APPSC Polytechnic Lecturers 2025: Lecturers in Government Polytechnic Colleges (Notification 13/2023), Paper II mechanicalengineering

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Question Paper Name :                                        Paper-II- Lecturer in Mechanical Engineering
Subject Name :                                              Paper II Lecturer in Mechanical Engineering
Duration :                                                  150
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                     Paper II Lecturer in Mechanical Engineering
Group Number :                                              1
Group Id :                                                  441009772670
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Group Minimum Duration :                                    150
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Group Marks :                                               300



                     Paper II Lecturer in Mechanical Engineering
Section Id :                                                441009779030
Section Number :                                            1
Section type :                                              Online
Mandatory or Optional :                                     Mandatory
Number of Questions :                                       150
Number of Questions to be attempted :                       150
Section Marks :                                             300
Section Negative Marks :                                    0.66
Maximum Instruction Time :                                  0
Sub-Section Number :                                        1
Sub-Section Id :                                            441009781707
Question Shuffling Allowed :                                Yes

Question Number : 1 Question Id : 441009772190 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
_________ approach is used for analysis of arbitrary fluid flow problems.
Options :
1.    Control Volume Analysis
2.    Pressure Volume Analysis
3.   Temperature Volume Analysis
4.   Variable fluid flow Analysis


Question Number : 2 Question Id : 441009772247 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The characteristic of a liquid that provides resistance to the flow of one layer of liquid over another adjacent layer of
liquid is known as
Options :
1.    Capillarity
2.    Compressibility
3.   Viscosity
4.    Surface tension


Question Number : 3 Question Id : 441009772242 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The real path that certain fluid particle takes is called
Options :
1.   Time line
2.    Path line
3.    Streak line
4.    Stream line


Question Number : 4 Question Id : 441009772245 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the total pressure on a circular plate of diameter 1 m which is placed vertically in water in such a way that
the centre of the plate is 2 m below the free surface of water?
Options :
1.    12560.8 N
2.    15401.7 N
3.    18693.7 N
4.    14875.6 N

Question Number : 5 Question Id : 441009772148 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
According to Newton's second law, how is the change in momentum related to the force acting on the blades?
Options :
1.    It is directly proportional.
2.    It is inversely proportional.
3.    There is no force acting on the blades.
4.    It is both directly and indirectly proportional.


Question Number : 6 Question Id : 441009772241 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Newton’s law of viscosity is a relationship between
Options :
1.    Temperature and Rate of shear strain
2.    Velocity and temperature and Pressure
3.    Velocity and Shear stress
4.    Shear stress and Rate of shear strain


Question Number : 7 Question Id : 441009772243 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following
 Basic fluid flow line patterns                          Definitions
 A stream line (A)                                       Set of fluid particles that form a line at a given instant (P)
 A path line (B)                                         Particles that have earlier passed through a prescribed point
                                                         (Q)
 A streak line (C)                                       Actual path traversed by a given fluid particle (R)
 A timeline (D)                                          A line everywhere tangent to the velocity vector at a given
                                                         instant (S)
Options :
1.    A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
2.    A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-A
3.    A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
4.    A-P, B-S, C- R, D-Q

Question Number : 8 Question Id : 441009812754 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following equilibrium of body with its conditions.
Stability of a body                                            Condition
P. Neutral equilibrium of floating body                        A. Centre of buoyancy lies below centre of gravity
Q. Unstable equilibrium of submerged body                      B. Centre of buoyancy lies above centre of gravity
R. Stable equilibrium of submerged body                        C. Metacentre lies below centre of gravity
S. Unstable equilibrium of floating body                       D. Metacentre and centre of gravity coincides

Options :
1.    P-D, Q-A, R-B, S-C
2.    P-B, Q-D, R-A, S-C
3.    P-A, Q-C, R-B, S-D
4.    P-C, Q-B, R-A, S-D


Question Number : 9 Question Id : 441009672888 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In Fluid Mechanics, Pascal's Law states that the _____.
Options :
1.    pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted undiminished to every part of the fluid
2.    pressure at a point in a fluid at rest is the same in all directions
3.    pressure of a fluid decreases as the velocity increases
4.    volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure


Question Number : 10 Question Id : 441009674121 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The velocity profile in a pipe with fully developed laminar flow is:
Options :
1.    parabolic
2.    linear
3.    logarithmic
4.    uniform


Question Number : 11 Question Id : 441009674760 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
When external flow occurs across a flat plate, the thickness of the boundary layer δ(x) increases with the:
Options :
1.    distance from the leading edge of the plate
2.    fluid velocity
3.    fluid density
4.    plate thickness

Question Number : 12 Question Id : 441009672914 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In fluid mechanics, the conservation of momentum law is derived from:
Options :
1.   Newton's First Law
2.   Newton's Second Law
3.   Newton's Third Law
4.   Bernoulli's Equation


Question Number : 13 Question Id : 441009675058 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Kutta condition is applied in external flow to:
Options :
1.   determine the velocity at the trailing edge of an airfoil
2.   calculate the pressure distribution over a body
3.   predict the temperature distribution in the boundary layer
4.   estimate the drag force on a body


Question Number : 14 Question Id : 441009772182 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The 3 techniques namely i) Experimentation ii) Boundary layer theory and iii) Numerical (computer) solutions are
used to study the_______ flow.
Options :
1.   Internal fluid
2.   External fluid
3.   Hot fluid
4.   Cold fluid


Question Number : 15 Question Id : 441009772187 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The shear stress on a fluid element layer is directly proportional to the rate of shear strain, according to Newton's
law of _________
Options :
1.   Internal energy
2.   Pressure change
3.   Viscosity
4.   Density

Question Number : 16 Question Id : 441009772189 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
For a fixed control volume, the integral form of Mass conservation law is given by ________
Options :
1.   ꭍCV (∂ρ/∂T) dV + ꭍCS ρ (V.n) dA=0
2.   ꭍCV ( ∂ρ/∂T)dV - ꭍCS ρ (V.n)dA=0
3.   ꭍCV ( ∂ρ/∂T)dV + ꭍCS ρ (T.n)dA=0
4.   ꭍCV ( ∂ρ/∂V)dV + ꭍCS ρ (V.n)dA=0



Question Number : 17 Question Id : 441009675159 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The drag force acting on a body in an external flow is composed of:
Options :
1.   pressure drag only
2.   friction drag only
3.   both pressure and friction drag
4.   inertial drag


