APPSC Polytechnic Lecturers 2025: Lecturers in Government Polytechnic Colleges (Notification 13/2023), Paper II pharmacy

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Question Paper Name :                                        Paper-II- Lecturer in Pharmacy
Subject Name :                                              Paper II Lecturer in Pharmacy
Duration :                                                  150
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                            Paper II Lecturer in Pharmacy
Group Number :                                              1
Group Id :                                                  441009772967
Group Maximum Duration :                                    0
Group Minimum Duration :                                    150
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Group Marks :                                               300



                            Paper II Lecturer in Pharmacy
Section Id :                                                441009779329
Section Number :                                            1
Section type :                                              Online
Mandatory or Optional :                                     Mandatory
Number of Questions :                                       150
Number of Questions to be attempted :                       150
Section Marks :                                             300
Section Negative Marks :                                    0.66
Maximum Instruction Time :                                  0
Sub-Section Number :                                        1
Sub-Section Id :                                            441009782016

Question Shuffling Allowed :                                   Yes

Question Number : 1 Question Id : 441009949239 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The National Pharmacy Education Day has been recognised on ______ by the Pharmacy Council of India.
Options :
1.    March 6
2.    March 8
3.   April 6
4.   April 8


Question Number : 2 Question Id : 441009949288 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
'Refills: 2', in the prescription indicates that one can get the medication ______.
Options :
1.    Dispensed two times without a new prescription
2.    Dispensed two more times without a new prescription
3.    Dispensed two times with a new prescription
4.    Dispensed two more times with a new prescription


Question Number : 3 Question Id : 441009950515 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A special precautionary label, “Complete the course”, should be mandatory on which category of
medicines?
Options :
1.   Antibiotics
2.   Analgesics
3.   Antacids
4.   Vitamins


Question Number : 4 Question Id : 441009950524 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the basic drug dosage formula, D (dosage ordered)/H X Q (Unit of measure) = X(unknown dosage). H
stands for ______.
Options :
1.    Desired dose
2.    Quantity of unit
3.    Unit of measure
4.    Dose strength

Question Number : 5 Question Id : 441009950536 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Absolute filters are also available as _______.
Options :
1.   Depth filters
2.   Glass filters
3.   Membrane filters
4.   Cellulose filters


Question Number : 6 Question Id : 441009950609 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The physical incompatibility is exemplified by which of the following?
Options :
1.   Liquefaction
2.   Gas formation
3.   Hydrolysis
4.   Oxidation


Question Number : 7 Question Id : 441009983312 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following with their respective first year of publication.

Pharmacopoeia                        Publication year
A. United States Pharmacopoeia (USP)              1. 1955
B. Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP)                      2. 1820
C. British Pharmacopoeia (BP)                     3. 1618
D. London Pharmacopoeia                           4. 1864
Options :
1.   A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
2.   A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
3.   A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
4.   A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1

Question Number : 8 Question Id : 441009984973 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: Mature dendritic cells (DCs) deliver antigenic fragments and co-stimulatory signals to naïve T
cells.
Conclusion: Therefore, DC maturation is essential for initiating an adaptive immune response.
Options :
1.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true, and the Conclusion is a correct explanation of the Statement.
2.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true, but the Conclusion is not a correct explanation.
3.   Statement is true, but Conclusion is false.
4.   Statement is false, but Conclusion is true.


Question Number : 9 Question Id : 441009985082 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Which of the following correctly evaluates the
statement?

Statement: Posology is dosage of drugs to be given to achieve desired pharmacological effect .Age, gender,
weight, climate and time of administration are the factors that affects the outcome.
Conclusion 1: Posology is the art of calculation of specific dosage.
Conclusion 2: The specific dosage depends on listed factors because it produces the desired pharmacological
effect.
Options :
1.   ​Both the conclusions are correct.
2.   Conclusion 1 is correct, and conclusion 2 is incorrect.
3.   Conclusion 1 is incorrect, and conclusion 2 is correct.
4.   Both the conclusions are incorrect.


Question Number : 10 Question Id : 441009985514 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Which of the following correctly evaluates the
statement?

Statement: Dehumidification is a process related to control the moisture content of substances. It prevents
problems like degradation of substances and corrosion.
Conclusion 1: Dehumidification controls the presence of excess water in substances.
Conclusion 2: Related problems like growth of microbes and degradation of substances is prevented because
presence of water leads to hydrolysis and enzyme activity.
Options :
1.   Both the conclusions are correct.
2.   Conclusion 1 is correct, and conclusion 2 is incorrect.
3.   Conclusion 1 is incorrect, and conclusion 2 is correct.
4.   Both the conclusions are incorrect.

Question Number : 11 Question Id : 441009985006 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: Organic chemistry is defined as the study of carbon compounds.
Conclusion: Therefore, carbonates and carbon dioxide are classified as organic compounds.
Options :
1.   Both the Statement and Conclusion are true, and the Conclusion is correct explanation.
2.   Both the Statement and Conclusion are true, but the Conclusion is not correct explanation.
3.   The Statement is true, but the Conclusion is false.
4.   The Statement is false, but the Conclusion is true.


Question Number : 12 Question Id : 441009985620 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Which of the following correctly evaluates the
statement?

Statement: The elements like iron, calcium, magnesium, and other inorganic compounds are used in drug
delivery systems. They are used as salts, buffers, and other inorganic excipients.
Conclusion 1: The inorganic compounds are used in drug delivery systems.
Conclusion 2: The use of inorganic compounds is in the form of salts, buffers and excipients, as they are
utilised in the body and medications.
Options :
1.   Both the conclusions are incorrect.
2.   Conclusion 1 is correct, and conclusion 2 is incorrect.
3.   Both the conclusions are correct.
4.   Conclusion 1 is incorrect, and conclusion 2 is correct.


Question Number : 13 Question Id : 441009950202 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the primary purpose of pharmacopoeial purity tests?

Options :
1.   To ensure complete absence of all impurities
2.   To set tolerance limits for major harmful impurities
3.   To make drugs more expensive
4.   To increase the shelf life of medications

Question Number : 14 Question Id : 441009950203 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following have particularly strict limits in pharmacopoeial tests due to high toxicity?

