Andaman Nicobar Group C 2023: A&N Health Department, Nursing Officer, CBT, Slot 10
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1. Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is a measure of - a. Neurological assessment b. Level of consciousness (LOC) c. Fluid volume d. Intra cranial pressure (ICP) Answer: “Level of consciousness (LOC)” 2. Which is the following medications would the nurse anticipate the physician would order to increase the blood pressure for a patient with septic shock- a. Atropine b. Dopamine c. Digoxin d. Nursing Officer (Erstwhile Staff Nurse / Male Nurse)
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Answer: “Dopamine” 3. The Non-modifiable risk factors for hypertension include all except : a. Age b. Genetic factors c. Obesity d. Sex Answer: “Obesity” 4. The benign tumor of blood vessel is called- a. Hemangioma b. Myoma c. Lipoma d.
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Adenoma Answer: “Hemangioma” 5. Which is not an example of S.T.D. a. Hepatitis-A b. Syphilis c. AIDS d. Gono Answer: “Hepatitis-A” 6. The test that is most specific for myocardial damage is- a. CK MB b. Myoglobin c. Troponin-I
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d. CK Answer: “CK MB” 7. Which one of the following actions would a nurse take first when caring for a patient experiencing a cardiac arrest- a. Initiate cardiac monitoring b. Provide intravenous access c. Establish an open airway d. Obtain a pulse oximetry reading Answer: “Establish an open airway” 8. Fever, headache and nuchal rigidity are classic symptoms seen in- a. Parkinson disease b. Alzheimer’s disease c.
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Brain abscess d. Meningitis Answer: “Meningitis” 9. Which of the following is most important to prevent the progress of disease in thrombo-angiitis obliterans (Buerger’s disease) - a. Controlling blood pressure b. Controlling diabetes c. Weight reduction d. Smoking cessation Answer: “Smoking cessation” 10. A patient is scheduled for a IVP using a radio opaque dye, which of the following assessment is most critical before the procedure- a. History of intake and output b.
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Measurement of baseline peripheral pulse rate c. Measurement of heights and weight d. History of allergy of iodine Answer: “History of allergy of iodine” 11. Which of the following method of intracranial pressure monitoring provides most accurate results- a. Epidural catheter b. Intraventricular catheter c. Subarachnoid catheter d. Intravertebral catheter Answer: “Subarachnoid catheter” 12. During head injury what is the cause of increase in body temperature - a. Pons injury
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b. Hypothalamus injury c. Cerebellum injury d. Medulla injury Answer: “Hypothalamus injury” 13. During Lumbar puncture which position is given to a patient- a. Supine position b. Side-lying 'C' c. Lithotomy position d. Fowler's position Answer: “Side-lying 'C'” 14. What do you mean by cyanosis- a.
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Yellowish coloration of skin b. Blue coloration of skin c. Increase respiration rate d. Loss of appetite Answer: “Blue coloration of skin” 15. By ECG which organ is examined- a. Kidney b. Heart c. Brain d. Liver Answer: “Heart” 16. What are the cell wall structural components of fungi? a.
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peptidoglycan b. cellulose c. chitin d. chitin, cellulose, or hemicellulose Answer: “chitin, cellulose, or hemicellulose” 17. Plasmodium divides by which of the following method most commonly? a. Regeneration b. Budding c. Binary fission d. Multiple fission Answer: “Multiple fission” 18. posthitis is a.
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Inflammation of penis b. Inflammation of testes c. Inflammation of scrotum d. inflammation of foreskin Answer: “inflammation of foreskin” 19. Element helpful in blood coagulation a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Chloride Answer: “Calcium” 20. A person is allergic for peanut butter an is going into anaphylactic shock. What do you do next?
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a. Have them sit with their head between her knees and have them breathe deeply b. Give them some water to cool the throat c. Give them some aspirin immediately d. Give them some sweet drinks Answer: “Give them some aspirin immediately” 21. A patient with diagnosis of splenomegaly the nurse palpates on which quadrant of abdomen. a. Right Hypochondria b. Epigastric c. Left Hypochondria d.
