APPSC Polytechnic Lecturers 2025: Lecturers in Government Polytechnic Colleges (Notification 13/2023), Paper II biomedicalengineering

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Question Paper Name :                                                        ECLR3
Subject Name :                                                              Paper II Lecturer in Bio Medical Engineering
Creation Date :                                                             2025-07-16 01:28:12
Duration :                                                                  150
Total Marks :                                                               300
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                                Paper II Lecturer in Bio Medical Engineering
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                                Paper II Lecturer in Bio Medical Engineering
Section Id :                                                                441009721406
Section Number :                                                            1
Section type :                                                              Online
Mandatory or Optional :                                                     Mandatory
Number of Questions :                                                       150
Number of Questions to be attempted :                                       150
Section Marks :                                                             300
Section Negative Marks :                                                    0.66
Maximum Instruction Time :                                                  0
Sub-Section Number :                                                        1
Sub-Section Id :                                                            441009723822
Question Shuffling Allowed :                                                Yes

Question Number : 1 Question Id : 441009682356 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The peak action potential value in nerve and muscle cells is approximately equal to:
Options :
1.   -100 mV
2.   +20 mV
3.   -20 mV
4.   +100 mV


Question Number : 2 Question Id : 441009682360 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Which of the following options is a bell shaped muscle located at the bottom of the thoracic cavity?
Options :
1.   Occipitalis
2.   Frontalis
3.   Diaphragm
4.   Stapedius


Question Number : 3 Question Id : 441009682365 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The total amount of glomerular filtrate in the kidney is roughly about:

Options :
1.   190 litres per day
2.   150 litres per day
3.   170 litres per day
4.   160 litres per day


Question Number : 4 Question Id : 441009682369 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Human ear responds to vibrations which range from:
Options :
1.   20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
2.   1 Hz to 20 Hz
3.   20,000 Hz to 40,000 Hz
4.   Above 40,000 Hz


Question Number : 5 Question Id : 441009682358 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Among the following electrolytes found in the human body, identify the electrolytes which are found predominantly in the extracellular
fluid.
Options :
1.   Sodium ions
2.   Potassium ions
3.   Calcium ions
4.   Chloride ions


Question Number : 6 Question Id : 441009682359 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A neuromuscular junction is a junction of the skeletal muscle fiber and the:
Options :
1.   Cranial nerve
2.   Facial nerve
3.   Motor nerve
4.   Optic nerve


Question Number : 7 Question Id : 441009682361 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the respiratory system, the tidal volume is the volume of gas inspired during each normal, quiet respiration cycle and is equal to:
Options :
1.   2400 ml
2.   1200 ml
3.   3000 ml
4.   600 ml


Question Number : 8 Question Id : 441009682362 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The circulatory system which supplies oxygen and nutrients to the cells of the body is called:
Options :
1.   Systemic circulation
2.   Pulmonary circulation
3.   Open circulatory system
4.   Coronary circulation


Question Number : 9 Question Id : 441009682370 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The pigmented and opaque muscular structure which gives colour to the eye is termed as:
Options :
1.   Ciliary body
2.   Choroid
3.   Sclera
4.   Iris


Question Number : 10 Question Id : 441009799956 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following best describes how somatostatin, released from gastric D cells, modulates gastric acid secretion?
Options :
1.   It stimulates G cells to secrete gastrin, thereby increasing acid output.
2.   It inhibits gastrin release from G cells and histamine release from enterochromaffin-like cells.
3.   It enhances histamine release by enterochromaffin-like cells, potentiating gastric acid secretion.
4.   It permanently inhibits parietal cell H⁺/K⁺-ATPase gene expression, eliminating acid secretion.


Question Number : 11 Question Id : 441009682366 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the pH value of the intestinal juice in the small intestine, namely the succus entericus?
Options :
1.   9.2
2.   8.5
3.   7.8
4.   4.5


Question Number : 12 Question Id : 441009682363 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. The heart muscles receive their own blood supply from the coronary arteries.
B. The coronary arterial system is a special branch of the pulmonary circulation.
Options :
1.   Only A
2.   Only B
3.   Both A and B
4.   Neither A nor B


Question Number : 13 Question Id : 441009801400 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Refer to the three statements given below and select the correct option.
Statement A: The primary muscle responsible for normal inspiration is the diaphragm.
Statement B: During quiet expiration, the process is mainly passive due to elastic recoil of the lungs.
Statement C: Contraction of abdominal muscles plays a major role in normal tidal breathing.
Options :
1.   Only statement A is true.
2.   Only statements A and B are true.
3.   Statements A, B and C are true.

4.   Only statements A and C are true.


Question Number : 14 Question Id : 441009803234 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): During ventricular systole, the aortic valve opens due to pressure in the left ventricle exceeding that in the aorta.
Reason (R): The semilunar valves open when ventricular pressure surpasses arterial pressure, allowing ejection of blood into the systemic
circulation.
Options :
1.   Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.   Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3.   A is true, but R is false.
4.   A is false, but R is true.


Question Number : 15 Question Id : 441009682368 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following.

A. Pure tone audiometer                                              1. To separate two groups of people
                                                                     2. To obtain air conduction and bone conduction threshold of
B. Speech audiometer
                                                                     hearing
C. Screening audiometer                                              3. To determine speech reception thresholds
Options :
1.   A-1; B-2; C-3
2.   A-2; B-3; C-1
3.   A-3; B-1; C-2
4.   A-3; B-2; C-1


Question Number : 16 Question Id : 441009799094 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the nephron segment (P–R) with its primary transport activity (X–Z).

