Bihar Secondary Teacher 2023: TRE 1.0, Class 9 to 10, Social Science
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17/MV/M–2023–10 Booklet Series
Candidate’s Roll Number
Question Booklet
A Serial No.
GENERAL STUDIES AND SOCIAL SCIENCE
Paper—3
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 120
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet contains questions of GENERAL STUDIES and SOCIAL SCIENCE which
includes HISTORY, GEOGRAPHY, ECONOMICS and POLITICAL SCIENCE subjects. Choose the
questions from any two subjects out of four subjects of SOCIAL SCIENCE. At least one subject
HISTORY or GEOGRAPHY is mandatory.
2. Part–I, GENERAL STUDIES consists of Question Nos. 1 to 40, Part–II, HISTORY consists of
Question Nos. H–1 to H–40, Part–II/Part–III, GEOGRAPHY consists of Question Nos. G–1 to
G–40, Part–III, ECONOMICS consists of Question Nos. E–1 to E–40 and Part–III, POLITICAL
SCIENCE consists of Question Nos. P–1 to P–40. All questions and their responses are printed in
English as well as in Hindi versions.
3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. Attempt questions from GENERAL STUDES and two subjects out of four subjects of SOCIAL
SCIENCE. At least one subject HISTORY or GEOGRAPHY is mandatory.
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PART—I
( GENERAL STUDIES )
1. 10 years ago the ratio of ages 3. The average monthly income of
of Ramesh and Rajeev was 1 : 3. P and Q is R 5,050. The average
5 years hence this ratio will monthly income of Q and R is
become 2 : 3. What is the ratio R 6,250 and the average
of their ages at present? monthly income of P and R is
R 5,200. The monthly income of
(A) 2 : 5 P is
(A) R 3,500
(B) 3 : 5
(B) R 4,050
(C) 1 : 2 (C) R 4,000
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
4. If 30% of P is added to 40%
of Q , it becomes 80% of Q .
Accordingly, what is the
2. If I walk with a speed of 5 km percentage of Q with respect
per hour from my house to the to P ?
station, my train would have left (A) 40%
the station 7 minutes before my
(B) 50%
arrival. But, if I walk with a
speed of 6 km per hour, I will (C) 75%
reach the station 5 minutes (D) More than one of the above
before the departure of my (E) None of the above
train. Accordingly, what is the
distance between my house and
5. A sum of money is to be
the station?
distributed among A, B, C, D in
(A) 7 km the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If
C gets R 1,000 more than D,
(B) 6·5 km what is B’s share?
(A) R 500
(C) 6 km (B) R 1,500
(C) R 2,000
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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6. A shopkeeper gives a discount 9. Which of the following photo-
of 5% on the selling price of a electric devices is the most
watch. If he gives a discount of suitable for digital applications?
6%, he will earn a profit which (A) Photo-voltaic cell
is R 15 less than the before.
(B) Photo-emissive cell
Accordingly, what is the marked
selling price of that watch? (C) Photo-diode
(D) More than one of the above
(A) R 1,400
(E) None of the above
(B) R 1,500
(C) R 1,800 10. The critical mass of a fissionable
(D) More than one of the above material is
(E) None of the above (A) one kilogram equivalent
(B) the minimum mass needed
for chain reaction
7. Three numbers are in the ratio
(C) the rest mass equivalent to
3 : 4 : 5. The total of the largest
1010 joules
and the smallest numbers is
equal to the other number (D) More than one of the above
plus 52. Accordingly, which is (E) None of the above
the smallest number?
(A) 27 11. Which of the following gases is
used to force the ripening of
(B) 39
fruits?
(C) 52 (A) Ethane
(D) More than one of the above (B) Ethylene
(E) None of the above (C) Methylene
(D) More than one of the above
1 (E) None of the above
8. If 2 2n -1 = n - 3 , then the value
8
of n is 12. Which one of the following has
zero octane number?
(A) 3
(A) Iso-octane
(B) 2
(B) Neo-octane
(C) – 2 (C) n-octane
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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13. The edible part of Litchis is 17. In which year was NGT (National
(A) aril Green Tribunal) for protection
of environment and forest
(B) thalamus established by the Government
(C) seed coat of India?
(D) More than one of the above (A) 2010
(B) 2011
(E) None of the above
(C) 2012
(D) More than one of the above
14. The physical process involved in (E) None of the above
the release of molecular oxygen
from leaves is
18. Which city of India started first
(A) diffusion under-water metro?
(B) transpiration (A) Kochi
(B) Visakhapatnam
(C) osmosis
(C) Bengaluru
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
15. The process of finding the 19. Under India’s G20 Presidency,
relative location of genes on a where was the Tourism Working
chromosome is called Group Meeting held?
(A) Patna (Bihar)
(A) genome walking
(B) Srinagar (Jammu and
(B) chromosome walking Kashmir)
(C) gene mapping (C) Ramnagar (Uttarakhand)
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
20. Who among the following got
16. Spore mother cell in bryophytes the Silver Medal in the National
is Under-17 Girls Wrestling
(A) haploid Championship?
(A) Liza Tomar
(B) diploid
(B) Nirjala
(C) triploid
(C) Pushpa Yadav
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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21. Who won the International 25. Match List–I with List–II :
Booker Prize, 2022 for the novel,
Tomb of Sand ? List—I List—II
(A) Geetanjali Shree and Daisy a. Char 1. Punjab plain
Rockwell
(B) David Diop and Anna b. Kankar 2. Delta
Moschovakis
c. Kayal 3. Bangar
(C) Marilyn Booth and Jokha
Alharthi d. Mand 4. Coastal plain
(D) More than one of the above
Select the correct answer using
(E) None of the above
the codes given below.
