Bihar Secondary Teacher 2024: TRE 3.0, Class 9 to 10, Social Science
Text of page 1
12/MAV/M-2024-10 Booklet Series
Candidate’s Roll Number
E Serial No.
Question Booklet
LANGUAGE, GENERAL STUDIES AND SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed : 2:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet contains questions of Language (Qualifying), General Studies and Social Science
which includes History, Geography, Economics and Political Science subject. Choose the questions from any
two subjects out of four subjects of Social Science. At least one subject History OR Geography is mandatory.
2. Part–I, Language (Qualifying) consists of Question Nos. 1 to 30. In Part–I, English Language consists of
Question Nos. E-1 to E-8 (common for all), Hindi Language consists of Question Nos. H-9 to H-30, Urdu
Language consists of Question Nos. U-9 to U-30 and Bengali Language consists of Question Nos. B-9 to B-30
(Students are required to choose the questions from any one language out of three languages). Part-II consists
of Question Nos. 31 to 70 and Part-III, History consists of Question Nos. H-1 to H-40, Part-III, Geography
consists of Quetions Nos. G-1 to G-40, Part-III, Economics consists of Question Nos. E-1 to E-40 and Part-III,
Political Science consists of Question Nos. P-1 to P-40. (the questions and their responses are printed in
English and Hindi versions both of Part-II and Part-III)
3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. An Answer Sheet has been supplied inside the question booklet to mark the answers. You must write your Roll
Number and other particulars in the space provided in the Answer Sheet, failing which your Answer Sheet will
not be evaluated.
5. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check up your Question Booklet and
attached answer sheet and ensure that the Question Booklet Series is printed on the top right - hand corner of
the Booklet and the series encoded in answer sheet are same. Also please check that the Booklet contains 64
printed pages including two pages (Page Nos. 62 and 63) for Rough Work and no page or question is missing
or unprinted or torn or repeated or question booklet and answer sheet have different series. If you find any
defect in this Booklet, get it replaced immediately by a complete Booklet with OMR sheet of the same series.
6. You must write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page. Do not write anything else on
the Question Booklet.
7. Each question comprises of Five responses–(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You are to select ONLY ONE correct
response and mark it in your Answer Sheet. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct responses
marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
8. In the Answer Sheet, there are Five circles– A , B , C , D and E against each question. To answer the
questions, you are to mark with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen ONLY ONE circle of your choice for each
question. Select only one response for each question and mark it in your Answer Sheet. If you mark more than
one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong. Use Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen only to
mark the answer in the Answer Sheet. Any erasure or change is not allowed.
9. If there is any sort of mistake either of printing or of factual nature, then out of English and Hindi versions of the
questions, the English version will be treated as standard.
10. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from the Question Booklet. You are not allowed to take this
Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the examination. After the
examination has concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Thereafter, you are
permitted to take away the Question Booklet with you.
11. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or penalty as the
Commission may decide at their discretion.
12. Candidates must assure before leaving the Examination Hall that their Answer Sheets will be kept in Self
Adhesive LDPE Bag and completely packed/sealed in their presence.
310 ܶmZ X| : AZwXoem| H$m {hÝXr ê$nmÝVa Bg nwpñVH$m Ho$ ApÝV‘ n¥ð> na N>nm h¡&
Text of page 2
PART - I
(English Language)
Directions (Q. Nos. E-1 to E-5) Read the passage E-4. When did Amitabh got recognition as a movie
given below and answer the questions that follow : star in India?
(A) 1966
Amitabh Bachchan, popularly known as big B, was (B) 1969
born in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh on 11 October 1942.
(C) 1973
He is an iconic actor whose career in Indian Cinema
(D) More than one of the above
has spanned four decades. His father H.R. Bachchan
(E) None of the above
was a well-known Hindi poet. (Bachchan is actually
his father’s pen name but has now become the family E-5. Which film of the following is Amitabh’s first
surname) Amitabh attended boys’ High School in film?
Allahabad, followed by Sherwood College in (A) ‘Zanjeer’
Nainital and earned a degree in science from Delhi (B) ‘Abhiman’
university. His first film was ‘Saat Hindustani’(1969). (C) ‘Saat Hindustani’
He became well-known as a movie star in 1973 (D) More than one of the above
after the success of ‘Abhimaan’ and ‘Zanjeer’ which (E) None of the above
was followed by his box office successes such as
‘Sholay’ ‘Amar Akbar Anthony’, ‘Trishul’, ‘Don’ Directions (Q. Nos. E-6 and E-7) : Fill in the blanks
and “Deewar’. He often played the role of an angry with suitable articles like ‘a’ ‘an’ ‘the’ :
young man fighting a corrupt establishment, a theme E-6. The shadow of moon fills on ______ Earth.
that had tremendous appeal in India at that time. (A) an
E-1. Which city is the birth place of Amitabh in (B) a
India? (C) the
(A) Bombay (D) More than one of the above
(B) Delhi (E) None of the above
(C) Bangalore
E-7. I have always wanted to study abroad, not
(D) More than one of the above
only for ____ degree but also for the
(E) None of the above
experience.
E-2. How long has Amitabh Bachchan dominated (A) an
Indian Cinema? (B) a
(A) Three decades (C) the
(B) Four decades (D) More than one of the above
(C) Two decades (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above E-8. First May 2024 is Wednesday, what day of
the week would be 9th of May?
E-3. From which university did Amitabh earn his (A) Friday
degree in science?
(B) Thursday
(A) Aligarh Muslim University
(C) Monday
(B) Banaras Hindu University
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Punjab University
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 2
Text of page 6
(Urdu Language)
.U-12
19384
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) 1953
.U-13
(A)
U-14 U-9
(B)
(C)
.U-9
(D)
(A)
(E) (B)
(C)
1953 .U-14
(D)
(E)
(A)
.U-10
(B)
(A)
(C) (B)
(D) (C)
(D)
(E)
(E)
.U-11
1941 15
(A)
1999 35
(B)
(C)
(D)
1964 (E)
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 6
Text of page 7
.U-18 (2001) 1967 :"(1977)
(A)
1988
(B)
(C)
(D) 1988 1955
(E) 2004
1998 .U-19
(A) U-20 U-15
(B)
(C) .U-15
(D)
(A)
(E)
(B)
.U-20 (C)
(A) (D)
(B) (E)
(C)
(D)
.U-16
(E)
(A)
.U-21 (B)
(C)
(A) (D)
(B)
(E)
(C)
(D)
(E) .U-17
(A)
.U-22 (B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(D) (E)
(E)
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 7 [P.T.O.