P. Proximal tubule                                                   X. Actively moves salt without accompanying water
Q. Thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop                              Y. Performs bulk reabsorption including glucose and amino acids
R. Distal convoluted tubule                                          Z. Regulates ion levels based on hormonal influence
Options :
1.   P–Y, Q–X, R–Z
2.   P–Z, Q–Y, R–X
3.   P–X, Q–Z, R–Y
4.   P–Y, Q–Z, R–X


Question Number : 17 Question Id : 441009682367 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the descriptions with the corresponding components of a typical spectrophotometer.

A. Source of radiant energy                                          1. Photodiodes
B. Optical system for producing parallel beam                        2. Numerical display
C. Detecting system                                                  3. Lenses
D. Readout system                                                    4. Tungsten lamp
Options :
1.   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
2.   A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
3.   A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
4.   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4


Question Number : 18 Question Id : 441009682375 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

The action potential in the heart originates near the top of the right atrium at a point called the:
Options :
1.    SA node
2.   AV node
3.    Purkinje fibres
4.    Bundle of His


Question Number : 19 Question Id : 441009682386 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The organelle in a cell which is called as the power house of the cell is termed as:
Options :
1.    Ribosome
2.    Mitochondria
3.    Chloroplast
4.    Golgi apparatus


Question Number : 20 Question Id : 441009682387 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The recording and interpreting of the electrical activity generated by movement of eye balls is called _______.
Options :
1.    ERG
2.    EOG
3.    EGG
4.    ENG


Question Number : 21 Question Id : 441009682388 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following electrodes is NOT used for EEG recording?
Options :
1.    Scalp surface electrode
2.    Suction cup electrode
3.    Needle electrode
4.    Ear clip electrode


Question Number : 22 Question Id : 441009682371 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Following the generation of an action potential, there is a brief period of time during which the cell cannot respond to any new stimulus
and the time period is termed as:
Options :
1.   After potential period
2.    Relative refractory period
3.   Absolute refractory period
4.    Resting potential period


Question Number : 23 Question Id : 441009682376 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The left and right side of the heart are separated by a dividing wall of tissue termed as:
Options :
1.    Pericardium
2.    Septum
3.    Bundle of His
4.   Adipose tissue


Question Number : 24 Question Id : 441009682380 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

The normal frequency of EMG signals is about:
Options :
1.   0.05 to 20 Hz
2.   0.1 to 100 Hz
3.   5 to 2000 Hz
4.   DC to 20 Hz


Question Number : 25 Question Id : 441009799968 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
When modelling the electric potential distribution in biological tissues with varying conductivities (nonhomogeneous volume conductor),
which governing equation and boundary condition principle apply?
Options :
1.   Poisson’s equation ∇²V = −ρ/ε, with V continuous but current density discontinuous across interfaces
2. Laplace’s equation ∇·(σ∇V) = 0, with both potential V and normal component of current density σ∂V/∂n continuous across tissue
boundaries
3. Wave equation ∇²V − (1/c²)∂²V/∂t² = 0, with impedance mismatch at boundaries determining reflection of fields across tissue
boundaries
4.   Nernst–Planck equation for ionic diffusion, with fixed extracellular potential at boundaries


Question Number : 26 Question Id : 441009799978 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In neuromuscular physiology relevant to bioelectric stimulation, which statement correctly describes a skeletal muscle motor unit?
Options :
1.   A motor unit consists of all muscle fibres innervated by different motor neurons, ensuring varied force output patterns.
2.   A motor unit is a single skeletal muscle fibre innervated by multiple α-motor neurons to guarantee redundancy.
3.   A motor unit comprises a single α-motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibres it innervates.
4.   A motor unit refers to the entire muscle and its combined innervation.


Question Number : 27 Question Id : 441009799992 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which property of an excitable membrane directly determines the threshold for initiating an action potential in response to a small
depolarising stimulus?
Options :
1.   The membrane’s space constant λ, which dictates how far depolarisation spreads electrotonically
2.   The membrane time constant τₘ, which sets the speed of repolarisation after an action potential
3.   The steady-state leakage conductance g, which along with capacitance determines τₘ and thus affects the voltage change
4.   The intracellular axial resistance Rᵢ, along with the steady-state leakage conductance g, influences the absolute refractory period.


Question Number : 28 Question Id : 441009682374 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


Options :
1.   Depolarization
2.   Polarization
3.   Repolarization
4.   Hyperpolarization


Question Number : 29 Question Id : 441009682377 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the approximate propagation velocity of the electrical wave generated at the SA node as it travels through the right and left atria?
Options :
1.   1 m/s
2.   10 m/s
3.   0.1 m/s
4.   5 m/s

Question Number : 30 Question Id : 441009682378 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The function AV node in the heart is to delay the spread of excitation of the electrical impulse for about?
Options :
1.   0.22 seconds
2.   0.18 seconds
3.   0.12 seconds
4.   2.14 seconds


Question Number : 31 Question Id : 441009682381 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Electrodes which are often used for EMG pickup are of the:
Options :
1.   Needle type electrode
2.   Dry electrode
3.   Fibre based electrode
4.   Capacitive electrode


Question Number : 32 Question Id : 441009682384 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The propagation velocity of ultrasound in human soft tissue is:
Options :
1.   1630 m/sec
2.   1540 m/sec
3.   2550 m/sec
4.   1280 m/sec


Question Number : 33 Question Id : 441009682391 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Consider the following statements.
The monopolar needle electrode used in EMG measurements consists of:
A. Copper wire and nickel wire
B. Nickel wire
C. Teflon coated stainless steel wire
D. Fine platinum wire
Choose the correct answer.
Options :
1.   Only B and D
2.   Only A
3.   Only C
4.   A, B, C and D


Question Number : 34 Question Id : 441009802212 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following statements about cochlear microphonics is/are correct?
Statement X: Cochlear microphonics are alternating electrical potentials that mimic the frequency and phase of an incoming sound wave.
Statement Y: These potentials originate primarily from the outer hair cells in the organ of Corti.
Statement Z: Cochlear microphonic signals are generated by the auditory nerve in response to loud stimuli.
Options :
1.   Only statements X and Y are correct.
2.   Only statements Y and Z are correct.
3.   All statements X, Y and Z are correct.
4.   Neither statement X nor statement Y is correct.


