Andaman Nicobar Group C 2024: Directorate of Industries, Industries Promotion Officer, Slot 2

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1 If “A” denotes “added to”, “B” denotes “divided by”, “C” denotes “multiplied by” and “D” denotes “subtracted from”, then 87 B 3 C 4 A 4 D 50 = ? (A) 65 (B) 75 (C) 70 (D) 80 Answer:(C) 2 In a certain code language “feel free to fly” = “4l 4e 2o 3y”. “Why the statement” = “3y 3e 9t” then “Media” is coded as _________ . (A) 5m (B) 5e (C) 5a

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(D) 4a Answer:(C) 3 Mohini is taller than Nita but not shorter than Sarita. Sarita and Mahek are of same height. Mohini is shorter that Hemali. Among them, who is the second tallest? (A) Mohini (B) Nita (C) Hemali (D) None of all mentioned Answer:(D) 4 In a certain code language, “CAB” is written as “6” and “LEG” is written as “6”. How is “MAP” written in that code language? (A) 6 (B)

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4 (C) 3 (D) 8 Answer:(C) 5 If 11 # 2 @ 6 = 78 and 15 # 4 @ 8 = 152, then 17 # 6 @ 7 = ? (A) 161 (B) 143 (C) 221 (D) 157 Answer:(A) 6 "A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. MN, PQ, TU, YZ, ?" (A)

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YZ (B) AB (C) EF (D) EJ Answer:(C) 7 In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives. (A) Zinc – Metal (B) Aluminum – Metal (C) Crocodile – Water (D) Gold – Metal Answer:(C) 8 "Select the related number from the given alternatives. 97 : 63 : : 67 : ?"

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(A) 38 (B) 56 (C) 42 (D) 45 Answer:(C) 9 Jayesh is facing towards the east. He turns 270 degrees clockwise and then takes a right turn. Finally, he turns 90 degrees anticlockwise. Which direction is he facing now? (A) West (B) South (C) North (D) East Answer:(C)

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10 "Which set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it? p_rt_rr_p_rt" (A) rptr (B) rrtp (C) ptrr (D) tprt Answer:(A) 11 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives. (A) 17 – 12 (B) 29 – 14 (C) 21 – 16 (D)

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31 – 26 Answer:(B) 12 "S, R, N, L, M, T, O, & P are eight persons sitting in a circle facing the center. Their different occupations are-reporter, doctor, cricketer, teacher, accountant, shopkeeper, painter & Supervisor, but not necessarily in the same order as given. M is third to the left of O. Doctor is at the immediate right of M & M is not a reporter. R is fourth to the right of P. None of R & P are the nearest neighbours of M.T is a teacher & sitting third to the right of doctor. A shopkeeper is sitting second to the left of the teacher. Painter is sitting second to the left of M. Cricketer S is sitting exactly between T & P. Accountant is sitting second to the right of a cricketer. N is third to the left of T. Who form the following is a reporter?" (A) O (B) L (C) N (D) R Answer:(A)

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13 "S, R, N, L, M, T, O, & P are eight persons sitting in a circle facing the center. Their different occupations are-reporter, doctor, cricketer, teacher, accountant, shopkeeper, painter & Supervisor, but not necessarily in the same order as given. M is third to the left of O. Doctor is at the immediate right of M & M is not a reporter. R is fourth to the right of P. None of R & P are the nearest neighbours of M.T is a teacher & sitting third to the right of doctor. A shopkeeper is sitting second to the left of the teacher. Painter is sitting second to the left of M. Cricketer S is sitting exactly between T & P. Accountant is sitting second to the right of a cricketer. N is third to the left of T. What is the position of S regarding R?" (A) Third to the right (B) Second to the right (C) Third to the left (D) Second to the left Answer:(A) 14

