APSC Chemical Examiner (Excise) Assam 2024: Chemical Examiner (Excise) Assam (Advt. 27/2023), General Awarness And Different Acts, Rules
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CHEX/GENARlttl2+
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASI{TD TO DO SO
Test Booklet No. : Series
TEST BOOKLET
00017 Paper-II
(GTNERAL Awenpl[pss AND
DIFFERTNT Acts, Rur,us I
TimeAllowed:2Hours Full Marks : 1OO
Read. the followlng instructlofts cdrefulv belore gou begln to .tttstuer the questions i
1. The name of tl:e Subject, Roll NuBber as rnentioned in the Admission Certificate, Test BoqLlet No. and Series
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lhrll not bo cvrlustGd,
3. All questions carry equal marks.
Thc AnswcFshact rhould b. .ubDlttrd to thc hvlgllator.
Diredions for giuing lhe onsr.uers ; Directions for answedng questions have a-lready been issued to the respective
I;I
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Example :
Suppose the following question is asked :
The capital of Balgladesh is
{A) Chennai
(B) Inndon
lmI
(C) Dhaka
{D) Dhubri
You will have four altematives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each questiofl of the
Test Booklet as below i
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In the above illustation, ifyour chosen response is alternative {C), i.e,, Dhaka, then the same should be marked
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N.B. : There nrlll be negatlve marLlrrg @ O'25 per I {one) ,rrark agalrrst each qrrorrg altswet.
/s3-A I No. of Questlons : 1OO ]
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1. Which of the following Sections of 5. In the assessment of duty on spirit
the Assam Excise (Amendment) and in commercial transactions
Act, 2018 provides for penalty for relating thereto the standard of
unlawful import, export, transport, strength is termed as
manufacture, possession, sale, etc.?
(A) Section 49 (A) degree
(B) Section 53 (B) proof
(C) Section 55
(D) None of the above (C) bulk litre
(D) None of the above
2. Which of the following Sections
of the Assam Excise (Amendment)
Act, 2018 provides for bail?
(A) Section 49 Which of the following instruments
(B) Section 53 is used for ascertaining the specific
gravity of sugar solutions?
(C) Section 55
(D) None of the above (A) Hydrometer
(B) Saccharometer
3. Which of the following processes is
used in production of beer? (C) Thermometer
(A) Fermentation
(B) Distillation (D) None of the above
(C) Both fermentation and
distillation
(D) None of the above 7. Which of the following terms rneans
the difference caused by matter in
solution between the true strength of
As per the Assam Excise Act,2O2O, spirit and that indicated by the
which of the following terms means hydrometer?
to move from one place to another
within the territories to which the (A) Obscuration
Act applies?
(A) Import (B) Distillation
(B) Export
(C) Reduction
(C) Transport
(D) Manufacture (D) None of the above
cHEx/GENAR/1r / 24 I 53-A 2
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a. Which of the following terms means 12. Which of the following is not a
a vessel in which fermentation is distilled liquor?
carried on?
(A) Rum
(A) vat
(B) Cask (B) Beer
(C) Washback (C) Recttfted spirtt
(D) None of the above (D) cin
9. Which of the following items is 10. Which of the following liquors is
manufactured in a microbrewery? made from apples?
{A) Wine {A) Cider
(B) Draught beer (B) perry
(C) spirit
(c) Beer
(D! None of the above
(D) None of the above
1o. Medicated wines or *1,-"_ of t.I.e following sections
the wines or spirits TT: -'- which
14.
;f-- ;": Assam Excise Act, 2ooo
::-Try:"91
with various drugs which do not provides for surrender of licence?
contain mote than
(A) 40 percent of proof spirit (A) section 32
(B) 42 percent of proof spirit (B) Section 33
(C) 45 percent of proof spirit (C) Section 34
(D) None of the above (D) Section 35
11. Which of the following means 15. Which of t].e following ru1es of the
'intoxicating' as per the Assam Assam Excise Rules, 2016 provides
E:<cise Act, 2OOO? fot definition of hologram?
