Instruction
- Total number of questions : 20
- Time allotted : 30:00 Minutes:Seconds.
- Each question carry 1 mark, no negative marks.
- DO NOT refresh the page.
- All the best
Criminal Law (IPC and BNS) [ Question No: 1 To 20 ] :
Sunita sees a man trying to snatch her bag. She hits him with her elbow and runs. The man later files an FIR claiming assault. Which defense will Sunita most likely claim under IPC/BNS ?
'A' has consensual sexual relations with 'Z's wife. She gives to 'A' a valuable property which 'A' knows to belong to her husband 'Z' and she has no authority from 'Z' to give. 'A' takes the property dishonestly. Which one of the following offences has been committed by 'A
Which act does not fall under petty organized crime ?
The offence of mob lynching, newly introduced under Section 103 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is based on which landmark Supreme Court judgement that laid down preventive and remedial guidelines ?
'A', in India instigates 'B', a foreigner in Bangladesh to commit a murder in Bangladesh. 'B' commits that murder. In this case
A is cutting wood with an axe at a place where children are playing nearby. Without any negligence on the part of A, suddenly the axe flies off and kills a child. A is liable for
What does the BNS specify as the minimum age of criminal responsibility ?
Under Section 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following conditions must be cumulatively satisfied for a woman's death to be classified as a dowry death ?
Punishment for contravention in relation to poppy straw where the contravention involves quantity lesser than commercial quantity but greater than small quantity, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to
Which one of the following is not an offence under the NDPS Act, 1985 ?
Fraudulent intention is defined in
Which section of The Arms Act, 1959 deals with the Power to restrict or prohibit transport of arms ?
Anything which has the appearance of being a firearm, whether it is capable of discharging any shot, bullet or other missile or not is a/an
Under the Arms Act, a person may acquire, have in his possession or carry any firearm or ammunition
..................looks at sanction as instrument of rehabilitation and tries to mould the behaviour of criminal.
For abetment by conspiracy :
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using codes given below it :
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) The state of mind of a man who not only foresees but also desires the possible consequences of his conduct. | (i) Knowledge |
| (b) The actor does not desire the consequences but foresees the possibility and consciously takes the risk | (ii) Negligence |
| (c) Personal information of the person doing the act or the conscious awareness of certain facts. | (iii) Intention |
| (d) Failure to take reasonable care to avoid causing injury or loss to another person. | (iv) Recklessness |
Right to Private defence of body and of property has been dealt with under :
Which of the following Sections of IPC are concerned with Dowry Death ?
Motive under Section 81 of IPC should be :
Total number of questions : 20
Number of answered questions : 0
Number of unanswered questions : 20
Criminal Law (IPC and BNS) [ Question No: 1 To 20 ] :
Sunita sees a man trying to snatch her bag. She hits him with her elbow and runs. The man later files an FIR claiming assault. Which defense will Sunita most likely claim under IPC/BNS ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
Sunita will claim Private defence.
The BNS gives every person the right to defend their own property against theft and robbery, and their body against assault. Hitting a man who is trying to snatch her bag, with only the force needed to stop him, falls within the right of private defence, so no offence is committed.
Mistake of fact applies when someone acts on a wrong belief about the facts, necessity when harm is caused to avoid a greater harm to others, and accident when harm happens by chance in a lawful act. Sunita acted deliberately to protect herself.
'A' has consensual sexual relations with 'Z's wife. She gives to 'A' a valuable property which 'A' knows to belong to her husband 'Z' and she has no authority from 'Z' to give. 'A' takes the property dishonestly. Which one of the following offences has been committed by 'A
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
A has committed theft.
This is an illustration to the definition of theft. The property belongs to Z and is in his possession through his household. Z's wife has no authority from him to give it away, so her 'consent' is not Z's consent. When A, knowing this, takes the property dishonestly, he moves it out of Z's possession without Z's consent, which is theft.
It is not criminal breach of trust, because the property was never entrusted to A. It is not criminal misappropriation, which concerns property that comes into a person's possession innocently and is later converted, whereas A took it dishonestly from the start.
Which act does not fall under petty organized crime ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
The act that does not fall under petty organised crime is mischief.
Section 112 of the BNS defines petty organised crime as crime that causes a general feeling of insecurity among citizens, committed by groups or gangs, including theft, snatching, cheating, unauthorised selling of tickets, unauthorised betting or gambling, selling of public examination question papers, and similar acts.
Theft, cheating and unauthorised betting all appear in that list. Mischief (causing damage to property) does not.
The offence of mob lynching, newly introduced under Section 103 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is based on which landmark Supreme Court judgement that laid down preventive and remedial guidelines ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : B
The judgment is Tehseen Poonawalla Vs. Union of India, 2018.