Options :
1.   Sodium
2.   Potassium
3.   Arsenic
4.   Calcium


Question Number : 15 Question Id : 441009950708 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The reaction between soluble sulphate and barium chloride for limit test of sulphate is carried out in the
presence of ________.
Options :
1.   dilute sulphuric acid
2.   concentrated hydrochloric acid
3.   dilute nitric acid
4.   dilute hydrochloric acid


Question Number : 16 Question Id : 441009950200 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following impurities is most likely to compromise the shelf life of a pharmaceutical product?

Options :
1.   Synthetic colorants
2.   Microbial contamination
3.   Volatile aroma compounds
4.   Trace levels of heavy metals


Question Number : 17 Question Id : 441009950204 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which condition is characterized by low serum sodium levels?

Options :
1.   Hyperkalemia
2.   Hyponatremia
3.   Hypercalcemia
4.   Hypoglycemia

Question Number : 18 Question Id : 441009950207 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the first-line treatment for acute symptomatic hypocalcemia?

Options :
1.   Oral calcium carbonate
2.   Intravenous calcium gluconate
3.   Magnesium sulfate
4.   Vitamin D supplements alone


Question Number : 19 Question Id : 441009968922 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which electrolyte works with calcium to maintain strong bones and teeth?
Options :
1.   Sodium
2.   Potassium
3.   Magnesium
4.   Phosphorous


Question Number : 20 Question Id : 441009950208 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which substance in peritoneal dialysis fluids acts as an antioxidant preservative?

Options :
1.   Sodium chloride
2.   Sodium lactate
3.   Sodium metabisulphite
4.   Magnesium chloride


Question Number : 21 Question Id : 441009950209 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which mineral is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis?

Options :
1.   Iron
2.   Iodine
3.   Zinc
4.   Selenium

Question Number : 22 Question Id : 441009950211 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the primary purpose of gastric acidifiers?

Options :
1.   To decrease stomach acidity
2.   To restore stomach acidity in achlorhydria or hypochlorhydria
3.   To neutralize systemic alkalosis
4.   To treat urinary tract infections


Question Number : 23 Question Id : 441009950212 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of these is an example of a pharmaceutical aid from animal sources?

Options :
1.   Turmeric
2.   Gelatin
3.   Kaolin
4.   Polysorbate


Question Number : 24 Question Id : 441009985026 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statements labelled ‘Assertion’ and ‘Reasoning’ carefully. Which of the following options
correctly evaluates the assertion and reasoning?

Assertion: Zinc oxide acts both as a protective agent and an astringent when applied topically.
Reason: Protective agents form a coating over the skin, while astringents cause protein precipitation and
contraction of tissues.
Options :
1.   Both the Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2.   Both the Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
3.   The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
4.   The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.

Question Number : 25 Question Id : 441009950217 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the primary mechanism of action of dimethicone when used as an anti-flatulent agent?

Options :
1.   Decreasing surface tension of gas bubbles
2.   Increasing intestinal motility
3.   Neutralising stomach acid
4.   Killing gut bacteria


Question Number : 26 Question Id : 441009985017 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: Ammonium chloride is slightly hygroscopic.
Conclusion: Therefore, it is stored in open containers to absorb moisture from the air.
Options :
1.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true and related.
2.   Statement is true, but Conclusion is false.
3.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true but unrelated.
4.   Statement is false, Conclusion is true.


Question Number : 27 Question Id : 441009985657 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusions and carefully. Which of the following correctly evaluates the
statement?

Statement: Ammonium chloride is used as an expectorant. It works by irritating the bronchial mucosa.
Conclusion 1: Ammonium chloride works as an expectorant.
Conclusion 2: It irritates the bronchial mucosa, because it leads to an increase in the production of
respiratory tract fluids, making it easier to cough out mucus.
Options :
1.   Both the conclusions are incorrect.
2.   Both the conclusions are correct.
3.   Conclusion 1 is incorrect, and conclusion 2 is correct.
4.   Conclusion 1 is correct, and conclusion 2 is incorrect.

Question Number : 28 Question Id : 441009950213 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The carmine coloring agent used in pharmaceuticals and cosmetics is primarily derived from which source?

Options :
1.   Cochineal insects
2.   Carrot roots
3.   Spinach leaves
4.   Iron oxide minerals


Question Number : 29 Question Id : 441009969001 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following laxatives can also be used as an antacid?
Options :
1.   Sorbitol
2.   Polyethylene glycol
3.   Magnesium hydroxide
4.   Methylcellulose


Question Number : 30 Question Id : 441009985034 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following oral antiseptics with their properties or uses.

Antiseptics                            Uses
A. Hydrogen Peroxide                                1. Deodorant and desensitising action
B. Zinc Sulphate                                    2. Anti-infective and astringent action
C. Zinc Chloride                                    3. Mild antiseptic and astringent action
D. Potassium Permanganate                           4. Releases nascent oxygen; used as a mouthwash
Options :
1.   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
2.   A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
3.   A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
4.   A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Question Number : 31 Question Id : 441009950218 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Unsaturated hydrocarbons are characterized by:

Options :
1.    Only single bonds between carbon atoms
2.    Fully utilized bonding capacity of carbon atoms
3.    Presence of double or triple bonds between carbon atoms
4.    Inability to form additional bonds


Question Number : 32 Question Id : 441009950220 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is the simplest carboxylic acid?

Options :
1.    Acetic acid
2.    Propanoic acid
3.    Benzoic acid
4.    Formic acid


Question Number : 33 Question Id : 441009985044 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following steps and features of the Michael Reaction with their correct descriptions.

Features                      Description
                                                        1. Protonation of the resulting enolate to yield the final
A. Michael Acceptor
                                                        product
                                                        2. Deprotonation of the starting material to form an
B. First step
                                                        enolate
                                                        3. Conjugate (1,4) addition of enolate to β-carbon of the
C. Second step
                                                        unsaturated system
                                                        4. α,β-unsaturated ketone, ester, nitrile, or nitro
D. Third step
                                                        compound
Options :
1.    A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
2.    A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
3.    A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
4.    A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Question Number : 34 Question Id : 441009950221 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a primary alcohol, the –OH group is attached to a carbon that is:
Options :
1.   Attached to three other carbon atoms
2.   Attached to two other carbon atoms
3.   Attached to one or no other carbon atoms
4.   Part of an aromatic ring


Question Number : 35 Question Id : 441009950222 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
According to Baeyer's theory, which ring sizes of heterocyclic compounds are most stable?