22. Who was the Chief Guest on (A) a b c d
India’s 74th Republic Day? 1 4 2 3
(A) Mohammed bin Salman
(B) Abdel Fattah El-Sisi (B) a b c d
(C) Sheikh Mohammed bin 2 3 4 1
Rashid Al Maktoum
(D) More than one of the above (C) a b c d
3 1 4 2
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
23. In which district of Bihar, the
first floating solar power plant
(E) None of the above
has been built?
(A) Darbhanga
(B) West Champaran
26. Which of the following
(C) Madhubani
tributaries does not join
(D) More than one of the above Brahmaputra river from north?
(E) None of the above
(A) Subansiri
24. Which of the following has got
GI Tag in Bihar? (B) Belsiri
(A) Maghai Paan
(C) Manas
(B) Basmati Rice
(C) Chanderi Saree
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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27. Likhapani glacier is located in 30. Arrange the following seaports of
which State of India? India from north to south :
1. Kakinada
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
2. Machilipatnam
(B) Himachal Pradesh 3. Nagapattinam
(C) Sikkim 4. Visakhapatnam
Select the correct answer using
(D) More than one of the above the codes given below.
(E) None of the above (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 1, 2, 3
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
28. Magadha and Anga plains are (D) More than one of the above
parts of
(E) None of the above
(A) upper Ganga plain
31. The Agreement of Kosi Irrigation
(B) middle Ganga plain
and Hydroelectricity Plan in
1954 was signed between which
(C) lower Ganga plain
two countries?
(D) More than one of the above (A) India and Bangladesh
(B) India and China
(E) None of the above
(C) India and Nepal
(D) More than one of the above
29. Which of the following pairs of (E) None of the above
waterfalls and rivers is not
correctly matched?
32. In which climatic division does
(A) Jog—Sharavati Bihar fall as per R. L. Singh’s
classification scheme?
(B) Kapildhara—Kaveri (A) Humid south-east
(C) Dhuandhar—Godavari (B) Subhumid transitional
(C) Subhumid continental
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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33. In which Session of the Indian 37. Which portfolio did Dr. Rajendra
National Congress was the Prasad hold during the Interim
resolution of ‘Purna Swaraj’ Government of 1946?
adopted? (A) Defence
(A) Kanpur Session, 1925 (B) Home
(B) Lahore Session, 1929 (C) Food and Agriculture
(C) Karachi Session, 1931
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
38. Who among the following
34. What was an initial objective of
particularly urged Gandhiji to
‘Kuka Movement’ in Punjab?
visit Champaran to witness the
(A) To purify the Sikh religion miseries of the Ryots?
(B) To gain political power in (A) Brijkishore Prasad
Punjab
(B) Rajkumar Shukla
(C) Organization of peasant
movement (C) Sukhram Ganesh
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
35. Who described the Revolt of 39. The ‘Day of Deliverance’ was
1857 as the ‘First Indian War of observed by the Muslim League
Independence’? on which date?
(A) V. D. Savarkar (A) 22nd December, 1939
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (B) 17th October, 1939
(C) Bipin Chandra Pal (C) 22nd December, 1940
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
36. Where was the first instance of 40. Who laid the foundation stone
organized non-cooperation in of National College and Bihar
the history of Indian peasantry Vidyapeeth?
held?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(A) Bihar and Bengal
(B) Maulana Abdul Bari
(B) Madras Presidency
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Punjab Province
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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PART—II
( HISTORY )
H-1. Name the major city of the H-4. How many Suktas are there in
Indus Valley Civilization that Rigveda ?
had trade relations with West
Asia. (A) 1020
(A) Ropar (B) 1017
(B) Sanghol
(C) 1080
(C) Kalibangan
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-2. Of which metal was the H-5. Who wrote Kiratarjuniya ?
dancing girl in Mohenjo-daro
made? (A) Bhatti
(A) Copper
(B) Shudraka
(B) Brass
(C) Kalidasa
(C) Bronze
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-3. In the Indus Valley Civilization,
H-6. ‘Pur’ in Vedic period means
which animal worship has been
found? (A) forts
(A) Humped bull
(B) trade
(B) Horse
(C) market
(C) Cow
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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H-7. What is called ‘Takshan’ in H-10. Into how many major chapters
Rigveda ? is Kautilya’s Arthashastra
divided?
(A) Carpenter
(A) 11
(B) Ironsmith
(B) 12
(C) Potter
(C) 14
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-8. Of which metal was the
‘Kakani’ coins made in H-11. Whom did Iltutmish appoint as
Mauryan period? his first Governor in Bihar?
(A) Copper
(A) Aivaz
(B) Iron
(B) Nasiruddin Mahmud
(C) Silver
(C) Ali Mardan
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-9. By whom was the world’s
first Republic established in H-12. Where was the field area of
Vaishali? Birsa Munda?
(A) Maurya (A) Champaran
(B) Nanda (B) Ranchi
(C) Gupta (C) Ballia
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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H-13. Who was the leader of the H-16. In Mughal administration,
Revolt of 1857 from Bihar? ‘Madad-i-Maash’ was related
with
(A) Maulvi Ahmadullah
(A) octroi tax
(B) Tantia Topi
(B) revenue-free land to the
(C) Nana Sahib intellectuals
(D) More than one of the above (C) pension to military officers
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
H-14. Name the first capital of
Magadha. H-17. What was the objective of Puna
Agreement?
(A) Pataliputra
(A) Hindu-Muslim unity
(B) Vaishali
(B) Representation of Dalit
(C) Girivraja (Rajagriha) class
(D) More than one of the above (C) Special rights to kings
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
H-15. Which of the following
sources mentions about the
H-18. Who constructed ‘Jantar
administration of Pataliputra?