Question Number : 18 Question Id : 441009772185 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The fluid density, pipe approach velocity, and venturimeter's diameter ratio affect the _______ drop in a
venturimeter.
Options :
1.   Velocity
2.   Volume
3.   Density
4.   Pressure


Question Number : 19 Question Id : 441009772188 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The ___________ presents the concept of increasing entropy and shows the limit of transforming heat into work.
Options :
1.   Zeroth law of thermodynamics
2.   Second Law of thermodynamics
3.   First Law of thermodynamics
4.   Newton's law of cooling

Question Number : 20 Question Id : 441009772146 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A machine with a 100% efficiency rate that converts all of the heat input into net work done is referred as _________
Options :
1.   Perpetual motion machine of the second kind (PMM2)
2.   Perpetual motion machine of the First kind (PMM1)
3.   Heat Exchanger
4.   Condenser


Question Number : 21 Question Id : 441009772195 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The "___________" refers to the relationship between the independent attributes of a pure substance, such as
temperature, pressure, and specific volume.
Options :
1.   Equation of state
2.   Equation of motion
3.   Equation of radiation
4.   Equation of entropy


Question Number : 22 Question Id : 441009772202 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Air is utilized as a refrigerant in aeroplane air conditioning systems, which employ the ____________ cycle.

Options :
1.   Carnot cycle
2.   Reverse Brayton cycle
3.   Reverse Carnot cycle
4.   Evaporation cycle


Question Number : 23 Question Id : 441009772203 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The overall efficiency of the Stirling cycle is similar to the ________, operating between same temperature range.
Options :
1.   Ericsson cycle
2.   Otto cycle
3.   Carnot cycle
4.   Diesel cycle

Question Number : 24 Question Id : 441009772147 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A Mechanical device that violates the first law of thermodynamics by producing the work from nothing is identified
as ______
Options :
1.   Perpetual motion machine of the Second kind (PMM 2)
2.   Perpetual motion machine of the first kind (PMM 1)
3.   Heat Exchanger
4.   Boiler


Question Number : 25 Question Id : 441009772154 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In an ideal vapour compression refrigeration cycle, which process is irreversible?
Options :
1.   Compression
2.   Heat rejection
3.   Throttling
4.   Heat absorption


Question Number : 26 Question Id : 441009772194 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
To get the same temperature rise produced with a unit amount of heat, a certain amount of __________ is always
needed.
Options :
1.   Heat
2.   Work
3.   Water
4.   Air


Question Number : 27 Question Id : 441009772201 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Zeroth law deals with thermal equilibrium and establishes a concept of ______.
Options :
1.   Internal energy
2.   Volume
3.   Temperature
4.   Pressure

Question Number : 28 Question Id : 441009772196 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which process is used to reduce the pressure and temperature of the liquid refrigerant in refrigeration system?

Options :
1.    Quasi-static process
2.    Regenerative cyclic process
3.    Throttling process
4.    Isothermal process


Question Number : 29 Question Id : 441009772204 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In an Otto cycle, gas _______ as piston moves from top dead centre to bottom dead centre.
Options :
1.    compresses isothermally
2.    expands adiabatically
3.    compresses isentropically
4.    expands poytropically


Question Number : 30 Question Id : 441009749539 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which mechanism dominates diffusion in substitutional alloys?
Options :
1.    Vacancy diffusion
2.    Interstitial diffusion
3.    Grain boundary diffusion
4.    Surface diffusion


Question Number : 31 Question Id : 441009749670 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following factors least affects the creep rate in crystalline materials?
Options :
1.    Grain size
2.    Temperature
3.    Crystal orientation
4.    Ambient pressure

Question Number : 32 Question Id : 441009772178 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Iron, Nickel and Cobalt belong to which type of Magnetic Materials?
Options :
1.   Non Magnetic Materials
2.   Paramagnetic materials
3.   Ferromagnetic materials
4.   Diamagnetic materials


Question Number : 33 Question Id : 441009749148 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following crystal structures with their corresponding coordination numbers.

Crystal Structure                                         Coordination Number
P. Simple Cubic (SC)                                      A. 12
Q. Body-Centred Cubic (BCC)                               B. 8
R. Face-Centred Cubic (FCC)                               C. 6
Options :
1.   P-B, Q-A, R-C
2.   P-B, Q-C, R-A
3.   P-C, Q-B, R-A
4.   P-A, Q-B, R-C


Question Number : 34 Question Id : 441009749192 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following dielectric properties with their definitions.

Property                                                  Definition
P. Dielectric constant                                    A. Maximum electric field a material can withstand
Q. Dielectric strength                                    B. Energy loss as heat in alternating fields
R. Loss tangent                                           C. Ratio of material's permittivity to vacuum permittivity
Options :
1.   P-C, Q-A, R-B
2.   P-A, Q-B, R-C
3.   P-B, Q-C, R-A
4.   P-C, Q-B, R-A

Question Number : 35 Question Id : 441009749376 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In this question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything
in the statement to be true and decide which of them logically follow(s) beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the statement.

Statement:
p-type semiconductors are created by doping silicon with trivalent impurities like boron.

Conclusions:
I) p-type semiconductors have a positive temperature coefficient of resistance.
II) Holes are the majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductors.
Options :
1.   Only conclusion I follows
2.   Only conclusion II follows
3.   Both conclusions I and II follow
4.   Neither conclusion I nor II follows


Question Number : 36 Question Id : 441009749573 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Arrhenius equation for diffusion coefficient (DD) includes _________________.
Options :
1.   activation energy and temperature
2.   concentration and time
3.   pressure and volume
4.   atomic radius and charge


Question Number : 37 Question Id : 441009772152 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is the correct composition for Y-alloy?
Options :
1.   Mg = 92.5% ; Al = 4% ; Cu = 2% ; Ni = 1.5%.
2.   Ni = 92.5% ; Mg = 4% ; Al = 2% ; Cu = 1.5%.
3.   Al = 92.5% ; Cu = 4% ; Ni = 2% ; Mg = 1.5%
4.   Cu = 92.5% ; Ni = 4% ; Mg = 2% ; Al = 1.5%.