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Left Lumbar. Answer: “Left Hypochondria” 22. A Nurse administers prescribed antitussive medicine, before giving nurse explains the action of drug is a. Relives itching b. Relives allergies c. Inhibit the cough reflex d. Relax the bronchioles Answer: “Inhibit the cough reflex” 23. A nurse has volunteered to give influenza immunizations at a campaign organized by the state government. What level of care is the nurse demonstrating a.
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Tertiary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Primary prevention d. Curative Answer: “Primary prevention” 24. A patient in a community health clinic tells the nurse, “I have a high temperature, feel awful, and I am not going to work.” what stage of illness behavior is the patient exhibiting? a. Experiencing symptoms b. Assuming a dependent role c.
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Assuming the sick role d. Achieving recovery and rehabilitation Answer: “Assuming the sick role” 25. Applying the gate control theory of pain, what would be the effective nursing intervention for a patient with lower back pain a. Encouraging regular use of analgesics b. Applying a moist heating pad to the area for a patient with lower back pain c. Reviewing the pain experience with patient d. Ambulating the patient after administering medication Answer: “Reviewing the pain experience with patient” 26.
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To assess the gross motor function, nurse perform which test a. Walking Gait Test b. Romberg Test c. Toe or Heal Walking d. Finger-To-Nose Test Answer: “Walking Gait Test” 27. A nurse plan to perform the bed bath, she makes sure temperature of water is a. 90-100F b. 105-110F c.
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115F d. 120-125 F Answer: “105-110F” 28. A nurse performs stool examination using Bristol chart, she identifies type 3 stool. What is the characteristic of this type of stool? a. Lumpy and sausage b. Very constipation c. A sausage shape with cracks in the surface d. Mushy consistency Answer: “A sausage shape with cracks in the surface” 29.
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A nurse identifies abdominal distension in post-operative patient, he complaint of pain and not able to pass flatulence. Nurse plan for which type of enema to relive the gaseous distension a. Retain enema b. Anthelminthic enema c. Carminative enema d. Purgative enema Answer: “Carminative enema” 30. Nurse perform the back care procedure to a bed ridden patient daily because the benefit of the back care includes all, except a. Promote circulation b.
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Improve the nerve stimulation c. Heal the bed sore d. Relives muscle tension Answer: “Heal the bed sore” 31. While administering IV Nitroglycerine the nurse must a) Administer fluids to the patient b) Check serum electrolytes c) Monitor blood pressure of the patient d) Monitor for arrhythmias
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Answer: “Monitor for arrhythmias” 32. When administering enteral feeds which of the following nursing action is appropriate? a) Crush the enteric coated tablet and administer b) Give bolus feed in jejunostomy tubes c) Mix the medication with feeds and administer d) Elevate the head end to of the bed Answer: “Elevate the head end to of the bed” 33. A patient is having signs and symptoms of increased Intracranial pressure , Which of the following group of drugs would be administered to the patient ? a) Thiazide diuretics
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b) Corticosteroids c) Osmotic diuretics d) Loop diuretics Answer: “Osmotic diuretics” 34. when nurse notices pill rolling tremors, she understand the following drug is treatment of choice for this condition 2065 a) Neostigmine b) Immunoglobulin c) Baclofen d)
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Levodopa Answer: “Levodopa” 35. A surgeon blames the OT nurse for his own mistake after an unsuccessful operation. This is an example of : a. Denial b. Projection c. Regression d. Dissociation Answer: “Projection” 36. One among the following is NOT the characteristics of mentally healthy person? a. He/she has ability to make adjustments b. He or she has a sense of personal worth
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c. He /she shows emotional maturity d. He /she lives in the world of fantasy Answer: “He /she lives in the world of fantasy” 37. Management of increased ICP includes all except a) Administration of Osmotic Diuretics b) Administration of Hypertonic saline c) Administration of Hypotonic saline d) Administration of corticosteroids Answer: “Administration of Hypotonic saline” 38.
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When administering fluids to patients with cardiovascular disease the nurse must assess a) Signs of circulatory overload b) Signs of kidney failure c) Signs of Hyperkalemia d) Signs of dehydration Answer: “Signs of circulatory overload” 39. Blood-stained plaster discarded in which colour coded bio medical waste bin? a) Blue b) Black c)
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Yellow d) Red Answer: “Yellow” 40. The functional unit of the kidneys is the a. Neuron b. Neural glial cell c. Nephron d. Ureters Answer: “Nephron” 41. All are the part of urinary systems except a. Ureter b.