Text of page 8
.U-27 .U-23
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
(E)
(E)
.U-28
.U-24
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(D)
(E)
.U-29
(A) .U-25
(B) (A)
(C) (B)
(D) (C)
(E) (D)
(E)
.U-30
.U-26
(A)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(E)
(D)
(E)
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 8
Text of page 10
B-18. òòl# + ”†þéŸélyëû†þóó韟Ÿé~‡yöìl ²Ì•þÄëûîm* òòlyëû†þóó B-20. ö˜î#öì˜îû ôöì™Ä ö¤ylyîû æþ¡ !löìÇþþ› †þöìîûl
¢·!Øþöì•þ ߺöìîûîû öëéŸéþ›!îûî•þÅl ‰öìØþöìSé •þyöì†þ î¡y (A) ~†þ †þ¡¥†þy!îû”# ˜ylî#
ëyëû韟Ÿé (B) ~†þ ö˜î†þlÄy
(A) =” (C) öíö줡#
(B) î,!m*
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(C) ¤Á±¤yîû”
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
B-21. ö˜î†%þöì¡îû ¥zw ¥öì¡lé ŸŸŸé
òò@ýÌ#†þ ö˜öì¢îû ~†þ x‚öì¢îû lyô öíö줡#Ð ö¤¥z (A) ?%Ĥ
îûyöì?Äîû ë%îîûy? !þ›¡%Äöì¤îû öíØþ#¤ä lyÁ¬# ¤yˆîû¤½þîy (B) xyöìíl
~†þ ö˜î#îû ¤!¥•þ þ›!îû”ëû ¥ëûÐ öíØþ#¤ä ö˜îöìëy!l– (C) ¥#îû#
¤%•þîûy‚ •þy¥yîû !îîy¥éŸé¤ôyöìîûyöì¥ ¤†þ¡ ö˜îéŸéö˜î# (D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
!lô!sf•þ ¥¥zëûy îûy?!löì†þ•þöìl xy!îè)þÅ•þ ¥öìëûl (E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
!îîy˜öì˜î# lyÁ¬# †þ¡¥†þy!îû”# ~†þ ö˜î†þlÄy xy¥*•þ
ly ¥Gëûyöì•þ ô¥yöìîûy£ìyöìîöì¢ !îîy˜ ’þzþ›!ßi•þ †þ!îûîyîû B-22. ö¤ylyîû æþ¡ !löìëû !îîy˜ öî„öì™!Sé¡
ôylöì¤ ~†þ xq$•þ ö†þ †þöìîûlÐ xíÅyê ~†þØþ# (A) ¢‹þ#éŸéîû!•þéŸé¤îûߺ•þ#îû ôöì™Ä
ߺ”Åæþöì¡– öë îû*öìþ› ¤öìîîÅyê†,þÜTy– ö¤¥z ~ æþöì¡îû (B) öíØþy¤!îîy˜öì˜î#éŸé¥#îû#îû ôöì™Ä
²Ì†,þ•þ x!™†þy!îû”#– ~¥z †þöìëû†þØþy †þíy !¡!‡ëûy (C) ¥#îû#éŸéxöì²Ìy˜#•þ#éŸéöíØþ#öì¤îû ôöì™Ä
ö˜î#˜öì¡îû ô™Äßiöì¡ !löìÇþþ› †þöìîûlÐ ¥#îû# ?%Äöì¤îû (D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
þ›b# xíÅyê ö˜î†)þöì¡îû ¥zwyl# ¢‹þ#— xyöìíl#– (E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
Kþylöì˜î# xíÅyê ¤îûߺ•þ# ~î‚ xöì²Ìy˜#•þ#– ö²Ìôöì˜î#
xíÅyê îû!•þ– ~¥z !•þl?öìlîû ôöì™Ä ~¥z æþöì¡yþ›¡öìÇþ B-23. ö×Ûþ ¤%r˜îû# !l”Åöìëûîû èþyîû þ›öì’þü!Sé¡éŸŸŸé
!î£ìô !îîy˜ ‰!Øþëûy ’þz!‘þöì¡ •þy¥yîûy {’þy þ›îÅöì•þ (A) ßñr˜öìîûîû ’þzþ›îû
îûy?lr˜l ßñr˜öìîûîû !l†þØþ ’þzþ›!ßi•þ ¥¥zöì¡l– ~î‚ (B) !þ›¡%Äöì¤îû ’þzþ›îû
•þê¤!§¬™yöìl xyöì˜Äyþ›yhsý ¤ôhßì î,_yhsý î”Ål †þ!îûëûy (C) {’þyîû îûy?yîû ’þzþ›îû
•þ„y¥yöì†þ¥z ~ !î£ìöìëû !löì”Å•þy !ßiîû †þ!îûöì¡lÐó (D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
B-19. !îîy¥ ’þzþ›¡öìÇþ ö˜îöì˜î#îûy ’þzþ›!ßi•þ ¥l韟Ÿé
B-24. òò!îîy¥éŸé¤ôy¥yîûóó þ›˜!Øþé韟Ÿé
(A) ö˜î¤èþyëû (A) ë%_«þ›˜
(B) öíö줡yîû ˆ,öì¥ (B) ¤ôhßìþ›˜
(C) !þ›¡%Äöì¤îû ˆ,öì¥ (C) öëï!ˆ†þ þ›˜
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 10
Text of page 11
òlyîû# xyîû þ›%îû&£ì !ô!¡öìëû öëéŸé¤yô!@ý̆þ ôyl%£ì– B-26. þ›%îûyöì” •þöìþ›yèþDéŸé†þy!¥!lîû ô)öì¡ öëéŸé˜,!ÜTèþ!D
•þyîû¥z ™ôÅöì†þ îûî#wlyí îöì¡öìSél òòôyl%öì£ìîû ™ôÅóóÐ !e«ëûy¢#¡é韟Ÿé
xí‹þ !‘þ†þ ~îû ’þz¡öìØþy †þíy¥z îà ë%ˆ ™öìîû (A) þ›%îû&öì£ìîû !‹þ_¢!_«öì†þ lyîû# þ›îûy!?•þ †þîûöìSé
xy®îyöì†þÄîû ôëÅy˜y öþ›öìëû ~öì¤öìSé: !‹þ_¢!_«îû (B) þ›%îû&öì£ìîû ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ lyîû# þ›îûy!?•þ †þîûöìSé
¤Á›˜ þ›%îû&öì£ìîû– xyîû lyîû# ²Ìy”¢!_«îû ²Ì!•þôyÐ (C) lyîû#îû !‹þ_¢!_« !?öì•þ ëyöìFSé
÷?î²Ì†,þ!•þîû ¢y¤l ¡A‰l †þöìîû þ›%îû&öì£ìîû ²Ìô%_« (D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
!‹þ_¢!_« öëéŸé˜%?Åëû •þþ›¤Äy Öîû& †þöìîû– •þyöì†þ îyöìîû (E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
îyöìîû þ›îû&Ęhßì G þ›îûyè)þ•þ †þöìîû ²Ì†,þ!•þîû ˜)•þ#
²Ìy”¢!_«îû * þ›y lyîû # Ð þ›% î û y öì ” þ›% l îû y î, _ B-27. òò!‹þ_¢!_«óó þ›˜!Øþîû îÄy¤îy†þÄ韟Ÿé
•þöìþ›yèþBþyéŸé†þy!¥l#îû ô)öì¡ ~¥z !îöì¢£ì ˜,!ÜTèþ!D¥z (A) !‹þöì_îû ¢!_«
!e«ëûy¢#¡Ð !†þv þ›%îû&öì£ìîû ¤öìD !‹þ_¢!_«îû xyîû (B) !‹þ_ îû*þ› ¢!_«
lyîû#îû ¤öìD ²Ìy”¢!_«îû ~¥z ¤ô#†þîû”!Øþöì†þ îûî#wlyí (C) ëy !‹þ_ •þy¥z ¢!_«
ö†þyöìly!˜l¥z ‹)þ’þüyhsýèþyöìî ߺ#†þyîû †þöìîûl !lÐ (D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
ôylî¤_yîû !èþ§¬ !èþ§¬ ’þzþ›†þîû”öì†þ ‹þ!îûey!ëû•þ †þöìîû (E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
ë‡l ÷•þ!îû ¥¡ þ›yMéþöìèþï!•þ†þ ¤èþy •þ‡l lyîû#‹þ!îûe
˜#!®îû ôöì™Ä¥z ¢y!”•þ ¥öìëû ’þz‘þ¡ !‹þ_¢!_«îû ²ÌyíņþÄÐ B-28. lî#lôy™î ‹þ!îûe!Øþ öëéŸéîû‹þlyëû xyöìSé ŸŸŸé
¤î%?þ›e þ›îÅ öíöì†þ Öîû& †þöìîû îûî#wlyöìíîû x!Bþ•þ (A) ’þzþ›lÄyöì¤
lyîû#‹þ!îûöìe !‹þ_¢!_«îû ~¥z ²Ìyí†ÅþÄ¥z ’þz_öìîûy_îû (B) ²Ìîöì¦þ
î,!m* öþ›öìëûöìSéÐ ‹þ•%þîûDéŸéîû ˜y!ôl#– !•þl ¤D#éŸéîû (C) öSéyöìØþy ˆöìÒ
!îèþy G x!‹þîûy ~î‚ òòî˜lyôóó ˆöìÒîû ö¤ï˜y!ôl# (D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
lyöìôîû !˜öì†þ ~¥z ²Ì¤öìD ˜,!ÜT ö˜Gëûy ²Ìöìëûy?lÐ (E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
x!‹þîûy lyöìôîû •þyêþ›ëÅ îÄy‡Äy †þöìîû lî#lôy™î
B-29. îûî#wlyöìíîû †þ!îèþy£ìyëû òòôy™%ëÅóó î¡öì•þ öîyVþyöìly
îöì¡öìSé– òëyîû ²Ì†þy¢ ¥öì•þ !î¡Áº ¥¡ ly– !î˜%Äöì•þîû
¥öìëûöìSé ŸŸŸé
ôöì•þyÐó ˜y!ôl#– !îèþy xyîû ö¤ï˜y!ôl#îû lyôîû*öìþ›G
(A) lyîû#îû ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
ö¤¥z ‹þ!†þ•þéŸéxyöì¡yîû ˜#!® !îFS%é!îû•þÐ lyîû#!‹þöì_îû
(B) þ›%îû&öì£ìîû !‹þ_¢!_«öì†þ
~¥z xyöì¡y îûî#wlyöìíîû †þ!îèþy£ìyëû òòôy™%ëÅóó ~¥z
(C) lyîû#îû !‹þ_¢!_« G ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
òòôy™%ëÅóóöì†þ îûî#wlyí òò¡y!¡•þÄóó öíöì†þ þ›,í†þ
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
†þöìîû !löìëûöìSélÐó
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
B-25. òòôyl%öì£ìîû ™ôÅóó î¡öì•þ îûî#wlyí öîyöìVþl韟Ÿé
B-30. òò¡y!¡•þÄóó ¢·!Øþîû î%Äêþ›!_ !lÁ¬îû*þ›é ŸŸŸé
(A) lyîû#éŸéþ›%îû&öì£ìîû !ô!¡•þ xy™Äy!d†þ ¤y™ly
(A) ¡!¡•þ + £ìøþÄ
(B) þ›%îû&öì£ìîû !‹þ_¢!_« G ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
(B) ¡!¡•þ + ëê
(C) lyîû#éŸéþ›%îû&öì£ìîû !ô!¡•þ ¤yô!@ý̆þ ÷î!¢ÜTÄöì†þ
(C) ¡y!¡•þä + ë
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 11 [P.T.O.