(A) Any liquor (A) Rule 58o
(B) Any intoxicating drug (B) Rule 581
(C) Any liquor or intoxicating drug (C) Rule 582
(D) None of tlle above (D) None of the above
cHEx/ GENAR/rr I 24 I 53-A 3 I P.r.o.
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16. Which of the following statements is 18. Which of the following Sections of
correct? the Assam Liquor Prohibition Act'
I. ,State Anti-Drug and prohibition 1952 talks about punishment for
Council, means the body of contravention of the provisions of
official residents of the State as the Act?
may be constituted by the State (A) Section 3
Govemment by notification in
the official gazette.
(B) section 4
II. 'State Anti-Drug and Prohibition (C) Section 8
Council, means the body of (D) Section 9
Government officers as may be
conetituted by the State
Government by notifrcation in 19. In which year was the Narcotics
the official gazette. Control Bureau created by the
Iu, 'state AntlDrug and Prohibition Government of India?
Council' means a council of (A) 1985
officials and non-oflicials as mav
be constituted ty tt -stti" (B) 1986
"
Government and duly notifred in (C) I99O
the ofticial gazette. (D) 1991
IV. 'Stete AntiDrug and Prohibition
Council' means the body of non-
official residents of the State as 2O. Under the NDPS Act, who has the
maybeConstitutedbytheStatepowertoaddoromitfromthelistof
Government by notifrcation in psychotropic substances?
the official gazette. (A) Central Govemment
select the correct option from the (B) and the
codes given below. '-' central Government
St.t" Government
(A) I only (c) The Narcotics commissioner
(B) U only (D) A11 of the above
(C) III only
21. Which of the following Sections of
{D) rV oniy the NDPS Act, 1985 provid.es for
Constitution of Special Court for
17. which of the following sections of s]'eedy trial of the offences under
the Assam Liquor Prohibition Act, the Act?
1952 provides for production of (A) Section 36
persons arested under the Act?
(B) Section 37
(A) Section 9 (B) Section 11 (C) Section 38
(C) Section 13 (D) Section 14 (D) Section 39
CHEX/ GENAR/il I24I53-A 4
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22. Which of the following confessions 25. A dumb person is a competent
needs a closer scrutiny? udtness as has been provided under
the Indian Evidence Act. Name the
(A) Confession made to officers Section.
under the NDPS Act
(A) Section 118
(B) Confession made to private
citiz.en
(B) Section 119
(C) Section 120
(C) Confession made to officials
who do not have investigation (D) Section 121
powers under the NDPS Act
(D) Confession made found to 26. On which of tJ:e following dates,
be voluntar5r and free from Chandrayaan-3 achieved a soft
pressure landing near Lunar South Pole?
(A) July 14, 2023
23. The right to cross-exarnination on an (B) August 20, 2023
answer to Court question is available
(C) August 23, 20.23
(A) to the adverse party only
(D) None of the above
(B) to the party calling the witness
onlY
27. When was the AIIMS (A1l India
(C) to either of the parties if the Institute of Medical Sciences) opened
question is adverse to either of in Assam?
the parties
(A) 72 Aprtl2022
(D) None of the above
(B) 14 April, 2023
pl 7 Apnr, 2023
24. A leading question has been defined
as a question suggesting the answer (D) 9 April, 2022
which the person putting if wishes
or expects to receive under which
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act? 24, Who won the Men's Singles fitle,
Wimbledon, 2O23?
(A) ' Section 14O
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Section 141 (B) Rafael Nadal
(c) Section 142 (C) Carlos Alcaraz
(D) Section 143 (D) None of them
cHEx/ GENAR/11 I 24 I ss-A 5 lP.T.o.
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29. The number of phases for the 34. The Vande Bharat Express train
General Election,2Q24 is between New Jalpaiguri and
Guwahati was flagged off on which
(A) 5 (B) 6 date?