Question Number : 38 Question Id : 441009749728 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which noise type is predominantly found in carbon composition resistors due to irregularities in the structure?
Options :
1.   Shot noise
2.   Thermal noise
3.   Flicker noise
4.   Johnson noise

Question Number : 39 Question Id : 441009772268 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
For a 2D truss structure, if m is the number of members, j is the number of joints, and r is the number of reactions,
the condition for statistically determinacy of the structure is
Options :
1.    m+r = 2j
2.    m-r = 2j
3.    m+r <2j
4.    m+r >2j


Question Number : 40 Question Id : 441009845916 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is an example of an idealisation in mechanics?
Options :
1.    Rigid body
2.    Plastic body
3.    Elastic body
4.    Real structure


Question Number : 41 Question Id : 441009772213 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Consider a rigid body subjected to a system of co-planar forces. Which of the following conditions is/are sufficient
to ensure that the body is in equilibrium?

Condition 1: The sum of the moments of the forces about any point in the plane is zero.
Condition 2: The sum of the forces in any two perpendicular directions is zero.
Options :
1.    Condition 1 alone is sufficient.
2.    Condition 2 alone is sufficient.
3.    Both the conditions 1 and 2 are required.
4.    Neither condition 1 nor condition 2 is required.


Question Number : 42 Question Id : 441009772251 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Chose the correct option based on the below Assertion and Reason in context to analysis of Truss:
Assertion(A): Method of sections is more suitable when only forces in few of the members away from the supports are desired
Reason (R): Only two static equilibrium conditions are required to determine the unknowns.

Options :
1.    Both A and R are true
2.   A is false, but R is true
3.   A is true, but R is false
4.    Both A and R are false

Question Number : 43 Question Id : 441009772269 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A simple wheel and axle has wheel and axle of diameters of 300mm and 30mm respectively. What is the efficiency
of the machine, if it can lift a load of 900N by an effort of 100N.
Options :
1.   60%
2.   70%
3.   0.8
4.   90%


Question Number : 44 Question Id : 441009772252 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A lamp weighing 5 N is suspended from the ceiling by a rope. It is pulled aside by a horizontal chain until the rope
makes an angle of 60° with the ceiling. The tension in the rope is
Options :
1.   1.42 N
2.   2.88 N
3.   5.77 N
4.   8.22 N


Question Number : 45 Question Id : 441009772266 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell of mass m and radius r about its diameter is:
Options :
1.   mr2/3
2.   2mr2/3
3.   2mr2/5
4.   3mr2/5


Question Number : 46 Question Id : 441009772212 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the option that is correct regarding the following statement and conclusion.

Statement: The work-energy principle states that the net work done on a particle is equal to the change in its kinetic
energy.
Conclusion: The energy method is applicable only to conservative force systems.
Options :
1.   Both statement and conclusion are true and conclusion is the correct explanation of the statement.
2.   Both statement and conclusion are true but conclusion is not the correct explanation of the statement.
3.   Statement is true but conclusion is false.
4.   Both statement and conclusion are false.

Question Number : 47 Question Id : 441009772256 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The failure of concrete bar in compression normally occurs across the shear plane at what angle to the applied load
Options :
1.   300
2.   450
3.   600
4.   900


Question Number : 48 Question Id : 441009772263 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A material under pure shear stress will fail by which of the following mechanisms?
Options :
1.   Tensile failure
2.   Compressive failure
3.   Shear failure
4.   Torsional failure


Question Number : 49 Question Id : 441009901645 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the type of stresses with the corresponding illustrations representing it.
Type of stresses                                            Illustrations
P. Tensile                                                  A. Cutting of paper with scissor
Q. Compressive                                              B. Hanging a weight from a wire
R. Shear                                                    C. Force on human leg while standing
Options :
1.   P-B, Q-C, R-A
2.   P-B, Q-A, R-C
3.   P-A, Q-C, R-B
4.   P-A, Q-B, R-C


Question Number : 50 Question Id : 441009772235 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Along with equilibrium equations which of the following conditions should be used to find out reactions in the case
of Statically Indeterminate structures.
Options :
1.   Static conditions
2.   Dynamic conditions
3.   Compatibility conditions
4.   Both Static and Dynamic conditions

Question Number : 51 Question Id : 441009772258 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Impact strength of a given material can be determined by using
Options :
1.   Universal Testing Machine
2.   Three Point Loading Machine
3.   Rotating Bending Machine
4.   Izod Testing Machine


Question Number : 52 Question Id : 441009772260 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following assumptions are correct for Theory of simple Bending?
Options :
1.   Each layer of the beam is free to expand or contract dependently of the layer, above or below it
2.   The material of the beam is homogeneous
3.   The material of the beam is not isotropic
4.   The Value of E is different in tension and compression


Question Number : 53 Question Id : 441009772262 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match List-I (Elastic properties of an isotropic elastic material) with List-II (Nature of strain produced) and choose
the correct answer
List-I                          List-II
A. Young’s Modulus        1. Shear Strain
B. Poissons Ratio          2. Volumetric Strain
C. Bulk Modulus            3. Transverse Strain
D. Rigidity Modulus       4. Normal Strain

Options :
1.   A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
2.   A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
3.   A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
4.   A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1

Question Number : 54 Question Id : 441009901823 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the end condition of column with the corresponding critical load.

End condition of column                                      Critical Load
                                                             A.
P. Both ends hinged
                                                             B.
Q. One end fixed and other hinged
                                                             C.
R. Both end fixed
                                                             D.
S. One end fixed other end free
Options :
1.   P-A, Q-B, R-C, S-D
2.   P-B, Q-A, R-D, S-C
3.   P-B, Q-A, R-C, S-D
4.   P-A, Q-B, R-D, S-C


Question Number : 55 Question Id : 441009772236 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The condition for the slenderness ratio to be satisfied by the Euler's formula used for obtaining crippling load for a
Mild Steel column with hinged ends is
Options :
1.   l/k<10
2.   10<l/k<30
3.   30<l/k<70
4.   l/k>80


Question Number : 56 Question Id : 441009772257 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
If a cantilever beam of length l is subjected to uniformly distributed load w per unit run over entire length, the
magnitude of max deflection is
Options :
       3
1.   Wl /3EI
       4
2.   wl /8EI

​
       3
3.   wl /48EI
          4
4.     5wl /384EI

Question Number : 57 Question Id : 441009772325 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the followings is not the sub-system of electro-chemical machining?
Options :
1.   Power source
2.   Electrolyte supply and cleaning system
3.   Tool and tool-feed system
4.   Water-muffler system


Question Number : 58 Question Id : 441009772330 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Filler material used for brazing has liquidus temperature
Options :
1.   below 100°C
2.   between 100°C-250°C
3.   between 250°C - 450°C
4.   above 450°C