Mantar’?
(A) Divyavadana
(A) Akbar
(B) Arthashastra (B) Shah Jahan
(C) Indica (C) Shivaji
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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H-19. Who wrote Vande Mataram? H-22. Why is 4th July, 1776
considered to be important in
(A) Bankim Chandra the history of the USA?
Chatterjee
(A) George Washington was
(B) Sarojini Naidu elected as the President
(C) Rabindranath Tagore (B) Abolition of Slavery
(D) More than one of the above (C) Declaration of American
Independence
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
H-20. Christopher Columbus, the (E) None of the above
great explorer who discovered
America in 1492, was financed
by which of the following H-23. The ruler of France at the time
countries? of the French Revolution was
(A) Louis XVI
(A) Portugal
(B) Louis XIV
(B) England
(C) Louis XIII
(C) Spain
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-24. During the Industrial
H-21. The ‘Boston Tea Party’, an Revolution, the cotton textile
important event of history, is sector was revolutionized by
associated with the ‘Spinning Jenny’ which was
invented by
(A) American War of
Independence (A) John Kay
(B) French Revolution (B) Samuel Crompton
(C) Russian Revolution (C) James Hargreaves
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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H-25. ‘Young Italy Movement’ in 1831 H-29. Which was the first English
which aimed to establish Settlement in the USA?
Republic was started by (A) Jamestown
(A) Count Cavour
(B) Charles Town
(B) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(C) Boston
(C) Victor Emmanuel
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-26. The architect of the Unification H-30. ‘ The Oath of Tennis Court’ is
of Germany who believed in the connected with the
policy of ‘blood and iron’ was
(A) American Revolution
(A) Talleyrand
(B) Otto von Bismarck (B) Russian Revolution
(C) Metternich (C) French Revolution
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-27. The US entry into the Second
World War in November 1941 H-31. With which country the Allied
was mainly due to Powers did the Treaty of
Sèvres?
(A) the invasion of Poland by
Germany (A) Germany
(B) the Battle of Stalingrad (B) Turkey
(C) German occupation of (C) Hungary
Sudetenland
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-28. Who was the ruler of China H-32. Who invented the flying shuttle
when Marco Polo visited that machine in 1733?
country?
(A) James Hargreaves
(A) Genghis Khan
(B) John Kay
(B) Kublai Khan
(C) Edmund Cartwright
(C) Halagu Khan
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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H-33. By which Treaty was the Thirty H-37. To which incident had
Years’ War ended? Mahatma Gandhi called
(A) Treaty of Augsburg ‘Himalayan Blunder’?
(A) Jallianwala Bagh
(B) Treaty of Westphalia
massacre
(C) Treaty of Trianon
(B) Chauri-chaura incident
(D) More than one of the above (C) Execution of Bhagat Singh
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
H-34. Who represented Italy in the
Paris Peace Conference? H-38. Which woman revolutionist
(A) Lloyd George died while conducting a raid on
Armory at Chittagong?
(B) Orlando
(A) Pritilata Waddedar
(C) Georges Clemenceau
(B) Kalpana Datta
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Santi Ghosh
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
H-35. Who took the Komagata Maru
ship on rent to sail to H-39. Which of the following
Vancouver? revolutionaries was not
(A) Harnam Singh associated with Kakori Train
(B) Gurmeet Singh Case?
(A) Ashfaqulla Khan
(C) Kartar Singh
(B) Ram Prasad Bismil
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Prafulla Chaki
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
H-36. Which one of the following was (E) None of the above
not associated with the H-40. In which language was the first
foundation of the Shore issue of Ghadar published on
Committee? 1st November, 1913?
(A) Hussain Rahim (A) Gurmukhi
(B) Balwant Singh (B) Urdu
(C) Bhagwan Singh (C) Hindi
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–10 SS (S)/12-A 24
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PART—II/III
( GEOGRAPHY )
G-1. Vulnerable species in India is G-4. Sardar Sarovar Dam covers
which of the following States?
(A) Asiatic elephant
(A) Gujarat, Rajasthan,
(B) Gangetic dolphin Maharashtra and Madhya
Pradesh
(C) Blackbuck (B) Gujarat, Rajasthan,
Maharashtra and Goa
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Gujarat, Rajasthan,
(E) None of the above Maharashtra and Punjab
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
G-2. The major factor for depletion
of forest resources in India is G-5. Most of the river valley projects
constructed to control floods
(A) expansion of agriculture
failed and instead triggered
(B) railways floods because of
(A) excessive sediments in the
(C) scientific forestry reservoir
(D) More than one of the above (B) heavy rain led water
released from dam
(E) None of the above (C) extensive soil erosion due
to flood
G-3. Developing new methods of (D) More than one of the above
ecological farming through (E) None of the above
traditional methods is
promoted by G-6. The first State in India that
made rooftop rainwater
(A) Beej Bachao Andolan harvesting compulsory through
legal norms was
(B) Navdanya
(A) Tamil Nadu
(C) Tawa Matsya Sangh (B) Rajasthan
(C) Meghalaya
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–10 SS (S)/12-A 26
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G-7. As per the Agriculture Report, G-11. What is the example of the
2017, India was the second Kharif crop?
largest producer of _____ in the
world. (A) Maize
(A) rice
(B) Wheat
(B) cotton
(C) sugarcane (C) Peas
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-8. The institutional reform for the
benefit of farmers was
(A) Land Reforms G-12. Which crop takes almost a year
(B) creation of Grameen to grow?
Banks
(A) Barley
(C) Kisan Credit Card scheme
(D) More than one of the above (B) Jute
(E) None of the above
(C) Cotton
G-9. Koderma in Jharkhand is the
leading producer of which one (D) More than one of the above
of the following minerals?