(cl 7 (D) t (o) May 2s, zo2a
(B) MaY 29, 2022
3O. Tata Dlectronics Private Ltd. has (C) April 74,2023
submitted a proposal for setting up . (n) None of the above
semiconductor processing plant at
(A) Jagiroad, Assam SS, Which of the following statements
(B) North Guwahati, Assam aie editect?
(C) Golaghat, Assam I' Sweden became a member of
NATO in the year 2024.
(D) Goalpara' Assam
r. Finrand became a member of
NATO in the year 2023.
31. Which of the following categories of UI. Ukraine is a member of NATO
Nobel Prize, 2023 was awarded to from 2022.
Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus IV. people,s Republic of China is a
and Alexei Ekimov? member of NATO since 1949.
(A) Physiologl or Medicine Select the correct option from the
(B) Physics codes given below'
(C) Chemistry (A) I and II
(D) None of the above (B) I' II and III
(C) II, IU and IV
(D) A11 of the above
32. what term is used to describe old,
end of life or discarded electronic 06. The cop2g uN climate change
appliances? conference was held in which of the
(A) e-garbage cities mentioned below?
(B) e-waste (A) Doha
(C) e-by product (B) RiYadh
(D) None of the above (C) Abu Dhabi
(D) Dubai
33. In which of the following years Yas 9?. The Houthis, t1.e armed political and
the new Saraighat Bridge opened? retgious group, operates from
tAl 2O2o (B) 2019 (r\) rran (B) Syria
(C) 2018 (D) 2017 (C) Yemen (D) Qatar
cHEx/ GENAR/I /24Iss-A 6
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38. Which of the following is not a Covid 42. Who can receive funding through
appropriate behaviour? electoral bonds?
(A) Maintain physica-l distance (A) Political leaders of leading
national parties
(B) Maintain respiratory hygiene
(B) NGos involved in the process of
(C) Regularly clean and disinfect election
frequently touched surfaces (C) political parties that secured at
(D) Maintain distance from TV/ least 1olo of the votes polled in
Mobile phones the recent l,ok Sabha or State
Assembly election
(D) Election commission of India
39. Katchatheevu Island was given to
Sri Lanka by India in the year
' .1"3. Aditya-Ll mission is
(A) 1971
1A) India's Iirst solar mission
(B) 1972 (B) India's second solar mission
(C) 1973 (C) India's future solar mission
(DI 1974 (D) None of t]:e above
44' Mumbai rtans Harbour Link is alan
4o. women Reservation B 1 aims to
reserve seats for women in both (A) six lane expressway bridge
direcfly elected Lok sabha and state across Mumbai harbour
kgislative Assemblies. The percent (B) ultramodem seaport
for women as (c) huge internarionat airport with
;LJ:::13ur" state-of-the-art technologr
(A) 50% (D) None of tl:e above
(B) 30%
4s. one Nation one Ration card scheme
(C) 33% is an
(D) None of the above (A) initiative by the Central
Government to detect bogus
41. Super cyclonic storm Amphan
caused widespread damage ir, *ru"n
(B) initiative to provide food
area of India?
- security to bencficiarics across
the States by enabling ration
(A) Western India card portabiliff
(B) Southern India (C) initiative to cover more people
to provide food
(c) Eastern India
(D) initiative to issue ration card to
(D) A11 of the above all eligible citizens
cHEx/ GENAR/il l24lsg-A 7 lP.T.O.
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What is Iron Dome? 50. Who among the following persons
(A) Air defence system used by from Assam has been awarded
Israel Padma Shri in the year 2024?