Text of page 12
PART - II
(GENERAL STUDIES)
31. A player makes 7 complete revolutions of a 3
circular path to complete a race of 2200 2
35. By what number should be divided
metres. The radius of the circular path is : 3
22 4
2
so that the quotient is ?
7 9
(A) 42 metres
2
(B) 45 metres (A)
3
(C) 50 metres
(D) More than one of the above 2
(B)
(E) None of the above 3
3
32. If the capacity of a cylindrical tank is 1848 m3 (C)
2
and the diameter of its base is 14 m, the depth (D) More than one of the above
22 (E) None of the above
of the tank is :
7
1
(A) 8 m 36. If x 5 , what is the value of x 4 14 ?
x x
(B) 12 m (A) 525
(C) 16 m (B) 527
(D) More than one of the above (C) 529
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
1 th 37. A bag contains 5-rupee, 2-rupee and 1-rupee
33. If of a number is 30, what will be 62% of
8 coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The total value of all
that number? the coins is N2,000. How many coins of
(A) 181.3 2-rupee are there in the bag?
(B) 178.24 (A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 148.8
(C) 400
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
34. The salary of an officer is increased by 25%. 38. The interior angle of a regular polygon exceeds
By what percent should the new salary be its exterior angle by 108º. How many sides
decreased to restore the original salary? does the polygon have?
(A) 10
(A) 25
(B) 9
(B) 22.5
(C) 8
(C) 20 (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 12
Text of page 14
39. Zinc Oxide is normally used in the 44. Velocity of sound at 15ºC and 380mm
manufacture of pressure is 340m. sec–1. If the pressure is
(A) Paints doubled without change of temperature, the
(B) Explosives velocity of sound would become
(C) Solvents (A) 680m. sec–1
(D) More than one of the above (B) 170m. sec–1
(E) None of the above (C) 190m. sec
(D) 340m. sec–1
(E) None of the above
40. Lenz’s law is derived from the law of
conservation of
(A) Magnetism 45. If a bacterium cell divides in every 15 min,
(B) Momentum how many bacteria will be formed in 2 hours.
(C) Charge (A) 8
(D) More than one of the above (B) 16
(C) 64
(E) None of the above
(D) 256
(E) None of the above
41. Glycogen stored in liver and muscles of human
body is in form of
(A) Monosaccharide 46. Plants and animal cell differ in which of the
following structure?
(B) Polysaccharide
(A) Enzymes
(C) Protein
(B) Nuclei
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Cell wall
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
42. In which of the following blood has defective
haemoglobin?
47. According to the recent report of forbes,
(A) Haematoma
which is the strongest currency in the world?
(B) Sickle cell Anaemia
(A) Omani Rial
(C) Haemophilia (B) Kuwaiti Dinar
(D) More than one of the above (C) Bahrain Dinar
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
43. In which of the following medicine production,
ethyl alcohol can be used? 48. In which city of Maharashtra did PM
(A) Antiseptic Narendra Modi launch 8 AMRUT projects?
(B) Antipyretic (A) Kollam
(C) Anti-allergic (B) Baroda
(D) More than one of the above (C) Solapur
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 14
Text of page 16
49. IIT Madras has tied up with whom to launch 54. India has acquired the right to operate the
e Mobility Simulation Lab? foreign Sittwe Port, it is in which country?
(A) Altair (A) Sri Lanka
(B) Starlink (B) Bangladesh
(C) Myanmar
(C) Farber Speciality Lab
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
55. Mangrove forest of Ganga Delta is called
50. Who won the Best Actor Award at the (A) Sunderban
Academy Awards 2024 (Oscars)? (B) Sundergarh
(A) Dwayne Johnson (C) Surendranagar
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Cillian Murphy
(E) None of the above
(C) Tom Cruise
(D) More than one of the above 56. Which river is frequently changing its course
(E) None of the above of flow in Bihar
(A) Gandak
(B) Kosi
51. Who was recently selected as the ICC (C) Punpun
Women’s T20i Cricketer of the year 2023? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Smriti Mandhana (India) (E) None of the above
(B) Nat Seiver - Brunt (England)
(C) Hayley Mathews (West Indies) 57. Plant roots gets water from soil as -
(A) Bound water
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Hygroscopic water
(E) None of the above (C) Capillary water
(D) More than one of the above
52. Who was Crowned Miss World 2024 in (E) None of the above
Mumbai?
58. How much equatorial diameter is larger than
(A) Miss Czech Kristina Pishkova
polar diameter?
(B) Miss India Sini Shetty (A) 36 km
(C) Miss Lebanon Yasmina Zaytoun (B) 43 km
(D) More than one of the above (C) 49 km
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
53. In which country will the clean Energy Investor 59. The Indian Standard Time (IST) is taken at
Forum be organised by IPEF? which longitude -
(A) France (A) 82.5º E
(B) Singapore (B) 78.5º E
(C) Spain (C) 87.5º E
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 16
Text of page 18
60. In India ‘Green revolution’ is known to credit 66. Who intervened in a dispute between the
to whom? workers and mill owners of Ahmedabad in
(A) Dr. V. Kurian 1918?
(B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (A) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Sri. S.L. Bahuguna (B) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) More than one of the above (C) Jamshedji Tata
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
61. Highest Mountain peak of India is known as
(A) Everest 67. Name the left-wing leader of Bihar Provincial
(B) Kanchenjunga Kisan Sabha who popularised this in Bihar?
(C) K-2 (A) Karyanand Sharma
(D) More than one of the above (B) Wadhwa Ram
(E) None of the above (C) P.C. Joshi
(D) More than one of the above
62. Indian continent was earlier part of (E) None of the above
(A) Gondwanaland
(B) Tethys 68. Muddiman Committee was appointed to
(C) Pangea report on the working of the
(D) More than one of the above (A) Dyarchy
(E) None of the above (B) Communal representation
(C) Federalism
63. Who led the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Tatya Tope (E) None of the above
(B) Kunwar Singh
(C) Nana Saheb 69. “He was a great unifier in India who taught
(D) More than one of the above us not only bare tolerance of others but the
(E) None of the above willing acceptance of them as our friends and
comrades in common undertakings” who
64. The spiritual side of nationalism was voiced said it?
by (A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (B) Balgangadhar Tilak
(B) Swami Shraddhanand (C) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Swami Vivekananda (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
70. Who proceeded to organise the Provisional
65. Which newspaper propagated strong Government of Free India outside the
nationalist views during India’s freedom country?
struggle? (A) Raja Mahendra Pratap
(A) Pioneer (B) Rash Behari Bose
(B) Amrit Bazar Patrika (C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) Statesman (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 18
Text of page 20
PART - III
(HISTORY)
H-1. In which phase of History the Harappan H-6. Who has the credit to initiate Ashoka in
Civilization can be kept? Buddhism?