(E) None of the above
(A) Bauxite
(B) Mica
(C) Iron G-13. The National Highways are laid
(D) More than one of the above and maintained by
(E) None of the above
(A) Central Public Works
G-10. The only industry in India Department (CPWD)
which is self-reliant and
(B) National Highways
complete in value chain is
Authority of India (NHAI)
(A) iron and steel industry
(B) textile industry (C) Border Roads Organization
(C) sugar industry
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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G-14. According to the Annual Report G-18. Select the correct option from
2016–2017, India ranks _____ the codes given below for the
in the world in International names used for slash and burn
Tourism. agriculture in different
(A) 2nd countries.
(B) 3rd Country Name of slash
and burn
(C) 4th agriculture
(D) More than one of the above a. Mexico 1. Roca
(E) None of the above b. Brazil 2. Milpa
c. Vietnam 3. Ladang
G-15. Alluvial soil is classified on the d. Indonesia 4. Ray
basis of its age. What is the Codes :
name given for new alluvial (A) a b c d
soil? 1 2 3 4
(A) Khadar (B) a b c d
(B) Bangar 4 3 2 1
(C) Marshy land (C) a b c d
2 1 4 3
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-16. Which of the following soils is G-19. Bhoodan-Gramdan Movement,
ideal for growing cotton? also known as the Bloodless
(A) Arid soil Revolution, was initiated by
(B) Alluvial soil (A) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Black soil (B) Sukya Bhuvesh
(D) More than one of the above (C) Sardar Patel
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-17. Which place in India receives
G-20. The sparkle in some toothpaste
the highest rainfall?
comes from which mineral?
(A) Srinagar
(A) Limestone
(B) Mawsynram (B) Silica
(C) Chennai (C) Mica
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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G-21. Which thermal power plant is G-24. Which of the following ports
present in Bihar? was first made after
Independence?
(A) Neyveli
(B) Talcher (A) Mangalore
(C) Barauni (B) Kandla
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Mumbai
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
G-22. _____ is a major power-
(E) None of the above
providing corporation in India
and it has ISO certification for
environment management G-25. The State of Jharkhand,
system 14001. Chattisgarh and Madhya
(A) NTPC Pradesh are rich in minerals
and _____ deposits.
(B) HAIL
(C) NHPC (A) coal
(D) More than one of the above (B) gold
(E) None of the above (C) silicon
G-23. Golden Quadrilateral Super (D) More than one of the above
Highways connect four major
cities in India to reduce time (E) None of the above
and distance. Which of the
following options includes the
G-26. Which of the following
cities?
countries is the world’s largest
(A) Delhi–Kolkata– producer of rice?
Chennai–Mumbai
(A) India
(B) Srinagar–Jaipur–
Chennai–Kolkata (B) China
(C) Delhi–Ahmedabad– (C) South Korea
Bengaluru–Lucknow
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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G-27. From which year was the G-30. Seine river flows through which
National Forest Policy city?
introduced in India?
(A) London
(A) 1952 (B) Paris
(C) Rome
(B) 1963
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 1978 (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
G-31. The major producer of the raw
jute in the world is
(E) None of the above
(A) India
(B) Bangladesh
G-28. What is the raw material from
(C) Scotland
which aluminium is extracted?
(D) More than one of the above
(A) Galena (E) None of the above
(B) Cuprite
G-32. In which State of India, iron ore
is not found?
(C) Bauxite
(A) Bihar
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(E) None of the above (C) Odisha
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
G-29. Where is Gobi Desert located?
(A) China G-33. Where is Southern Gangotri
located?
(B) Africa (A) Uttarakhand
(C) Southern Australia (B) Antarctica
(C) Himalaya
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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G-34. Which is the longest river in G-37. The largest coal producing
South America? nation in the world is
(A) India
(A) Nile
(B) USA
(B) Amazon
(C) China
(C) Mississippi (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
G-38. Which place is known as the
(E) None of the above
oldest oil storage in India?
(A) Bombay High, Maharashtra
G-35. Which State in India is the (B) Ankleshwar, Gujarat
largest producer of wheat?
(C) Navagaon, Gujarat
(A) Haryana (D) More than one of the above
(B) Punjab (E) None of the above
(C) Uttar Pradesh G-39. The largest producer of
aluminium in the world is
(D) More than one of the above
(A) France
(E) None of the above (B) India
(C) USA
G-36. Rio Earth Summit’s (1992) (D) More than one of the above
‘Agenda 21’ includes (E) None of the above
(A) environmental protection G-40. Where is Great Victoria Desert
situated?
(B) global sustainable
development (A) Australia
(B) India
(C) global peace
(C) Egypt
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–10 SS (S)/12-A 36
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PART—III
( ECONOMICS )
E-1. The important attribute E-4. The ‘tertiary sector’ of an
for comparing development economy is also called as
between countries is
(A) agriculture sector
(A) land
(B) service sector
(B) population (C) manufacturing sector
(C) income (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
E-5. Under MGNREGA 2005, how
many days of employment in
E-2. The average income is also a year are guaranteed by
known as the government for rural
unemployed?
(A) per capita income
(A) 200
(B) personal income
(B) 50
(C) national income
(C) 100
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
E-3. ‘Human Development Report’ is
E-6. What percentage of their
published by which of the
deposits is kept as cash by the
following organizations?
banks in India?
(A) UNDP
(A) 25%
(B) UNESCO (B) 15%
(C) WWF (C) 30%
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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E-7. Which among the following E-10. Which right does consumer
options defines the term have against unfair trade
‘globalization’ ? practices and exploitation?