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"S, R, N, L, M, T, O, & P are eight persons sitting in a circle facing the center. Their different occupations are-reporter, doctor, cricketer, teacher, accountant, shopkeeper, painter & Supervisor, but not necessarily in the same order as given. M is third to the left of O. Doctor is at the immediate right of M & M is not a reporter. R is fourth to the right of P. None of R & P are the nearest neighbours of M.T is a teacher & sitting third to the right of doctor. A shopkeeper is sitting second to the left of the teacher. Painter is sitting second to the left of M. Cricketer S is sitting exactly between T & P. Accountant is sitting second to the right of a cricketer. N is third to the left of T. If we count in the anti-clockwise direction starting from N; then how many persons are sitting between P & N?" (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four Answer:(D) 15

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"S, R, N, L, M, T, O, & P are eight persons sitting in a circle facing the center. Their different occupations are-reporter, doctor, cricketer, teacher, accountant, shopkeeper, painter & Supervisor, but not necessarily in the same order as given. M is third to the left of O. Doctor is at the immediate right of M & M is not a reporter. R is fourth to the right of P. None of R & P are the nearest neighbours of M.T is a teacher & sitting third to the right of doctor. A shopkeeper is sitting second to the left of the teacher. Painter is sitting second to the left of M. Cricketer S is sitting exactly between T & P. Accountant is sitting second to the right of a cricketer. N is third to the left of T. As per the position mentioned above; four of the following pairs are alike & so they form their group. Which one does not belong to this group?" (A) Teacher-Painter (B) Supervisor – Shopkeeper (C) Cricketer – Reporter (D) Shopkeeper – Doctor Answer:(D) 16 Where is Salar Jung Museum located? (A)

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Patna (B) New Delhi (C) Hyderabad (D) Lucknow Answer:(C) 17 Who is the UN Secretary-General(since 1st January 2017)? (A) Antonio Guterres (B) Marathon Mania (C) Trump (D) Bush Answer:(A) 18 What is the full form of ESA?

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(A) European Space Agency (B) European seculars agency (C) East Space Agency (D) Earth Space Agency Answer:(A) 19 How many public institution banks are there in India? (A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 25 (D) none Answer:(A) 20 Does the bank provide?

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(A) Central Services (B) Direct Services (C) Financial Services (D) none Answer:(C) 21 When was the Reserve Bank of India established? (A) 1-Apr-1935 (B) 25-Mar-1947 (C) 17-Dec-1937 (D) none Answer:(A) 22 Where is the headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India?

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(A) Nagpur (B) Delhi (C) Mumbai (D) Bhopal Answer:(C) 23 When did the Reserve Bank of India nationalize? (A) 2-Sep-1950 (B) 19-Mar-1947 (C) 1-Jan-1949 (D) 26-Jan-1950 Answer:(C) 24 What is the bank rate of the Reserve Bank of India? (A)

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6% (B) 7.75% (C) 7% (D) 5% Answer:(B) 25 When was the Bharatiya Mahila Bank established? (A) 19-Nov-2013 (B) 15-Aug-2014 (C) 26-Jan-2013 (D) none Answer:(A) 26 After how many years Palestine is ready to hold its first national election in the year 2021? (A)

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10 years (B) 25 years (C) 20 years (D) 14 years Answer:(D) 27 Recently which country successfully test-fired the supersonic cruise missile BrahMos? (A) India (B) Nepal (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh Answer:(A) 28 When was the “National Vayoshri Yojana” launched? (A)

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1-Apr-2016 (B) 1-Jul-2016 (C) 1-Jul-2017 (D) 1-Apr-2017 Answer:(D) 29 Where has Nirav Modi, who cheated Punjab National Bank, been arrested? (A) London (B) Hungary (C) Spain (D) Portugal Answer:(A) 30 The United Nations Security Council has imposed new comprehensive international sanctions on which country in March 2016?

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(A) Pakistan (B) China (C) North Korea (D) South Korea Answer:(C) 31 The International Day for the Eradication of Poverty is observed on which of the following days? (A) 10-Jan (B) 12-Mar (C) 15-Apr (D) 17-Oct Answer:(D) 32

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Dogri' language is spoken in which Indian territory? (A) Puducherry (B) Jammu and Kashmir Province (C) Nagaland (D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Answer:(B) 33 Which of the following organizations is a publication of 'World Development Report'? (A) International Monetary Fund (B) World Trade Organization (C) World Bank (D) UNCTAD Answer:(C) 34 Where is the headquarters of the World Bank?