(A) Pre-History (A) Nigrodh
(B) Proto - History (B) Upagupta
(C) History (C) Moggaliputta Tissa
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-2. At which river bank the Indus Valley site H-7. In which year of his reign Ashoka visited
Sutkagendor is situated? Bodh Gaya?
(A) Ravi (A) 8 th
(B) Jhelum (B) 9th
(C) Dashak (C) 10th
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-8. In which Minor Rock Edict, Ashoka
H-3. In which state of India ‘Hulas’ the Indus
expressed his belief in Triratna-Buddha,
Valley site is situated?
Dhamma and Sangha?
(A) Haryana
(A) Bhabru
(B) Rajasthan
(B) Gurjara
(C) Gujarat
(C) Maski
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-4. From which name Chandragupta Maurya
has been described in Greece literature? H-9. In Mauryan Administration, how many
villages come under ‘Sangrahan’?
(A) Antigonus
(A) 100
(B) Antiochus
(C) Sandrocottus (B) 50
(D) More than one of the above (C) 10
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
H-5. Which Greece writer has described that
Ariyana State was given to Chandragupta H-10. How many types of spy are mentioned in
Maurya in the marriage? Kautilya’s Arthashastra?
(A) Strabo (A) 2
(B) Justin (B) 3
(C) Plutarch (C) 4
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 20
Text of page 22
H-11. Who was responsible to do examine of H-16. According to Chinese writer in which year
coins during Mauryan period? Harsha Adopted the title of Magadhraj’?
(A) Laxana adhyaksha (A) 640
(B) Sannidhata (B) 641
(C) Rupadarshaka (C) 642
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-17. According to Huen-Tsang at which place
H-12. From which Hindi month the financial year
in Bihar Harsha built a monastry (vihar)
of the Mauryan administration started?
of Copper?
(A) Chaitram
(A) Bodh Gaya
(B) Ashadam (B) Rajgir
(C) Pushyami (C) Nalanda
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-13. Who constructed some Guha-Vihars at H-18. How many months Huen-Tsang stayed and
Nagarjuni hills during Mauryan age? studied at Nalanda?
(A) Ashoka (A) 14
(B) Dashrath (B) 18
(C) Sampriti (C) 28
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-14. Who wrote Aihole Inscription which H-19. Who was the founder of Nalanda
describes about the conflict of Harsha and University in the Gupta Period?
Pulakeshin - II? (A) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(A) Ravikirti (B) Samudra Gupta
(B) Vatsabhatti (C) Ram Gupta
(C) Vasul (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-20. Which Chola ruler defeated Sri Lanka
H-15. Who was the commander in chief of ruler Mahindra V on his land for the first
Harshavardhan, that encouraged him to get time?
throne? (A) Rajaraja I
(A) Sharabhketu (B) Rajaraja II
(B) Singhnad (C) Rajendra II
(C) Hansbeg (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 22
Text of page 24
H-21. Which Chola ruler established a new H-26. How much Qutubuddin Aibak had to pay
capital city named ‘Gangaikonda for purchasing of Iltutmish?
Cholapuram’? (A) Three Lakh Jitals
(A) Parantaka-I (B) Two Lakh Jitals
(B) Rajaraja-I (C) One Lakh Jitals
(C) Rajendra-I (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-27. In which year Iltutmish got recognition
H-22. Which Chola ruler constructed from the Caliph of Baghdad?
‘Rajarajeshwar temple’ in his capital? (A) 1226
(A) Rajendra I (B) 1227
(B) Rajaraja I (C) 1229
(C) Kulottunga I (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-28. Who constructed Quwwat-ul-Islam
H-23. Which Chola ruler is described as ‘Chola Mosque at Delhi?
Narayan’ in the contemporary writings? (A) Qutubuddin Aibak
(A) Rajendra I (B) Iltutmish
(B) Rajadhiraja I (C) Balban
(C) Rajaraja I (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-29. Which period is called the era of “the rule
H-24. At which place Iltutmish was appointed as of the Forty” in the history of Delhi
governor for the first time? Sultanate age?
(A) Sambhal (A) 1236-42
(B) Badaun (B) 1236-66
(C) Gwalior (C) 1236-46
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-25. At which place Iltutmish gave crushing H-30. Under which Sultan a new post ‘Naib-i-
defeat to Tajuddin Yalduz of Ghazni and mamlikat’ was created?
imprisoned him? (A) Ruknuddin Firoz
(A) Tarain (B) Muizuddin Bahram Shah
(B) At the river bank of Chenab (C) Alauddin Masud Shah
(C) Sindh (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 24
Text of page 26
H-31. Who became the first ‘Naib-i-mamlikat’ H-36. At the court of which Rajput ruler Akbar
in the history of Delhi Sultanate period? was born?
(A) Malik Junaidi (A) Rana Sangram Singh
(B) Ghiyasuddin Balban (B) Rana Virsal
(C) Ikhtiyaruddin Aitigin (C) Raja Bikramajit
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
H-32. What was the original name of Ghiyasuddin H-37. At which place Akbar was crowned?
Balban?
(A) Thatta
(A) Badruddin
(B) Panipat
(B) Bahauddin
(C) Kalanaur
(C) Shamsuddin
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-38. Which was the last conquest of Akbar?
H-33. By whom Balban was replaced on the post
of ‘Naib-i-mamlikati? (A) Gujarat
(A) Kishlu Khan (B) Sindh
(B) Imaduddin Raihan (C) Asirgarh
(C) Haibat Khan (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-39. In which year Akbar declared ‘Mahzar’?
H-34. What Balban inscribed on his coins to (A) 1563
make obedience of co-religionist?
(B) 1575
(A) Nasir-Amir-ul-Momenin
(B) Naib-i-Momenin (C) 1579
(C) Amir-ul-Momenin (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
H-40. At which place Akbar built ‘Buland
H-35. Who was the last ruler of Mamluk (slave) Darwaza’?
dynasty? (A) Delhi
(A) Kaimurs (B) Bulandshahr
(B) Bughra Khan (C) Ajmer
(C) Kaiqubad (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 26
Text of page 28
PART - III
(GEOGRAPHY)
G-1. What percentage of the area does India G-5. Which of the following rivers flow through
occupy of the land hemisphere? antecedent valleys?
(A) 2.9 percent (A) Sutlej & Indus
(B) 2.4 percent (B) Damodar & Godavari
(C) Tungabhadra & Chambal
(C) 3.0 percent
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-6. According to National Environmental
G-2. The length of the coastline along the main Engineering Research Institute (NEERI),
land of India is Nagpur how much water available in India
is polluted?
(A) 6100 km
(A) 90 percent
(B) 7516 km
(B) 60 percent
(C) 5900 km (C) 70 percent
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
G-7. Which of the following sequences of rivers
G-3. Indira Point is characterised by
in descending order of their respective
(A) It is not visible today
basin area in India is correct?
(B) It is situated in the great Nicobar (A) Ganga, Indus, Godavari, Krishna
group of Islands (B) Indus, Ganga, Krishna, Godavari
(C) This is the southern most point of (C) Godavari, Ganga, Indus, Krishna
India (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-8. Who among the following proposed in
1951 that mansoon is only the seasonal
G-4. In which of the following states are situated
migration of planetary winds and pressure
Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills situated?
belts?
(A) Manipur (A) Halley
(B) Mizoram (B) Flohn
(C) Meghalaya (C) Koteswaram
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 28
Text of page 30
G-9. Which of the following pairs of the states G-13. Sagarmatha is the regional name of which
& the percentage of their respective of the mountain peaks?
geographical area covered with forest is (A) Kanchenjunga
correctly matched (Year 2021)?
(B) Makalu
(A) Mizoram 74.53 percent
(B) Arunachal Pradesh 89.33 percent (C) Everest
(C) Meghalaya 79.33 percent (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-10. Which of the following national parks
G-14. In Bhutan, how much land area is covered
came in news because 20 Cheetas where
with glaciers?
translocated there from Africa?
(A) Kuno (A) about 3 percent
(B) Keoladeo (B) about 9 percent
(C) Sariska (C) about 5 percent
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-11. Which of the following sequences of states
in descending order of their population
density (2011) is correct? G-15. Which is the main food crop produced in
(A) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Bhutan?