(A) Rapid economic integration (A) Right to constitutional
among countries remedies
(B) Integration of cultures (B) Right to information
(C) Isolation among countries (C) Right against exploitation
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
E-8. In which year did the Indian E-11. Which Act was passed to
Government enact the empower its citizen to question
Consumer Protection Act the government about its
(COPRA)? functions?
(A) The RTE Act
(A) 1991
(B) The IT Act
(B) 1992
(C) The RTI Act
(C) 1986
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
E-12. Which MNC bought over small
E-9. National Consumer Day in Indian company ‘Parakh
India is observed on Foods’?
(A) 24th December (A) Lactalis
(B) 21st November (B) Cargill Foods
(C) 23rd May (C) MARS
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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E-13. Which of the following about E-16. Which of the following does not
MGNREGA Act is incorrect ? come under the terms of
credit?
(A) Right to work in about
625 districts of India (A) Interest rate
(B) 100 days of guaranteed (B) Collateral
employment in a year (C) Deposit
(C) It will not give an (D) More than one of the above
employment allowance if
(E) None of the above
the government fails
(D) More than one of the above E-17. Which of the following about
RBI is incorrect ?
(E) None of the above
(A) RBI can’t supervise the
E-14. Which of the following informal sector
countries has better human (B) RBI issues currency notes
development performance on behalf of the
according to data of 2016? government
(A) Bangladesh (C) RBI accepts deposits from
customers
(B) Sri Lanka
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Pakistan
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above E-18. The Indian Government took
steps to attract foreign
companies to invest in India by
E-15. _____ is the situation when
providing world-class facilities.
both parties have to agree to
What are these industrial zones
sell and buy each other’s
called?
commodities.
(A) SEZs (Special Economic
(A) Barter system
Zones)
(B) Marketing (B) IZs (Industrial Zones)
(C) Double coincidence of (C) PFZs (Provider Facility
wants Zones)
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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E-19. GDP is the total value of _____ E-23. The Committee of R. N.
produced during a particular Malhotra is related with
year. (A) sick industry
(A) all goods and services (B) tax reform
(B) all final goods and services (C) insurance sector
(C) all intermediate goods and (D) More than one of the above
services
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above E-24. Which officer is responsible
for controlling the government
E-20. In India, the Black Revolution spending?
is related with (A) RBI
(A) fisheries production (B) Planning Commission
(B) coal production (C) Finance Ministry
(C) crude oil production (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
E-25. The maximum foreign
currencies are gained by India
E-21. Which one is not cash crop in
in export of
India?
(A) iron
(A) Jute
(B) tea
(B) Peanut
(C) cotton
(C) Barley
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
E-26. Which one is not included in
E-22. What was the basis of the the ‘National Food Security
First Five-Year Plan in India? Mission’?
(A) Harrod-Domar model (A) Oilseeds
(B) Mahalanobis model (B) Wheat
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji model (C) Rice
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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E-27. When was ‘NITI Aayog’ started? E-31. The ‘Pradhan Mantri Kisan
(A) 1st January, 2014 Samman Nidhi Yojana’ was
started on
(B) 1st June, 2014
(A) 1st November, 2017
(C) 1st January, 2015
(B) 1st January, 2018
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 1st February, 2019
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
E-28. What is the name of the first (E) None of the above
indigenous anti-radiation
missile of India? E-32. By which institution is the
(A) Tandav poverty line determined?
(B) Trinetra (A) NSSO
(C) Saksham (B) NITI Aayog
(D) More than one of the above (C) RBI
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
E-29. India’s thirteenth main port is
going to be established in E-33. The Pink Revolution is related
(A) Kerala with
(B) Gujarat (A) onion production
(C) Maharashtra (B) fertilizer production
(D) More than one of the above (C) egg production
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
E-30. In India, in which year was Rail
Budget merged with General E-34. ‘Robinhood effect’ is related
Budget? with
(A) 2015 (A) income and consumption
(B) 2016 (B) income generation
(C) 2017 (C) income redistribution
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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E-35. In which economic programme E-38. In India, mixed economy was
does dairy industry stand? adopted in which Five-Year
Plan?
(A) Tertiary fields
(A) Fourth Five-Year Plan
(B) Primary fields
(B) Second Five-Year Plan
(C) Intermediate fields
(C) Third Five-Year Plan
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
E-36. From which country were the
E-39. ‘Open Market Operation’ is
Five-Year Plans taken in the
related with which policy?
Indian Constitution?
(A) Credit policy
(A) Russia
(B) Tariff policy
(B) England
(C) Commercial policy
(C) USA
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
E-40. In India, in which year,
E-37. Import-export tax on goods is nationalization of banks took
known as place?
(A) customs duty (A) 1950
(B) product duty (B) 1960
(C) VAT (C) 1969
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–10 SS (S)/12-A 48
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PART—III
( POLITICAL SCIENCE )
P-1. The Preamble of the P-4. The President exercises his/her
Constitution of India was powers on the advice of
borrowed from which country? (A) Council of Ministers
(B) the Supreme Court
(A) Japan
(C) Commander-in-Chief of
(B) Germany the Indian Army
(C) England (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above P-5. What does the anti-defection
law suggest?
(A) Regulation of internal
P-2. The States having largest
affairs
number of Lok Sabha
(B) Amended to prevent
Constituencies, in ascending
changing parties
order, are
(C) Compulsory to fill their
(A) Uttar Pradesh, Maha- income tax return
rashtra, West Bengal, (D) More than one of the above
Bihar (E) None of the above
(B) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, P-6. Who said, ‘‘Democracy is the
Maharashtra, West Bengal government of the people, for
(C) Maharashtra, Uttar the people, by the people’’?