(B) Combat fighter jet used by (A) Parbati Baruah
Russia (B) Jadav Payeng
{C) Highly advanced combat tank (C) Parween Sultana
used by USA (D) Kalicharan Brahma
(D) None of the above
47. Khel Maharan is an 51. The Fundamental Rules were
(A) initiative by Government of originally made by the Secretary of
Assam to identiff and nurture State for India under
sports talents at the grassroot (A) Article 309 of the Constitution
level of India
(B) initiative by Government of (B) Article 31 I of the Constitution
India to search talents in the of India
field of sports
(C) Article 372 of the Constitution
(C) initiative by both Government of India
of India and the State (D) Section 968(2) of the Govern-
Government to identify and
nurture sports talents at the ment of India Act, 1919
grassroot level
(D) None of the above 52. An allowance granted to meet
personal expenditure necessitated by
48. Who was/were awarded the Major
the special circumstances in which
Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award,
duty is performed is said to be
2023?
(A) Ashmita Chaliha (A) sumptuary allowance
(B) P. V. Sindhu (B) duty allowance
(C) Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and (C) compensatory allowance
Chirag Shetty (D) extraordinary a,llowance
(D) Lovlina Borgohain
49. Vocal for Local is an initiative of 53. A permanent post vacated by
whom of the following? reduction of a Government servant
(A) Ministry of Information to a lower service, grade or post
Technolory, Government of India should not be filled up substantively
until the expiry of a period of
(B) Ministry of Industries,
Government of India (A) three months
(C) Ministry of Finance, (B) six months
Govemment of India (C) one year
(D) NITI Aayog (D) two years
CHEX/GENAR/II 124153-A a
Text of page 9
54. As per provision of ROP 2077, a 58. Pay of a Government servant which
Govemment servant will have to he would be entitled if he holds the
cross the Effrciency Bar (EB) stage post substantively is said to be
(A) after completion of ten years of (A) personal pay
serrrice
(B) before joining a higher post (B) special pay
(C) when he reaches the maximum (C) presumptive pay
of the pay band
(D) officiating pay
(D) before getting benefits under
MACPS
59. A competent auttrority refused the
request of a Govemment servant to
55. "Unless in any case it would be change his date of birth before two
otherwise distinctly provided, tJle years from the date of super-
whole time of a Government servant annuation. In this case, t}tc act of
is at the disposal of the Government, the competent authorib/ is
which pays him. " This is as per
(A) FR 11 (A) not justiliable
(B) FR 19 (B) justi{iable
(c) FR s4 (C) aggressive
(D) FR 3s (D) mala iide
5t'- *Ihe Fundamental Rules apply to all
6(). The term 'I{ext Below Rule' is related
Government servants whose pay is to
debitable to the Consolidated Fund
of the State." This is as per the (A) equalization of pay
provision of the
(B) advance increment
(A) FR 4e
(B) FR 27 (C) paper promotion
(c) FR le (D) demotion
(D) FR 2
61. A Government servant may not be
s7. The maximum period of 'quasi-lien' transferred to foreign service
can be granted for (A) if he holds a permanent post
(A) six months (B) if he is on leave
(B) one year
(C) two years (C) against his will
(D) three years (D) unless there is urgency
CHEX/GENAR/tr I 24 I S3-A I I P.r.o.