Options :
1.   Three- and seven-membered rings
2.   Five- and six-membered rings
3.   Two- and four-membered rings
4.   Six- and eight-membered rings


Question Number : 36 Question Id : 441009950224 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the Beckmann rearrangement used to determine?
Options :
1.   The boiling point of ketoximes
2.   The melting point of nitriles
3.   The configuration of ketoximes
4.   The solubility of oximes


Question Number : 37 Question Id : 441009971311 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The industrial scale production of Nylon-6 relies on _________ rearrangement.
Options :
1.   Beckmann
2.   Pinacol
3.   Hofmann
4.   Claisen

Question Number : 38 Question Id : 441009985752 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Which of the following correctly evaluates the
statement?

Statement: Phillips condensation reaction yields benzimidazole derivatives. The derivatives are produced by
the reaction of an ortho-phenylenediamine with carboxylic acid or its derivatives in presence of dilute
mineral acid as a catalyst.
Conclusion 1: Benzimidazole derivatives are a result of the Philips condensation reaction.
Conclusion 2: Condensation is between ortho-phenylenediamine with carboxylic acid, because
benzimidazoles are heterocyclic compounds composed of a benzene ring fused to an imidazole ring.
Options :
1.   Both the conclusions are incorrect.
2.   Conclusion 1 is incorrect, and conclusion 2 is correct.
3.   Both the conclusions are correct.
4.   Conclusion 1 is correct, and conclusion 2 is incorrect.


Question Number : 39 Question Id : 441009950225 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What suffix is used in IUPAC nomenclature to indicate a saturated hydrocarbon?
Options :
1.   -ol
2.   -one
3.   -ene
4.   -ane


Question Number : 40 Question Id : 441009950226 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
____________________ is acylated with 3-(o-chlorophenyl)-5-methyl-4-isoxazole carboxylic acid to form
cloxacillin.
Options :
1.   6-aminopenicillanic acid
2.   Penicillin G
3.   Amoxicillin
4.   Cephalexin

Question Number : 41 Question Id : 441009971384 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following steroids is NOT derived from plants?
Options :
1.   Stigmasterol
2.   Ergosterol
3.   Cholesterol
4.   Diosgenin


Question Number : 42 Question Id : 441009971396 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is considered a precursor in the biosynthesis of progesterone?
Options :
1.   Stigmasterol
2.   Diosgenin
3.   Ergosterol
4.   Cholesterol


Question Number : 43 Question Id : 441009985050 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statements labelled ‘Assertion’ and ‘Reasoning’ carefully. Which of the following options
correctly evaluates the assertion and reasoning?

Assertion: Most drug-receptor interactions are reversible under physiological conditions.
Reason: Covalent bonds, which are strong, are the primary type of bond in drug-receptor interactions.
Options :
1.   Both the Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2.   Both the Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
3.   The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
4.   The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.

Question Number : 44 Question Id : 441009985054 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following UV-Visible spectrophotometric instruments or components with their features or
characteristics.

Spectrophotometric instruments           Features
A. Photomultiplier Tube                                 1. Radiation source for visible region
B. Deuterium lamp                                       2. For wavelength dispersion and selection
C. Tungsten lamp                                        3. Radiation source for UV region
D. Littrow prism                                        4. Detector in UV-Vis spectrophotometers
Options :
1.   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
2.   A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
3.   A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
4.   A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4


Question Number : 45 Question Id : 441009985059 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: Aromatic compounds with fused ring systems exhibit stronger fluorescence than simple
heterocyclics.
Conclusion: This is because fused rings increase molar absorptivity and stabilise the excited state.
Options :
1.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true and related.
2.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true but not related.
3.   Statement is true, but Conclusion is false.
4.   Both Statement and Conclusion are false.


Question Number : 46 Question Id : 441009966018 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Rational drug design assumes that:
Options :
1.   drug properties are unpredictable
2.   drugs work only through physical properties
3.   biological activity is unrelated to chemical structure
4.   biological properties of drugs are linked to structural features

Question Number : 47 Question Id : 441009966024 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which one of the following is an example of organoleptic differentiation?
Options :
1.   Presence of medullary rays
2.   Staining of lignin with phloroglucinol
3.   Pungent taste of ginger and capsicum
4.   Determination of stomatal index


Question Number : 48 Question Id : 441009985072 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: Tannins are high molecular weight polyphenolic compounds that can precipitate proteins.
Conclusion: Therefore, simple phenolics like gallic acid and catechin are classified as true tannins.
Options :
1.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true and related.
2.   Statement is true, but Conclusion is false.
3.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true but not related.
4.   Both Statement and Conclusion are false.


Question Number : 49 Question Id : 441009986112 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Which of the following correctly evaluates the
statement?

Statement: Drugs of mineral origin like Asbestos, Bentonite, Paraffin, Kaolin are used as pharmaceutical
aids. The quality of pharmaceutical aids determines the standard of pharmaceutical formulations.
Conclusion 1: Drugs with mineral origins are used as pharmaceutical aids.
Conclusion 2: The quality of minerals determines the standard of formulations as these are used as filters,
suspending agents, ointment bases, and adsorbents.
Options :
1.   Both the conclusions are incorrect.
2.   Conclusion 1 is correct, and conclusion 2 is incorrect.
3.   Conclusion 1 is incorrect, and conclusion 2 is correct.
4.   Both the conclusions are correct.

