31 December 1947 gave Madras 49 seats, against Bihar 36, Bombay 21 and West Bengal 19.
The United Provinces actually had more members than Madras (55), but it is not among the options, so of those offered Madras is the highest. Bihar is the usual trap, since it comes second among the four.
Who was the chairman of the drafting Committee of the constituent Assembly?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
The chairman of the Drafting Committee was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
The Drafting Committee was set up by the Constituent Assembly on 29 August 1947 with seven members and Dr. Ambedkar as chairman. It prepared the Draft Constitution published in February 1948, which Ambedkar piloted through the Assembly.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was President of the Constituent Assembly, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution and chaired the Union Powers and Union Constitution Committees, and Sardar Patel chaired the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities.
Which among the following bodies conducts the elections to the Municipalities ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
Municipal elections are conducted by the State Election Commission.
Article 243ZA, added by the 74th Amendment, vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the Municipalities in the State Election Commission set up under Article 243K, the same body that conducts panchayat elections.
The Election Commission of India conducts elections to Parliament, the state legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President. The Chief Electoral Officer and District Electoral Officers are its officers in the states and districts.
What is the name of the law passed in 2023 by the Indian Parliament which ensures reservation for women in legislatures ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
The law is the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam.
Passed by Parliament in September 2023 as the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023, it reserves one-third of the seats in the Lok Sabha, the state Legislative Assemblies and the Delhi Assembly for women, including one-third of the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The reservation takes effect after the first census and delimitation following the Act.
The other three names are invented; no Act of Parliament bears them.
Choose the correct Option on the basis of an Assertion (A) and reasons(R) given below.
Assertion(A):- The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October; 1993.
Reason(R):- Section 2(1)(d) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, defines Human Rights as the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
Both statements are correct, but the Reason does not explain the Assertion, so the answer is both correct, R not the explanation of A. The National Human Rights Commission was established on 12 October 1993, and Section 2(1)(d) of the Protection of Human Rights Act defines human rights as rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the international covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
The definition says what human rights are; it does not say why or when the Commission was established. The options calling the Assertion or the Reason false are wrong.
Under the constitutional framework of India, the Supreme Court gradually relaxed the traditional rule of locus standi, thereby allowing public-spirited individuals to approach the Court for enforcement of fundamental rights of others. This development is most closely associated with :
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : B
The development is the evolution of Public Interest Litigation.
Traditionally only a person whose own right was infringed could move the court. From the late 1970s the Supreme Court relaxed this rule of locus standi so that any public-spirited person could approach it on behalf of those unable to do so themselves, often the poor or the detained. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981) set out the liberalised rule, and decisions such as Hussainara Khatoon and the bonded labour cases followed it.
Judicial review of administrative action and Article 226 writ jurisdiction existed long before and do not by themselves relax standing. 'Individual petitions alone' is the very opposite of what changed.
In the context of the Constitution of India, a pension scheme differentiates between employees retiring before and after a specified cut-off date. Those excluded challenge the classification as arbitrary. The constitutional issue would primarily attract :
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
The issue attracts Article 14 and the principle of classification.
Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits reasonable classification. A classification is valid only if it rests on an intelligible differentia and that differentia has a rational nexus with the object of the law. Pension cut-off dates are the classic setting: in D.S. Nakara v. Union of India (1983) the Supreme Court struck down a cut-off that split pensioners into two classes for a liberalised formula, as arbitrary under Article 14.
Legislative competence asks whether the legislature could make the law at all, not whether it treats people equally. The doctrine of eclipse concerns pre-Constitution laws overshadowed by fundamental rights, and severability concerns whether an invalid part can be cut away from a valid statute. None of these is the primary question here.
Marks
Total number of questions : 20
Number of answered questions : 0
Number of unanswered questions : 20