APSSB Driver 2024: All papers, Head Constable Driver and Constable Driver Examination
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Question Booklet Sl. No.
Series CODE : GEM – 6/24
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Write here Roll number and Answer Sheet No.
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Roll No. Answer Sheet No.
Duration : 2 Hours Total Marks : 200
Declaration by Invigilator : Declaration by Candidate :
I Certify that I have checked that the Roll Number and the Answer I undertake not to employ any unfair means in this exam. I have checked the Question
Sheet Number written by the Candidate on the question paper and Booklet Number and the Answer Sheet Number and both are identical and have been
the OMR Sheet are correct and the Answer Sheet Number matches
correctly entered by me wherever indicated.
the Question Booklet Number exactly.
Signature of the Invigilator with Name Signature of the Candidate with Name
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
Important Instructions to Candidates
1. The Roll No. is a 7 digit No., the candidate needs to circle the Roll No. in the Answer Sheet.
2. The appropriate Circle should be shaded for Roll No. This should be done carefully because only the
shaded circles are scanned.
3. Valuation of Answer Sheet will be done on the computer. Candidate should not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet, tamper with or mutilate it. Otherwise it will not be evaluated.
4. Please check all the pages of the Booklet carefully. In case of any defect, please ask the Invigilator for
replacement of the Booklet. A
5. You must not tear off or remove any sheet from this Booklet. The Answer Sheet must be handed over to
the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
6. All questions are compulsory and each Question carries 2 marks.
7. There is negative marking of 0.5 marks for each incorrect answer.
8. This Booklet contains 100 questions. Candidates must note that there will be 3 Sections in the question
paper :
Sections Test Components No. of Questions Page No.
A General English 1-25 5-7
B General Knowledge 26-50 8-11
C Theoretical Paper 51-100 12-23
9. Use of Calculator/Palmtop/Laptop/Other Digital Instrument/Mobile/Cell Phone/Pager is not allowed.
10. Candidates found guilty of misconduct/using unfair means in the Examination Hall will be liable for appropriate penal/legal action.
11. No Rough Work is to be done on the Answer Sheet and only single OMR Answer Sheet will be provided.
12. This booklet contains 24 pages.
13. Directions : Each question or incomplete statement is followed by four alternative suggested answers or completions.
In each case, you are required to select the one that correctly answers the question or completes the statement and blacken ( )
appropriate circle a, b, c or d by Black Ball-Point Pen provided by the board against the question concerned in the Answer Sheet.
14. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate circle against each question. The circle should be shaded completely without
leaving any space. The correct method of shading is given below.
Wrong Method Wrong Method Wrong Method Correct Method
The Candidate must mark his/her response after careful consideration, as it is not possible to change the response once it is
marked.
15. There is only one correct answer to each question. You should blacken ( ) the circle of the appropriate column, viz., a, b, c or d.
If you blacken ( ) more than one circle against any one question, the answer will be treated as wrong.
16. Use the space for rough work given at the beginning of the Question Booklet only and not on the Answer Sheet.
17. You are NOT required to mark your answers in this Booklet. All answers must be indicated in the Answer Sheet only.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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Section – A
(General English)
Direction (Q. No. 1 – 4) : Choose the correct meaning of the following idioms and
expressions from the alternatives given below them.
1. To make a pile
(a) To make a fortune (b) To create a mess
(c) To be absent-minded (d) To be corrupt
2. To throw in the sponge
(a) To accept the challenge (b) To forget past offences
(c) To admit defeat (d) To send a message
3. A white elephant
(a) precious thing (b) uncommon event
(c) unprofitable possession (d) a rare phenomenon
4. An old head on young shoulders
(a) to be old before time (b) to be wise despite one’s age
(c) to be youthful inspite of one’s old age (d) to maintain good health
Direction (Q. No. 5 and 6) : Identify the error and choose the right option from the
four alternatives given below.
5. We believe for God
(a) We believe by God (b) We believe at God
(c) We believe in God (d) We believe of God
6. The teacher written a sentence on blackboard
(a) The teacher write a sentence on blackboard
(b) The teacher wrote a sentence on blackboard
(c) The teacher is write a sentence on blackboard
(d) The teacher is written a sentence on blackboard
Direction (Q. No. 7 – 9) : Every sentence given below is divided into three sections
marked (a), (b) and (c). Read the sentence carefully and mark the section that
contains an error. If there is no error in the sentence, mark (d) as your answer.