Question Number : 50 Question Id : 441009966032 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is commonly used as an adulterant in honey?
Options :
1.   Artificial coloring agents
2.   Artificial invert sugar
3.   Milk solids
4.   Sodium chloride


Question Number : 51 Question Id : 441009966036 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the structure of the transverse section of an Atropa belladonna leaf?
Options :
1.   Bifacial
2.   Isobilateral
3.   Radial
4.   Unifacial


Question Number : 52 Question Id : 441009966039 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The starting materials for the shikimate pathway are:
Options :
1.   Pyruvate and Acetyl-CoA
2.   Lactic acid and Glucose
3.   D-erythrose 4-phosphate and Phosphoenolpyruvate
4.   Succinyl-CoA and Glycine


Question Number : 53 Question Id : 441009950816 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Phenylpropane derivatives are biosynthesized by which pathway?
Options :
1.   Mevalonic acid
2.   Shikimic acid
3.   Malonic acid
4.   Triose

Question Number : 54 Question Id : 441009966041 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Tryptophan and tryptamine are precursors for which type of alkaloids?
Options :
1.   Purine alkaloids
2.   Indole alkaloids
3.   Pyridine alkaloids
4.   Isoquinoline alkaloids


Question Number : 55 Question Id : 441009985064 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statements labelled ‘Assertion’ and ‘Reasoning’ carefully. Which of the following options
correctly evaluates the assertion and reasoning?

Assertion: Acid-insoluble ash determination helps detect contamination with earthy material in crude drugs.
Reason: Acid-insoluble ash mainly consists of inorganic compounds like carbonates and phosphates that are
commonly present in vegetable drugs.
Options :
1.   Both the Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2.   Both the Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
3.   The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
4.   The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.


Question Number : 56 Question Id : 441009985081 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: Indole alkaloids such as ergometrine and ergotamine are obtained from Claviceps species.
Conclusion: Therefore, Claviceps belongs to the family Apocynaceae.
Options :
1.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true and related.
2.   Statement is true, but Conclusion is false.
3.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true but not related.
4.   Both Statement and Conclusion are false.

Question Number : 57 Question Id : 441009950838 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In which fraction of the cell are the enzymes of glycolysis pathway majorly present?
Options :
1.   Mitochondria
2.   Lysosomes
3.   Cytosol
4.   Endoplasmic reticulum


Question Number : 58 Question Id : 441009966046 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In suicide inhibition, what happens to the original enzyme inhibitor?
Options :
1.   It binds reversibly without chemical modification
2.   It is metabolized into an inactive form by the liver
3.   It is transformed by the enzyme into a reactive species that irreversibly inhibits the enzyme
4.   It is eliminated from the cell via efflux pumps


Question Number : 59 Question Id : 441009985099 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following biochemical substances with their correct characteristics or functions.

Biochemical substances        Functions
A. Cholesterol                                         1. Bile salt conjugated with glycine
B. Bile Salts                                          2. Breakdown products of heme
C. Glycocholic Acid                                    3. Biological detergents
D. Bile Pigments                                       4. Precursor of bile acids, hormones, and vitamin D
Options :
1.   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
2.   A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
3.   A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
4.   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4


Question Number : 60 Question Id : 441009950856 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the excretory end product of protein metabolism?
Options :
1.   Bile acids
2.   Carbon dioxide
3.   Urea
4.   Cholesterol

Question Number : 61 Question Id : 441009950880 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The catalytic activity of Xanthine oxidase is dependent on which metal?
Options :
1.   Copper
2.   Iron
3.   Molybdenum
4.   Manganese


Question Number : 62 Question Id : 441009966048 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following characteristics is true about isoenzymes?
Options :
1.   They have identical Km and Vmax values
2.   They are all found in a single tissue type
3.   They catalyse the same reaction but may differ in Km and/or Vmax
4.   They are always inhibited by the same inhibitors


Question Number : 63 Question Id : 441009966051 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the effect of a positive allosteric effector on an enzyme?
Options :
1.   It competes with substrate at the active site
2.   It decreases enzyme activity by changing enzyme shape
3.   It binds at the inhibitor site and causes denaturation
4.   It increases enzyme activity by binding to the activator site


Question Number : 64 Question Id : 441009985093 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: Streptokinase helps in dissolving blood clots by activating plasminogen.
Conclusion: Therefore, streptokinase is used in the treatment of haemophilia.
Options :
1.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true and related.
2.   Statement is true, but Conclusion is false.
3.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true but not related.
4.   Both Statement and Conclusion are false.

Question Number : 65 Question Id : 441009966062 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What percentage of whole blood is typically composed of plasma?
Options :
1.   45%
2.   60%
3.   55%
4.   35%


Question Number : 66 Question Id : 441009975125 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The medulla oblongata is associated with controlling ______.
Options :
1.   Balance and coordination
2.   Thinking and reasoning
3.   Breathing and heart rate
4.   Sensory perception


Question Number : 67 Question Id : 441009966057 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The craniosacral outflow corresponds to which division of the autonomic nervous system?
Options :
1.   Sympathetic nervous system
2.   Somatic nervous system
3.   Parasympathetic nervous system
4.   Enteric nervous system


Question Number : 68 Question Id : 441009975142 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the average lifespan of a red blood cell?
Options :
1.   10 days
2.   60 days
3.   120 days
4.   240 days

Question Number : 69 Question Id : 441009985103 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following pulmonary volumes with their correct descriptions or values.

Pulmonary volumes                       Description
A. Tidal Volume                                        1. Additional air exhaled beyond tidal volume
B. Inspiratory Reserve Volume                          2. Air remaining after forceful exhalation
C. Expiratory Reserve Volume                           3. Additional air inhaled beyond tidal volume
D. Residual Air                                        4. Amount of air inhaled or exhaled in one normal breath
Options :
1.   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
2.   A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
3.   A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
4.   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4


Question Number : 70 Question Id : 441009985110 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: Insulin reduces blood glucose by facilitating cellular uptake and storage of glucose.
Conclusion: Therefore, insulin secretion increases when blood glucose level is low.
Options :
1.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true and related.
2.   Statement is true, but Conclusion is false.
3.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true but not related.
4.   Both Statement and Conclusion are false.