Question Number : 59 Question Id : 441009772339 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The type of a furnace bath which is installed in the form of a pit and is used for melting small quantities of ferrous
and non ferrous metals for production of castings is called
Options :
1.   Open hearth furnace
2.   Cupola furnace
3.   Pit furnace
4.   Blast furnace


Question Number : 60 Question Id : 441009772335 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the followings rolling mill consists of a number of non reversing two-high rolling mills arranged one after
the other, so that the material can be passed through all of them in sequence?
Options :
1.   Cluster mill
2.   Three-high rolling mill
3.   Two-high rolling mill
4.   Continuous rolling mill

Question Number : 61 Question Id : 441009772336 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Statement:
In Cold chamber die casting, lower temperature of molten metal accompanied with higher injection pressure with
produce castings of dense structure sustained dimensional accuracy and free from blow-holes.
Conclusion:
1. Cost of die in cold chamber die casting is less.
2. Cold chamber die casting is used for mass production.
Options :
1.   Only conclusion 1 follows
2.   Only conclusion 2 follows
3.   Neither 1 nor 2 follow
4.   Both 1 and 2 follow


Question Number : 62 Question Id : 441009772338 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the followings process lead to production of directly usable articles which include kitchen utensils, rods,
wires, rails, cold drink bottle caps, collapsible tubes etc.
Options :
1.   Welding
2.   Drawing
3.   Lapping
4.   Broaching


Question Number : 63 Question Id : 441009772354 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Statement:
For changing the ingots into usable products in manufacturing concern, the various processes involved are classified
into many groups.
Conclusion:
1. Machining process is followed after casting.
2. Surface finishing process is followed before machining process.

Options :
1.   Only conclusion 1 follows
2.   Only conclusion 2 follows
3.   Neither 1 nor 2 follows
4.   Both 1 and 2 follow

Question Number : 64 Question Id : 441009772324 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Statement:
In Electro-chemical machining, small electric DC potential (5-25 V) is applied across the two electrodes, i e cathode
and anode (anode is work and cathode is tool) immersed in electrolyte.
Conclusion:
1. The application of direct current through a solution of electrolyte results in redox reaction.
2. The application of an alternating current (A.C) leads to conduction only.


Options :
1.   Only Conclusion 1 follows
2.   Only Conclusion 2 follows
3.   Neither 1 nor 2 follows
4.   Both 1 and 2 follow


Question Number : 65 Question Id : 441009772328 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following vices is commonly used by a watch maker, a die maker and a goldsmith to hold a variety of
small parts for carrying out some operation?
Options :
1.   Hand vice
2.   Tool maker's vice
3.   Pin vice
4.   Universal swivel vice


Question Number : 66 Question Id : 441009772332 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the followings sheet metal tools is a sort of anvil, which supports the sheet for sheet metal work?
Options :
1.   Planishing hammer
2.   Stakes
3.   Universal shear
4.   Scrapers

Question Number : 67 Question Id : 441009772353 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the different manufacturing processes with the examples.
Types of manufacturing processes                         Examples
P. Primary shaping process                               A. Extrusion
Q. Machining process                                     B. Honing
R. Forming process                                       C. Powder metallurgy
S. Surface finishing process                             D. Grinding
Options :
1.   P-D, Q-A, R-B, S-C
2.   P-C, Q-D, R-B, S-A
3.   P-C, Q-D, R-A, S-B
4.   P-B, Q-A, R-D, S-C


Question Number : 68 Question Id : 441009772159 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In cascade analysis, the flow across individual blade rows is treated as …………..dimensional flow and ……………
flow.
Options :
1.   One; steady
2.   Two; steady
3.   One; Unsteady
4.   Multi; steady


Question Number : 69 Question Id : 441009772209 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The product of measured force (F) and moment arm (R) of the IC engine is called
Options :
1.   Torque
2.   Mechanical Efficiency
3.   Actual Power
4.   Relative Efficiency


Question Number : 70 Question Id : 441009772210 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The function of Crankshaft in IC engine is
Options :
1.   It converts the reciprocating motion of the piston into useful rotary motion of the output shaft
2.   It converts the rotary motion of the piston into useful reciprocating motion of the output shaft.
3.   Only reciprocating motion of the output shaft
4.   Only the reciprocating motion of the piston

Question Number : 71 Question Id : 441009772229 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The thermodynamic cycle on which the spark ignition (SI) engine works on is called .....
Options :
1.    Stirling Cycle
2.    Joule Cycle
3.    Otto Cycle
4.    Rankine Cycle


Question Number : 72 Question Id : 441009772158 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Reaction axial flow turbines are ……………….. and …………. flow devices.

Options :
1.    Low head and High
2.    High head and low
3.    Medium head and high
4.    Low head and Low


Question Number : 73 Question Id : 441009772160 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Dynamic pumps are ineffective in handling …………………………….liquids.
Options :
1.    low density
2.    high-viscosity
3.    Low-viscosity
4.    high density


Question Number : 74 Question Id : 441009772155 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Assuming an............................process, the compressor's efficiency is determined by the change in gas enthalpy from
the initial condition to the final outlet.
Options :
1.    Adiabatic
2.    Isochoric
3.    Isobaric
4.    Isothermal

Question Number : 75 Question Id : 441009772156 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A Centrifugal pump develops …………. and ……………...
Options :
1.   High flow rate and low head
2.   Low flow rate and low head
3.   High flow rate and high head
4.   Low flow rate and Medium head


Question Number : 76 Question Id : 441009772162 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The volumetric efficiency of the air compressor is defined as…………….
Options :
1.
 Actual volume of air sucked into the Evaporator, measured at atmospheric pressure and temperature to the piston
 displacement volume


2.
 Actual volume of air sucked into the compressor, measured at atmospheric pressure and temperature to the
 piston displacement volume


3.
 Actual volume of air sucked into the condenser, measured at atmospheric pressure and temperature to the piston
 displacement volume


4.
 Actual pressure of air sucked into the compressor, measured at atmospheric pressure and temperature to the
 piston displacement pressure




Question Number : 77 Question Id : 441009772169 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Counter flow type jet condenser are classified under which type of jet condenser?
Options :
1.   Ejector jet condenser
2.   High level jet condenser
3.   Low level jet condenser
4.   Medium level jet condenser

Question Number : 78 Question Id : 441009772164 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following
 Reciprocating Compressor (A)                        Centrifugal compressor (M)
 Rotary Compressor (B)                              Air pump (N)
 Dynamic Compressor (C)                             Double acting compressor (O)
 Air Compressor (D)                                 Vane type compressor (P)


Options :
1.   A-M, B-N, C-O, D-P


2.   A-O, B-P, C-M, D- N


3.   A-N, B-O, C-P, D-M


4.   A-P, B –M, C-N, D-O




Question Number : 79 Question Id : 441009772165 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
An air compressor is a device that draws in ambient air, uses mechanical energy to compress it, and then releases the
compressed air at ……………….
Options :
1.   Low Volume
2.   Low Pressure
3.   High Pressure
4.   High Volume


Question Number : 80 Question Id : 441009772166 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The cooling tower is a …………………………… type of heat exchanger.