7. This room is/too much small/for six persons/No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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8. Both Mohan/as well as Sohan/are intelligent/No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9. Not only the principal/but also the students/was playing/No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Direction (Q. No. 10 and 11) : Choose the correct antonym of the following words
from the alternatives given below them.
10. Salient
(a) chief (b) insignificant (c) lend (d) supernatural
11. Aggravate
(a) humorous (b) soothe (c) fragrance (d) painful
12. Give one word for the following expression.
One who cannot hear
(a) Dumb (b) Deaf (c) Blind (d) Lame
13. Fill in the blank by choosing right option from the four alternatives given below.
Compare Gandhi __________ Karl Marx.
(a) to (b) with
(c) over (d) in
Direction (Q. No. 14 and 15) : Choose the correct synonym of the underlined words
in each question statement given below.
14. The newspaper is an inexhaustible source of news.
(a) impartial (b) unending (c) authentic (d) continuous
15. Lack of education has retarded the nation’s progress.
(a) accelerated (b) slackened (c) Eased (d) None of these
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Direction (Q. No. 16 and 17) : Fill in the blanks with appropriate words from the
alternatives given below them.
16. For a few seconds, Sudhir was ___________ blinded by the powerful lights of
the oncoming car.
(a) totally (b) greatly (c) powerfully (d) largely
17. I saw a ___________ of wolves roaming around the forest.
(a) fleet (b) flock (c) group (d) pack
Direction (Q. No. 18 – 20) : choose one word substitutes for the following from the
alternatives given below them.
18. A person who works under someone to learn that person’s skill.
(a) agnostic (b) apprentice (c) arboreal (d) altruist
19. Of the sky or heaven.
(a) cerebral (b) bust (c) celestial (d) cockpit
20. Make white or pale by means of chemicals or sunlight.
(a) boulevard (b) bleach (c) chalet (d) bullion
Direction (Q. No. 21 – 25) : Fill in the blanks in the paragraph given below by
choosing the most appropriate alternative given below them.
In today’s fast-paced world, time management is (21) ______________ for success.
Whether you are a student or a professional, optimizing the most out of your day can be
a challenge. The first step is to (22) __________ a daily schedule. Start by listing your
(23) _______________ tasks and prioritize them. Allocate specific time slots for each
task and stick to your schedule. Avoid inviting distractions and stay (24) ____________
on your goals. Remember that (25) ______________ planning and discipline can help
you make the most of your time.
21. (a) crucial (b) irrelevant (c) ineffective (d) optional
22. (a) ignore (b) create (c) eliminate (d) cherish
23. (a) favorite (b) essential (c) random (d) unnecessary
24. (a) focused (b) distracted (c) relaxed (d) anxious
25. (a) haphazard (b) strategic (c) random (d) spontaneous
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Section – B
(General Knowledge)
26. In ______ year, the north-east frontier agency was renamed as
Arunachal Pradesh.
(a) 1970
(b) 1972
(c) 1980
(d) 1976
27. Which is the longest river in Asia ?
(a) Ganges river
(b) Mekong river
(c) Yangtze kiang river
(d) Indus river
28. Which of the following is a right bank tributary of the river Ganga ?
(a) Gomati (b) Yamuna
(c) Kosi (d) Mahanadi
29. Mohiniattam is a famous dance form of which state ?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Telangana
30. Which is the national aquatic animal of India ?
(a) Saltwater Crocodile
(b) Ganges River Dolphin
(c) Olive Ridley Sea Turtle
(d) Dugong
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31. Who is carried iconic olympic torch from India in Paris Olympics 2024 ?
(a) P. V. sindhu
(b) Abhinav bindra
(c) Vijender Singh
(d) Karnam Malleshwari
32. Who was the president of congress at the time congress formalized the demand
for Purna Swaraj ?
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Motilal Nehru
33. The Hanging Gardens of Babylonia were created on the banks of the river
(a) Achelous
(b) Euphrates
(c) Eurotas
(d) Peneus
34. The river Brahmaputra is known by ________ name in Arunachal Pradesh.
(a) Kameng (b) Siang
(c) Tirap (d) Subansiri
35. Who is principal sponsor of Indian team in Paris Olympics 2024 ?
(a) Adani Group
(b) Airtel
(c) Reliance
(d) Tata Group
36. “Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration”.