Text of page 10
62. When a Govemment servant dies 66. When the period of suspension
while under suspension, the period exceeds three months, the competent
of suspension shall be treated as authority may increase the subsis-
tence allowance 50% of the
(A) dies non
(B) leave (A) average pay and allowances of
the last three months before
(C) duty suspension
(D) joining time (B) leave salar5r admissible, had he
been on leave
63. A Government servant under (C) subsistence allowance already
suspension
paid during suspension per
(A) may be granted earned leave month
only
(D! last pay drawn before suspension
(B) may be granted half pay leave
onlY
(C) may be granted extraordinary 67. According to the provisions of
leave only Article 311(2) of the Constitution of
(D) may not be granted leave India, against the charges framed, a
Government servant should be given
64. A service in which a Government (A) reasonabie opportunity to go to
servant receives his substantive pay the Court of law
wittr sanction of Government from
any source other than the (B) reasonable opportunity to claim
Consolidated Fund of the State is subsistence allowance
said to be (C) reasonable opportunity to
(A) contractual service defend himself against the
charges framed
(B) temporary service
(C) foreign service (D) reasonable opportunity to apply
for leave
(D) non-Government service
b5. A Government servant who is 68. The strength ofa service or a part of
directed to hold current charge of a service sanctioned as a separate
the routine duties of a higher post is unit is said to be
entitled to
(A) special pay (A) grade
(B) compensatory pay (B) class
(C) additional pay (C) cadre
(D) no additional pay (D) group
cHExi GENAR/t\ / 24 I 53-L 10
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69. Leave as defined in the Revised 72. Conversion of one kind of leave
Leave Rules, 1934 includes applied for into another
(A) casual leave, earned leave, half (A) can unilaterally be done by the
pay leave, commuted leave and sanctioning authority
special leave (B) cannot be done unilaterally by
the sanctioning authority until
(B) earned leave, half pay leave, and unless applied for by the
commuted leave, leave not due Government servant during
and extraordinar5r leave service
(C) casual leave, maternity ieave, (C) is not allowed under any
special disability leave, earned condition
leave and study leave
(D) is restored to by the sanctioning
(D) eamed leave, study leave, authority only when the leave
commuted leave and extra- applied for has already been
ordinar5r leave exhausted
73, Apart from earned leave, a
7O. Irave cannot be claimed as right is Government servant also eafns half
derived from the pay leave
(A) Assam Civil Services (Conduct) (A) at the same rate as earned
Rules, 1965 leave that is 3O days in a
calendar year
(B) Revised Leave Rules, 1934 (B) at half t1le rate of earned leave
(C) FR and SR that is 15 days in a calendar
year
(D) FR as well as Revised kave (C) at the rate of 20 days for each
Rules, 1934 completed year of service
(D) at the rate of 10 days for each
completed year of service
71. A Govemment servant can be
removed from service following due
procedure for remaining continuously 74. Commuted leave basically is a
absent without authority converted leave or so. It has a
(A) for a period of 3 years relationship with
(A) half pay leave
(B) for a period of 5 years
(B) ear$ed leave
(C) for a period of 7 years (C) leave not due
(D) for a period of 2 years (D) casual leave
cHEX/GENAR/trl24lS3-A 11 lP.T.O.
Text of page 12
75. Leave not due is $anted when other 79. Period spent on a foreign service
regular leaves are exhausted. It is shall not be counted as on duty if
granted (4 the Government serva,nt over-
(A) with no leave sala4r stays the period of deputation
(B) with leave salary but (B) the Govemment servant is
subsequently adjusted with deputed on his/her interest
earned leave credited (C) the contribution towards leave
(C) with leave saiary but sa-lary of the Government
subsequently adjusted with half servant concerned is not paid
pay leave earned on account of such period
(D) the borrowing authority
{D} v/ith no leave salary but can be initiates departmental action
converted to leave with leave
salary to be credited in future
on application
against the lent Government
servant
.t
80. Is a Govemment servant of vacation
76, Extraordinary leave is granted under department entitled to earned leave?
special circumstances to a Govem-
ment servant up to various (A) No
maximums depending on status and (B) Yes, but half of that non-
length of service vacation department, that is
(A) with {ull leave salary 15 days a year
(C) Yes, but 10 days a year only
(B) with partial leave salar;r
(D) Yes, but l0 days less than that
(C) with no salary of a non-vacation department
(D) with half leave salary
81. What is the maximum period of
77. The maximum earned leave that may study leave?
be gralted at a time is (A) 12 months (B) 36 months
(A) 150 days (B) 12O days (C) 24 months (D) 30 months
(C) 180 days (D) 240 days
A probationer appointed to a
substantive post is entitled to
78. There is one kind of leave which
ccnaot be combined with any other (A) casual leave and extraordinar;l
kinds of leave. It is leave only
(A) casual leave (B) casud leave and special casual
leave
(B) extraordinary leave (c) al1 kinds of leave admissible
(C) maternity leave under the rules
(D) eamed leave (D) extraordinary leave only
cHEX/ GENAR/tr I 24 I 53-A t2
Text of page 13
83. When is a departmental enquiry 85. Whether it is mandatory to issue
deemed started? suspension order before initiating a
DP against a Government servant?