Pradesh, West Bengal, (A) Adam Smith
Bihar (B) Abraham Lincoln
(D) More than one of the above (C) J. S. Mill
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
P-3. Why is democracy a better form P-7. Right to Education (RTE),
which came under effect on 1st
of Government?
April, 2010, comes under
(A) It is more accountable. which of the following
(B) It has improved quality of Fundamental Rights?
(A) Right to Equality
decision making.
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) It deals with differences
(C) Cultural and Educational
and conflicts.
Rights
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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P-8. The Fundamental Duties were P-11. The Supreme Court of India
included in the Constitution in came into existence on
1976 by which of the following (A) 15th August, 1947
Amendment Acts?
(B) 26th January, 1961
(A) 25th
(B) 38th (C) 2nd October, 1952
(C) 42nd (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above P-12. Consider the following about
the Lok Adalat :
P-9. Who among the following was
not a member of the 1. It is an inexpensive judicial
Constituent Assembly? service.
(A) Sarat Chandra Bose 2. It resolves disputes in
(B) Sarojini Naidu single hearing.
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 3. It provides speedy justice.
(D) More than one of the above 4. A retired judge chairs the
(E) None of the above Lok Adalat.
5. It is an apex court.
P-10. Which of the following are
incorrect about the money Select the correct answer using
bills? the codes given below.
1. It is related to financial (A) 2, 3, 4, 5
matters.
(B) 3, 4, 5
2. It can be introduced in the
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
Lok Sabha only.
3. It can be introduced in the (D) More than one of the above
Rajya Sabha only. (E) None of the above
4. Certificate from the
P-13. By which country of the world,
Speaker is required on its
was Apartheid followed as
nature.
an official policy between
Select the correct answer using 1948–1989?
the codes given below.
(A) South Africa
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) China
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 1, 3, 4 (C) USA
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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P-14. National Voters’ Day is P-17. Mandal Commission in its
celebrated every year on Report in 1980 recommended
_____ reservation in govern-
(A) 14th September
ment jobs to socially and
(B) 25th January educationally backward
(C) 5th June classes.
(D) More than one of the above (A) 27%
(E) None of the above (B) 22%
(C) 15%
P-15. What is incorrect about United
(D) More than one of the above
Nations Security Council?
(E) None of the above
(A) It is a 15-member Council
in which 5 are permanent
and 10 are elected by the P-18. Which Fundamental Right is
General Assembly for called ‘the heart and soul’ of
2 years. our Constitution?
(B) Each permanent member (A) Right to Equality
has veto power.
(B) Right to Freedom of
(C) IMF and World Bank are Religion
its funding agencies.
(C) Cultural and Educational
(D) More than one of the above Rights
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
P-16. Which of the following acts as a
counterweight to the electoral
malpractices? P-19. Which Right is specific to
minorities?
(A) Misuse of Government
machinery by ruling party (A) Right to Freedom of
Religion
(B) Excessive use of money to
intimidate voters (B) Right to Freedom
(C) Popular support enjoyed (C) Right to Constitutional
by a party/coalition Remedies
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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P-20. Which is not correct about the P-23. Which of the following is
Constituent Assembly? incorrect about power
(A) It had more than 300 sharing?
members. (A) Power is shared among
(B) Its first meeting was held different organs of the
in July 1946. government
(C) It adopted many details (B) Power can be shared
and procedures from the among the governments at
Act of 1935. different levels
(D) More than one of the above (C) Every society needs some
(E) None of the above form of power sharing even
if it is small or does not
have social divisions
P-21. Which of the following is not an
element of the Belgium model? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Brussels has one govern- (E) None of the above
ment in which both the
French- and Dutch-
P-24. Which of the following is
speaking communities will
have equal representation. included in the Concurrent
List?
(B) The State Government is
not subordinate to the (A) Forest
Central Government. (B) Agriculture
(C) Apart from the two
(C) Police
Governments, the third
kind of government is made (D) More than one of the above
‘community government’.
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above P-25. Which of the following
P-22. In which year was an Act countries has the least
passed to recognize Sinhala as participation of women in
the only official language in public life?
Sri Lanka?
(A) Sweden
(A) 1957
(B) Norway
(B) 1956
(C) 1960 (C) China
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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P-26. What does the Equal P-29. Which of the following roles is
Remuneration Act, 1976 not played by political parties?
provide? (A) They make laws for the
country
(A) Equal representation in
(B) One party supports to
politics
another for the formation
(B) Equal wages for all of government
genders (C) They can have the same
views and opinions on the
(C) Jobs recruitment for all
all issues
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
P-30. To become a State party, a
party has to secure at least
P-27. Mahatma Gandhi used to say ____ of the total votes in an
election to the Legislative
that _____ can never be
Assembly of a State.
separated from politics.
(A) 6%
(A) society (B) 8%
(C) 10%
(B) religion
(D) More than one of the above
(C) economy (E) None of the above
P-31. Which of the following
(D) More than one of the above
countries comes under the
(E) None of the above ‘coming together’ federation?
(A) Belgium
(B) Switzerland
P-28. Which of the following is true (C) Spain
about democracy? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Democracy often frustrates (E) None of the above
the needs and ignores the
P-32. What is called when power is
demands of people taken away from Central and
State Governments and given
(B) Democracy is corruption-
to local government?
less
(A) Decentralization
(C) Democracy is irregular (B) Centralization
(C) Departmentalization
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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P-33. When did the Black Power P-37. How much time was taken in
Movement emerge? framing the Constitution of
(A) 1975 India?
(B) 1966 (A) 5 years 10 months 12 days
(B) 3 years 9 months 18 days
(C) 1989
(C) 2 years 11 months 18 days
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
P-34. Which Article is related with
P-38. Who among the following is
the Indian Election Commis-
the first woman Speaker in the
sion in the Indian Constitu-
Lok Sabha?
tion?