In which part of Indian constitution can these lines are mentioned ?
(a) Freedom of speech
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Fundamental duties
(d) Directive principles of State Policy
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37. Who among the following has won title of the world’s first Miss AI ?
(a) Olivia C (b) Nancy Paloni
(c) Kenza Layli (d) Valina
38. First Rajya Sabha member from Arunachal Pradesh is
(a) Nabam Rebia (b) Mukut Mithi
(c) Ratan Tama (d) Yonggam Nyodek
39. The line that separates Arunachal Pradesh from Tibet is
(a) Curzon Line
(b) Durand Line
(c) McMahon Line
(d) Maginot Line
40. What was the first route of the Vande Bharat Express train ?
(a) Delhi to Varanasi
(b) Delhi to Kolkata
(c) Delhi to Chennai
(d) Delhi to Mumbai
41. What is PSLV stands for, which is one of the satellite launching vehicle of ISRO ?
(a) Polar Surface Launch Vehicle
(b) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(c) Payload Satellite Launch Vehicle
(d) None of the above
42. G20 summit 2024 will be held in
(a) India (b) Indonesia
(c) Brazil (d) China
43. “ Gemini”, a generative artificial intelligence chatbot developed by
(a) Google (b) Microsoft
(c) Infosys (d) Tesla
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44. Dhola Sadiya Bridge, built across which of the following river ?
(a) Lohit (b) Kaveri
(c) Narmada (d) None of the above
45. Who was the host of the FIH men’s Hockey world Cup 2023 ?
(a) Australia (b) Canada
(c) Denmark (d) India
46. which of the following is known as golden fibre ?
(a) Cotton (b) Silk (c) Wool (d) Jute
47. What is the currency of Ukraine ?
(a) Euro
(b) Hryvnia
(c) Ruble
(d) None of the above
48. Who is the first Indian female athlete with two medals in single olympics ?
(a) P. V. Sindhu
(b) Mary Kom
(c) Manu Bhaker
(d) None of the above
49. The first Asian to win Nobel Prize in Literature
(a) Lata Mangeshkar
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) None of the above
50. Tehran is the capital of
(a) Iran
(b) Turkey
(c) Israel
(d) None of the above
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Section – C
( Theoretical Paper )
51. According to the regulations, where should a motor vehicle be driven on a dual
carriageway unless otherwise directed ?
(a) On the right carriageway
(b) In the middle of the road
(c) On the left carriageway
(d) On any side of the carriageway
52. How can overheated brakes lead to brake failure ?
(a) It causes the brake pads to become too hard
(b) It increases brake fluid viscosity, making it ineffective
(c) It causes brake fluid to boil, creating air bubbles in the system
(d) It strengthens the brake system, preventing failure
53. What is the driver’s responsibility when driving on a road marked with lanes for
movement of traffic ?
(a) Drive outside the lanes
(b) Drive within the lane and change lanes only after giving a proper signal or road
marking or signage
(c) Ignore the lane markings
(d) Use any lane regardless of the vehicle class
54. What is the primary aim of first aid ?
(a) To provide long-term care
(b) To diagnose illnesses
(c) To ensure safety until specialized treatment arrives
(d) To prevent injuries
55. The separation between the surface of the tyre and the road created by a layer of
water is called
(a) Skidding
(b) Aquaplaning
(c) Antilocking
(d) Hypoplaning
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56. Under which section of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, is drunken driving
considered an offence in India ?
(a) Section 112
(b) Section 183
(c) Section 185
(d) Section 192
57. What is the maximum allowable blood alcohol concentration (BAC) for a driver in
India before they can be charged with impaired driving ?
(a) 50 mg per 100 ml of blood
(b) 40 mg per 100 ml of blood
(c) 30 mg per 100 ml of blood
(d) 20 mg per 100 ml of blood
58. Under which section of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, is racing or trial of speed
on public roads without written consent from the State Government considered
an offence ?
(a) Section 185
(b) Section 183
(c) Section 189
(d) Section 192
59. What is the minimum age for driving a motorcycle with an engine capacity below
50 cc in India ?
(a) 14 years (b) 16 years
(c) 18 years (d) 21 years
60. Which document is required to be kept in the original copy while driving a vehicle
in India ?
(a) PAN card
(b) Voter ID
(c) Driving licence
(d) None of these
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61. What is the validity period of an International Driving Licence issued in India ?