Kerala (A) wheat
(B) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar (B) rice
Pradesh
(C) bajra
(C) Bihar, Kerala, West Bengal, Uttar
Pradesh (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-12. Sex ratio (number of females per thousand G-16. Sri Lanka is well endowed with
males) in India According to 2011 census is
(A) iron ore
(A) 949
(B) 957 (B) gold
(C) 943 (C) coal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 30
Text of page 32
G-17. The capital of Myanmar is G-21. Bauxite is found in abundance in which of
(A) Yagon the following districts of Bihar?
(B) Mandalay (A) Darbhanga
(C) Naypyidaw (B) Jamui
(D) More than one of the above (C) Saran
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
G-18. The birth rate (Per 1000 People) in
Bangladesh in Year 2022 was G-22. Black cotton soils have developed
(A) 17.067 (A) by weathering of Deccan Lava
(B) 17.991 (B) by weathering of granite
(C) 18.61 (C) in forest areas of the Himalayas
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
G-19. The Numbers of parallels of latitudes & G-23. Which of the regions of India are badly
meridians of longitudes on the globe are effected by erosion?
(A) 360 (A) Chambal Basin
(B) 180 (B) Southern slopes of the Siwaliks
(C) infinite (C) Chota Nagpur highland
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
G-20. Comparative scale is characterised by G-24. Which of the following areas are known
(A) it is a combination of two or more for coffee production?
plain scales placed side by side (A) Sone Basin
(B) each plain scale shows different (B) Nilgiris
systems of measurement units
(C) Chhattisgarh
(C) all plain scales have common R.F.
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 32
Text of page 34
G-25. Which of the following projects is situated G-29. Which of the following is a group of
on the Krishna river? non-conventional energy resources?
(A) Mayurakshi (A) natural gas, nuclear energy, coal
(B) Jawahar Sagar dam (B) coal, natural gas, petroleum
(C) Nagarjun Sagar (C) solar energy, wind energy,
geothermal energy
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-26. Which is the leading fish producer in India
G-30. Which of the following pairs of petroleum
(Year 2023)? fields and the state of their locations are
(A) Gujarat correct?
(B) West Bengal (A) Hugrijan oil field -------- Assam
(B) Kalol oil field -------- Gujarat
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Lunej oil field -------- Gujarat
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
G-27. Which is the largest producer of wheat in G-31. Which of the following pairs of places and
India (January, 2024)? industries located there are correct?
(A) Punjab (A) Bhopal ------ Heavy Electricals
(B) Bongaigaon ----- Petro chemicals
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Vishakhapatnam ----- Steel
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-32. How long is Atal tunnel?
G-28. Which is the largest manganese ore (A) 8 km
producer in India (Year 2023)?
(B) 10 km
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(C) 9.02 km
(B) Maharashtra
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Odisha (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 34
Text of page 36
G-33. Which of the following characterises G-37. Which of the following sequences of
sustainable development? states/union territory in descending order
(A) complete dependence on and of their literacy rate according to 2011
adaptation to the nature census is correct?
(B) to maintain a balance between (A) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram,
economic development and Goa
environmental quality (B) Kerala, Goa, Mizoram,
(C) unrestricted use of non-renewable Lakshadweep
energy for economic development (C) Lakshadweep, Kerala, Goa,
(D) More than one of the above Mizoram
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
G-34. Which nation is the largest trading partner
of India (Year, 2023)? G-38. The leading producer of lead in India is
(A) United States of America (A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) China (B) Rajasthan
(C) Russia (C) Odisha
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
G-35. Which of the following pairs of coal fields G-39. Palghat gap connects
and state of their location is correct? (A) Goa & Karnataka
(A) Talcher ------ Odisha (B) Goa & Maharashtra
(B) Vishrampur ----- Madhya Pradesh (C) Kerala & Tamil Nadu
(C) Singrauli ------- Chhattisgarh (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
G-40. Which is the longest National Highway in
G-36. Sundari tree is found in India?
(A) Khasi hill (A) NH 44
(B) Sundarban delta (B) NH 1
(C) Nicobar Islands (C) NH 544
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 36
Text of page 38
PART - III
(ECONOMICS)
E-1. Iron and steel industry should be E-5. Number of Sustainable Development
established near to: Goals (SDGs) by United Nations are
(A) Availability of raw material ore (A) 15
(B) Markets
(B) 16
(C) Forest
(D) More than one of the above (C) 17
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
E-2. What was the theme of the COP27
summit?
(A) Together for Implementation E-6. The United Nations Conference on
Sustainable Development (UNCSD) is
(B) Independent for climate change
also known as
(C) Agreement for research and
development (A) Rio 2010
(D) More than one of the above (B) Rio 2011
(E) None of the above
(C) Rio 2012
E-3. Sustainability Science is the study of the (D) More than one of the above
concepts of sustainable development (E) None of the above
and ______.
(A) environmental science E-7. Consider the following statements
(B) general science regarding the public debt of Government
(C) social science of India includes and select the correct
(D) More than one of the above answer.
(E) None of the above
1. Treasury Bills & Dated securities
E-4. What do you understand by an inclusive 2. External Commercial Borrowing
development in the country? (ECB)
(A) Active participation of all the 3. NRI deposits
segments of society in the country (A) 1 only
(B) Active participation of only business
(B) 1 and 2 only
households in the country
(C) Active participation of only poor (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
people of society in the country (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 38
Text of page 40
E-8. The informal sector includes: E-11. Which of the following denotes business
1. artisans, cottage industrialists, petty activity at high level with increasing output
traders, tea shop proprietors. and income?
2. garbage pickers, jitneys, (A) Boom
unauthorized taxis, repair persons.
(B) Recession
3. the self-employed.
(C) Recovery
4. IV activities with little capital, skill,
and entry barriers. (D) More than one of the above
(A) 1 and 2 only (E) None of the above
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3and 4
E-12. The number of people in different age
(D) More than one of the above groups is referred as:
(E) None of the above
(A) Sex ratio
(B) Age composition
E-9. The additional capital used for per unit of
additional production is called: (C) Occupational structure
(A) Induced investment (D) More than one of the above
(B) Autonomous investment (E) None of the above
(C) Incremental capital output ratio
(D) More than one of the above
E-13. What is Sex ratio?
(E) None of the above
(A) Number of females per thousand
male
E-10. Under the seventh schedule of Indian
(B) Number of females per hundred
constitution, Agricultural marketing is in
male
which list?
(A) Union list (C) Difference between birth rate and
death rates
(B) State list
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Concurrent list
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 40
Text of page 42
E-14. A large proportion of children in a E-18. The total area of India accounts for how
population is a result of: much percent of the world’s area?
(A) High birth rate (A) 2.4 percent
(B) High death rate (B) 16.7 percent
(C) High life expectancies (C) 3.28 percent
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
E-15. Which of the following factors are E-19. What year is considered a great
responsible for sparse population? demographic divide in India?
(A) Flat plains and abundant rainfall (A) 1921
(B) Rugged terrain and unfavourable (B) 1931
climate
(C) 1751
(C) Fertile soil and abundant rainfall
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
E-20. Which of the following migration of
E-16. Which of the following is an important
social indicator to measure the extent of population does not change the size of the
equality between males and females in a population?
society at a given time? (A) External migration
(A) Age composition (B) Internal migration
(B) Literacy Rate
(C) International migration
(C) Sex ratio
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
E-21. Which of the following is not included in
E-17. Which one of the following is not a tertiary Primary activities?
activity?
(A) Agriculture
(A) Banking
(B) Animal Husbandry
(B) Transport and Communication
(C) To give Education
(C) Building and Construction work
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 42
Text of page 44
E-22. Which one of the following is a market E-25. Which scheme was started in 1993 to
activity? create self-employment opportunities for
educated unemployed youth in rural areas
(A) A teacher teaching her child and small towns?
(B) A teacher teaching in school (A) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana
(C) A mechanic repairing his car (B) Rural Employment Generation
Programme
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar
(E) None of the above
Yojana
(D) More than one of the above
E-23. Which is the state with highest number of (E) None of the above
Scheduled Castes in India?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
E-26. Which among the following is the method
(B) Bihar to estimate the poverty line in India?
(C) Uttar Pradesh (A) Investment method
(D) More than one of the above (B) Capital method
(E) None of the above (C) Income method
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
E-24. Which of the following programme was
launched in the year of 2000?
(A) National Rural Employment E-27. What is the average calorie required in
Guarantee Act rural areas for measuring poverty?