(A) Pratibha Patil
(A) Article 324
(B) Urmila Singh
(B) Article 148
(C) Meira Kumar
(C) Article 342
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
P-39. When was the National
P-35. Article 300 of the Indian Human Rights Commission
Constitution is related with established?
(A) trials and proceedings (A) 1990
(B) government contracts (B) 1991
(C) Attorney Generals (C) 1992
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
P-40. Article 360 of the Constitution
P-36. How many times the President
of India empowers the
of India can be eligible for
President of India to proclaim
election for presidentship?
(A) Financial Emergency
(A) One time
(B) President’s rule
(B) Two times
(C) stopping Fundamental
(C) Three times Rights
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
17/MV/M–2023–10 SS (S)/12-A 60
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Bihar Public Service Commission
School Teacher Written (Objective) Competitive Examination (Advt. No. 26/2023)
Secondary Schools - Examination Date : 26.08.2023, 1 st Sitting
FINAL ANSWER KEY : General Studies and Social Science, Paper-3
Series-A Series-B Series-C Series-D Remarks
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 19 B 29 A 39 C
2 C 20 A 30 C 40 B
3 C 21 A 31 C 33 B
4 C 22 A 32 C 34 B
5 C 23 A 25 C 35 B
6 B 24 B 26 A 36 C
7 B 17 B 27 A 37 C
8 B 18 B 28 A 38 C
9 A 27 C 37 B 7 A
10 B 28 B 38 A 8 C
11 B 29 B 39 A 1 C
12 E 30 E 40 E 2 E
13 A 31 C 33 B 3 A
14 A 32 C 34 B 4 A
15 C 25 A 35 C 5 B
16 B 26 B 36 A 6 C
17 A 35 C 5 B 15 A
18 E 36 E 6 E 16 E
19 B 37 B 7 A 9 C
20 B 38 B 8 A 10 C
21 A 39 C 1 B 11 A
22 B 40 B 2 A 12 C
23 A 33 C 3 B 13 A
24 A 34 C 4 B 14 A
25 B 3 B 13 A 23 C
26 E 4 E 14 E 24 E
27 A 5 C 15 B 17 A
28 B 6 B 16 A 18 C
29 D 7 D 9 D 19 D
30 B 8 B 10 A 20 C
31 C 1 A 11 C 21 B
32 B 2 B 12 A 22 C
33 B 11 B 21 A 31 C
34 A 12 C 22 B 32 A
35 A 13 C 23 B 25 A
36 A 14 C 24 B 26 A
37 C 15 A 17 C 27 B
38 B 16 B 18 A 28 C
39 A 9 C 19 B 29 A
40 C 10 A 20 C 30 B
Text of page 2
-2- Series-A Series-B Series-C Series-D Remarks Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer H-1 C H-11 A H-21 C H-31 B H-2 C H-12 A H-22 C H-32 B H-3 A H-13 C H-23 B H-33 A H-4 E H-14 E H-24 E H-34 E H-5 E H-15 E H-25 E H-35 E H-6 A H-16 C H-26 B H-36 A H-7 A H-17 C H-27 B H-37 A H-8 A H-18 C H-28 B H-38 A H-9 E H-19 E H-29 E H-39 E H-10 E H-20 E H-30 E H-40 E H-11 E H-21 E H-31 E H-1 E H-12 B H-22 B H-32 A H-2 C H-13 E H-23 E H-33 E H-3 E H-14 C H-24 A H-34 C H-4 B H-15 C H-25 A H-35 C H-5 B H-16 B H-26 B H-36 A H-6 C H-17 B H-27 B H-37 A H-7 C H-18 E H-28 E H-38 E H-8 E H-19 A H-29 C H-39 B H-9 A H-20 C H-30 A H-40 C H-10 B H-21 A H-31 C H-1 B H-11 A H-22 C H-32 A H-2 C H-12 B H-23 A H-33 C H-3 B H-13 A H-24 C H-34 A H-4 C H-14 B H-25 E H-35 E H-5 E H-15 E H-26 B H-36 B H-6 A H-16 C H-27 E H-37 E H-7 E H-17 E H-28 B H-38 B H-8 A H-18 C H-29 A H-39 C H-9 B H-19 A H-30 C H-40 A H-10 C H-20 B H-31 B H-1 B H-11 A H-21 C H-32 B H-2 B H-12 A H-22 C H-33 B H-3 B H-13 A H-23 C H-34 B H-4 B H-14 A H-24 C H-35 E H-5 E H-15 E H-25 E H-36 C H-6 A H-16 C H-26 B H-37 A H-7 C H-17 B H-27 A H-38 A H-8 C H-18 B H-28 A H-39 C H-9 A H-19 C H-29 B H-40 B H-10 B H-20 A H-30 C G-1 D G-10 D G-20 D G-30 D G-2 A G-11 C G-21 B G-31 A G-3 D G-12 D G-22 D G-32 D G-4 A G-13 C G-23 B G-33 A G-5 E G-14 E G-24 E G-34 E
Text of page 3
-3-
Series-A Series-B Series-C Series-D Remarks
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
G-6 A G-15 C G-25 B G-35 A
G-7 D G-16 D G-26 D G-36 D
G-8 A G-17 C G-27 B G-37 A