Question Number : 71 Question Id : 441009966059 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The small intestine begins at the __________ and ends at the __________.
Options :
1.   lower oesophageal sphincter; anal canal
2.   pyloric sphincter; ileocaecal valve
3.   cardiac sphincter; sigmoid colon
4.   fundus; hepatic flexure

Question Number : 72 Question Id : 441009966069 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is 'black water fever' in malaria associated with?
Options :
1.   Hepatic failure
2.   Dark pigmented urine
3.   Pulmonary edema
4.   Cerebral edema


Question Number : 73 Question Id : 441009975176 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the role of iodine in preventing goiter?
Options :
1.   It is a source of energy
2.   It regulates blood sugar levels
3.   It prevents bacterial infections
4.   it is a component of thyroid hormone


Question Number : 74 Question Id : 441009975185 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Ring worm infection is caused by _________.
Options :
1.   Bacteria
2.   Fungi
3.   Virus
4.   Protozoa


Question Number : 75 Question Id : 441009966072 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is the primary mode of transmission for the measles virus between individuals?
Options :
1.   Consumption of contaminated food or water
2.   Inhalation of airborne droplets from an infected person
3.   Blood transfusion from an infected individual
4.   Bites from infected mosquitoes

Question Number : 76 Question Id : 441009966075 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following stains is commonly used in Gram staining?
Options :
1.   Safranin blue
2.   Crystal violet
3.   Methylene blue
4.   Eosin


Question Number : 77 Question Id : 441009985117 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: Vasectomy is a male sterilisation procedure where the ductus deferens is cut and sealed.
Conclusion: After vasectomy, sperms are no longer produced by the testes.
Options :
1.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true and related.
2.   Statement is true, but Conclusion is false.
3.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true but not related.
4.   Both Statement and Conclusion are false.


Question Number : 78 Question Id : 441009966068 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the causative organism of Amoebiasis?
Options :
1.   Giardia lamblia
2.   Entamoeba histolytica
3.   Plasmodium falciparum
4.   Trypanosoma cruzi


Question Number : 79 Question Id : 441009966079 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the main purpose of the streak-plate method using the quadrant technique?
Options :
1.   To identify the nutritional requirements of bacteria
2.   To isolate pure bacterial colonies from a mixed culture
3.   To determine bacterial motility
4.   To measure bacterial resistance to antibiotics

Question Number : 80 Question Id : 441009975196 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Measles is most contagious during which period of infection?
Options :
1.   When the rash begins to spread
2.   During the cough phase
3.   Three days before the rash appears
4.   One week after the rash subsides


Question Number : 81 Question Id : 441009975215 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Acid-fast staining is used to identify ______.
Options :
1.   Gram positive bacteria
2.   Gram negative bacteria
3.   Mycobacterium species
4.   Endospores


Question Number : 82 Question Id : 441009975248 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The primary means of bacterial reproduction is _______.
Options :
1.   Mitosis
2.   Meiosis
3.   Budding
4.   Binary fission


Question Number : 83 Question Id : 441009970516 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is relative bioavailability?
Options :
1.   The AUC ratio of a non-IV formulation to IV formulation
2.   The total drug amount administered via IV route
3.   The maximum plasma concentration of a drug
4.   The rate of drug excretion through kidneys

Question Number : 84 Question Id : 441009970521 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following H₂ blockers is known to have antiandrogenic effects?
Options :
1.   Ranitidine
2.   Famotidine
3.   Cimetidine
4.   Roxatidine


Question Number : 85 Question Id : 441009977351 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Pharmacokinetics of a drug is NOT related to which of the following processes?
Options :
1.   Absorption
2.   Distribution
3.   Metabolism
4.   Pharmacodynamics


Question Number : 86 Question Id : 441009977398 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which class of drug is specifically indicated for the treatment of nausea and vomiting?
Options :
1.   Antacids
2.   Laxatives
3.   Antiemetics
4.   Cathartics


Question Number : 87 Question Id : 441009977422 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Pulmonary hypertension is generally treated with _______.
Options :
1.   Heparin
2.   Warfarin
3.   Sildenafil
4.   Aspirin

Question Number : 88 Question Id : 441009970519 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the primary role of the JAK-STAT signaling pathway in the cell?
Options :
1.   Transporting glucose across membranes
2.   Transmitting signals from cell surface to the nucleus for gene transcription
3.   Facilitating protein degradation in lysosomes
4.   Initiating DNA replication during cell division


Question Number : 89 Question Id : 441009977388 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The 'first-pass effect' in drug metabolism indicates the _______.
Options :
1.   Absorption of a drug from GIT
2.   Excretion of a drug by kidneys
3.   Initial breakdown of a drug by liver before reaching systemic circulation
4.   Binding of a drug to plasma proteins in blood


Question Number : 90 Question Id : 441009989059 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Which of the following correctly evaluates the
statement?

Statement: Pharmacokinetics relates to what the body is doing to the drug. It explains the absorption,
distribution, metabolism, and excretion of the chemical substance.
Conclusion 1: What the body is doing to the drug is explained by pharmacokinetics.
Conclusion 2: The drug undergoes absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, as it explains how the
body affects a specific chemical substance after administration.
Options :
1.   Both the conclusions are incorrect.
2.   Conclusion 1 is correct, and conclusion 2 is incorrect.
3.   Conclusion 1 is incorrect, and conclusion 2 is correct.
4.   Both the conclusions are correct.

Question Number : 91 Question Id : 441009970523 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following diuretics inhibits the Na⁺-K⁺-2Cl⁻ cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the
loop of Henle?
Options :
1.    Hydrochlorothiazide
2.    Spironolactone
3.    Furosemide
4.   Amiloride


Question Number : 92 Question Id : 441009970525 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following centrally acting non-opioid antitussives exerts its effect partly through NMDA
receptor antagonism?
Options :
1.   Ambroxol
2.    Dextromethorphan
3.    Chlorpheniramine
4.    Codeine


Question Number : 93 Question Id : 441009985168 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the class of drug with its mechanism of inhibiting the renin-angiotensin system.