Options :
1.   Direct-contact
2.   Indirect-contact
3.   Cooling
4.   Semi-contact

Question Number : 81 Question Id : 441009772168 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the surface condenser, the exhaust steam and cooling water are separated by....................
Options :
1.    Heat transfer wall
2.    Evaporator wall
3.    Refrigerator wall
4.    Heat pump wall


Question Number : 82 Question Id : 441009772163 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
An open system in which heat is not allowed to cross the boundary is called………….
Options :
1.    Isentropic process
2.    heat expansion process
3.    Adiabatic system
4.    Constant temperature process




Question Number : 83 Question Id : 441009772170 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A condenser is a device where vapor at ………………. and ………………… condenses to liquid phase.
Options :
1.    Constant pressure and Constant volume
2.    Constant temperature and saturation temperature
3.    Constant Volume and Constant temperature
4.    Constant pressure and Saturation temperature


Question Number : 84 Question Id : 441009772368 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is not the correct desirable characteristics of the refrigerant- absorbent mixture in vapour
absorption refrigerating system?
Options :
1.    It should have high viscosity to minimise pump work.
2.    It should have low freezing point.
3.    It should have good chemical and thermal stability.
4. The irreversible chemical reactions of all kinds such as decomposition, polymerization, corrosion etc. are to be
avoided.

Question Number : 85 Question Id : 441009772375 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Statement:
In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant condenses and evaporates at temperatures and pressures
close to the atmospheric conditions.
Conclusions:
1.The low-pressure vapour refrigerant from the evaporator is changed into high pressure vapour refrigerant in the
compressor.
2.The refrigerant used in vapour compression refrigeration system leave the system.


Options :
1.    Only Conclusion 1 follows
2.    Only Conclusion 2 follows
3.    Neither Conclusion 1 nor Conclusion 2 follows
4.    Both Conclusion 1 and Conclusion 2 follow


Question Number : 86 Question Id : 441009682097 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In this question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered 1 and 2. You have to assume everything
in the statement to be true and decide which of them logically follow(s) beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the statement.

Statement:
Fourier’s law of heat conduction can be applied in one-dimensional, steady-state heat conduction problems to
determine the rate of heat transfer based on the temperature gradient.

Conclusions:
1. In steady-state heat conduction, the temperature at any point in the material changes with time.
2. The negative sign in Fourier’s law ensures that heat transfer in the positive x-direction is a positive quantity.
Options :
1.    Only Conclusion 1 follows.
2.    Only Conclusion 2 follows.
3.    Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 follows.
4.    Both Conclusions 1 and 2 follow.


Question Number : 87 Question Id : 441009772380 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the followings is not correct condition for fins to be effective?
Options :
1.    Biot number should be less than 1
2.    Thermal conductivity should be small
3.    Heat transfer coefficient should be small
4.    Thickness of the fin should be small

Question Number : 88 Question Id : 441009949630 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following components in a Vapour Compression Refrigeration System (VCRS) primarily functions as a
heat exchanger?
Options :
1.   Compressor
2.   Expansion valve
3.   Capillary tube
4.   Condenser


Question Number : 89 Question Id : 441009949649 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a Vapour Compression Refrigeration System (VCRS), the condensation of refrigerant in the condenser occurs at:
Options :
1.   constant pressure
2.   variable pressure
3.   constant enthalpy
4.   constant entropy


Question Number : 90 Question Id : 441009949791 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Under atmospheric conditions, the Leidenfrost point on the boiling curve for water is observed at:
Options :
1.   the intersection of transition boiling and film boiling
2.   the junction of nucleate boiling and transition boiling
3.   the onset (start) of nucleate boiling
4.   the endpoint of film boiling


Question Number : 91 Question Id : 441009949891 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In forced convection over a flat plate under laminar flow conditions, the average skin friction coefficient is:
Options :
1.   directly proportional to the Reynolds number
2.   inversely proportional to the Reynolds number
3.   inversely proportional to the square root of the Reynolds number
4.   directly proportional to the square root of the Reynolds number

Question Number : 92 Question Id : 441009678213 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the value of the hydraulic diameter (Dh) for a rectangular duct with breadth b and height a?
Options :
1.   (a+b)/2
2.   4ab/(a+b)
3.   (a+b)/2ab
4.   2ab/(a+b)


Question Number : 93 Question Id : 441009678344 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is NOT a boiling regime observed on the boiling curve?
Options :
1.   Natural convection boiling
2.   Nucleate boiling
3.   Neutral boiling
4.   Film boiling


Question Number : 94 Question Id : 441009680401 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A statement is given followed by two conclusions. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from
the given statement.

Statement:
Isentropic compression, isobaric heat rejection, isentropic expansion and isobaric heat absorption are four basic
processes involved in the ideal Bell–Coleman cycle for gas refrigeration.

Conclusions:
1: It is the reversed Brayton cycle.
2: The isobaric heat rejection process occurs in the evaporator.
Options :
1.   Only Conclusion 1 follows.
2.   Only Conclusion 2 follows.
3.   Neither Conclusion 1 nor Conclusion 2 follows.
4.   Both Conclusions 1 and 2 follow.


Question Number : 95 Question Id : 441009682160 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
For a fixed evaporator temperature in a vapour compression refrigeration system, what happens as the condenser
temperature increases?
Options :
1.   The heat rejection ratio increases.
2.   The coefficient of performance (COP) increases.
3.   The heat rejection ratio decreases.
4.   The refrigeration effect increases.