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(A) Washington DC (B) Geneva (C) The Hague (D) Paris Answer:(A) 35 Recently, where was the 15 thousand square feet Rangoli made? (A) Gujarat (B) Mumbai (C) Bangalore (D) Trivandrum Answer:(B) 36 Study of chemical kinetics is the easiest in the case of __________ reactions.

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(A) Irreversible (B) Reversible (C) Surface (D) Side Answer:(A) 37 The catalyst in a first order chemical reaction changes the (A) Equilibrium constant (B) Activation energy (C) Heat of formation of the product (D) Heat of reaction Answer:(B) 38 Limiting reactant in a chemical reaction decides the

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(A) Rate constant (B) Conversion (C) Reaction speed (D) Equilibrium constant Answer:(B) 39 In an exothermic chemical reaction, the reactants compared to the products have (A) Higher temperature (B) More energy (C) Less energy (D) Same energy Answer:(B) 40

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An isothermal aqueous phase reversible reaction, P ⇋ R, is to be carried out in a mixed flow reactor. The reaction rate in k.mole/m3.h is given by, r = 0.5CP - 0.125CR. A stream containing only P enters the (A) 0.8 (B) 1.33 (C) 1.6 (D) 2.67 Answer:(C) 41 According to the 'law of mass action', the rate of reaction is directly proportional to the (A) Equilibrium constant (B) Volume of the reaction vessel (C) Nature of the reactants (D) Molar concentration of the reactants Answer:(D)

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42 For an ideal mixed flow reactor (CSTR), the exit age distribution E(t) is given by (A) A dirac delta function (B) A step function (C) A ramp function (D) None of all mentioned Answer:(D) 43 Mean residence time is equal to the space time, when (A) The feed rate is measured at temperature and pressure in the reactor (B) The temperature, pressure and the density of reaction mixture remains constant throughout the reactor (C) There is no change in number of moles in gaseous reaction (D) All of the mentioned Answer:(D)

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44 A space time of 3 hours for a flow reactor means that (A) The time required to process one reactor volume of feed (measured at specified conditions) is 3 hours (B) Three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every hour (C) It takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the reactor with feed (D) Conversion is cent per cent after three hours Answer:(A) 45 Which of the following will give maximum gas conversion? (A) Fixed bed reactor (B) Fluidized bed reactor (C) Semi-fluidized bed reactor (D) Plug-flow catalytic reactor Answer:(C)

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46 For the same residence time, which one will give the maximum conversion? (A) Single stirred tank (v = 5 litres) (B) Two stirred tank (each of 2.5 litres) in series (C) Stirred tank followed by tubular flow reactor (each of 2.5 litres) (D) Single tubular flow reactor (v = 5 litres) Answer:(A) 47 The catalyst used in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process is (A) iron (B) aluminium oxide (C) nickel (D) vanadium pentoxide Answer:(D)

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48 Sulphuric acid produced by contact process is (A) cheaper (B) pure and concentrated (C) of poor quality (D) very dilute Answer:(B) 49 When sulphur dioxide is passed through a solution of hydrogen sulphide in water (A) A sulphuric acid is formed in solution (B) sulphurous acid is formed in solution (C) sulphur is precipitated (D) no change is observed Answer:(C)

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50 The allotrope of sulphur which is insoluble in carbon disulphide is (A) monoclinic suphur (B) rhombic sulphur (C) milk of sulphur (D) plastic sulphur Answer:(D) 51 The form of sulphur which is the most stable at ordinary temperature is (A) Monoclinic (B) plastic (C) rhombic (D) flowers of sulphur Answer:(C)

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52 Select the correct statement (A) Electrolysis cell uses exothermic reactions to produce electrical energy (B) In the electrolysis cell the positive current flows from the positive electrode to the negative electrode outside the cell (C) Electrolysis cell uses electrical energy to produce endothermic chemical changes (D) In the electrolysis cell the positive current flows from the negative electrode to the positive electrode inside the cell Answer:(C) 53 The degree of ionisation does not depend upon (A) nature of solvent (B) nature of solute (C) temperature (D) current strength