In July 2018 the Supreme Court, condemning 'horrendous acts of mobocracy', laid down preventive, remedial and punitive guidelines against lynching and urged Parliament to create a separate offence. Section 103(2) of the BNS now punishes murder by a group of five or more acting in concert on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief with death or life imprisonment.
Shakti Vahini (2018) concerned honour killings, Common Cause (2018) passive euthanasia and living wills, and PUCL (2003) the voter's right to know about candidates.
'A', in India instigates 'B', a foreigner in Bangladesh to commit a murder in Bangladesh. 'B' commits that murder. In this case
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : A
'A' is guilty of abetting murder.
Section 108A IPC provides that a person abets an offence within the meaning of the Code who, in India, abets the commission of any act outside India which would constitute an offence if committed in India. Its illustration is this very situation: A, in India, instigates B, a foreigner abroad, to commit a murder there, and A is guilty of abetting murder.
A did not commit the murder himself, so he is not liable as the murderer, and he is plainly not free of all offence. Since one statement is correct, D is wrong.
A is cutting wood with an axe at a place where children are playing nearby. Without any negligence on the part of A, suddenly the axe flies off and kills a child. A is liable for
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
A is liable for no offence.
Section 80 IPC: nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge, in doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution. Its own illustration is a man working with a hatchet whose head flies off and kills a bystander.
The question states there was no negligence, so causing death by negligence (Section 304A) does not apply. With no intention or knowledge, there is no murder or culpable homicide either.
What does the BNS specify as the minimum age of criminal responsibility ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : A
The answer is more than 7 years if he is able to understand the facts and circumstances.
The BNS keeps the old rule of doli incapax. Under section 20, nothing done by a child under seven is an offence: below that age there is no criminal responsibility at all. Under section 21, a child above seven and under twelve is not liable if he has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct. So responsibility can begin only above seven, and then only if the child understands what he is doing.
12 years is the age above which the maturity test no longer applies, not the minimum. 10 and 14 are minimum ages used in other countries' laws, not in the BNS.
Under Section 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following conditions must be cumulatively satisfied for a woman's death to be classified as a dowry death ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : B
The conditions are those in option B: death within seven years of marriage by burns, bodily injury or otherwise than under normal circumstances, with cruelty or harassment for dowry soon before death.
Section 80(1) of the BNS defines dowry death by three cumulative conditions: an unnatural death (by burns, bodily injury or otherwise than under normal circumstances); within seven years of marriage; and evidence that soon before her death she was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives for, or in connection with, a demand for dowry.
Option A speaks of death under normal circumstances, option C of death after seven years, and option D drops the dowry-related cruelty soon before death, so each misses a required condition.
Punishment for contravention in relation to poppy straw where the contravention involves quantity lesser than commercial quantity but greater than small quantity, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : B
The punishment may extend to ten years, with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees.
Section 15 of the NDPS Act punishes contraventions relating to poppy straw by quantity: small quantity, rigorous imprisonment up to one year or fine up to ten thousand rupees or both (clause a); more than small but less than commercial quantity, rigorous imprisonment up to ten years and fine up to one lakh rupees (clause b); commercial quantity, ten to twenty years and fine of one to two lakh rupees (clause c).
So option A is the small-quantity penalty and option C the commercial-quantity one, neither of which applies to an intermediate quantity.
Which one of the following is not an offence under the NDPS Act, 1985 ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
The key names possessing dried ganja leaves as the item that is not an offence.
The NDPS Act defines ganja as the flowering or fruiting tops of the cannabis plant, and excludes the seeds and leaves when they are not accompanied by the tops. Dried leaves alone are therefore not ganja, and possessing them is not an offence under the Act's ganja provisions. Smoking ganja, option A, is consumption of a narcotic drug and is punishable.
The same definition leaves seeds out as well, so option B is open to the same objection, and producing seeds, option D, may be tied to cultivating the plant, which is an offence. The printed question therefore has more than one arguable answer, and the Commission's key is the one recorded here.
Fraudulent intention is defined in
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
Fraudulent intention is defined in Section 25 of IPC.
Section 25 provides that a person is said to do a thing fraudulently if he does that thing with intent to defraud but not otherwise. The companion definition, dishonestly, is in Section 24.
Section 35 deals with acts done by several persons with criminal knowledge or intention, Section 45 defines 'life', and Section 75 provides enhanced punishment after a previous conviction.
Which section of The Arms Act, 1959 deals with the Power to restrict or prohibit transport of arms ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : A
The power to restrict or prohibit transport of arms is in Section 12 of the Arms Act.
Section 12 lets the Central Government, by notification, regulate or prohibit the transport of any arms or ammunition, either generally or in a specified area, to the extent it considers necessary in the public interest.