Classes of drugs                  Mechanisms
A. Atenolol                                           1. Blocks conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
B. Aliskiren                                          2. AT₁ receptor blocker
C. Captopril                                          3. Inhibits renin directly
                                                      4. Decreases renin release by inhibiting sympathetic
D. Telmisartan
                                                      tone
Options :
1.   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
2.   A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
3.   A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
4.   A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Question Number : 94 Question Id : 441009977481 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The first law of thermodynamics is _______.
Options :
1.   Entropy
2.   Conservation of energy
3.   Equilibrium
4.   Ideal gas behavior


Question Number : 95 Question Id : 441009970534 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following plots gives a straight line for a first-order reaction while using the graphical
method? [Note: A = Concentration]
Options :
1.   log [A] vs time
2.   1/[A] vs time
3.   [A] vs time
4.   [A]^2 vs time


Question Number : 96 Question Id : 441009977457 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which plasma protein primarily binds to acidic drugs?
Options :
1.   Albumin
2.   Hemoglobin
3.   Globulins
4.   Lipoproteins


Question Number : 97 Question Id : 441009977465 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is an endothermic process?
Options :
1.   Melting of ice
2.   Condensation of gas
3.   Burning of wood
4.   Freezing of water

Question Number : 98 Question Id : 441009970538 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is NOT a valid type of interface?
Options :
1.   Gas–Liquid
2.   Liquid–Solid
3.   Gas–Gas
4.   Solid–Liquid


Question Number : 99 Question Id : 441009970542 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the primary function of a drug store layout?
Options :
1.   To increase rent value of the premises
2.   To provide a luxurious space for pharmacists
3.   To make customer shopping convenient and less tiring
4.   To display all medicines openly


Question Number : 100 Question Id : 441009977487 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Name the inventory management system that helps to minimize drug wastage in hospitals.
Options :
1.   Bulk dispensing
2.   Manual counting
3.   Floor stock
4.   Unit dose


Question Number : 101 Question Id : 441009977499 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The ‘front end’ of a pharmacy generally includes ________.
Options :
1.   Prescription counter
2.   Over-the-counter-medication displays
3.   Compounding area
4.   Inventory storage area

Question Number : 102 Question Id : 441009970546 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Distributing free samples is mainly used to:
Options :
1.   reduce overstock
2.   dispose expired products
3.   introduce new products
4.   avoid direct sales


Question Number : 103 Question Id : 441009975915 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following statements about ‘C’ category items in ABC analysis is true?
Options :
1.   They require strict control and monitoring
2.   They represent 10% of inventory cost and 70% of inventory quantity
3.   They must be handled only by senior management
4.   They require no safety stock


Question Number : 104 Question Id : 441009985238 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match each legal requirement or document related to retail drug store operations with its correct description
or purpose.

Legal requirement                             Purpose
A. Registered Pharmacist                                1. Minimum 15 sq. metres
B. Minimum Qualification                                2. Must be full-time to run a retail drug store
                                                        3. D.Pharm along with registration with State Pharmacy
C. Retail Store Area
                                                        Council
D. Retail and Wholesale Store Area                      4. Minimum 10 sq. metres
Options :
1.   A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
2.   A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
3.   A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
4.   A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Question Number : 105 Question Id : 441009975931 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What does a company's balance sheet primarily indicate?
Options :
1.   The financial position of the enterprise at a specific point in time
2.   The profit earned during the financial year
3.   The daily sales trends and customer inflow
4.   The cost incurred to manufacture one unit of product


Question Number : 106 Question Id : 441009975942 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In hospital pharmacy practice, the consulting and teaching responsibilities of pharmacists are categorized
under:
Options :
1.   Scientific and professional aspects of practice
2.   Routine procurement and inventory control
3.   Administrative and clerical functions
4.   Sales and OTC drug dispensing


Question Number : 107 Question Id : 441009985260 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: A unit dose dispensing system allows patients to be charged only for doses administered.
Conclusion: This reduces drug wastage and helps in cost-effective hospital pharmacy practices.
Options :
1.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true and related.
2.   Statement is true, but Conclusion is false.
3.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true but not related.
4.   Both Statement and Conclusion are false.


Question Number : 108 Question Id : 441009975952 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following systems involves dispensing medications in ready-to-administer form, each labeled
with the individual patient’s name and specific dosage instructions?
Options :
1.   Unit dose system
2.   Bulk stock system
3.   Individual prescription order system
4.   Automated dispensing system

Question Number : 109 Question Id : 441009977545 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Drug Storage in a hospital pharmacy DOES NOT include _________.
Options :
1.   Packaging storage
2.   Ambient storage
3.   Hazardous/Cytotoxic storage
4.   Cold storage


Question Number : 110 Question Id : 441009977551 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The major difference in drug distribution to in-patients in comparison to out-patients in a hospital pharmacy
is ______.
Options :
1.   Direct dispensing
2.   Medication order review
3.   Centralized Unit-dose dispensing
4.   Dispensing from main pharmacy


Question Number : 111 Question Id : 441009975955 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is a hospital formulary?
Options :
1.   A list of equipment used in hospital operation theatres
2.   A list of diagnostic procedures in a hospital
3.   A list of drugs approved for use within the hospital
4.   A manual of nursing care guidelines


Question Number : 112 Question Id : 441009977577 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee (PTC) in a hospital is composed of __________.
Options :
1.   Physicians, Pharmacists and Nurses
2.   Physicians and Administrators
3.   Physicians, Pharmacists, Nurses and Administrators
4.   physicians, Pharmacists and Administrators

Question Number : 113 Question Id : 441009976105 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee (PTC) DOES NOT engage in which of the following activities?
Options :
1.   Selecting drugs for hospital formulary
2.   Educating staff on drug use
3.   Setting prices for medications sold outside the hospital
4.   Advising on therapeutic drug policies


Question Number : 114 Question Id : 441009976113 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee typically consists of:
Options :
1.   Two pharmacists and one patient representative
2.   One nurse and two accountants
3.   At least three physicians, one pharmacist, and one nurse representative
4.   Two lab technicians and a pharmacist


Question Number : 115 Question Id : 441009975959 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Pharmacy and Therapeutics (P&T) Committee acts as a communication link between:
Options :
1.   Pharmacists and nurses
2.   Patients and administration
3.   Medical staff and pharmacy department
4.   Suppliers and hospital staff


Question Number : 116 Question Id : 441009977594 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee (PTC) in a hospital develops and maintains a ‘Formulary’ with
a list of which type of medications?
Options :
1.   Medications approved for use outside the institution
2.   Medications approved for use within the institution.
3.   Medications approved for use in National Formulary
4.   Medications approved for use by outside and inside the institution

Question Number : 117 Question Id : 441009975984 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) is the most useful for drugs that:
Options :
1.   Are available over the counter
2.   Have a very short half-life
3.   Have a narrow therapeutic index
4.   Are used in acute conditions only


Question Number : 118 Question Id : 441009985320 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following pharmacokinetic drug interaction types with their correct examples or mechanisms.