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Answer:(D) 54 When the same quantity of electricity is passed through different solutions the amounts of different substances produced are proportional to (A) their atomic weight (B) their molecular weight (C) their equivalent weight (D) the square of their equivalent weight Answer:(C) 55 The quantity of electricity required to deposit one gram equivalent of any substance is (A) one coulomb (B) one faraday (C) one ampere

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(D) one microfaraday Answer:(B) 56 The percentage by volume of argon in the air is about (A) 2.97% (B) 0.94% (C) 0.01% (D) 0.00% Answer:(B) 57 Nitrogen gas is used (A) as protective atmosphere to prevent oxidation in metal working and food preservation (B) for welding (C) for cutting of metals

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(D) as refrigerant Answer:(A) 58 The angle between any two diagonals of a cube is : (A) cos θ = √3/2 (B) cos θ = 1/√2 (C) cos θ = 1/3 (D) cos θ = 1/√6 Answer:(D) 59 The point equidistant from the four points (a,0,0), (0,b,0), (0,0,c) and (0,0,0) is : (A) (a,b,c) (B) (a/2,b/2,c/2) (C) (a/3,b/3,c/3)

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(D) None of these Answer:(B) 60 The line joining the points (1,1,2) and (3, -2 ,1) meets the plane 3x+2y+z = 6 at the point : (A) (1,1,2 ) (B) (3,-2 ,1) (C) (2,-3,1 ) (D) (3,2 ,1) Answer:(B) 61 Two balls are drawn at random with replacement from a box containing 10 black and 8 red balls. Find the probability that both balls are red ? (A) 11/81 (B) 16/81

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(C) 20/81 (D) 40/81 Answer:(B) 62 Two cards are drawn at random and without replacement from a pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability that both the cards are black ? (A) 7/109 (B) 6/109 (C) 10/102 (D) 25/102 Answer:(D) 63 A die is tossed thrice. Find the probability of getting an odd number at least once ? (A) 7/5

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(B) 6/5 (C) 7/8 (D) 2/8 Answer:(C) 64 Laplace transform of the unit impulse function δ(t– a) is : (A) e–as (B) eas (C) e–t (D) None of these Answer:(A) 65 L [eat] is: (A) 1/s+a

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(B) 1/s (C) 1/s-a (D) None of these Answer:(C) 66 The Laplace transform of t3 δ(t– 4) is : (A) 43 e–4s (B) 34 e3s (C) e4s 32 (D) None of these Answer:(A) 67 L[f ′(t)] is : (A) S L[f(t)] – f(0)

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(B) F(s) (C) S L[f(t)] (D) None of these Answer:(A) 68 L [et] is: (A) 1/s-log2 (B) 1/s+log2 (C) 1/s+2 (D) None of these Answer:(A) 69 What is model testing? (A) Overall testing

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(B) Function testing (C) Partial testing (D) Performance testing Answer:(D) 70 When is the fluid called laminar? (A) Low viscosity (B) The density of the fluid is high (C) Reynolds number is greater than 2000 (D) Reynolds number is less than 2000 Answer:(D) 71 Which among the following provides the third principle in fluid mechanics? (A) Conservation of Heat

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(B) Conservation of volume (C) Conservation of linear momentum (D) Conservation of mass Answer:(C) 72 When a fluid is subjected to resistance, it undergoes a volumetric change due to __________ (A) Cohesion (B) Strain (C) Compressibility (D) Adhesion Answer:(C) 73 The compressible flow is assumed to be _____________ (A) Adiabatic only

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(B) Isentropic only (C) Isentropic and adiabatic (D) Polytropic Answer:(B) 74 Principle of fluid mechanics works on the utilization of________ (A) Velocity (B) Accelerating mass (C) Volume (D) Work Answer:(D) 75 Open channel flow takes place _______ (A) In a pump

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(B) Within a cylindrical depth (C) On a free surface (D) In the pipe Answer:(C) 76 Which of the following is a type of fluid based on viscosity? (A) Real Fluid (B) Ideal Fluid (C) Newtonian Fluid (D) All of the mentioned Answer:(D) 77 The viscous force the relative motion between the adjacent layers of a fluid in motion. Which of the following flowing fits best in the sentence?