(A) From tlle date of initiating the (A) Yes, it is the lirst step integral
preliminary enquiry to a DP and not a punishment
(B) Yes, as no Government servant
(B) From the date of order to in active service can be
institute tl.e departmental discharged or demoted at the
proceedings close of a DP
{C} No, such order should be issued
(C) From the date of issue of show carefully as in the event of
cause notice or issue of charge exonetation, the Government
against the employee concerned servant may sue the
disciplinary authority
(D) From the date of issue of show (D) No, it is not mandatory as ttrere
cause or the date of placing t]le are guiding principles to place a
employee under suspension, Government servant under
whichever is earlier suspension pending a DP
46. Can DP be drawn against a retired
84. Can the appointing authority and employee?
the disciplinary authority be two (A) As he ceases to be a Govern-
different entities at times? ment servant except on charges
with criminal angle, he cannot
(A) Question does not arise, be proceeded against
because only the appointinB (B) No, as on the day of his
authority has the power of the retirement his service contract
disciplinary authority with the Government comes to
an end
(B) No, as the relevant rules do not (C) Yes, within 4 years of his
deline and describe the retirement
appointing and disciplinary (D) Yes, within 3 years of his
authorities can be two separate
retirement
entities sometirnes
47. Can there be more than one
(C) Yes, they are always two disciplinary authority with regard to
separate authorities, exercise penalty?
different powers and functions,
and do not overlap
(A) Question does not arise
(B) Yes, there may be two
(D) Yes, the disciplinary authority (C) Yes, there may be three
not necessarily be the (D) No, one authority can only
appointing authorit5r always inflict punishment
CHEX/GENAR/\I24Iss-A 13 IP.T.o.
Text of page 14
An officer posted at Dhakuakhana 91. An appeal against the order of
has been suspended and the DP disciplinary authority in respect of
is being conducted by the State a class of employees lies with the
enquiry officer at Guwahati. His Governor. So, those employees
headquarter should normally be at require to submit their appeal to the
(A) Guwahati (A) Governor
(B) Dhakuakhana {B) authority (or through the Head
(C) North Lalhimpur, the district of his office), whose order has
headquarter been appealed against
(D) any place that the State (C) Governor's Secretariat
Government may decide (D) Chief Secretary of the State
92. 'Censure' connotes lrarning'. Yet
89. Can a Govemment servant under they have differences. Which of the
suspension be considered for following statements is not correct?
promotion?
(A) When tensure' is formal,
(A) No, Selection Committee/Board lrarning' is not.
cannot take up his case until
suspension is revoked (B) 'Censure'can be inflicted after
followins due procedure as laid
(B) Yes, Selection Committee/ down in the rules.
Board can consider his case
and keep the recommendation (C) Censure' and lrarning' both
in sealed cover until suspension should be recorded in the
is revoked Service Book of the Govemment
servant but \rarning' has
(C) Yes, on the basis of Selection greater adverse impact.
Committee/Board recommen-
dation a suspended Govern- (D) Censure' finds mention in the
ment servant may be given Assam Services (Discipline and
proforma promotion Appeal) Rules, 1964 but
warning does not.
(D) Yes, his case can be considered
on obtaining an undertaking 93. Which part of the following
from the suspended employee statements is wtong?