(B) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar (A) 2400 calories per person per day
Yojana
(B) 2100 calories per person per day
(C) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
(C) 2800 calories per person per day
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 44
Text of page 46
E-28. The calorie requirement is higher in the rural E-32. The second stage of demographic
areas because: transition is suitably known as:
(A) they do not enjoy as much as people (A) Population Challenge
in the urban areas (B) Population Development
(B) food items are expensive (C) Population explosion
(C) people are engaged in physical (D) More than one of the above
labour (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above E-33. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve
Bank of India leads to:
(A) More liquidity in the market
E-29. Which one of these is not a cause of
(B) No change in the liquidity in the
poverty in India?
market
(A) Low level of economic development
(C) Mobilization of more deposits by
(B) Migration of people from rural to
commercial banks
urban India
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Unequal distribution of land
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above E-34. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as
a bankers’ bank. This would imply which
of the following?
E-30. In which year was NREGA enacted?
(A) 2005 1. Other banks retain their deposits
with the RBI.
(B) 2000
2. The RBI lends funds to the
(C) 1999
commercial banks in times of need.
(D) More than one of the above
3. The RBI advises the commercial
(E) None of the above
banks on monetary matters.
Select the correct answer using the codes
E-31. Which of the following is not considered
given below:
as a social indicator of poverty?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(A) Less number of means of transport
(B) Illiteracy level (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) Lack of access to health care (C) l, 2 and 3
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 46
Text of page 48
E-35. In India, deficit financing is used for raising E-39. Bihar State Seeds Corporation has got
resources for ISO certificate, consider the following and
(A) economic development choose the correct answer:
(B) adjusting the balance of payments 1. Quality Management and Practices
(C) reducing the foreign debt Certification
(D) More than one of the above 2. Environmental Management
(E) None of the above Practices Certification
3. Anti-Bribery Management
E-36. GNIGPL-Gail India biogas plant will be Certification
set up at which place in Bihar?
(A) Masaurhi, Patna (A) 1 only
(B) Arrah (B) 2 only
(C) Brahmpur, Buxar
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
E-37. Which among these is not the feature of a
Special Economic Zone?
(A) Top class facilities E-40. Total receipts in 2023-24 budget other
(B) Flexibility in labour laws than borrowings compared to revised
(C) Do not have to pay taxes estimate of 2022-23 budget are expected
to register an increase of what percentage?
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (A) 8%
(B) 7%
E-38. The Dagmara Hydro-Electric Project is
concerned with which river in Bihar? (C) 6%
(A) Kosi
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Bagmati
(E) None of the above
(C) Punpun
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 48
Text of page 50
PART - III
(POLITICAL SCIENCE)
P-1. Given below are three statements , one as P-3. Match the List-I with List-II and select the
Assertion (A) and the others as Reason correct answer from the code given below
(R-1) & (R-2). the lists :
1) Assertion (A) : The democracy List-I List-II
ensures that we shall be governed
(Comments) (Commentators)
no better than we deserve.
a) The democracy as the 1. Lecky
2) Reason (R-1) : The Man’s capacity
for justice makes democracy government by poorest,
possible.
the most ignorant &
3) Reason (R-2) : The Man’s inclination
most incapable people
to injustice makes democracy
necessary. b) The democracy as an 2. Talleyrand
Select the correct answer from the code aristocracy of backguards
given below :
c) The democracy as the 3. H.G. Wells
Code :
government of mindless
(A) only 1 is correct
and ignorants
(B) only 2 is correct
d) The democracy as 4. Fogget
(C) only 3 is correct
the government full
(D) More than one of the above
of ignorance
(E) None of the above
Code :
P-2. Who of the following said that the (A) a b c d
democracy is the best, ‘it stands above 1 2 3 4
doubts’? (B) a b c d
(A) Seeley 4 3 2 1
(B) Rousseau (C) a b c d
(C) J.K. Galbraith 2 3 4 1
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 50
Text of page 52
P-4. With reference to the democratic P-8. “The Imperial Forest Research Institute”
government in India, which of the following came into existence in 1906 at which of
statements is/are correct? following place?
(A) It is more accountable form of (A) at Shimla
(B) at Dehradun
government
(C) at Calcutta
(B) The democracy in India made the
(D) More than one of the above
government respond to food security
(E) None of the above
(C) The democracy requires that the
rulers have to attend the needs of P-9. Which of the following statements about
the people the weakness of democracies in the
(D) More than one of the above contemporary world, is/are correct?
1) The decision making and their
(E) None of the above
implementation taken too much time
in democratic governments.
P-5. Who of the following said, Political liberty 2) The Political parties mostly make the
in the absence of economic equality is a democratic governments immoral
mere myth? and powerless.
(A) Lord Bryce 3) The regional interests become more
(B) G.D.H. Cole powerfull than the national interests
in them.
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
Select the correct answer from the code
(D) More than one of the above
given below :
(E) None of the above Code :
(A) only 1 is correct
P-6. Who of the following was of the view that (B) only 2 is correct
‘all the ills of democracy can be cured by (C) only 3 is correct
more democracy’? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Garner (E) None of the above
(B) Barker
P-10. Which of the following statements befits
(C) Alfred Smith
to the democracies in present times?
(D) More than one of the above (A) The democracies involve some loss
(E) None of the above of immediate efficiency
(B) The democracies may increase their
P-7. “The Indian forest service” in India came efficiency in long run
into existence in which year? (C) The democracies need required
(A) In 1859 improvements to be done in it in
place of choosing the dictatorship
(B) In 1863
(D) More than one of the above
(C) In 1864
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 52
Text of page 54
P-11. The principle of Parliamentary supremacy P-15. Which of the following was Gandhiji’s
is followed in which of the following expectation from Independent India’s
countries? constitution?
(A) In India (A) It shall release India from thralldom
and patronage
(B) In Britain
(B) All communities must live in perfect
(C) In America harmony in the country
(D) In China (C) The women will enjoy the equal
(E) None of the above rights as men in India
(D) More than one of the above
P-12. The first commission to identify the (E) None of the above
backward classes in India, was formed in
the Chairmanship of who of the following? P-16. The standard to examine and evaluate any
(A) B.P. Mandal law and the action of the government in
India, is mainly found in which of the
(B) Sri Ramdhan following?
(C) R.N. Prasad (A) In Fundamental rights of the
(D) Kaka Kalelkar constitution
(E) None of the above (B) In the Directive principles of state
policies of the constitution
(C) In the Preamble of the constitution
P-13. At the time of Independence, the ruler of
which of the following princely states (D) More than one of the above
wanted to join Pakistan but the people (E) None of the above
wanted to join India?
(A) Junagarh P-17. Which of the following was the procedural
(B) Hyderabad committee of the Constituent Assembly of
India?
(C) Kashmir
(A) The Finance and staff committee
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Ad hoc committee on National Flag
(E) None of the above
(C) Commission on Linguistic provinces
(D) More than one of the above
P-14. Which of the following was the main aim
(E) None of the above
of setting up of Planning Commission in
1950 in India?
P-18. Who of the following was the member of
(A) To frame such policies which help the Drafting Committee of the Constituent
rid India of poverty only Assembly of India?
(B) To ensure economic development (A) N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
only
(B) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
(C) To build modern industrial base only
(C) T.T. Krishnamachari
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 54
Text of page 56
P-19. ‘Hindi shall be the official language of the P-23. Bihar is in the zone of which zonal council
Indian union’, was decided by the Drafting in India?
Committee, on which of the following date?
(A) In the zone of Northern Zonal
(A) On 21st February, 1948 Council
(B) On 14th September, 1949
(B) In the zone of Central Zonal Council
(C) On 26th November, 1949
(C) In the zone of Eastern Zonal Council
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
P-20. Who of the following called the Constituent
Assembly of India, “a one party, one party
body in an essentially one party country”? P-24. With reference to the model of scientific
secularism in India, which of the following
(A) Granville Austin
statements is/are correct?
(B) K.V. Rao
(A) It is dynamic by nature and suits to
(C) Ivor Jennings
the requirements of a progressive
(D) More than one of the above nation
(E) None of the above (B) It keeps religion and politics
separate from each other
P-21. The preamble of the Constitution of India (C) It keeps every community with in the
assures the people of India about which sovereign authority of the
of the following? Parliament
(A) About the dignity of the individuals (D) More than one of the above
(B) About the unity and integrity of the
(E) None of the above
nation
(C) About the equal status and
opportunity of the people P-25. Which of the following is the main feature
(D) More than one of the above of democratic elections in India?