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(A) never affects (B) may effect under certain conditions (C) facilitates (D) opposes Answer:(D) 78 Pressure intensity or force due to pressure gradient for fluid at rest is considered as which of the following kind of force? (A) Body force (B) Force due to motion (C) Surface force (D) None of the mentioned Answer:(C)

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79 Pressure variation for compressible fluid is maximum for which of the following kind of process? (A) Adiabatic (B) Quasi Static (C) Isothermal (D) None of the mentioned Answer:(C) 80 Which of the following principle is used for calculating the centre of pressure? (A) Principle of balancing of momentum (B) Principle of momentum (C) Principle of conservation of energy (D) None of the mentioned Answer:(A)

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81 A 25 mm diameter egg roll (k = 1 W/m degree) is roasted with the help of microwave heating. For good quality roasting, it is desired that temperature at the center of roll is maintained at 100 degree Celsius when the surrounding temperature is 25 degree Celsius. What should be the heating capacity in W/m 3 of the microwave if the heat transfer coefficient on the surface of egg roll is 20 W/m2 degree? (A) 613.31 k W/m3 (B) 93.31 k W/m3 (C) 6713.31 k W/m3 (D) 213.31 k W/m3 Answer:(D) 82 The rate of heat transfer for a plane wall of homogenous material with constant thermal conductivity is given by which of the following equation? (A) Q = 2k/δ x (B) Q = 2kAδx

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(C) Q = kA (t1-t2)/δ (D) Q = 2kAx/ δ Answer:(C) 83 The appropriate rate equation for convective heat transfer between a surface and adjacent fluid is prescribed by which law? (A) Newton’s law of cooling (B) Kirchhoff’s law (C) Newton’s first law (D) Wein’s displacement law Answer:(A) 84 A wire of radius 3 mm and 1.25 m length is to be maintained at 60 degree Celsius by insulating it by a material of thermal conductivity 0.175 W/m K. The temperature of surrounding is 20 degree Celsius with heat transfer coefficient 8.5 W/ m2 K. Find percentage increase in heat loss due to insulation?

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(A) 124.23% (B) 100.00% (C) 12.55% (D) 134.46% Answer:(D) 85 A heating unit is made in the form of a vertical tube of 50 mm outside diameter and 1.2 m height. The tube is fitted with 20 steel fins of rectangular section with height 40 mm and thickness 2.5 mm. The temperature at the base of fin is 75 degree Celsius, the surrounding air temperature is 20 degree Celsius and the heat transfer coefficient between the fin as well as the tube surface and the surrounding air is 9.5 W/m2 K. If thermal conductivity of the fin material is 55 W/m K, find the amount of heat transferred from the tube without fin (A) 118.44 W (B) 98.44 W (C)

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8.44 W (D) 908.44 W Answer:(B) 86 What is the rate of heat transfer from the fin in case of fin insulated at the tip? (A) (h P k)1/2 (t 0 – t a) tan h ml (B) (h P A)1/2 (t 0 – t a) tan h ml (C) (h P k A)1/2 (t 0 – t a) tan h ml (D) (h k A)1/2 (t 0 – t a) tan h ml Answer:(C)

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87 "Consider the following statements pertaining to heat transfer through fins (i) They must be arranged at right angles to the direction of flow of working fluid (ii) The temperature along the fin is variable and accordingly heat transfer rate varies along the fin elements (iii) Fins are equally effective irrespective whether they are on the hot side or cold side of the fluid (iv) Fins are made of materials that have thermal conductivity higher than that of wall Identify the correct statements" (A) i and ii (B) iii and iv (C) i and iv (D) ii and iii Answer:(A) 88 In which of the following cases provision of fins on a given heat transfer surface will be more effective? (A) Fewer but thin fins

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(B) Large number of thin fins (C) Large number of thick fins (D) Fewer but thick fins Answer:(B) 89 What are the relevant boundary conditions in case of heat transfer from a bar connected to two heat sources at different temperatures? (A) α = α 1 at x = 1 and α = α 2 at x = 2L (B) α = α 1 at x = 0 and α = α 2 at x = infinity (C) α = α 1 at x = 0 and α = α 2 at x = L (D) α = α 1 at x = infinity and α = α 2 at x = 1 Answer:(C) 90