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Uterus c. Kidney d. Urinary bladder Answer: “Uterus” 42. Which is found in the highest concentration in the urine ? a. Uric acid b. Urea c. Glucose d. Creatinine Answer: “Urea” 43. The primary function of the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney is ?
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a. The active re-absorption of sodium b. The active re-absorption of chloride ions c. The passive re-absorption of potassium d. The passive re-absorption of urea Answer: “The active re-absorption of sodium” 44. The functional theory of social stratification is expounded in the writings of : a. Davis and blake b. Davis and Moore c.
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Parsons and Bala d. Marx and Weber Answer: “Davis and Moore” 45. The following vitamin deficiency is observed commonly among alcohol dependents a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin B d. Vitamin E Answer: “Vitamin B” 46. Informed consent is not required to be obtained for the following condition. a.
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Narcoanalysis b. Treatment with drugs –Disulfiram therapy c. Admission of the patient to a psychiatric hospital on voluntary basis d. Procedures like medication administration prescribed by physician on daily basis Answer: “Procedures like medication administration prescribed by physician on daily basis” 47. The Government of India launched the “National Mental Health Programme” in the year a. 1980 b. 1982 c. 1984 d.
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1986 Answer: “1982” 48. The following are the signs and symptoms associated with mental illness except a. Alteration in biological functions b. Alteration in personality /behaviour c. Alteration in orientation d. Aware of real life situations Answer: “Aware of real life situations” 49. A worker who had been in the battery manufacturing unit for the last 20 years, reported to you with complaints of loss of appetite and abdominal colic of 2 weeks’ duration. Occupational health nurse would suggest to him for undergoing which of the following investigation? a) Cholecystitis
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b) Lead poisoning c) Appendicitis d) Amoebiasis Answer: “Lead poisoning” 50. A 35 years old man working in roofing industry presented to his Occupational health nurse with complaints of dyspnea and chronic dry cough. Chest X –ray revealed pulmonary hyperinflation with “honey – comb” appearance and calcified parietal pleural plaques. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) Anthracosis b) Asbestosis c) Byssinosis d)
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Silicosis Answer: “Asbestosis” 51. A health team visited along with the community leaders and health workers, all the primary schools and Anganwadi center in a village to give polio drops during polio campaign. The community workers facilitated identification of houses with children less than five years of age. This reflects which principle of primary health care? a) situational analysis b) Community participation c) Intersectoral coordination d) Prioritization Answer: “Community participation” 52. For providing quality health services, community participation plays an essential role. To ensure maximum community participation, which level of health care system should be strengthened?
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a) Primary Health care b) Tertiary health care c) secondary Health care d) First referral unit Answer: “Primary Health care” 53. A woman reports for vaccination against tetanus only 25 days before expected delivery date; she has not received the first dose. What will you do? a) Give anti-tetanus immunoglobulin b) Give two doses of tetanus toxoid with 2 weeks’ interval
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c) Advise appropriate antibiotic course during delivery d) Give one dose of tetanus toxoid and advice Answer: “Give one dose of tetanus toxoid and advice” 54. You are conducting a school health programme. What is the visual acuity used as cut off for differentiating “normal” from “abnormal” children in the School Vision Screening Programme in India? a) 6/6 b) 6/9 c) 6/12 d) 6/60 Answer: “6/9” 55. In a village government is distributing insecticide treated net. These nets are treated with which of the following insecticide?
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a) Deltamethrin and Cyfluthrin b) Pyrethrum c) Diethyl toluamide d) Malathion Answer: “Deltamethrin and Cyfluthrin” 56. Late fetal deaths and early neonatal deaths are considered in which of the following indices? a) Infant mortality rate b) Still birth rate c)
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Perinatal mortality rate d) Post neonatal mortality rate Answer: “Perinatal mortality rate “ 57. In a given population, total births in a year are 4050. There are 50 still births. 50 neonates die within first 7 days of life whereas the number of deaths within 8-28 days of life is 150. What is the Neonatal mortality rate in the population? a) 12.5 b) 50 c) 49.4 d) 62.5 Answer: “50” 58. For international comparison, the WHO expert committee defines ‘still birth’ as birth of dead and underweight of fetus more than how?