(E) None of the above (A) In such elections every one has right
to vote with the equal value of vote
P-22. How many types of liberties are provided (B) In such elections, voters have
in ‘The Preamble of the Constitution of opportunities of real choice at the
India’? regular intervals
(A) of Two Types (C) Such elections are conducted in free
and fair manner
(B) of Three Types
(C) of Five Types (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 56
Text of page 58
P-26. Which of the following statements are P-30. The National Commission for Backward
correct about the political competition in classes in the country, was formed by
the country? which of the following amendment of the
(A) It provides the way to select our constitution of India?
future leaders (A) By 100th amendment
(B) By 101st amendment
(B) It makes the political system to
(C) By 102nd amendment
work better in long run
(D) More than one of the above
(C) It presents an opportunity to the
(E) None of the above
people to reward the political
leaders for serving them or punish
P-31. The form of oath for the members of
for not doing so
Parliament is found in which of the following
(D) More than one of the above schedule of the constitution of India?
(E) None of the above (A) In first schedule
(B) In third schedule
P-27. Which of the following state of India (C) In fifth schedule
possess special status due to their peculiar (D) More than one of the above
social and historical circumstances? (E) None of the above
(A) only Assam
(B) only Nagaland P-32. Which of the following statement about the
extention of the period of Parliament during
(C) only Arunachal Pradesh emergency, is/are True?
(D) More than one of the above (A) It may be extended up to one year
(E) None of the above in emergency at a time
(B) It may be extended up to 8 months
P-28. Which of the following languages are only at a time in emergency
mentioned in the Eighth schedule of the (C) It may be extended up to 6 months
after the closing of emergency
constitution of India?
(D) More than one of the above
(A) Bodo and Dogri
(E) None of the above
(B) Oriya and Sindhi
(C) Nepali and Santhali P-33. Which of the following statements about
(D) More than one of the above the ministers in the country is/are correct?
(E) None of the above (A) The cabinet ministers are in charge
of major ministries & the decision
makers in the name of council of
P-29. How many seats are found reserved for ministers
women, in local government bodies in (B) The state ministers with independent
India? charge are in charge of smaller
(A) one fifth of the all seats ministries and attend the meeting
when invited
(B) one fourth of the all seats (C) The ministers of states are to assist
(C) one third of the all seats cabinet ministers
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 58
Text of page 60
P-34. Which constitutional amendment binds the P-37. In India which of the following statements
President of India to act in accordance with relating to ‘The Right to Protection of Life
advice rendered by the council of and Personal Liberty’ is correct?
ministers? (A) It is available to the citizens only
against the state
(A) The Thirty ninth amendment (B) It is also available against its violation
(B) The Forty second amendment by private individuals
(C) This right does not promises the
(C) The Forty fourth amendment dignity of life
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
P-38. The Right to education of the children of
the age of six to fourteen years is made
P-35. Which of the following provisions for the their fundamental Right by which
independence of Judiciary are found in constitutional amendment in India?
India? (A) By 44th amendment
(B) By 86th amendment
(A) The constitutional appointment in it (C) By 91st amendment
(B) The salaries and allowances of the (D) More than one of the above
judges are charged on the (E) None of the above
consolidated fund & they are bared
P-39. Which of the following is the main challenge
to the legal practice after retirement
to the Indian political party system?
(C) Immunity from reckless criticism of (A) The lack of internal democracy
their judicial conduct within the parties
(B) The lack of dynamic system of
(D) More than one of the above succession to first one in the parties
(E) None of the above (C) The growing role of money and
muscle power in parties specially
during elections
P-36. How much may be maximum strength of a (D) More than one of the above
Vidhan Parishad in a state of India? (E) None of the above
(A) It can not be more than 1/5 of the P-40. Which of the following may be called the
total strength of the State Vidhan outcome of democracy in India?
Sabha (A) The formation of a legitimate,
responsive and accountable
(B) It can not be more than 1/4 of the
government in the country
total strength of the State Vidhan (B) Economic growth and reduction of
Sabha inequality and poverty in the country
(C) It can not be more than 1/3 of the (C) The existence of the accommodative
total strength of the State Vidhan rule in the country for social diversity
Sabha along with the dignity and freedom
of the citizens.
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-10/S-310-E 60
Text of page 1
Bihar Public Service Commission
Exam Date- 21-07-2024
Advt. No. 22/2024, Social Science, Class 9-10
Final Answer key
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
E-1 E E-4 E E-3 E E-4 E
E-2 B E-5 B E-4 C E-5 A
E-3 E E-6 E E-5 E E-1 E
E-4 C E-7 A E-1 B E-2 C
E-5 C E-8 A E-2 B E-3 C
E-6 C E-1 A E-7 B E-7 C
E-7 B E-2 B E-8 C E-6 A
E-8 B E-3 B E-6 C E-8 A
H-9 C H-15 A H-19 B H-16 C
H-10 A H-16 C H-20 A H-17 B
H-11 C H-17 A H-21 B H-18 C
H-12 B H-18 B H-22 C H-19 A
H-13 E H-19 E H-23 E H-20 E
H-14 B H-20 B H-24 C H-21 A
H-15 B H-21 B H-25 C H-22 A
H-16 E H-22 E H-26 E H-23 E
H-17 A H-23 C H-27 A H-24 B
H-18 C H-24 A H-28 B H-25 C
H-19 A H-25 C H-29 A H-26 B
H-20 C H-26 A H-30 B H-27 C
H-21 C H-27 A H-9 B H-28 C
H-22 B H-28 B H-10 C H-29 A
H-23 D H-29 D H-11 D H-30 D
H-24 D H-30 D H-12 D H-9 D
H-25 D H-9 D H-13 D H-10 D
H-26 B H-10 B H-14 C H-11 A
H-27 B H-11 B H-15 C H-12 A
H-28 A H-12 C H-16 A H-13 B
H-29 C H-13 A H-17 B H-14 C
H-30 B H-14 B H-18 C H-15 A
U-9 B U-15 B U-19 C U-16 A
U-10 A U-16 C U-20 A U-17 B
U-11 C U-17 A U-21 B U-18 C
U-12 C U-18 A U-22 B U-19 C
U-13 A U-19 C U-23 A U-20 B
U-14 B U-20 B U-24 C U-21 A
U-15 B U-21 B U-25 C U-22 A
U-16 A U-22 C U-26 A U-23 B
U-17 A U-23 C U-27 A U-24 B
U-18 A U-24 C U-28 A U-25 B
U-19 DELETED U-25 DELETED U-29 DELETED U-26 DELETED
U-20 B U-26 B U-30 C U-27 A
U-21 C U-27 A U-9 B U-28 C
U-22 B U-28 B U-10 C U-29 A
U-23 A U-29 C U-11 A U-30 B
U-24 B U-30 B U-12 C U-9 A
U-25 B U-9 B U-13 C U-10 A
Page 1 of 7
Text of page 2
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
U-26 A U-10 C U-14 A U-11 B
U-27 C U-11 A U-15 B U-12 C
As per firozul lughat
(famous urdu dictionary),
the "Tedhi Kheer" is said as
Zarbul Masal but Zarbul
Masal is an Arabic word and
in urdu it is also said "
U-28 D U-12 D U-16 D U-13 D Kahawat". Hence Zarbul
Masal & Kahawat are
synonyms. So Answer in
option A & B both are
correct, therefore the
correct answer is option "
D".