Question Number : 35 Question Id : 441009682382 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Sensory neural deafness which can be treated using cochlear implants can be caused by:
A. Cochlear damage
B. Damage within auditory nerve
C. Damage to the neurons of the central auditory system
D. Body aging
Options :
1.   A only
2.   A and B only
3.   D only
4.   A, B and C only


Question Number : 36 Question Id : 441009682385 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Match the layers of the eye with their correct descriptions:

A. The outer layer of the eye                                        1. Choroid
B. The middle layer of the eye                                       2. Retina
C. The inner layer of the eye                                        3. Sclera
Options :
1.   A-2; B-1; C-3
2.   A-3; B-1; C-2
3.   A-2; B-3; C-1
4.   A-3; B-2; C-1


Question Number : 37 Question Id : 441009799343 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the membrane property (P–R) with its physiological impact during nerve conduction (1–3).

P. High membrane resistance                                          1. Allows rapid change in transmembrane voltage
Q. Low axial (cytoplasmic) resistance                                2. Minimises current loss across cell membrane
R. Low membrane capacitance                                          3. Enables faster passive current spread along fibre
Options :
1.   P–2, Q–3, R–1
2.   P–1, Q–2, R–3
3.   P–3, Q–1, R–2
4.   P–2, Q–1, R–3


Question Number : 38 Question Id : 441009682383 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The components of the ear are listed in the table. Match each component with its correct description:

A. Tympanic membrane                                                 1. Ear ossicle
B. Incus                                                             2. Skeletal muscle in the middle ear
C. Pharyngotympanic tube                                             3. Connective tissue
D. Tensor tympani                                                    4. Connects middle ear cavity with pharynx
Options :
1.   A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1
2.   A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2
3.   A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
4.   A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2


Question Number : 39 Question Id : 441009682392 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The signal to noise ratio should be:
Options :
1.   Very low
2.   A mid-range value

3.   As low as possible
4.   As high as possible


Question Number : 40 Question Id : 441009682398 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Peritoneal Dialysis (predominantly) is a _______ based therapy for patients with end-stage renal disease.
Options :
1.   Hospital
2.   Home
3.   Clinical
4.   Personalised


Question Number : 41 Question Id : 441009682402 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a colorimeter, the sample used is normally:
Options :
1.   A gas
2.   A liquid
3.   A solid
4.   A semisolid


Question Number : 42 Question Id : 441009800009 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following best defines the measurement range of a medical instrumentation system?
Options :
1.   The minimum change in the input quantity that produces a detectable output change above noise
2.   The total span of the object quantity over which the system meets its specified performance requirements
3.   The ratio of the maximum to minimum input values that can be digitised by the analogue to digital converter
4.   The maximum deviation of the input–output relation curve from an ideal straight line


Question Number : 43 Question Id : 441009682393 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The contraction of skeletal muscles results in the generation of action potentials in the individual muscle fibres and the recording of these
signals is known as:
Options :
1.   Electroretinogram
2.   Electrocardiogram
3.   Electromyogram
4.   Electrooculogram


Question Number : 44 Question Id : 441009682396 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The frequency of operation of short wave diathermy machines is:
Options :
1.   28.42 MHz
2.   27.12 MHz
3.   67.32 MHz
4.   29.52 MHz


Question Number : 45 Question Id : 441009682400 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Ultrasound frequencies employed in the medical field range from:
Options :
1.   1 to 15 MHz
2.   1 to 25 MHz

3.   1 to 35 MHz
4.   1 to 19 MHz


Question Number : 46 Question Id : 441009682404 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A colorimetric technique is one that involves the measurement of colour in the:
Options :
1.   Ultraviolet range
2.   Visual range
3.   Infrared range
4.   Microwave range


Question Number : 47 Question Id : 441009682406 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


Options :
1.   Molarity
2.   Parts per million (ppm)
3.   Parts per billion (ppb)
4.   Parts per trillion


Question Number : 48 Question Id : 441009800039 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
When selecting or designing a prosthetic heart valve, which qualitative requirement is most critical to minimise long-term adverse
outcomes related to haemolysis and thrombosis?
Options :
1.   Prioritising maximal leaflet flexibility even if it significantly prolongs valve opening/closing time
2.   Using valve materials and surface treatments known for low thrombogenicity and minimal blood cell damage
3.   Designing the valve orifice area to be as large as possible with biocompatibility, regardless of potential flow disturbances
4.   Maximising closing force to ensure a completely leak-free closure under all pressure conditions


Question Number : 49 Question Id : 441009800174 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In an automated leukocyte image analysis, what is the main advantage of extracting density-oriented parameters from the optical density
histogram compared to shape-oriented parameters obtained from direct image processing?
Options :
1.   Density-oriented parameters require direct spatial contour tracing and always provide more reliable cell shape metrics.
2.   Density-based parameters, computed efficiently from histograms, capture global features.
3.   Shape-oriented parameters can be fully captured by histogram analysis alone.
4.   Density-oriented parameters are unsuitable for any cell classification tasks.