The Assam services (Discipline and
90. A Government servant under Appeal) Rules, 7964 are not
suspension is required to remain in applicable to
the headquarter. So he is entitled to (A) All India Services Personnel
(A) leave as any other Government (B) persons in casual employment
servant on duty (C) persons temporarily holding a
(B) casual leave only post
(C) casual leave and study leave (D) persons appointed under a
only special agreement govemed by
(D) no leave specifrc terms and conditions
cHEx/GENAR/Ul24ls3-A L4
Text of page 15
94. Deemed suspension is related to 98. Issue of chargesheet to a delinquent
(A) conviction in a criminal case official by the disciplinary authority
is
(B) chargesheet in a criminal
proceeding (A) optional
(C) arrest and detention in custody (B) a constitutional obligation
for a specilic period by the (C) a mere formality in depart-
police mental proceedings
(D) arrest and detention by the (D) necessary only when there
police
is likelihood of charges being
established
95. The ratio of major and minor
penalties under the Rules, 1964 is
(A) 4:3 99. The inquiry authoriB comes across
during tJ:e inquiry such charge(s)
(B) s:2 which is/are not there in the
(c) 6: 1 original chargcsheet. As per rule
(D) 3:4 (A) he cannot take cognizance of
the same
96. The show cause notice to a charged (B) he may incorporate the same to
Government servant has record his lindings
(A) 3 constituents (C) he may refer the matter to the
DA for taking necessary action
(B) 4 constituents
(C) 2 constituents (D) he may record the same
provided the DA admits and is
(D) 5 constituents given reasonable opportunity to
define himself
97. As a matter of principle, the period
of suspension
1OO. It is not necessary to follow the
(A) should be tJ.e minimum detailed procedure of DP, if the DA
required finds at the beginning that it shall
(B) should not be more than be adequate to impose a particular
3 months light penalty on a Government
(C) should not be more than servant. The penalty is
6 months (A) withholding of increments
(D) should come to an end (B) recovery of financial loss caused
immediately after the receipt of by negligence, etc.
written statement from the
Government servant under (C) censure
suspension (D) None of tJ.e above
CHEX/GENAR/tr I 24 I 63-A 15 I P.T.O.
Text of page 16
SPACE FOR ROUGH IIIORK
i
***
CHEX/ GENAR/r I24I53-A 16 241-- 3Ox4
Text of page 1
q:=r=f <<.f<5-<jfl.<-r'wr-<={-faf
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of chemical Examiner (Excise) Assam under Excise Department
held on21.06.2024
(Advt. No. 2712023 Dtd. 2011012023)
Subiect: Paper - II (General Awareness and different Acts, Rules)
Series: A
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
ANS-KEY Q. NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS_KEY Q. NO. ANS_KEY
Q. NO.
1 B 26 C 51 D 76 C
2 A 27 B 52 C 77 C
3 A 2B C 53 C 78 A
4 C 29 C 54 C t9 C
5 B 30 A 55 A 80 C
6 B 31 C s6 t) 81 C
7 A 32 R 57 D 82 C
8 C 33 D 58 C D
9 B -t+ A 59 B 84 D
10 B 35 A 60 C 85 D
11 C 36 D 61 C 86 C
12 B 37 C 62 C 87 C
l3 A 38 D 63 D 88 It
14 A 39 D 64 C 89 B
A 40 C 65 D 90 D
15
16 D 41 C 66 C 91 B
1'7 D 42 C 6l C 92 C
B A 68 C 93 C
i8 43
19 B 44 A 69 B 94 C
A 45 B 70 D 95 D
20
21 A 46 A 71 B 96 B
22 A 47 A 72 B 9'7 A
C 48 C 73 C 98 It
23
B 49 D 74 A 99 D
24
50 A 15 C 100 C
25 B
w-"'
Text of page 2
:;t':=rEr c<f<s-c{<f :{-tc=rt€f
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Chemical Examiner (Excise) Assam under Excise Department
held on21.06.2024
(Advt. No. 27 12023 Dtd. 201 1012023)
Subiect: Paper - II (General Awareness and different Acts, Rules)
Serieq : B
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
ANS-KEY Q.NO. ANS-KEY A NA I'[.V Q, NO. ANS-KEY
Q.NO. Q, NO.