Question Number : 96 Question Id : 441009949470 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match Column A (Types of pumps) with Column B (Corresponding functions).
Column A                                                     Column B
A. Centrifugal Pump                                          1. Ideal for high-pressure and low-flow rate applications
B. Reciprocating Pump                                        2. Used to transfer viscous fluids like oil with relatively constant
C. Gear Pump                                                 3. Suitable for high-flow and continuous flow applications
Options :
1.   A-3, B-1, C-2
2.   A-1, B-2, C-3
3.   A-3, B-2, C-1
4.   A-2, B-3, C-1


Question Number : 97 Question Id : 441009677277 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A statement is given followed by two conclusions. Identify which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from
the statements.

Statement:
In a closely coiled helical spring, the wire is wound so that the plane of each coil is nearly at a right angle to the
spring axis, and the wire is primarily subjected to torsion.

Conclusions:
I. The helix angle in a closely coiled helical spring is very small.
II. The major stress induced in the spring is bending stress due to twisting.
Options :
1.    Only Conclusion I follows
2.    Only Conclusion II follows
3.    Both Conclusions I and II follow
4.    Neither Conclusion I nor II follows


Question Number : 98 Question Id : 441009963076 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is NOT a standard type of end connection for compression helical springs?
Options :
1.    Ground end
2.    Hooked end
3.    Plain end
4.    Squared end

Question Number : 99 Question Id : 441009963131 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In which of the following transmission systems is slipping completely absent during power transmission?
Options :
1.   Sprockets and chain drive
2.   V-belt drive
3.   Rope drive
4.   Flat belt drive


Question Number : 100 Question Id : 441009675158 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following options correctly defines the term 'spring index' as used in the design of compression
springs?
Options :
1.   The ratio of the mean diameter of the coil to the diameter of the wire
2.   The difference between the mean diameter of the coil and the diameter of the wire
3.   The product of the mean diameter of the coil and the diameter of the wire
4.   The ratio of the diameter of the wire to the mean diameter of the coil


Question Number : 101 Question Id : 441009772215 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In spur gears, the only disadvantage with involute teeth is:
Options :
1.   the face and flank are generated by a single curve
2.   the pressure angle, from the start of the engagement of teeth to the end of the engagement, remains constant
3.   interference occurs with pinions having smaller number of teeth
4.   centre distance for a pair of involute gears can be varied within limits without changing the velocity ratio


Question Number : 102 Question Id : 441009772230 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Statement: Tolerance account for the permissible variations in dimensions and geometric characteristics.
Conclusion: Standardization ensures interchangeability of parts and components.
Which of the following is correct?

Options :
1.   Both statement and conclusion are true and conclusion is the correct explanation of the statement.
2.   Both statement and conclusion are true but conclusion is not the correct explanation of the statement.
3.   Statement is true but conclusion is false.
4.   Both statement and conclusion are false.

Question Number : 103 Question Id : 441009964937 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the cylindrical part of a through bolt commonly called?
Options :
1.   Shank
2.   Flank
3.   Neck
4.   Core


Question Number : 104 Question Id : 441009675191 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Under which of the following conditions is the power transmitted by a flat belt drive at its maximum?
Options :
1.   When 1/3rd of the maximum tension is absorbed as centrifugal tension
2.   When 1/4th of the maximum tension is absorbed as centrifugal tension
3.   When 2/3rd of the maximum tension is absorbed as centrifugal tension
4.   When 1/2nd of the maximum tension is absorbed as centrifugal tension


Question Number : 105 Question Id : 441009772216 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the option that is correct regarding the following statement and conclusion.

Statement: Belt drives are preferred over chain drives for transmitting power over long distances.
Conclusion: Belts have higher power transmission capacity compared to chains.
Options :
1.   Both statement and conclusion are true and conclusion is the correct explanation of the statement.
2.   Both statement and conclusion are true but conclusion is not the correct explanation of the statement.
3.   Statement is true but conclusion is false.
4.   Both statement and conclusion are false.


Question Number : 106 Question Id : 441009772219 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match List-I (Type of Bearing) with List-II (Nature of load) and choose the correct answer.

         List-I                            List-II
A. Thrust ball Bearing               1. For hinged condition
B. Deep groove ball Bearing          2. Pure axial load
C. Taper roller Bearing              3. Point contact between balls and races
D. Self-aligning ball Bearing         4. Separable construction
Options :
1.   A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
2.   A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
3.   A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
4.   A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1

Question Number : 107 Question Id : 441009772296 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In which Coupling the flanges are joined together by means of a number of headless taper bolts

Options :
1.   Muff coupling
2.   Flange coupling
3.   Solid flange coupling
4.   Flexible coupling


Question Number : 108 Question Id : 441009772302 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What does the symbol represent?




Options :
1.   Symbol indicating the surface - Basic
2.   Symbol indicating the surface - Machining required
3.   Symbol indicating the surface – Machining Prohibited
4.   Symbol indicating the surface – Material addition required


Question Number : 109 Question Id : 441009968777 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the term for the edge of the thread surface farthest from the axis in external threads?
Options :
1.   Root
2.   Crest
3.   Flank
4.   Pitch

Question Number : 110 Question Id : 441009968841 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a pulley, the outer cylindrical surface used to hold the belt is called ______.
Options :
1.   Hub
2.   Web
3.   Rim
4.   Keyway


Question Number : 111 Question Id : 441009772295 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
____________ Pulley have transmission ratio up to 15:1

Options :
1.   V- Belt Pulley
2.   Fast and loose pulley
3.   Rope pulley
4.   Cone pulley


Question Number : 112 Question Id : 441009969069 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the primary function of the head gasket in an IC engine?
Options :
1.   Generate spark for combustion
2.   Close the end of the cylinder and seal block to head
3.   Regulate exhaust flow
4.   Store lubricating oil


Question Number : 113 Question Id : 441009968723 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Why is a match mark used in assembly drawings of large machine components?
Options :
1.   To indicate tolerance values
2.   To help align parts during assembly
3.   To denote surface finish
4.   To indicate hidden holes

Question Number : 114 Question Id : 441009969040 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following drives transmits power with negligible slip due to positive engagement?
Options :
1.    Flat belt drive
2.    Rope drive
3.    V-belt drive
4.    Chain drive


Question Number : 115 Question Id : 441009772271 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the Type of Kinematic chain with the corresponding description representing it
Type of Kinematic chain      Description
1 Open kinematic chain        a. has at least one link that is not connected to any other link
2 Closed kinematic chain       b has all links connected to at least one other link
3 Spatial kinematic chain      c used to transmit motion or force in three-dimensional space
4.Planar kinematic chain       d used to transmit motion or force in a two-dimensional plane