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Radiation heat transfer is characterized by (A) Movement of discrete packets of energy as electromagnetic waves (B) Due to bulk fluid motion, there is a transport of energy (C) There is the circulation of fluid by buoyancy effects (D) Thermal energy transfer as vibrational energy in the lattice structure of the material Answer:(A) 91 A thin metal plate of 4 cm diameter is suspended in atmospheric air whose temperature is 290 K. This plate attains a temperature of 295 K when one of its faces receives radiant energy from a heat source at the rate of 2 W. If heat transfer coefficient on both surfaces of the plate is stated to be 87.5 W/m 2 K, workout the reflectivity of the plate. (A) 0.15 (B) 0.55 (C) 0.25 (D)

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0.45 Answer:(D) 92 Measurement of pressure in ammonia reactor is done by (A) Bourdon gauge (B) U-tube manometer (C) Inclined tube manometer (D) Pirani guage Answer:(A) 93 With increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity of the platinum used in the resistance thermometer (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C)

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Remains constant (D) Increases exponentially Answer:(B) 94 Normal mercury thermometer can be used to measure a temperature of about 300°C. However, its maximum temperature measurement range can be increased upto about 500°C by (A) Filling nitrogen under pressure in the stem (B) Increasing the diameter of the tube (C) Using steel tube in place of glass tube (D) Accounting for the tube expansion Answer:(A) 95 An emf of the order of mV is generated when two solutions of different hydrogen ion concentration are separated by a thin glass wall. This is the working principle of a (A)

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PH meter (B) Polarimeter (C) Chromatograph (D) Polarograph Answer:(A) 96 A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means a/an __________ system. (A) Stable (B) Unstable (C) Critically damped (D) None of these Answer:(B) 97 Strain gage pressure transducers are used to measure __________ pressures. (A)

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Gage as well as vacuum (B) Absolute as well as differential (C) Gage as well as vacuum & Absolute as well as differential (D) None Answer:(C) 98 Pressure of 0.0001 absolute psi can be measured by __________ gauge. (A) Mcloid (B) Pirani (C) Thermocouple (D) None of these Answer:(A) 99 Pressure of 0.01 psi (absolute) can be measured by __________ gauge. (A)

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Ionization (B) Pirani (C) Mcloid (D) None of these Answer:(C) 100 Dome temperature of blast furnace stove is most accurately measured by a (A) Radiation pyrometer (B) Platinum-platinum/rhodium thermocouple (C) Iron-constantan thermocouple (D) Platinum resistance thermometer Answer:(B) 101 Humidity of air can be determined by a (A)

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Chromatograph (B) Sling psychrometer (C) Mass spectrometer (D) Polarimeter Answer:(B) 102 Thermodynamic Celsius scale of temperature measurement is (A) Defined on the basis of melting point of ice and evaporation temperature of water vapor (B) Defined on the basis of melting point of ice and condensation temperature of water vapor (C) Having an interval of 100° between ice point to steam point (D) Defined on the basis of melting point of ice and condensation temperature of water vapor & Having an interval of 100° between ice point to steam point Answer:(D) 103

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The overall mass transfer co-efficient for the absorption of SO2 in air with dilute NaOH solution can be increased substantially by (A) Increasing the gas film co-efficient (B) Increasing the liquid film co-efficient (C) Increasing the total pressure (D) Decreasing the total pressure Answer:(A) 104 The diffusion co-efficient in m2/s. of acetic acid in benzene (liquid in liquid) is (A) 2.09 × 10-4 (B) 2.09 × 10-5 (C) 2.09 × 10-9 (D) 2.09 × 10-12 Answer:(A)

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105 The relative saturation of a partially saturated mixture of vapour and gas can be increased by __________ of the mixture. (A) Reducing the total pressure (B) Increasing the total pressure (C) Reducing the temperature (D) Increasing the total pressure & Reducing the temperature Answer:(D) 106 Experimental determination of __________ is done by wetted wall column method. (A) Diffusion co-efficient (B) Mass transfer co-efficient (C) NTU (D)