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Two years
(d) Five years
62. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what should a driver do in case of an
accident where someone is injured ?
(a) Leave the scene immediately
(b) Wait for the police to arrive before taking any action
(c) Take all reasonable steps to secure medical attention for the injured person
(d) Only report the accident to the police after 24 hours
63. What is NOT required to accompany the application for permanent registration of
a motor vehicle in India ?
(a) Road worthiness certificate
(b) Proof of address
(c) Medical fitness certificate
(d) Pollution under control certificate
64. According to the IMV Act, 1988, where should a motor vehicle be registered ?
(a) At any RTO across the state
(b) At the RTO where the vehicle is purchased
(c) At the RTO in the owner’s place of residence or business
(d) At the central transport office in the capital city
65. What does MSM in the driving rule stands for ?
(a) Mirror, Signal, Manoeuvre
(b) Mirror, Speed, Manoeuvre
(c) Mirror, Signal, Motion
(d) Mirror, Speed, Motion
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66. In driving, what does the “Two Seconds Rule” help determine ?
(a) The distance needed to overtake another vehicle
(b) The correct stopping distance behind another vehicle
(c) The safe following distance between your vehicle and the vehicle in front
(d) The time needed to react to traffic signals
67. What does a flashing amber signal at an intersection mean ?
(a) Come to a complete stop and wait for the light to change
(b) Drive with caution and proceed slowly
(c) Turn right immediately
(d) Stop only if there is traffic ahead
68. What is the main purpose of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) established
in May 1960 ?
(a) To construct urban roads
(b) To promote international tourism
(c) To accelerate economic development and strengthen defence preparedness
(d) To manage traffic regulations
69. Which road marking allows vehicles to overtake only when it is safe to do so ?
(a) Double solid line
(b) Single solid line
(c) Single broken line
(d) Combination of broken and solid lines
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70. What is the target of the UN General Assembly’s ‘‘Decade of Action for Road
Safety 2021-2030’’ ?
(a) To improve public transportation systems
(b) To prevent at least 50% of road traffic deaths and injuries by 2030
(c) To promote electric vehicles
(d) To build more highways
71. Which Act provides for the regulation of common carriers and limits their liability
for loss or damage to goods ?
(a) Motor Vehicles Amendment Act, 2019
(b) The Carriage by Road Act, 2007
(c) The Control of National Highways (Land and Traffic) Act, 2000
(d) National Highways Authority of India Act, 1998
72. What should you do when you see a yellow line marked on the edge of the road ?
(a) Park your vehicle there
(b) Stop immediately
(c) Do not park or stop your vehicle there
(d) Overtake other vehicles
73. What is one of the key focuses of the Motor Vehicles Amendment Act, 2019 ?
(a) Increasing the number of road safety audits
(b) Providing compulsory insurance cover to all road users in India
(c) Regulating common carriers for goods transport
(d) Controlling land within National Highways
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74. Following traffic sign indicates
(a) Cross-road
(b) Pedestrian crossing
(c) Railway crossing
(d) Narrow bridge
75. Under what condition can the application for the registration of a new motor
vehicle be made by the dealer instead of the owner ?
(a) If the vehicle is sold through an auction
(b) If the new motor vehicle is being registered in the same State where the dealer is
located
(c) If the vehicle is a diplomatic vehicle
(d) If the owner does not have a permanent address
76. According to the new traffic rules under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act
2019, the fine amount for not wearing seatbelts is
(a) Rs.1000
(b) Rs. 5000
(c) Rs. 2000
(d) None of the above
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77. What is the meaning of following traffic sign ?
(a) No through side road
(b) Hospital
(c) Subway
(d) Resting Place
78. Below diagram is an example of _____ sign.
(a) Mandatory (b) Caution
(c) Informatory (d) warning
79. Full form of CNG is
(a) Controlled Natural Gas (b) Combined Natural Gas
(c) Clean Natural Gas (d) Compressed Natural Gas
80. What should drivers do when approaching a “Zebra Crossing” ?
(a) Speed up to cross the intersection quickly
(b) Stop and allow pedestrians to cross the road
(c) Ignore the crossing if there are no pedestrians
(d) Overtake the vehicle in front
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81. __________ are used for entry to the highways.
(a) Cross junctions (b) Diagonal lines
(c) Deacceleration markings (d) Acceleration markings
82. Which rule or section makes it an offence to use a mobile phone while driving in
India ?