Options :
1.    1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c


2.    1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b



​
3.    1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c


4.    1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

Question Number : 116 Question Id : 441009772273 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the Type of Kinematic chain with the corresponding property representing it
Type of Kinematic chain                   Property
1 Open kinematic chain                  a. has at least one link that is not connected to any other link
2 Closed kinematic chain                b has all links connected to at least one other link
3 Spatial kinematic chain                c used to transmit motion or force in three-dimensional space
4Planar kinematic chain                  d used to transmit motion or force in a two-dimensional plane




Options :
1.    1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c




2.    1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b


3.    1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c


4.    1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d


Question Number : 117 Question Id : 441009772293 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is link?
Options :
1.    A flexible connector used to transmit motion
2.    A rigid body having two or more pairing elements
3.    A type of fastener used in assembling machines
4.    A part of the machine that can only move in a circular path


Question Number : 118 Question Id : 441009772255 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A four-bar linkage consists of four rigid bars connected in a loop by four rotating pairs. If the input link (crank)
rotates at a constant angular velocity, which of the following statements is correct about the velocity of the coupler
link?
Options :
1.    The coupler link has a constant angular velocity.
2.    The coupler link has a variable angular velocity.
3.    The coupler link remains stationary.
4.    The coupler link has a constant linear velocity.

Question Number : 119 Question Id : 441009772275 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a simple gear train, the total velocity ratio is given by the
Options :
1.    Product of the individual gear ratios
2.    Sum of the individual gear ratios
3.    Difference of the individual gear ratios
4.   Average of the individual gear ratios


Question Number : 120 Question Id : 441009772289 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The question below gave two statements. Select the appropriate answer based on the given statements.
Assertion (A): In a rolling motion without slipping, the instantaneous center of rotation lies at the point of contact
between the rolling object and the surface.
Reason (R): The point of contact in rolling motion has zero velocity relative to the surface, thus acting as the
instantaneous center of rotation.
Options :
1.    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3.   A is true, but R is false.
4.   A is false, but R is true.


Question Number : 121 Question Id : 441009772276 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A worm gear set consists of a single-start worm and a 40-tooth worm wheel. If the worm rotates at 1200 RPM,
calculate the output speed of the worm wheel.
Options :
1.    20 RPM
2.    30 RPM
3.    40 RPM
4.    50 RPM


Question Number : 122 Question Id : 441009772280 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Interference in gears can be avoided by:
Options :
1.    Using gears with a smaller pressure angle
2.    Using gears with a larger pressure angle
3.    Using gears with fewer teeth
4.    Using involute profiles

Question Number : 123 Question Id : 441009772322 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the followings is not the correct advantage of CNC machining?
Options :
1.    Reduce Lead time of product
2.    Higher Accuracy
3.    More fatigue to operator
4.    Reduced non-productive time


Question Number : 124 Question Id : 441009772343 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The grinding ratio, which is a term used to indicate the slope of the wheel wear curve is given by
Where, GR = the grinding ratio, Vw = the volume of work material removed, and Vg = the corresponding volume of the
grinding wheel that is worn in the process.

Options :
1.    GR = Vg/Vw

2.    GR = Vw/Vg

3.    GR = Vg Vw

4.    GR = Vg – Vw




Question Number : 125 Question Id : 441009772345 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
If the tool life values for the three wear curves are plotted on a natural log–log graph of cutting speed versus tool life,
the resulting relationship is a
Options :
1.    Straight line
2.    Parabola
3.    Cubic parabola
4.    Hyperbola

Question Number : 126 Question Id : 441009676620 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following nomenclature of the tool signature positions as per the American Standards Association (ASA)
system.

1) 0                                                         A. Nose radius
2) 1/32                                                      B. Represents the side rake angle
3) 7                                                         C. Represents the back rake angle
4) 15                                                        D. Represents the side cutting edge angle

Options :
1.    1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
2.    1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
3.    1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
4.    1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D


Question Number : 127 Question Id : 441009772340 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the followings evaluation technique for surface integrity can reveal various surface flaws such as cracks,
craters, laps, and seams?
Options :
1.   Visual examination
2.    Microstructural examination
3.    Microhardness profile
4.    Residual stress profile


Question Number : 128 Question Id : 441009772347 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In drilling, feed can be converted to feed rate by
Where, f = feed in mm/rev, fr = feed rate in mm/min, N = revolutions/min


Options :
1.    N/f
2.    Nf
3.    f/N
4.    N2f

Question Number : 129 Question Id : 441009772320 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the followings is not the correct benefit of Group technology in integrated manufacturing?

Options :
1.    manufacturing lead time is reduced
2.    material handling is increased
3.    work-in-process is reduced
4.    process planning is simpler


Question Number : 130 Question Id : 441009772342 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In Super-finishing process, pressures are applied between the tool and the surface

Options :
1.    Above the 10 MPa
2.    Below 0.28 MPa
3.    Between 0.28 and 2.56 MPa
4.    Between 3 to 10 MPa


Question Number : 131 Question Id : 441009772346 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The angle between the portion of the side flank immediately below the side edge and a line perpendicular to the base
of the tool measured at right angles to the side is called
Options :
1.    End relief angle
2.    Side rake angle
3.    Side relief angle
4.    Back rake angle


Question Number : 132 Question Id : 441009772348 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Statement:
A twist drill has three principal parts: (i) Drill point or dead center (ii) Body (iii) Shank.
Conclusion:

      I. Drill point is the sharpened end of the drill body consisting of all that part which is shaped to produce lips, faces and
        chisel edge
     II. Shank is the edge formed by the intersection of the flute surface and the body clearance.

Options :
1.    Only conclusion 1 follows
2.    Only conclusion 2 follows
3.    Neither 1 nor 2 follows
4.    Both 1 and 2 follow

Question Number : 133 Question Id : 441009772364 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Sigma comparator is a type of
Options :
1.   Mechanical comparator
2.   Mechanical-optical comparators
3.   Electrical comparator
4.   Pneumatic comparator


Question Number : 134 Question Id : 441009678799 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following types of error in Column A with their characteristics in Column B.

Types of error                                            Characteristics of the error
1. Systematic errors                                      A. Assessed statistically
2. Random errors                                          B. Controllable errors
3. Zero errors                                            C. Mistakes committed by the observer
4. Reading errors                                         D. The scale reading when there is no measurement
Options :
1.   1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
2.   1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
3.   1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
4.   1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D


Question Number : 135 Question Id : 441009678821 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following fundamental tolerances in Column A with their applications in Column B.