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None of these Answer:(B) 107 Powdery materials can be guarded against caking tendency on storage by (A) Providing irregular grain size (B) Providing minimum percentage of voids (C) Having maximum possible points of contact (D) None of these Answer:(D) 108 Measurement of the interfacial area of mass transfer is achieved easily & accurately in case of a __________ coloumn. (A) Spray (B) Packed (C)

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Bubble cap plate (D) Wetted wall Answer:(D) 109 The equilibrium liquid composition compared to the vapor composition in case of azeotropic mixture is (A) More (B) Less (C) Same (D) Either more or less; depends on the system Answer:(C) 110 When the gas to be dissolved in liquid is a/an __________ then normally co-current adsorber are used. (A) Mixture of two gases (B) Pure gas (C)

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Ideal gas (D) Sparingly soluble gas Answer:(B) 111 Coffee is prepared from coffee beans by leaching with (A) Cold water (B) Hot water (C) Dilute hot caustic solution (D) Naphtha Answer:(B) 112 Flooding in a distillation column is detected by a sharp (A) Increase in Murphree plate efficiency (B) Decrease in pressure drop (C)

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Decrease in liquid hold up in the coloumn (D) Increase in pressure drop Answer:(D) 113 With increase in the liquid flow rate at a fixed gas velocity in a randomly packed counter current gas- liquid absorption column, the gas pressure drop (A) Decreases (B) Remains unchanged (C) Increases (D) Decreases exponentially Answer:(C) 114 Thickness of the frame of a plate and frame filter as compared to that of plates is (A) Less

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(B) Same (C) More (D) Same or Less Answer:(C) 115 For couplings and unions would be (A) 60 (B) 200 350 (D) Negligible Answer:(D) 116 In case of a ‘thin’ pressure vessel, the ratio of its diameter to wall thickness is (A) < 10

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(B) > 10 (C) > 20 (D) 30 Answer:(B) 117 A pressure vessel is said to be made of ‘thick’ shell, if the ratio of its diameter to wall thickness is (A) 10 (B) 40 (C) 20 (D) 30 Answer:(A) 118 Liquid redistribution should be done in a packed tower packed with 64aschig rings every 6 metres or __________ times the column diameter, whichever is lower.

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(A) 2.5-3.0 (B) 5-7.5 (C) 10-12.5 (D) 15-20 Answer:(A) 119 Shortest distance between two tubes is (A) Called tube pitch (B) Called tube clearance (C) More in case of triangular pitch as compared to square pitch of tube layout (D) None of these Answer:(B) 120 A rivetted joint does not fail by __________ of rivets.

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(A) Tearing (B) Shearing (C) Tearing of the plate across a row (D) None of these Answer:(D) 121 __________ dished head is the strongest of all. (A) Hemispherical (B) Elliptical (C) Tori spherical (D) None of these Answer:(A) 122 Value of Peclet number = ∞, is the representative of

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(A) Laminar flow (B) Complete back mixing (C) Plug flow (D) Eddy diffusivity = 0 Answer:(C) 123 For identical operating conditions, the pressure drop over __________ tray is the highest out of the following. (A) Sieve (B) Valve (C) Counterflow (D) Bubble cap Answer:(D)

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124 Rate of filtrate delivery is inversely proportional to the (A) Filtering area & the pressure difference driving force (B) Viscosity of filtrate (C) Cake & filter medium resistance (D) Filtering area & the pressure difference driving force & Viscosity of filtrate Answer:(D) 125 At 100°C, a sealed rigid vessel with a volume of 1 m3 and 2 kg of water has a volume of 1 m3. The vessel has now been warmed up. What pressure should a safety pressure valve be adjusted to achieve a maximum temperature of 200°C if one is installed? (A) 431.3 kPa (B) 231.3 kPa (C) 831.3 kPa (D)