Pharmacokinetic drug interaction                 Mechanisms
A. pH-dependent absorption                             1. Phenylbutazone and warfarin
B. Complexation                                        2. Barbiturates and phenytoin
C. Protein binding displacement                        3. Tetracycline and milk
D. Enzyme induction                                    4. Antacids and aspirin
Options :
1.   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
2.   A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
3.   A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
4.   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4


Question Number : 119 Question Id : 441009994778 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Which of the following correctly evaluates the
statement?

Statement: Tetracycline, when prescribed with antacids, leads to decreased absorption of tetracycline.
Conclusion 1: Tetracycline and antacids interact when prescribed together.
Conclusion 2: The absorption of tetracycline is decreased in the presence of an antacid.
Options :
1.   Both the conclusions are incorrect.
2.   Both the conclusions are correct.
3.   Conclusion 1 is incorrect, and conclusion 2 is correct.
4.   Conclusion 1 is correct, and conclusion 2 is incorrect.

Question Number : 120 Question Id : 441009977644 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Statins and Grapefruit interaction cause _______.
Options :
1.   Excessive drowsiness
2.   Worsen high blood pressure
3.   Increased muscle damage
4.   Increased risk of bleeding


Question Number : 121 Question Id : 441009985306 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: The decision to prescribe should be evidence-based and aligned with national or local guidelines.
Conclusion: Thus, any deviation from guidelines must be documented and justified in the patient’s best
interest.
Options :
1.   Both the Statement and Conclusion are true and related.
2.   The Statement is true, but the Conclusion is false.
3.   Both the Statement and Conclusion are true but not related.
4.   Both the Statement and Conclusion are false.


Question Number : 122 Question Id : 441009994937 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Which of the following options correctly evaluates the
statement?

Statement: Drug therapy is based on three principles: Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics and
Pharmacogenomics of a given drug.
Conclusion 1: The intent of drug therapy is to produce a desired pharmacological response for a sufficient
period of time.
Conclusion 2: Drug therapy should be with less side effects and adverse drug events.
Options :
1.   Both the conclusions are incorrect.
2.   Conclusion 1 is incorrect, and conclusion 2 is correct.
3.   Both the conclusions are correct.
4.   Conclusion 1 is correct, and conclusion 2 is incorrect.

Question Number : 123 Question Id : 441009975999 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following poisons primarily causes peripheral neuromuscular paralysis?
Options :
1.      Nux vomica
2.      Conium
3.      Opium
4.      Cocaine


Question Number : 124 Question Id : 441009976017 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Desferrioxamine B is primarily used as a chelating agent in the treatment of poisoning due to which of the
following metals?
Options :
1.      Gold
2.      Lead
3.      Iron
4.      Mercury


Question Number : 125 Question Id : 441009994814 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following parametric and non-parametric tests used in pharmaceutical experiments with their uses.

Tests                           Uses
1. t-tests                                            a. For comparing means of three or more groups
                                                      b. For comparing two or more independent sample
2. Mann-Whitney U test
                                                      sizes
                                                      c. For comparing two independent groups when the
3. Kruskal-Wallis test
                                                      data is not normally distributed
4. ANOVA                                              d. For comparing means of two groups
Options :
1.      (1,c); (2,b); (3,d); (4,a)
2.      (1,c); (2,d); (3,b); (4,a)
3.      (1,a); (2,b); (3,c); (4,d)
4.      (1,d); (2,c); (3,b); (4,a)

Question Number : 126 Question Id : 441009985327 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following statistical tests with their correct characteristics or usage.

Statistical Tests                            Characteristics
                                                         1. Nonparametric test used to compare more than two
A. t-test
                                                         independent groups
                                                         2. Parametric test for comparing means of three or more
B. Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test
                                                         groups
                                                         3. Parametric test comparing means of two independent
C. Kruskal-Wallis Test
                                                         groups; assumes normality and equal variances
                                                         4. Nonparametric test for comparing two independent
D. ANOVA
                                                         groups using ranks
Options :
1.    A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
2.    A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
3.    A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
4.    A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1


Question Number : 127 Question Id : 441009976026 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which Act was enacted in 1954 to control misleading advertisements for drugs?
Options :
1.    Drugs and Cosmetics Act
2.    Pharmacy Act
3.    Poisons Act
4.    Drugs and Magic Remedies Act


Question Number : 128 Question Id : 441009976047 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The primary objective of the Industries (Development and Regulations) Act, 1951, is to:
Options :
1.    Facilitate import of pharmaceutical goods
2.    Encourage privatization of all industries
3.    Monitor, regulate and develop industrial activities in India
4.    Promote foreign direct investment in all sectors

Question Number : 129 Question Id : 441009994857 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statements labelled Assertion and Reason carefully. Which of the following options correctly
evaluates the Assertion and Reason?

Assertion: The Poisons Act, 1919, consolidates and amends the law regulating importation, possession and
sale of poisons. Schedule E (D&C Rules 1945) provides the list of poisonous substances.
Reason: The Poisons Act, 1919, is to control the trafficking of poisons and prevent its misuse.
Options :
1.   The assertion is true but the reason is false.
2.   The assertion is false but the reason is true.
3.   Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
4.   Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.