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a) 500 b) 1000 c) 1500 d) 2000 Answer: “1000” 59. You are performing growth monitoring. Baby Raju weight is marked in the uppermost line of the ‘road to health card’. What does this reflect about Raju’s growth? a) 80% for boys b) 50th percentile for boys c)
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50% for girls d) 3rd percentile for girls Answer: “50th percentile for boys” 60. You are doing a Nutritional assessment for pediatric clients in a village. Mid upper arm circumference is an important indicator for nutritional assessment. During which age Mid arm circumference is constant? a) 0-6 months b) 1-5 years c) 5-10 years d) 10 years Answer: “1-5 years” 61. Boys over 16 years who are difficult to be handled in a certified school. Where are they sent for training and reformation, for 3 yrs?
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a) Orphanage b) Foster Home c) Borstal d) Remand Home Answer: “Borstal” 62. During lecture method of health education the group should not be more than a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 Answer: “20”
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63. Which one of the health education methods facilitates two way communication a. Lecture method b. Demonstration c. Field visit d. Group discussion Answer: “Group discussion” 64. ___ describes every type of human communication that is not verbal. a. vocalists b. prosody c.
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haptics d. para language Answer: “para language” 65. Normally, communication is ___ in which the information or message is transferred from one person to another. a. important b. interpersonal c. personal d. impersonal Answer: “interpersonal” 66. What connects the sender to the receiver? a. Channel b. Communication
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c. Noise d. feedback Answer: “Channel” 67. The ___ in the usage of words may be a severe barrier to effective communication. a. disturbance b. discrimination c. disorder d. distortion Answer: “distortion” 68. Which one of the following is an unhealthy habit? a. Sharing food b.
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Bathing twice a day c. Drinking boiled water d. Eating without washing one’s hand Answer: “Eating without washing one’s hand” 69. The process of genital organs revert back to nearly the same state as they were in before pregnancy is called a. Puerperium b. Involution c. Sub involution d. Retraction Answer: “Involution” 70.
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Nipple confusion is a. Situation the infant accepts the artificial nipple b. Situation the infant accepts the artificial nipple but refuses the mother’s nipple c. Situation the infant accepts the artificial nipple and the mother’s nipple d. Mother avoids postpartum frequent feeding rather than prolonged feeding Answer: “Situation the infant accepts the artificial nipple but refuses the mother’s nipple” 71. Postpartum intrauterine cervical device insertion-related perforation can be reduced by insertion of IUD within a. 10 minutes of placental delivery b. During caesarean section c.
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Within 48 hours of postpartum d. 4-6 weeks of post-partum Answer: “4-6 weeks of post-partum” 72. The antenatal woman was reported to the emergency department with complaints of lower abdominal pain, offensive and purulent vaginal discharge and high-grade fever. It is associated with a. Missed abortion b. Threatened abortion c. Spontaneous abortion d. Septic abortion Answer: “Septic abortion” 73. Cervical cerclage is done at a.
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20 weeks b. 14 weeks c. 24 weeks d. 12 weeks Answer: “14 weeks” 74. A Fertilized ovum is implanted and develops outside the normal endometrial cavity and is called a. Heterotopic pregnancy b. Vesicular pregnancy c. Molar pregnancy d.
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Ectopic pregnancy Answer: “Ectopic pregnancy” 75. Unruptured tubal pregnancy could be treated with a. Oxytocin b. Misoprostol c. Methotrexate d. Progesterone Answer: “Methotrexate” 76. Snowstorm appearance is present in sonography indicating the feature of a. Molar pregnancy b.
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Missed abortion c. Fibroid uterus d. Tubal pregnancy Answer: “Molar pregnancy” 77. The following sites are used for checking pulse during cardiac arrest/shock a. Carotid and femoral b. Carotid and popliteal c. Posterior tibial and radial d. Dorsal pedal and radial Answer: “Carotid and femoral” 78.
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The frequency of monitoring respiration in case of critically ill patients is ------ a. every 15 minutes b. every 30 minutes c. every 45 minutes d. every 60 minutes Answer: “every 15 minutes” 79. Patients with diseases like hypertension, kidney diseases are advised to take ---------- a. Low fat diet b. Low calorie diet c.