(a) Regulation 37 of the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017
(b) Rule 185 of the Haryana Motor Vehicles Rules, 1993
(c) Section 129 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
(d) Rule 21(14) of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989
83. What does the ‘T Intersection’ sign indicate ?
(a) A Y-intersection ahead
(b) The presence of a dual carriageway
(c) A T-junction where the nature of the intersection is not obvious
(d) A crossing with a major road
84. Which sign is used to indicate a junction where the distance between two
junctions is not more than 60 meters ?
(a) Side Road Left /Right (b) Staggered Intersection
(c) Y-Intersection (d) End of Dual Carriageway
85. Below sign warns drivers about
(a) A sudden increase in road width
(b) The presence of a ferry crossing
(c) The closure of a portion of the carriageway on multilane highways
(d) The presence of loose gravel on the road
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86. What does the below sign indicate ?
(a) A lane closure ahead
(b) The need to slow down due to falling rocks
(c) A diversion of traffic from one carriageway to the other
(d) A ferry crossing ahead
87. The ‘Series of Bends’ sign is used to
(a) Warn about a sudden narrowing of the road
(b) Indicate a roundabout
(c) Caution about zigzagging for a long distance ahead
(d) Show the start of a dual carriageway
88. What does the ‘Steep Ascent or Steep Descent’ sign indicate ?
(a) A section of road with loose gravel
(b) A gradient of 10% and above that may constitute a hazard
(c) The presence of a roundabout
(d) A sudden narrowing of the road
89. Which sign is used to warn drivers about the speed controller on the road ?
(a) Steep ascent
(b) Rumble Strip
(c) Speed Limit
(d) Dangerous Dip
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90. What is indicated by the following sign ?
(a) A restriction on the length of vehicles
(b) Prohibition of vehicles exceeding a certain width
(c) A restriction on the height of vehicles
(d) Prohibition of vehicles based on their axle load
91. Which sign is used to indicate the end of all prohibitions for vehicle movement ?
(a) Restriction End Sign
(b) Stop Sign
(c) Compulsory Ahead
(d) Main Road Ahead
92. What does the ‘Compulsory Turn Left / Right’ sign indicate ?
(a) Vehicles must turn left or right
(b) Vehicles must proceed straight or turn left/right
(c) Vehicles must keep left only
(d) Vehicles must turn left and then to right
93. Sum of reaction distance and braking distance is called as
(a) Travelled distance
(b) Speeding distance
(c) Parking distance
(d) Stopping distance
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94. When should you turn on your headlights according to the road safety guidelines ?
(a) 30 minutes after sunset
(b) Only during fog or rain
(c) 30 minutes before sunset and keep them on until 30 minutes after sunrise
(d) When your parking lights are not functioning
95. If the battery electrolyte level of your car is low it can be topped-up using
(a) pure water
(b) distilled water
(c) sea water
(d) none of the above
96. What is an “adapted vehicle” as per ‘The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988’ ?
(a) A motor vehicle specially designed for racing purposes
(b) A vehicle designed for carrying goods exclusively
(c) A motor vehicle specially designed or altered for use by a person with physical
disabilities
(d) A vehicle that is only used for public transportation
97. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, what does the term “aggregator” refer to?
(a) A service that collects road tolls from drivers
(b) A digital intermediary connecting passengers with drivers for transportation
(c) A company that manufactures motor vehicles
(d) A service that provides roadside assistance to vehicles
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98. How is “gross vehicle weight” defined in the Act ?
(a) The weight of the vehicle without passengers or cargo
(b) The total weight of the vehicle and its load certified as permissible by the registering
authority
(c) The weight of the vehicle when it is fully loaded with passengers
(d) The weight of the vehicle’s engine alone
99. What is the appropriate response if you find yourself driving on a slippery, wet or
flooded road ?
(a) Increase your speed to pass through the area quickly
(b) Gradually take your foot off the accelerator, hold the steering wheel tightly and
avoid sudden movements
(c) Brake suddenly to stop the vehicle as quickly as possible
(d) Use hazard lights and continue driving at a normal speed
100. What is the validity period for a certificate of registration issued for a motor
vehicle under the Motor Vehicles Act ?