Question Number : 50 Question Id : 441009682395 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In bladder stimulators, the pulse rate of the biphasic pulse applied is:
Options :
1.   100 to 150 Hz
2.   50 to 100 Hz
3.   10 to 50 Hz
4.   Above 1000 Hz


Question Number : 51 Question Id : 441009682401 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Proctoscope is a type of endoscope used to view the:
Options :
1.   Pleural cavity

2.   Heart cavities
3.   Eye fundus
4.   Rectum


Question Number : 52 Question Id : 441009682403 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In spectrophotometry technique, which among the following lamps is NOT used?
Options :
1.   Tungsten lamp
2.   Deuterium discharge lamp
3.   Incandescent lamp
4.   Xenon-Mercury lamp


Question Number : 53 Question Id : 441009802937 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Refer to the following three statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: The centrifugal force generated in a centrifuge depends on both the angular velocity and the radius of rotation.
Statement B: Ultracentrifuges are capable of isolating subcellular components like proteins and viruses due to their extremely high
speeds.
Statement C: Centrifuges fail to separate blood effectively due to minimal density variation among its components.
Options :
1.   Only statements A and B are true.
2.   All statements A, B and C are true.
3.   Only statement B is true.
4.   Only statements A and C are true.


Question Number : 54 Question Id : 441009682397 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Consider the following statements.
A. External pacemakers are used on patients with temporary heart irregularities.
B. Internal pacemakers may be permanently implanted in patients whose SA nodes have failed.
C. Pacemaker consists of only a pulse generator.
D. An external pacemaker consists of an externally worn pulse generator.
Choose the correct statement(s).
Options :
1.   A, B and D only
2.   A, C and D only
3.   A and B only
4.   A and D only


Question Number : 55 Question Id : 441009682399 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Consider the following statements
A. X rays have long wavelength.
B. X rays have extreme high energy.
C. X rays are not able to penetrate through materials.
D. X rays are absorbed when passing through matter.
Choose the correct statement(s).
Options :
1.   B and D only
2.   A, B and C
3.   A, B and D only
4.   A only


Question Number : 56 Question Id : 441009682394 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the following statements.
A. Phonocardiograph (PCG) is an instrument which uses a microphone.
B. Phonocardiograph is used for recording the sounds connected with the pumping action of the heart.

C. The recorded sounds in PCG provide an indication of the heart rate and its rhythmicity.
D. Amplifiers used in PCG have a frequency range of 20 to 200 Hz.
Choose the correct answer statement(s).
Options :
1.   B only
2.   A, B and C only
3.   A, B, C and D
4.   A and B only


Question Number : 57 Question Id : 441009682407 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the components of a typical spectrophotometer with their corresponding descriptions:

Component                                                              Description
A. Source of radiant energy                                            1. Photodiodes
B. Optical system for producing parallel beam                          2. Numerical display
C. Detecting system                                                    3. Lenses
D. Readout system                                                      4. Tungsten lamp
Options :
1.   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
2.   A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
3.   A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
4.   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4


Question Number : 58 Question Id : 441009682405 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a flame photometer the different PMT detectors respond only to certain wavelengths. Match the detectors with their corresponding
wavelengths in a narrow band:
 A. Sodium detector                                                 1. Centered at 766 nm
 B. Potassium detector                                              2. Centered at 671 nm
 C. Lithium detector                                                3. Centered at 589 nm
Options :
1.   A-3; B-1; C-2
2.   A-1; B-2; C-3
3.   A-1; B-3; C-2
4.   A-2; B-1; C-3


Question Number : 59 Question Id : 441009682409 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The current which flows through the patient from or to the applied part of the patient circuits is termed as:
Options :
1.   Functional patient current
2.   Patient leakage current
3.   Earth leakage current
4.   Enclosure leakage current


Question Number : 60 Question Id : 441009682417 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Microshock can occur due to the flow of :
Options :
1.   20 µA current directly across the heart
2.   1 A current flow across the body surface
3.   5 A current flow across the body for 1 minute
4.   3 A current flow across the cardiac muscles


Question Number : 61 Question Id : 441009682419 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The safe let go current for men is:
Options :
1.   20 mA
2.   25 mA
3.   19 mA
4.   9 mA


Question Number : 62 Question Id : 441009682424 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The integrity of the ground wire circuit while the equipment is unplugged is usually checked with a/an:
Options :
1.   Ammeter
2.   Voltmeter
3.   Ohmmeter
4.   Multimeter


Question Number : 63 Question Id : 441009682410 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The shock which is experienced by the subject by an accidental contact with the electrical wiring at any point on the surface of the body
is termed as:
Options :
1.   Microcurrent shock
2.   Micro shock
3.   Gross shock
4.   Microelectrocution


Question Number : 64 Question Id : 441009682413 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A 5 mA level of current coming in contact with the human body causes:
Options :
1.   Burns
2.   Slight shock
3.   Painful shock
4.   Ventricular fibrillation


Question Number : 65 Question Id : 441009682416 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Safety limit of macroshock is:
Options :
1.   10 mA
2.   75 mA
3.   75 µA
4.   10 µA


Question Number : 66 Question Id : 441009682425 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The voltage between a reference ground point and exposed conductive surfaces should not exceed:
Options :
1.   28 mV for new construction
2.   30 mV for new construction
3.   25 mV for new construction
4.   20 mV for new construction