Question Number : 130 Question Id : 441009966413 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Drugs and Magic Remedies Act came into force in the year ______.
Options :
1.   1952
2.   1954
3.   1950
4.   1951


Question Number : 131 Question Id : 441009976033 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Under the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954, which of the following
advertisements is specifically prohibited?
Options :
1.   Advertisement for a product to relieve cold and flu
2.   Advertisement for a syrup to improve digestion
3.   Advertisement claiming prevention of pregnancy in women
4.   Advertisement for a tonic to improve general health

Question Number : 132 Question Id : 441009976050 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
According to the Indian Patents Act, 1970 (as amended in 2002), what is the term of a patent granted for an
invention in India from the date of filing?
Options :
1.   10 years
2.   15 years
3.   20 years
4.   25 years


Question Number : 133 Question Id : 441009976052 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Under the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, which of the following best defines a misbranded food
article?
Options :
1.   A food article whose label falsely claims to cure diseases
2.   A food article that contains approved colors and preservatives
3.   A food article that is manufactured in a licensed facility
4.   A food article that is sealed and stored under sanitary conditions


Question Number : 134 Question Id : 441009985345 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following Drug Schedules with their correct descriptions under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and
Rules :
Drug Schedules                                       Descriptions
A. Schedule M                                           1. Life period (shelf life) of drugs
B. Schedule P                                           2. GMP for factory premises, plant, and equipment
                                                        3. Standards for rubber latex condoms and
C. Schedule R
                                                        contraceptives
D. Schedule H                                           4. List of prescription drugs


Options :
1.   A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
2.   A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
3.   A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
4.   A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Question Number : 135 Question Id : 441009976037 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What does the First Schedule of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO) contain?
Options :
1.   Forms for price fixation and related applications
2.   List of scheduled formulations under control
3.   List of bulk drugs under price control
4.   Guidelines for import and export of scheduled drugs


Question Number : 136 Question Id : 441009985369 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: The NDPS Act was enacted in 1985 because the earlier Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930, failed to
effectively control narcotic drug abuse and illicit trafficking.
Conclusion: The NDPS Act provides a comprehensive legal framework for controlling all activities related
to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances in India.
Options :
1.   Both the Statement and Conclusion are true, and the Conclusion is a correct explanation of the
Statement.
2.   Both the Statement and Conclusion are true, but the Conclusion is not a correct explanation of the
Statement.
3.   The Statement is true, but the Conclusion is false.
4.   The Statement is false, but the Conclusion is true.


Question Number : 137 Question Id : 441009991904 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The central government is empowered to regulate the cultivation, production, manufacture, import, export,
sale, consumption, use etc. of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances. Which of the following
conclusions is correct?
Options :
1. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act 1985 makes the statutory framework for
drug law enforcement in India.
2.   The Drugs and Cosmetics Act has the statutory framework for drug law enforcement.
3. The production and selling of psychotropic substances are not under the control of government of
India.
4.   NDPS Act is governed by the pharmacy council of India.

Question Number : 138 Question Id : 441009976061 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the appropriate professional behaviour of a pharmacist when receiving a valid prescription?
Options :
1.   Review the prescription for accuracy and dispense it as written, contacting the prescriber only if
necessary
2.   Change the drug if a better alternative is available
3.   Publicly criticize the physician’s choice in front of the patient
4.   Redirect the patient to a digital pharmacist for confirmation


Question Number : 139 Question Id : 441009966500 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The Code of Pharmaceutical Ethics in India were established by _______.
Options :
1.   CDSCO
2.   IPA
3.   PCI
4.   AICTE


Question Number : 140 Question Id : 441009966517 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Development of new drugs is the forte of a _______.
Options :
1.   Community Pharmacist
2.   Manufacturing Pharmacist
3.   Pharmaceutical Scientist
4.   Clinical Pharmacist

Question Number : 141 Question Id : 441009985383 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statements labelled ‘Assertion’ and ‘Reasoning’ carefully. Which of the following options
correctly evaluates the assertion and reasoning?

Assertion (A): A pharmacist is required to act within a techno-professional framework with high ethical
standards.
Reason (R): The scientific training of a pharmacist enables them to provide drug-related services ethically
and competently.
Options :
1.   Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.   Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.   Assertion is true, but reason is false.
4.   Assertion is false, but reason is true.


Question Number : 142 Question Id : 441009950206 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which type of compounds are primarily used to treat metabolic acidosis?

Options :
1.   Sodium/potassium bicarbonates
2.   Ammonium salts
3.   Calcium carbonate
4.   Magnesium sulfate


Question Number : 143 Question Id : 441009950715 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which impurities in substances are measured as residue on ignition?
Options :
1.   Only organic
2.   Only inorganic
3.   Volatile
4.   Organic and inorganic

Question Number : 144 Question Id : 441009966008 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The mevalonate pathway for diosgenin biosynthesis begins with:
Options :
1.   Farnesyl pyrophosphate
2.   Cycloartenol
3.   Lanosterol
4.   Acetyl-CoA


Question Number : 145 Question Id : 441009966013 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the endogenous precursor of cholecalciferol in human skin?
Options :
1.   Ergocalciferol
2.   Calcitriol
3.   7-dehydrocholesterol
4.   Tachysterol


Question Number : 146 Question Id : 441009968945 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which mineral has a role in supporting immune function?
Options :
1.   Calcium
2.   Iodine
3.   Iron
4.   Zinc


Question Number : 147 Question Id : 441009975237 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A pure culture is defined as a _______.
Options :
1.   Culture containing only one type of organism
2.   Culture containing multiple type of organisms
3.   Culture grown on a liquid medium
4.   Culture grown on a solid medium

Question Number : 148 Question Id : 441009976067 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the context of modern pharmacy practice, a pharmacist is expected to perform all of the following roles,
EXCEPT:
Options :
1.   Ethical drug educator
2.   Patient counsellor
3.   Drug formulator or compounder
4.   Diagnose medical conditions


Question Number : 149 Question Id : 441009977565 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The hospital drug policy DOES NOT include which of the following?
Options :
1.   Quality assurance
2.   Illicit drug choice
3.   Technology integration
4.   Patent education and monitoring


Question Number : 150 Question Id : 441009985042 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusion carefully and select the correct option.

Statement: The Phillips reaction is used for the synthesis of benzimidazoles.
Conclusion: Therefore, ortho-phenylenediamines react with aldehydes under basic conditions to form
benzimidazoles.
Options :
1.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true and related.
2.   Statement is true, but Conclusion is false.
3.   Both Statement and Conclusion are true but not related.
4.   Both Statement and Conclusion are false.