1 C 26 C 51 B 76 A
2 C 27 B 52 C 77 D
3 C 28 A 53 B l8 C
4 A 29 A 54 C 79 C
5 C 30 C 55 C 80 C
6 C 31 B 56 A 81 A
7 C 32 u 5l C 82 D
8 C 33 A 58 B 83 D
9 D 34 C 59 D 84 C
l0 D 35 B 60 A 85 B
l1 D 36 B 61 A 86 C
t2 C 31 C 62 D 87 C
13 C 38 B 63 C 88 C
14 B 39 A 64 D 89 D
15 B 40 A 65 D 90 C
16 D 41 A 66 C 91 D
\7 B 42 D 6'.7 C 92 C
18 C 43 D 68 C 93 C
t9 C 44 R 69 A 94 C
20 C 45 B 70 A 95 B
21 D 46 A 7l B 96 D
22 B 47 A 72 A 97 B
23 A 48 A A 98 B
B 49 C 14 C 99 C
25 D 50 B 75 D 100 A
.6--n
Text of page 3
g{-=f=r- Cq.T:<5-C:a.<t rq-fCfl-f€f
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Chemical Examiner (Excise) Assam under Excise Department
held on 21 .06.2024
(Advt. No. 27 12023 Dtd. 201 1012023)
Subiect: Paper - II (General Awareness and different Acts, Rules)
Series : C
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q. NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q, NO. ANS_KE'
1 C 26 C 51 C 76 C
2 A 21 C B 77 A
3 D 28 C 53 B C
4 D 29 C 54 A 19 R
5 C 30 D 55 C 8t) D
6 B 31 D 56 B 8l A
7 C 32 D 57 B 82 A
8 C )-) C 58 C 83 D
9 C 34 C 59 B 84 C
10 D 35 B 60 A 85 D
1i C Jb B 6t A 86 D
12 t) 37 D 62 A 87 C
13 C 38 B 63 D 88 C
14 C 39 C 64 D 89 C
15 C 40 C 65 B 90 A
16 B 4l C 66 B 91 A
17 D 42 D 67 A 92 B
18 B 43 B 68 A 93 A
19 B 44 A 69 A 94 A
20 C 45 B 70 C 95 C
21 A 46 D 71 B 96 D
22 C C 72 B 97 A
23 C 48 B 73 C 98 D
l+ C 49 A 74 B 99 C
25 A 50 A 75 C 100 C
s--A
Text of page 4
qfcE:tt€t
==r-r=r <q.f:@-<-aat
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Chemical Examiner (Excise) Assam under Excise Department
held on 2l .06.2024
(Advt' No. 27 12023 Dtd. 201 1012023)
Subiect: Paper - II (General Awareness and different Acts, Rules)
Series : D
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO, ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS-KEY
1 A 26 A 51 B 76 A
2 C 27 C J.!. C 77 B
3 B 28 D 53 A 78 D
4 B 29 A 54 C 79 C
5 C 30 D 55 C 80 B
6 B 31 C 56 C 81 A
7 C 32 C 57 A 82 A
C 33 C 58 C 83 C
8
9 A 34 A 59 C 84 B
10 C 35 D 60 C 85 B
11 B 36 D 6l C 86 A
12 D 37 C 62 D 87 C
13 A 38 B 63 D 88 B
14 A 39 C o+ D 89 B
D 40 C 65 C 90 C
15
g1 B
16 C 41 C 66 C
17 D 42 D 67 B 92 A
18 D 43 C 68 B 93 A
t9 C 44 D 69 D 94 A
C 45 C 70 B 95 D
20
L)6 D
21 C 46 C 71 C
A 47 C 72 C 9'7 B
22
A 48 B 73 C 98 B
23
B 49 D 74 D 99 A
24
A 50 B 75 B 100 A
25
&___-^Page 1 of 16
Source: Assam Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Assam Public Service Commission.