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Low protein diet d. Salt restricted diet Answer: “Salt restricted diet” 80. Following surgical procedure, after how many hours the patient is advised to shower safely for a post- operative would cleanse? a) Within 24 hours b) After 24 hours c) After 48 hours d) After 72 hours Answer: “After 48 hours” 81. In the Indian mythology, who sung Shiva Tandava Stotra? (A)
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Ravana (B) Rama (C) Kuber (D) Vibhishana Answer: “Ravana” 82. Which country has handed over the chairmanship of Wassenaar Arrangement to India in 2023? (A) France (B) Germany (C) Ireland (D) USA
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Answer: “Ireland” 83. Which institution launched its Medium-term Strategy Framework named ‘Utkarsh 2.0’? (A) ISRO (B) RBI (C) DRDO (D) NITI Aayog Answer: “RBI” 84. The main pollutant in the air is (A) CO2 (B) CO (C) N2 (D)
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Sulphur Answer: “CO” 85. The Revolt of 1857 failed mainly because (A) of superior resources of the British empire (B) it was poorly organized and the rebels had no common ideal (C) it had very little nationalist sentiment (D) it was localised restricted and scattered Answer: “it was poorly organized and the rebels had no common ideal” 86. Which of the following amendment bill exempted the state of Bihar from the obligation of having a tribal Welfare Minister? (A) 92nd (B)
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93rd (C) 94th (D) 95th Answer: “94th” 87. Which among the following is India’s deepest landlocked and protected port? (A) Vishakhapatnam (B) Chennai (C) Paradeep (D) Kandla Answer: “Vishakhapatnam” 88. ‘Jezero’, which was seen in the news, is a crater in which celestial body? (A)
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Jupiter (B) Saturn (C) Mars (D) Venus Answer: “Mars” 89. Which technology company has launched a platform that displays flood forecasts named ‘FloodHub’? (A) Microsoft (B) Apple (C) Google (D) Meta
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Answer: “Google” 90. Manisha Kalyan, who was seen in the news, is associated with which sports? (A) Cricket (B) Football (C) Boxing (D) Weight Lifting Answer: “Football” 91. What happens to the frequency of the pendulum if it is suspended from the ceiling of the lift moving downward with acceleration equal to acceleration due to gravity? (A) it increases (B) it decreases (C) No change
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(D) No oscillation Answer: “No oscillation” 92. What is the relationship between the spring constant k and the spring length in case of spring pendulum? (A) spring constant is inversely proportional to the spring length (B) spring constant is directly proportional to the spring length (C) spring constant is independent of the spring length (D) spring constant is twice the spring length Answer: “spring constant is inversely proportional to the spring length” 93. What do we call the distance of particle from the mean position at that instant in S.H.M? (A)
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Distance (B) Displacement (C) Phase (D) Angular frequency Answer: “Displacement” 94. What is the chemical name of Quick lime? (A) Calcium peroxide (B) Calcium oxide (C) Calcium dioxide (D) Calcium hydroxide Answer: “Calcium oxide” 95.
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Which of the following is NOT correct about Group 14 elements? (A) All of them are solids (B) Melting points are much higher than those of corresponding elements of group 13 (C) Carbon is a non-metal (D) Germanium is a metal Answer: “Germanium is a metal” 96. Which of the following defines the solubility of a solution? (A) amount of the solvent present in the saturated solution (B) amount of the solute present in the saturated solution (C) amount of the solute per amount of solute in the solution (D) difference of amount of solvent and the amount of solute Answer: “amount of the solute present in the saturated solution”
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97 What happens in the human body during respiration? (A) Formation of new cells (B) Formation of glucose (C) Oxidization of glucose (D) Formation of protein Answer: “Oxidization of glucose” 98 The left atrium receives the pure blood from the - (A) Superior venacava (B) Pulmonary artery (C) Pulmonary veins (D) Interior Venacava
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Answer: “Pulmonary veins” 99 Which of the following procedure is used to clean the blood of a person by separating urea from it? (A) Filtration (B) Osmosis (C) Dialysis (D) De-filteration Answer: “Dialysis” 100 Which of the following tube connects the kidneys to the urinary bladder? (A) Ureter (B) Urethra (C)
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Tubule (D) Nephron Answer: “Ureter”
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Source: Andaman and Nicobar Administration. Question paper published by Andaman and Nicobar Administration.