Question Number : 67 Question Id : 441009800195 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
When a 60 Hz alternating current of approximately 15 mA flows through the hand-to-hand or hand-to-foot path in an adult, which
physiological effect is most likely to occur?
Options :
1.   A barely perceptible tingling sensation without muscle contraction
2.   Involuntary muscle twitching limited to individual fingers
3.   Grip tetanus, causing the hand to 'freeze' on the conductor
4.   Ventricular fibrillation due to direct cardiac excitation


Question Number : 68 Question Id : 441009682411 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The entire heart muscles can contract if it comes into contact with electrical current which is in the range of:
Options :
1.   7 to 12 A
2.   13 to 20 A
3.   1 to 6 A
4.   21 to 26 A


Question Number : 69 Question Id : 441009682414 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Part-III of IS8607 of the BIS standards covers the aspect of:
Options :
1.   Protection against electric shock
2.   Behaviour and reliability
3.   Protection against mechanical hazards
4.   Protection against explosion hazards


Question Number : 70 Question Id : 441009682415 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following standards covers the general and safety requirements of electromedical equipment?

Options :
1.   IS:8707
2.   IS:8667
3.   IS:8607
4.   IS:9607


Question Number : 71 Question Id : 441009803000 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Refer to the following three statements below and select the correct option regarding electrical hazards in biomedical instrumentation.
Statement A: Microshock currents, even as low as a few microamperes, can be fatal if they reach the heart via invasive conductors.
Statement B: Macroshock affects the entire body externally and typically requires currents above 100 mA to be lethal.
Statement C: Microshock is generally safe unless the patient is conscious or has an implanted device.
Options :
1.   Only Statements A and B are true.
2.   Only Statements A and C are true.
3.   All Statements A, B and C are true.
4.   Only Statement C is true.


Question Number : 72 Question Id : 441009682421 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the following statements
The isolation transformer
A. Provides an additional means of protecting against macroshock
B. Prevents sparks when the H lead touches ground
C. Does not provide protection in case of flammable environments
Choose the correct answer
Options :

1.   A only
2.   B and C only
3.   A and B only
4.   A, B and C


Question Number : 73 Question Id : 441009682422 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the following statements
Modern safety analysers are digital reading meters incorporating facilities
A. for measuring enclosure leakage current
B. for measuring patient leakage current
Choose the correct answer
Options :
1.   A only
2.   B only
3.   Both A & B
4.   Neither A nor B


Question Number : 74 Question Id : 441009682412 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Consider the following:
At current levels higher than the let-go current, the subject:
A. Loses the ability to control his own muscle actions
B. Is unable to release his grip from the electrical conductor
C. Feels pain which is bearable
D. May have a physical injury

Choose the correct answer:
Options :
1.   A, B and D only
2.   A and B only
3.   A, B and C only
4.   B, C and D only


Question Number : 75 Question Id : 441009682420 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Consider the following:
The various physiological effects of current at 50 Hz are listed. Match the current ranges with their corresponding physiological effects.
A. > 20 mA                                                            1. Heart fibrillation
B. 80 mA to 1 A                                                       2. Sustained myocardial contraction
C. 1 A to 10 A                                                         3. Respiratory paralysis and pain

Choose the correct answer:
Options :
1.   A-3; B-1; C-2
2.   A-3; B-2; C-1
3.   A-2; B-1; C-3
4.   A-1; B-3; C-2


Question Number : 76 Question Id : 441009682429 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Strain gauge pressure transducers work on the principle of:
Options :
1.   Variation of area
2.   Variation of inductance
3.   Variation of capacitance
4.   Variation of resistance

Question Number : 77 Question Id : 441009682430 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of:
Options :
1.    Self inductance
2.    Permanence
3.    Mutual inductance
4.    Reluctance


Question Number : 78 Question Id : 441009682440 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66



Options :

1.


2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 79 Question Id : 441009800235 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the typical value of the temperature coefficient for a thermistor, and is it positive or negative?
Options :
1.    +0.04/K; positive temperature coefficient
2.    −0.04/K; negative temperature coefficient
3.    +0.06/K; positive temperature coefficient
4.    −0.06/K; negative temperature coefficient


Question Number : 80 Question Id : 441009682428 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
LVDT stands for:
Options :
1.    Linear variable difference transformer
2.    Linear variable differential transducer
3.    Linear variable differential transformer
4. Linear variant differential transformer
Note: For this question, ambiguity is found in question/answer. Candidate will get full marks for this question if any of the correct
options are chosen.


Question Number : 81 Question Id : 441009682431 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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1.


2.


3.

4.



Question Number : 82 Question Id : 441009800220 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Why is it important to maintain a stable reference junction temperature when using a thermocouple for temperature measurement?
Options :
1.   It allows for greater flexibility in wire placement and improves measurement stability.
2.   It ensures the voltage generated reflects only the difference between the measurement and reference junctions.
3.   It maintains a consistent response of the thermocouple across the entire temperature span.
4.   It allows the thermocouple to be used only when the reference is held at freezing point at the starting point of measurement.


Question Number : 83 Question Id : 441009800253 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What occurs in a piezoelectric material when a mechanical stress is applied along a suitable axis?
Options :
1.   The material produces heat due to molecular friction.
2.   The material develops an electric polarisation, generating a voltage between its surfaces.
3.   The material develops an electric de-polarisation in crystal lattice, generating a voltage between its surfaces.
4.   The material develops an electric de-depolarisation, generating a current between its surfaces.