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131.3 kPa Answer:(A) 126 When the diver is 8 meters below the surface, the pressure gauge on his air tank reads 60 kPa. The gauge pressure will be 0 at what depth? (A) 44.118 m (B) 24.118 m (C) 34.118 m (D) None of the mentioned Answer:(B) 127 Which of the following is chosen as the standard thermometric substance? (A) Liquid (B) Solid (C)

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Gas (D) None of the mentioned Answer:(C) 128 What is the magnitude of mechanical work? (A) product of the force and distance travelled perpendicular to the force (B) product of the force and distance travelled parallel to the force (C) sum of the force and distance travelled perpendicular to the force (D) sum of the force and distance travelled parallel to the force Answer:(B) 129 Which of the following gives the Mechanical efficiency of the engine? (A) IP/BP (B) 1/(BP*IP) (C)

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(BP*IP) (D) BP/IP Answer:(D) 130 Which of the following type of motion does Shaft uses to do work? (A) vertical motion (B) horizontal motion (C) rotational motion (D) none of the mentioned Answer:(C) 131 A refrigerator with a 2 kW motor for powering the compressor gives 6000 kJ of cooling to the refrigerated space during 30 minutes of operation in a thermally insulated kitchen. Calculate the change in internal energy of the kitchen if the condenser coil behind the refrigerator rejects 8000 kJ of heat to the kitchen over the same time period. (A)

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3600 Kj (B) 2400 Kj (C) 4800 Kj (D) none of the mentioned Answer:(A) 132 At 15°C, a steel pot with a 5 mm thick bottom is filled with liquid water (conductivity 50 W/m K). The pot has a 10 cm radius and is now placed on a stove with a heat transmission of 250 W. Calculate the temperature on the bottom of the outer pot assuming the inner surface is 15°C. (A) 15.8°C (B) 16.8°C (C) 18.8°C (D) 19.8°C Answer:(A)

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133 Heat flow into a system is ____, and heat flow out of the system is ________ (A) positive, positive (B) negative, negative (C) negative, positive (D) positive, negative Answer:(D) 134 What does (m*g*z) give? (A) macroscopic kinetic energy (B) microscopic kinetic energy (C) macroscopic potential energy (D) microscopic potential energy Answer:(C)

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135 The enthalpy and internal energy are the function of temperature for (A) all gases (B) steam (C) water (D) ideal gas Answer:(D) 136 Fill in the blanks He and she............ watching a movie now. A. do b. is c. are

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D. were Answer:(C) 137 Fill in the blanks He didn’t wait even................ minutes but started a lecture. A. few B. a few C. little D. a little Answer:(A) 138 Fill in the blanks He divided his property.................. his two sons.

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A. among B. in C. between D. in Answer:(C) 139 Fill in the blanks He is very weak. He................ more. A. can walk B. can be not walked c. cannot walk D. can’t Answer:(C)

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140 Fill in the blanks He or she............ watching a movie now. A. is B. are C. does D. has Answer:(A) 141 Fill in the blanks He reminds us ….. Paul Walker. A. about B.

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of C. for D. with Answer:(B) 142 Fill in the blanks How ….. you ….. solve this puzzle? A. can solved B. can be solved C. do solved D. can solve Answer:(D) 143

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Fill in the blanks How many friends ….. she ….. ? A. do have B. does has C. does have D. are has Answer:(C) 144 Fill in the blanks How many kites ….. in the sky now ? A. are fly B. flying C. are flying

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D. have Answer:(C) 145 Fill in the blanks I always capital. A. am B. is C. has D. do Answer:(B) 146 synonym of Tentative (A) mocking (B)

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wry (C) experimental (D) prevalent Answer:(C) 147 synonym of Tenacity….. (A) ingratitude (B) decimation (C) splendor (D) perseverance Answer:(D) 148 synonym of Replenish…. (A) reinstall (B)

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refill (C) refuse (D) polish Answer:(B) 149. Antonym of Full a) Tranquil b) Unimportant c) hidden d) Empty Answer:(D) 150 Antonym of Yesteryear a) Host b)

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Foundling c) Modern d) Repercussion Answer:(C)
Official key not published for this paper.
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Source: Andaman and Nicobar Administration. Question paper published by Andaman and Nicobar Administration.