Section 13 deals with the grant of licences, section 14 with the refusal of licences, and section 18 with appeals against orders of the licensing authority. None of them confers the power over transport.
Anything which has the appearance of being a firearm, whether it is capable of discharging any shot, bullet or other missile or not is a/an
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
Such a thing is an imitation firearm.
The Arms Act (Explanation to section 28) defines an imitation firearm as anything which has the appearance of being a firearm, whether or not it is capable of discharging any shot, bullet or other missile. Section 28 punishes the use or possession of a firearm or imitation firearm to resist arrest.
Ammunition is what a firearm discharges, not something that looks like a firearm. Prohibited arms are specific dangerous weapons defined in section 2(1)(i). 'Replica firearm' is not a term the Act defines.
Under the Arms Act, a person may acquire, have in his possession or carry any firearm or ammunition
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
The age is 21 years.
Section 9(1)(a)(i) of the Arms Act provides that no person who has not completed the age of twenty-one years shall acquire, have in his possession or carry any firearm or ammunition. A proviso allows a younger person to use a firearm for training in sport or shooting under proper supervision, but not to acquire or carry one on his own. A person of 21 or more still needs a licence.
16 and 18 are below the statutory age, and 25 is above it.
..................looks at sanction as instrument of rehabilitation and tries to mould the behaviour of criminal.
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : C
The description fits the reformative theory.
The reformative theory treats crime as a symptom of the offender's circumstances or condition and punishment as a means of rehabilitation: education, training, probation, parole and humane prison conditions are used to reshape the offender's behaviour so that he can return to society as a law-abiding person.
The deterrent theory aims to frighten the offender and others away from crime, the preventive theory to disable the offender from repeating it, and the retributive theory to give the offender the suffering he deserves.
For abetment by conspiracy :
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : B
For abetment by conspiracy, some act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of the engagement.
Section 107 of the IPC describes three forms of abetment. The second, conspiracy, requires that the person engages with others in a conspiracy to do a thing, and that an act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy and in order to do that thing. A mere agreement is enough for criminal conspiracy as a separate offence under Section 120A, but not for abetment by conspiracy.
Intentional aid is abetment by aiding, and instigation is abetment by instigation, the third and first forms.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using codes given below it :
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) The state of mind of a man who not only foresees but also desires the possible consequences of his conduct. | (i) Knowledge |
| (b) The actor does not desire the consequences but foresees the possibility and consciously takes the risk | (ii) Negligence |
| (c) Personal information of the person doing the act or the conscious awareness of certain facts. | (iii) Intention |
| (d) Failure to take reasonable care to avoid causing injury or loss to another person. | (iv) Recklessness |
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
The correct matching is a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii.
- (a) Foreseeing and desiring the consequences is intention.
- (b) Foreseeing the possibility without desiring it, and consciously taking the risk, is recklessness.
- (c) Conscious awareness of certain facts is knowledge.
- (d) Failure to take reasonable care to avoid injury to another is negligence.
Option C swaps knowledge and recklessness, and options A and B put intention against the wrong description.
Right to Private defence of body and of property has been dealt with under :
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : B
It is dealt with under Section 97 of the IPC.
Section 97 states that every person has a right, subject to the restrictions in Section 99, to defend his own body and the body of any other person against an offence affecting the human body, and his own or another's property against theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass, or attempts at them.
Section 96 says only that nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence. Section 98 extends the right to acts of persons of unsound mind and others without criminal capacity, and Section 99 sets the limits of the right.
Which of the following Sections of IPC are concerned with Dowry Death ?
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
Dowry death is dealt with in Section 304B of the IPC.
Section 304B, added in 1986, provides that where a woman dies of burns or bodily injury, or otherwise than under normal circumstances, within seven years of marriage, and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives in connection with a demand for dowry, the death is a dowry death and the husband or relative is deemed to have caused it. The punishment is imprisonment for not less than seven years, up to life.
Section 302 is the punishment for murder, Section 304 for culpable homicide not amounting to murder, and Section 304A for causing death by negligence.
Motive under Section 81 of IPC should be :
Your Answer : (Not Answered)
Correct Answer : D
The motive should be either (A) or (B): the prevention of harm to person or to property.
Section 81 of the Indian Penal Code (act likely to cause harm, but done without criminal intent, and to prevent other harm) protects an act done in good faith 'for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to person or property'. The section uses 'or', so it is enough that the purpose was to prevent harm to a person or to prevent harm to property.
Requiring both together would narrow the section beyond its words, and either one alone is only one of the two purposes it allows.
Marks
Total number of questions : 20
Number of answered questions : 0
Number of unanswered questions : 20