Question Number : 84 Question Id : 441009800259 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In non-invasive blood flow measurement using Doppler ultrasound, which factor directly affects the magnitude of the Doppler frequency
shift detected for a given vessel?
Options :
1.   The acoustic impedance of surrounding tissues
2.   The angle between the ultrasound beam and the direction of blood flow
3.   The transmitted ultrasound power (output amplitude) as well as acoustic impedance in tissues
4.   The diameter of the ultrasound transducer crystal of the trans-receiver determine its magnitude.


Question Number : 85 Question Id : 441009682432 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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1.


2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 86 Question Id : 441009682433 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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2.


3.

4.



Question Number : 87 Question Id : 441009682435 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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3.


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Question Number : 88 Question Id : 441009682427 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the following statements.
A. Resistance thermometers are particularly suitable for remote temperature reading.
B. Resistance thermometers can be made of inert materials like platinum.
C. Resistance thermometers are very stable and show almost no hysteresis with large temperature excursions.
D. In the medical field, resistance thermometer probes are best suited for all purposes.
Choose the correct answer.
Options :
1.   All are correct.
2.   Only A, B and C are correct.
3.   Only A, B and D are correct.
4.   Only B and C are correct.


Question Number : 89 Question Id : 441009682441 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




Options :

1.


2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 90 Question Id : 441009803390 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Piezoelectric transducers are commonly used in cardiac catheterisation to measure rapid pressure changes in heart
chambers.
Reason (R): Piezoelectric transducers exhibit high sensitivity to static physiological signals over extended time periods.

Options :

1.   Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2.   Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
3.   Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
4.   Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.


Question Number : 91 Question Id : 441009682438 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




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2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 92 Question Id : 441009682442 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




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Question Number : 93 Question Id : 441009682443 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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Question Number : 94 Question Id : 441009682445 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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2.

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Question Number : 95 Question Id : 441009682448 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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Question Number : 96 Question Id : 441009682455 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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2.


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Question Number : 97 Question Id : 441009682444 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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2.

3.

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Question Number : 98 Question Id : 441009682446 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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2.


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Question Number : 99 Question Id : 441009682447 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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2.


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Question Number : 100 Question Id : 441009682451 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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Question Number : 101 Question Id : 441009800268 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a volume-measuring spirometer that integrates flow signal electronically, which design consideration is most critical to minimise errors
in measured tidal volume during rapid breathing?
Options :
1.   Using a large-capacity bell in a water-sealed spirometer to increase inertia during respiration
2.   Incorporating a fast-response integrator with minimal drift and a zeroing threshold at each breath
3.   Employing a low-pass filter on the flow signal to smooth rapid fluctuations
4.   Selecting a pneumotachograph with high resistance to reduce motion artifacts during respiration


Question Number : 102 Question Id : 441009682452 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

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1.


2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 103 Question Id : 441009682453 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following parameters is NOT measured using a pneumotachometer?
Options :
1.   Forced expiratory volume
2.   Maximum mid expiratory volume
3.   Total lung volume
4.   Peak flow


Question Number : 104 Question Id : 441009682457 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




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2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 105 Question Id : 441009803048 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Refer to the following three statements about blood pressure measurement using Doppler and plethysmographic methods and select the
correct option.
Statement A: Doppler ultrasound aids in systolic pressure estimation by detecting the return of blood flow through sound reflection.
Statement B: Photoplethysmography estimates blood pressure by detecting changes in peripheral blood volume using light transmission
or reflection.
Statement C: Doppler-based methods are accurate for diastolic pressure estimation, especially in cases of irregular heart rhythms.
Options :
1.   Statements A and B are true.
2.   Statements B and C are true.
3.   Only Statement A is true.
4.   Only Statement C is true.


Question Number : 106 Question Id : 441009682450 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the correct statements regarding EMG (Electromyography) amplifiers.

A. EMG amplifier should have a flat frequency response over its operating bandwidth.
B. Frequency range of an EMG amplifier is typically from 10 Hz to 1 kHz.

C. Input impedance of an EMG amplifier should be greater than 1 MΩ.
D. EMG amplifier should have high Common Mode Rejection Ratio (CMRR).
Options :
1.   A and B only
2.   A, B and C only
3.   B, C and D only
4.   A, B, C and D


Question Number : 107 Question Id : 441009682459 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




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2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 108 Question Id : 441009799644 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the type of sensor (p-r) with its monitoring role (x-z) in anesthesia machines.

p. Galvanic cell sensor                                               x. Monitoring exhaled carbon dioxide concentration
q. Infrared absorption sensor                                         y. Detecting inspired oxygen concentration
r. Paramagnetic oxygen sensor                                         z. Measuring partial pressure of oxygen in the gas mixture
Options :
1.   p–y, q–x, r–z
2.   p–y, q–z, r–x
3.   p–x, q–y, r–z
4.   p–z, q–y, r–x


Question Number : 109 Question Id : 441009682461 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




Options :

1.

2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 110 Question Id : 441009682469 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The typical radiation dose to the head for an average adult patient undergoing a single study on a modern multi-slice CT system is
approximately:
Options :
1.   2.5 rads
2.   1 rads
3.   5 rads
4.   10 rads


Question Number : 111 Question Id : 441009682471 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is NOT a sub-system of a typical MRI system?
Options :
1.   Magnet
2.   RF transmitter
3.   Gradient system
4.   Collimator


Question Number : 112 Question Id : 441009682465 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


Options :
1.