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
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FINAL ANSWER KEY OF HEAD CONSTABLE DRIVER AND CONSTABLE DRIVER EXAM - 2020
Answer Key for GEM - 6/24 (Set - A)
Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key
1 a 26 b 51 c 76 a
2 c 27 c 52 c 77 a
3 c 28 b 53 b 78 c
4 b 29 b 54 c 79 d
5 c 30 b 55 b 80 b
6 b 31 b 56 c 81 d
7 b 32 b 57 c 82 a
8 b 33 b 58 c 83 c
9 c 34 b 59 b 84 b
10 b 35 a 60 d 85 c
11 b 36 d 61 b 86 c
12 b 37 c 62 c 87 c
13 b 38 c 63 c 88 b
14 b 39 c 64 a 89 c
15 b 40 a 65 a 90 b
16 a 41 b 66 c 91 a
17 d 42 c 67 b 92 a
18 b 43 a 68 c 93 d
19 c 44 a 69 c 94 c
20 b 45 d 70 b 95 b
21 a 46 d 71 b 96 c
22 b 47 b 72 c 97 b
23 b 48 c 73 b 98 b
24 a 49 b 74 b 99 b
25 b 50 a 75 b 100 c
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Answer Key for GEM - 6/24 (Set - B)
Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key
1 b 26 d 51 c 76 c
2 b 27 c 52 b 77 c
3 c 28 c 53 c 78 c
4 b 29 c 54 c 79 b
5 a 30 a 55 b 80 d
6 c 31 b 56 c 81 a
7 c 32 c 57 b 82 a
8 b 33 b 58 b 83 d
9 b 34 b 59 b 84 c
10 b 35 b 60 c 85 b
11 b 36 d 61 a 86 b
12 c 37 b 62 a 87 c
13 b 38 c 63 c 88 c
14 a 39 b 64 d 89 a
15 b 40 a 65 b 90 a
16 b 41 b 66 c 91 d
17 a 42 b 67 c 92 a
18 b 43 b 68 b 93 c
19 b 44 b 69 c 94 b
20 b 45 a 70 b 95 c
21 c 46 b 71 c 96 b
22 a 47 c 72 c 97 c
23 d 48 a 73 b 98 b
24 b 49 a 74 c 99 b
25 b 50 d 75 b 100 b
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Answer Key for GEM - 6/24 (Set - C)
Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key
1 b 26 d 51 d 76 c
2 b 27 b 52 a 77 b
3 c 28 c 53 c 78 c
4 a 29 b 54 b 79 c
5 b 30 a 55 c 80 b
6 b 31 b 56 c 81 c
7 a 32 c 57 c 82 b
8 b 33 a 58 b 83 b
9 b 34 a 59 c 84 b
10 c 35 d 60 b 85 c
11 b 36 b 61 b 86 a
12 b 37 c 62 c 87 a
13 c 38 b 63 b 88 c
14 b 39 b 64 b 89 d
15 a 40 b 65 b 90 b
16 b 41 d 66 a 91 b
17 c 42 c 67 a 92 c
18 b 43 c 68 d 93 c
19 b 44 c 69 c 94 a
20 b 45 a 70 b 95 a
21 b 46 b 71 c 96 c
22 b 47 b 72 c 97 c
23 b 48 b 73 c 98 b
24 a 49 b 74 b 99 c
25 d 50 a 75 d 100 b
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Answer Key for GEM - 6/24 (Set - D)
Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key Question No. Ans. Key
1 b 26 b 51 c 76 b
2 c 27 b 52 c 77 c
3 b 28 b 53 b 78 b
4 b 29 b 54 c 79 b
5 b 30 a 55 b 80 b
6 c 31 d 56 c 81 c
7 b 32 b 57 b 82 c
8 a 33 c 58 c 83 c
9 b 34 b 59 c 84 b
10 b 35 a 60 b 85 d
11 a 36 b 61 c 86 d
12 b 37 c 62 c 87 a
13 a 38 a 63 b 88 c
14 d 39 a 64 c 89 b
15 b 40 d 65 b 90 c
16 b 41 b 66 a 91 c
17 c 42 c 67 a 92 b
18 b 43 b 68 c 93 b
19 a 44 b 69 d 94 b
20 c 45 b 70 b 95 c
21 c 46 d 71 a 96 b
22 b 47 c 72 a 97 c
23 b 48 c 73 d 98 c
24 b 49 c 74 c 99 a
25 b 50 a 75 b 100 a
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Source: Arunachal Pradesh Staff Selection Board. Question paper published by Arunachal Pradesh Staff Selection Board.