Fundamental tolerance                                    Application of fundamental tolerance
                                                         A. For the production of gauges and plug gauges and
P. IT01–IT4
                                                         measuring instruments
Q. IT5–IT7                                               B. For sheet metal working or press working
                                                         C. For fits in precision engineering applications such as ball
R. IT8–IT11
                                                         bearings, grinding, boring, etc.
                                                         D. For general engineering, namely turning, milling,
S. IT12–IT14
                                                         planning, rolling, extrusion, drilling, etc.
Options :
1.   P-A, Q-B, R-C, S-D
2.   P-A, Q-C, R-D, S-B
3.   P-C, Q-A, R-D, S-B
4.   P-A, Q-C, R-B, S-D

Question Number : 136 Question Id : 441009678831 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following slip gauges grades in Column A with their characteristics in Column B.

Slip gauges grades                                        Characteristics of slip gauges grades
A. Calibration grade                                      M. The workshop-grade slip gauge
B. Grade 00                                               N. Used for tool room applications
C. Grade 1                                                O. Used for inspection/calibration of high precision only
D. Grade 2                                                P. The actual sizes of slip gauges
Options :
1.   A-N, B-O, C-P, D-M
2.   A-O, B-P, C-N, D-M
3.   A-P, B-O, C-N, D-M
4.   A-O, B-P, C-M, D-N


Question Number : 137 Question Id : 441009772356 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the matching task in which the computer program has to match the extracted features with the features of
templates already stored in the memory called?
Options :
1.   Template matching
2.   Pattern recognition
3.   Edge detection
4.   Feature weighting


Question Number : 138 Question Id : 441009674772 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Depending on the geometry of the workpiece being measured, which of the following is NOT a physical
configuration of Coordinate Measuring Machines (CMMs)?
Options :
1.   Simply supported configuration
2.   Column configuration
3.   Bridge configuration
4.   Cantilever configuration


Question Number : 139 Question Id : 441009674787 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following measurement techniques is used for crystallographic information, such as type of crystal
structure, film thickness, interface roughness and surface topology?
Options :
1.   X-ray diffraction
2.   Magnetic resonance imaging
3.   Optical microscopy
4.   Scanning tunnelling microscopy

Question Number : 140 Question Id : 441009772361 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Flatness for grade 1 surface plates used in tool rooms and inspection departments range from
Options :
1.   0.005 to 0.027 mm
2.   0.028 to 0.052 mm
3.   0.053 to 0.078 mm
4.   0.079 to 0.097 mm


Question Number : 141 Question Id : 441009678602 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the main purpose of scheduling in production?
Options :
1.   To fix the machine layout and optimise material flow paths
2.   To control material movement from suppliers to the warehouse
3.   To prepare a timetable indicating the time and rate of production
4.   To inspect tools, machines and materials before allocation


Question Number : 142 Question Id : 441009799788 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which element of production planning and control involves deciding in advance what needs to be done in the future?
Options :
1.   Routing
2.   Planning
3.   Scheduling
4.   Dispatching


Question Number : 143 Question Id : 441009678606 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following informational inputs is essential to make scheduling effective?
Options :
1.   Forecast of manpower and inventory level in the warehouse
2.   Existing work-load, lead time, due date, and importance of each job
3.   Sales target, market growth, and competitor pricing strategy
4.   Tool sharpness, colour coding system, and storage location

Question Number : 144 Question Id : 441009772310 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Assertion (A): Exponential smoothing method is used for forecasting the data
Reason (R): Most recent data has been assigned higher weight than the past data
Options :
1.   Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A
2.   Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
3.   A is true, but R is false
4.   A is false, but R is true


Question Number : 145 Question Id : 441009772313 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the followings process shows the fabrication of parts subassemblies and final assembly in proper sequence
for flow control of material?
Options :
1.   Operation time
2.   Line balancing
3.   Routing and scheduling
4.   Control of assembly


Question Number : 146 Question Id : 441009871566 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Mass production systems have shorter production cycle times compared to job-shop and batch
production systems.
Reason (R): In mass production, product and process sequences are standardised, allowing continuous material flow
without backtracking.
Options :
1.   Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2.   Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3.   A is true, but R is false
4.   A is false, but R is true

Question Number : 147 Question Id : 441009678608 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Five jobs (J1 to J5) are waiting to be processed on a single machine using the First-Come-First-Served (FCFS)
scheduling rule. The details of the jobs are given in the following table.

 Job                                       Processing Time (Days)                Due Date (Days from Now)
 J1                                                       4                                      6
 J2                                                       5                                      7
 J3                                                       3                                      8
 J4                                                       7                                      10
 J5                                                       2                                      3

Jobs arrive in the order J1, J2, J3, J4, J5.
Using FCFS scheduling, which of the following statements is correct?
Options :
1.     The total flow time is 65 days, and the average lateness is 6.6 days.
2.     The total flow time is 33 days, and the average lateness is 6.0 days.
3.     The mean flow time is 21 days, and the total lateness is 33 days.
4.     The mean flow time is 13 days, and the total lateness is 27 days.


Question Number : 148 Question Id : 441009678616 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following options is correct about the given statement and conclusion?

Statement: Loading is the study of the relationship between load and capacity at work centres.

Conclusion: Assigning specific jobs to each work centre for the planning period helps establish the quantity of load
each work centre should carry during the specific planned period.
Options :
1.     Both the statement and the conclusion are true, and the conclusion correctly explains the statement.
2.     Both the statement and the conclusion are true, but the conclusion does not explain the statement.
3.     The statement is true, but the conclusion is false.
4.     The statement is false, but the conclusion is true.


Question Number : 149 Question Id : 441009772315 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Statement:
The product planning function includes marketing analysis and the performance of feasibility studies.
Conclusion:
  1. The aspect of marketing can assume different proportions depending upon the nature of product.
  2. The purpose of the feasibility study is to extend the preliminary market analysis with the intent of arriving at a
preferred system configuration.
Options :
1.     Only conclusion 1 follows
2.     Only conclusion 2 follows
3.     Neither 1 nor 2 follows
4.     Both conclusion 1 and 2 follow

Question Number : 150 Question Id : 441009772317 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the followings technique is employed when an organisation finds that the sale of its product has a
remarkable relationship with the sales of a leading product of another organisation?
Options :
1.   Judgemental techniques
2.   Correlation analysis
3.   Exponential smoothing method
4.   Delphi method