2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 113 Question Id : 441009682467 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the CT scale used in computer tomography, air is assigned with a CT number value of:

Options :
1.   100
2.   0
3.   +1000
4.   −1000


Question Number : 114 Question Id : 441009682472 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following components is NOT a functional part of a gamma camera?



Options :

1.   Lead shield
2.   Camera electronics
3.   Collimator
4.   Photo multiplier tubes


Question Number : 115 Question Id : 441009682475 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


Options :

1.


2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 116 Question Id : 441009800467 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a conventional pulse-echo diagnostic ultrasound system, which factor directly determines the axial resolution of the image?
Options :
1.   Duration of the transmitted pulse
2.   Pulse repetition frequency
3.   Spatial beam width (lateral focussing)
4.   Transducer element pitch


Question Number : 117 Question Id : 441009800490 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In MRI, which combination of RF bandwidth and slice select gradient strength will result in the thinnest slice selection for imaging?
Options :
1.   A narrow RF bandwidth combined with a weak gradient strength
2.   A narrow RF bandwidth combined with a strong gradient strength
3.   A broad RF bandwidth combined with a strong gradient strength
4.   A broad RF bandwidth combined with a weak gradient strength


Question Number : 118 Question Id : 441009800514 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) primarily relies on which principle for image formation?
Options :
1.   Detection of gamma photons emitted by radiotracer distribution and tomographic reconstruction
2.   Transmission of external single-ray beam through the patient followed by attenuation measurement
3.   Measurement of positron annihilation of one photons in coincidence to localise events
4.   Recording of induced currents in coils due to nuclear magnetic resonance


Question Number : 119 Question Id : 441009682462 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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2.

3.


4.



Question Number : 120 Question Id : 441009682466 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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2.


3.


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Question Number : 121 Question Id : 441009682477 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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Question Number : 122 Question Id : 441009803100 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Refer to the following three statements about ultrasound imaging and select the correct option.
Statement A: Ultrasound transducers operate by converting electrical energy into mechanical vibrations using
piezoelectric crystals.
Statement B: The resolution of an ultrasound image improves with lower frequency transducers due to deeper tissue
penetration.
Statement C: B-mode ultrasound provides two-dimensional grayscale images by mapping echo amplitude variations
from different tissue interfaces.
Options :
1.   Statements A and C are true.
2.   Statements B and C are true.
3.   Only Statement A is true.
4.   Only Statement B is true.


Question Number : 123 Question Id : 441009682474 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




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2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 124 Question Id : 441009682476 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the given statements is/are correct?

A. Human skin emits infrared radiation.
B. Thermographic examination is carried out in an ambient temperature of 20°C.

Options :
1.   Only A
2.   Only B
3.   Both A and B
4.   Neither A nor B


Question Number : 125 Question Id : 441009682464 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




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2.


3.


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Question Number : 126 Question Id : 441009682478 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




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Question Number : 127 Question Id : 441009799739 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match each type of thermographic examination with the most appropriate medical application.

a. Breast thermography                                             i. Evaluating joint inflammation or strain
b. Vascular thermography                                           ii. Screening for abnormal temperature asymmetry linked to tumours
c. Musculoskeletal thermography                                    iii. Assessing peripheral circulatory issues
Options :
1.   a–ii, b–iii, c–i
2.   a–iii, b–ii, c–i
3.   a–i, b–iii, c–ii
4.   a–ii, b–i, c–iii


Question Number : 128 Question Id : 441009682473 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




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2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 129 Question Id : 441009682480 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
For an internal defibrillator, energies up to:
Options :
1.   2 joules is required
2.   40 joules is required
3.   100 joules is required
4.   1000 joules is required


Question Number : 130 Question Id : 441009800552 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which feature distinguishes an external (wearable) pacemaker from a permanently implantable pacemaker?
Options :
1.   External pacemakers are implanted subcutaneously and powered by long-life internal batteries.
2.   External pacemakers are temporary devices located outside the body, used often postoperatively or for short-term support.

3.   External pacemakers operate entirely without leads, whereas implantable ones always require transvenous leads.
4.   External pacemakers can sense intrinsic signals, but implantable pacemakers always operate in asynchronous fixed-rate mode.


Question Number : 131 Question Id : 441009682484 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In modern clinically used ball or disc mechanical heart valves, the valve occluder is typically made of:
Options :
1.   silicone rubber
2.   carbon
3.   aluminium
4.   copper


Question Number : 132 Question Id : 441009682486 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


Options :
1.


2.


3.


4.



Question Number : 133 Question Id : 441009800532 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In an adult patient with increased chest impedance, which electrode choice and application practice will most effectively reduce
transthoracic impedance and maximise delivered current to achieve successful defibrillation?
Options :
1.   Use small circular metal paddles without gel, relying on firm manual pressure for contact.
2.   Use large self-adhesive pads with a wet conductive gel layer, ensuring full skin contact over a wide area.
3.   Use self-adhesive pads with solid gel to avoid pre- and post-shock skin cleaning.
4.   Use hand-held paddles with minimal contact area to focus current density over a small region.