G-9 B G-18 B G-28 A G-38 C
G-10 B G-19 B G-29 A G-39 C
G-11 A G-20 C G-30 B G-40 A
G-12 E G-21 E G-31 E G-1 E
G-13 B G-22 B G-32 A G-2 C
G-14 E G-23 E G-33 E G-3 E
G-15 A G-24 C G-34 B G-4 A
G-16 C G-25 A G-35 C G-5 B
G-17 B G-26 B G-36 A G-6 C
G-18 C G-27 A G-37 C G-7 B
G-19 A G-28 C G-38 B G-8 A
G-20 C G-29 A G-39 C G-9 B
G-21 C G-30 A G-40 C G-10 B
G-22 A G-31 C G-1 B G-11 A
G-23 A G-32 C G-2 B G-12 A
G-24 B G-33 B G-3 A G-13 C
G-25 A G-34 C G-4 B G-14 A
G-26 B G-35 B G-5 A G-15 C
G-27 A G-36 C G-6 B G-16 A
G-28 C G-37 A G-7 C G-17 B
G-29 A G-38 C G-8 B G-18 A
G-30 B G-39 B G-9 A G-19 C
G-31 A G-40 C G-10 B G-20 A
G-32 A G-1 C G-11 B G-21 A
G-33 B G-2 B G-12 A G-22 C
G-34 B G-3 B G-13 A G-23 C
G-35 C G-4 A G-14 C G-24 B
G-36 D G-5 D G-15 D G-25 D
G-37 C G-6 A G-16 C G-26 B
G-38 E G-7 E G-17 E G-27 E
G-39 E G-8 E G-18 E G-28 E
G-40 A G-9 C G-19 B G-29 A
E-1 C E-9 A E-21 C E-31 B
E-2 A E-10 C E-22 B E-32 A
E-3 A E-11 C E-23 B E-33 A
E-4 B E-12 B E-24 A E-34 C
E-5 C E-13 A E-25 C E-35 B
E-6 B E-14 B E-26 A E-36 C
E-7 A E-15 C E-27 B E-37 A
E-8 C E-16 A E-28 C E-38 B
E-9 A E-17 C E-29 B E-39 A
E-10 E E-18 E E-30 E E-40 E
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-4- Series-A Series-B Series-C Series-D Remarks Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer E-11 C E-19 A E-31 C E-1 B E-12 B E-20 B E-32 A E-2 C E-13 C E-21 A E-33 C E-3 B E-14 B E-22 B E-34 A E-4 C E-15 C E-23 A E-35 C E-5 B E-16 C E-24 A E-36 C E-6 B E-17 C E-25 A E-37 C E-7 B E-18 A E-26 C E-38 B E-8 A E-19 B E-27 B E-39 A E-9 C E-20 C E-28 A E-40 C E-10 B E-21 C E-29 A E-1 C E-11 B E-22 A E-30 C E-2 B E-12 A E-23 C E-31 A E-3 C E-13 B E-24 C E-32 A E-4 C E-14 B E-25 C E-33 A E-5 C E-15 B E-26 A E-34 C E-6 B E-16 A E-27 C E-35 A E-7 C E-17 B E-28 E E-36 E E-8 E E-18 E E-29 C E-37 A E-9 C E-19 B E-30 C E-38 A E-10 C E-20 B E-31 C E-39 A E-11 C E-21 B E-32 B E-40 B E-12 A E-22 C E-33 A E-1 C E-13 B E-23 A E-34 C E-2 A E-14 C E-24 B E-35 B E-3 B E-15 A E-25 C E-36 A E-4 C E-16 B E-26 A E-37 A E-5 C E-17 B E-27 A E-38 B E-6 B E-18 A E-28 C E-39 E E-7 E E-19 E E-29 E E-40 C E-8 A E-20 C E-30 B P-1 E P-11 E P-21 E P-32 E P-2 E P-12 E P-22 E P-33 E P-3 D P-13 D P-23 D P-34 D P-4 A P-14 C P-24 B P-35 A P-5 B P-15 B P-25 A P-36 C P-6 B P-16 B P-26 A P-37 C P-7 B P-17 B P-27 A P-38 C P-8 C P-18 A P-28 C P-39 B P-9 E P-19 E P-29 E P-40 E P-10 E P-20 E P-30 E P-1 E P-11 E P-21 E P-31 E P-2 E P-12 C P-22 A P-32 C P-3 B P-13 A P-23 C P-33 B P-4 A P-14 B P-24 B P-34 A P-5 C P-15 C P-25 A P-35 C P-6 B
Text of page 5
-5-
Series-A Series-B Series-C Series-D Remarks
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
P-16 D P-26 D P-36 D P-7 D
P-17 A P-27 C P-37 B P-8 A
P-18 E P-28 E P-38 E P-9 E
P-19 E P-29 E P-39 E P-10 E
P-20 B P-30 B P-40 A P-11 C
P-21 E P-31 E P-1 E P-12 E
P-22 B P-32 B P-2 A P-13 C
P-23 E P-33 E P-3 E P-14 E
P-24 A P-34 C P-4 B P-15 A
P-25 C P-35 A P-5 C P-16 B
P-26 B P-36 B P-6 A P-17 C
P-27 B P-37 B P-7 A P-18 C
P-28 A P-38 C P-8 B P-19 A
P-29 D P-39 D P-9 D P-20 D
P-30 B P-40 B P-10 A P-21 C
P-31 B P-1 B P-11 A P-22 C
P-32 A P-2 C P-12 B P-23 A
P-33 B P-3 B P-13 A P-24 C
P-34 A P-4 C P-14 B P-25 A
P-35 A P-5 C P-15 B P-26 A
P-36 E P-6 E P-16 E P-27 E
P-37 C P-7 A P-17 C P-28 B
P-38 C P-8 A P-18 C P-29 B
P-39 E P-9 E P-19 E P-30 E
P-40 A P-10 C P-20 B P-31 A
**** H – History, E – Economics, G – Geography, P – Political Science ****Page 1 of 64
Source: Bihar Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Bihar Public Service Commission.