Question Number : 134 Question Id : 441009800563 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a block diagram of a single-chamber asynchronous pacemaker, which circuit component is effectively bypassed or rendered inactive
during pacing at the fixed rate?
Options :
1.   Timer (escape interval generator)
2.   Output circuit (pulse generator)
3.   Sensing circuit (amplifier and comparator)
4.   Battery (with wireless charging)


Question Number : 135 Question Id : 441009800589 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
When evaluating or designing a prosthetic heart valve, which qualitative requirement is the most essential to minimise adverse
haemolysis and thrombosis risk?
Options :
1.   Maximising leaflet opening delay to mimic natural valve closure timing
2.   Selecting leaflet materials with proven antithrombogenic surface properties
3.   Designing a valve with the largest possible orifice area regardless of flow dynamics
4.   Using a sewing ring material that promotes fibrous ingrowth at the expense of leaflet flexibility

Question Number : 136 Question Id : 441009800625 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In patients with ventricular assist devices (VADs), why is central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring especially important during
intensive care management?
Options :
1.   CVP provides a direct measure of left ventricular function and contractility.
2.   CVP trends help guide fluid management and identify early signs of right ventricular failure.
3.   CVP readings can replace the need for all other haemodynamic parameters.
4.   CVP is primarily used to monitor left ventricle blood pressure due to left ventricular failure.


Question Number : 137 Question Id : 441009682482 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is NOT used as a pacemaker battery?
Options :
1.   Lithium-carbon monofluoride cell
2.   Lithium-iodine cell
3.   Nuclear cell
4.   Calcium cell


Question Number : 138 Question Id : 441009682483 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the absence of sensed R-waves, which type of pacemaker reverts to a fixed-rate mode of operation?
Options :
1.   Fixed rate pacemaker
2.   Demand pacemakere
3.   Atrial programmed pacemaker
4.   Ventricular programmed pacemaker


Question Number : 139 Question Id : 441009682492 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is NOT an application technique of shortwave diathermy?
Options :
1.   Contraplanar technique
2.   Resistive technique
3.   Coplanar technique
4.   Inductive technique


Question Number : 140 Question Id : 441009682493 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66


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2.


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Question Number : 141 Question Id : 441009682485 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

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Question Number : 142 Question Id : 441009803180 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Refer to the following three statements about RF-powered cardiac pacemaker systems and select the correct option.

Statement P: RF-powered pacemakers rely on continuous energy transmission from an external source to function,
removing the need for internal batteries.

Statement Q: The implanted receiver circuit in an RF-powered pacemaker converts radiofrequency energy into
electrical pulses that stimulate the myocardium.

Statement R: RF-powered pacemakers are commonly used as a standard solution in long-term pacing due to their
simplicity and widespread clinical acceptance.
Options :
1.   Only Statements P and Q are correct.
2.   Only Statements Q and R are correct.
3.   Only Statement R is correct.
4.   All Statements P, Q and R are correct.


Question Number : 143 Question Id : 441009803193 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Refer to the following three statements about mechanical heart valves and select the correct option.
Statement P: Tilting disc valves direct blood flow through a single orifice created by a pivoting occluder, which opens asymmetrically.
Statement Q: Bileaflet valves generate two separate flow paths and have improved central flow compared to tilting disc valves.
Statement R: Both tilting disc and bileaflet valves offer complete elimination of turbulence and thrombogenic risk in comparison to
biological valves.
Options :
1.   Only Statements P and Q are correct.
2.   Only Statements Q and R are correct.
3.   Only Statement P is correct.
4.   All Statements P, Q and R are correct.


Question Number : 144 Question Id : 441009682488 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




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2.

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Question Number : 145 Question Id : 441009682490 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




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Question Number : 146 Question Id : 441009812490 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The pulse duplicator system is used to simulate physiological pressure and flow conditions for evaluating
the haemodynamic performance of prosthetic heart valves.
Reason (R): The pulse duplicator replicates cardiac acoustic signals to analyse valve opening and closing sounds in vivo.

Options :
1.   A is true, but R is false.
2.   A is false, but R is true.
3.   Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
4.   Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.


Question Number : 147 Question Id : 441009682487 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66




Options :

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2.


3.


4.

Question Number : 148 Question Id : 441009799769 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match each type of xenograft valve with its corresponding source or structural feature.

a. Porcine aortic valve                                               i. Constructed from flexible membrane tissue sewn into stented frames
b. Bovine pericardial valve                                           ii. Native valve harvested, preserved, and mounted on a frame
c. Bovine jugular vein valve                                          iii. Used primarily in pulmonary valve replacement in congenital repairs
Options :
1.   a–ii, b–i, c–iii
2.   a–i, b–iii, c–ii
3.   a–iii, b–ii, c–i
4.   a–ii, b–iii, c–i


Question Number : 149 Question Id : 441009799781 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match each type of blood oxygenator (P–R) with its corresponding operational feature or clinical attribute (I–III).

P. Bubble oxygenator                                                  I. Direct introduction of oxygen bubbles into blood for gas exchange
                                                                      II. Creates a broad surface area by spreading blood over rotating
Q. Thin film oxygenator                                               elements
                                                                      III. Uses a gas-permeable barrier to transfer gases while avoiding
R. Membrane oxygenator                                                direct blood-gas contact
Options :
1.   P–I, Q–II, R–III
2.   P–II, Q–III, R–I
3.   P–III, Q–I, R–II
4.   P–I, Q–III, R–II


Question Number : 150 Question Id : 441009799784 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match each type of exchanger (P–R) with its corresponding functional or structural feature (I–III).

                                                                      I. Consists of a bundle of semi-permeable capillary tubes enclosed in a
P. Hollow fiber dialyzer                                              plastic casing
                                                                      II. Uses layers of membrane sheets arranged with spacers and
Q. Flat-plate dialyzer                                                support plates
                                                                      III. Composed of long membrane tubes wound around a central core in
R. Coil dialyzer                                                      a spiral form
Options :
1.   P–I, Q–II, R–III
2.   P–III, Q–I, R–II
3.   P–II, Q–III, R–I
4.   P–I, Q–III, R–II