U-29 B U-13 B U-17 C U-14 A
U-30 C U-14 A U-18 B U-15 C
B-9 E B-25 E B-28 E B-21 E
B-10 B B-26 B B-29 C B-22 A
B-11 B B-27 B B-30 C B-23 A
B-12 C B-28 A B-9 B B-24 C
B-13 D B-29 D B-10 D B-25 D
B-14 C B-30 A B-11 B B-26 C
B-15 B B-9 B B-12 C B-27 A
B-16 A B-10 C B-13 A B-28 B
B-17 D B-11 D B-14 D B-29 D
B-18 B B-12 B B-15 C B-30 A
B-19 C B-13 A B-16 B B-9 C
B-20 B B-14 B B-17 C B-10 A
B-21 A B-15 C B-18 A B-11 B
B-22 A B-16 C B-19 A B-12 B
B-23 A B-17 C B-20 A B-13 B
B-24 B B-18 B B-21 C B-14 A
B-25 C B-19 A B-22 B B-15 C
B-26 A B-20 C B-23 A B-16 B
B-27 A B-21 C B-24 A B-17 B
B-28 C B-22 A B-25 B B-18 C
B-29 E B-23 E B-26 E B-19 E
B-30 A B-24 C B-27 A B-20 B
31 C 51 A 41 B 61 C
32 B 52 B 42 C 62 A
33 C 53 A 43 B 63 C
34 C 54 A 44 B 64 C
35 B 55 B 45 C 65 A
36 B 56 B 46 C 66 A
37 E 57 E 47 E 67 E
38 A 58 C 48 A 68 B
39 A 59 C 49 A 69 B
40 E 60 E 50 E 70 E
41 B 61 B 51 C 31 A
42 B 62 B 52 C 32 A
43 A 63 C 53 A 33 B
44 D 64 D 54 D 34 D
45 D 65 D 55 D 35 D
Page 2 of 7
Text of page 3
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
46 C 66 A 56 B 36 C
47 B 67 B 57 C 37 A
48 C 68 A 58 B 38 C
49 A 69 C 59 A 39 B
50 B 70 B 60 C 40 A
51 C 31 A 61 B 41 C
52 A 32 C 62 A 42 B
53 B 33 B 63 C 43 A
54 C 34 A 64 B 44 C
55 A 35 C 65 A 45 B
56 B 36 B 66 C 46 A
57 C 37 A 67 B 47 C
58 B 38 B 68 C 48 A
59 A 39 C 69 A 49 B
60 B 40 B 70 C 50 A
61 C 41 A 31 B 51 C
62 DELETED 42 DELETED 32 DELETED 52 DELETED
63 B 43 B 33 C 53 A
64 C 44 A 34 B 54 C
65 B 45 B 35 C 55 A
66 B 46 B 36 C 56 A
67 A 47 C 37 A 57 B
68 A 48 C 38 A 58 B
69 E 49 E 39 E 59 E
70 B 50 B 40 C 60 A
H-1 B H-21 B H-11 C H-31 A
H-2 C H-22 A H-12 B H-32 C
H-3 E H-23 E H-13 E H-33 E
H-4 C H-24 A H-14 B H-34 C
H-5 A H-25 C H-15 A H-35 B
H-6 B H-26 B H-16 C H-36 A
H-7 C H-27 A H-17 B H-37 C
H-8 A H-28 C H-18 A H-38 B
H-9 C H-29 A H-19 B H-39 C
H-10 A H-30 C H-20 A H-40 B
H-11 C H-31 A H-21 B H-1 C
H-12 B H-32 B H-22 C H-2 A
H-13 B H-33 B H-23 C H-3 A
H-14 A H-34 C H-24 A H-4 B
H-15 B H-35 B H-25 C H-5 A
H-16 B H-36 B H-26 C H-6 A
H-17 C H-37 A H-27 B H-7 C
H-18 E H-38 E H-28 E H-8 E
H-19 E H-39 E H-29 E H-9 E
H-20 A H-40 C H-30 A H-10 B
H-21 C H-1 A H-31 B H-11 C
H-22 B H-2 B H-32 C H-12 A
H-23 C H-3 A H-33 B H-13 C
Page 3 of 7
Text of page 4
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
Iltutmish was appointed
H-24 B H-4 B H-34 C H-14 A governor in Badayun for
the first time.
H-25 A H-5 C H-35 A H-15 B
H-26 C H-6 A H-36 B H-16 C
H-27 C H-7 A H-37 B H-17 C
H-28 A H-8 C H-38 A H-18 B
H-29 B H-9 B H-39 C H-19 A
H-30 B H-10 B H-40 C H-20 A
H-31 C H-11 A H-1 B H-21 C
H-32 B H-12 B H-2 C H-22 A
H-33 B H-13 B H-3 C H-23 A
H-34 A H-14 C H-4 A H-24 B
H-35 C H-15 A H-5 B H-25 C
H-36 B H-16 B H-6 C H-26 A
H-37 C H-17 A H-7 B H-27 C
H-38 C H-18 A H-8 B H-28 C
H-39 C H-19 A H-9 B H-29 C
H-40 E H-20 E H-10 E H-30 E
G-1 B G-21 B G-11 C G-31 A
G-2 A G-22 C G-12 A G-32 B
G-3 D G-23 D G-13 D G-33 D
G-4 C G-24 A G-14 B G-34 C
G-5 A G-25 C G-15 A G-35 B
G-6 C G-26 A G-16 B G-36 C
G-7 A G-27 C G-17 A G-37 B
G-8 B G-28 B G-18 C G-38 A
G-9 E G-29 E G-19 E G-39 E
G-10 A G-30 C G-20 A G-40 B
G-11 B G-31 B G-21 C G-1 A
G-12 C G-32 A G-22 B G-2 C
G-13 C G-33 A G-23 B G-3 C
G-14 A G-34 C G-24 A G-4 B
G-15 B G-35 B G-25 C G-5 A
G-16 E G-36 E G-26 E G-6 E
G-17 C G-37 A G-27 B G-7 C
G-18 A G-38 C G-28 A G-8 B
G-19 E G-39 E G-29 E G-9 E
G-20 D G-40 D G-30 D G-10 D
G-21 B G-1 B G-31 C G-11 A
G-22 A G-2 C G-32 A G-12 B
G-23 D G-3 D G-33 D G-13 D
G-24 B G-4 B G-34 C G-14 A
G-25 C G-5 A G-35 B G-15 C
G-26 C G-6 A G-36 B G-16 C
G-27 B G-7 B G-37 C G-17 A
G-28 A G-8 C G-38 A G-18 B
Page 4 of 7
Text of page 5
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
G-29 C G-9 A G-39 B G-19 C
G-30 D G-10 D G-40 D G-20 D
G-31 D G-11 D G-1 D G-21 D
G-32 C G-12 A G-2 B G-22 C
G-33 B G-13 B G-3 C G-23 A
G-34 B G-14 B G-4 C G-24 A
G-35 A G-15 C G-5 A G-25 B
G-36 B G-16 B G-6 C G-26 A
G-37 A G-17 C G-7 A G-27 B
G-38 B G-18 B G-8 C G-28 A
G-39 C G-19 A G-9 B G-29 C
G-40 A G-20 C G-10 A G-30 B
E-1 A E-21 C E-11 A E-31 B
E-2 A E-22 C E-12 A E-32 B
E-3 A E-23 C E-13 A E-33 B
E-4 A E-24 C E-14 A E-34 B
E-5 C E-25 A E-15 B E-35 C
E-6 C E-26 A E-16 B E-36 C
E-7 A E-27 C E-17 A E-37 B
E-8 C E-28 A E-18 B E-38 C
E-9 C E-29 A E-19 B E-39 C
E-10 B E-30 B E-20 C E-40 A
E-11 A E-31 C E-21 A E-1 B
E-12 B E-32 B E-22 C E-2 A
E-13 A E-33 C E-23 A E-3 B
E-14 A E-34 C E-24 A E-4 B
E-15 B E-35 B E-25 C E-5 A
E-16 C E-36 A E-26 B E-6 C
E-17 C E-37 A E-27 B E-7 C
E-18 A E-38 C E-28 A E-8 B
E-19 A E-39 C E-29 A E-9 B
E-20 B E-40 B E-30 C E-10 A
E-21 C E-1 A E-31 B E-11 C
E-22 B E-2 B E-32 C E-12 A
E-23 C E-3 A E-33 B E-13 C
E-24 C E-4 A E-34 B E-14 C
E-25 A E-5 C E-35 A E-15 B
E-26 C E-6 A E-36 B E-16 C
E-27 A E-7 C E-37 A E-17 B
E-28 C E-8 A E-38 B E-18 C
E-29 B E-9 B E-39 C E-19 A
E-30 A E-10 C E-40 A E-20 B
E-31 A E-11 C E-1 A E-21 B
E-32 C E-12 A E-2 B E-22 C
E-33 A E-13 C E-3 A E-23 B
E-34 C E-14 A E-4 B E-24 C
E-35 A E-15 C E-5 A E-25 B
Page 5 of 7
Text of page 6
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
E-36 C E-16 A E-6 B E-26 C
E-37 B E-17 B E-7 C E-27 A
E-38 A E-18 C E-8 A E-28 B
E-39 C E-19 A E-9 B E-29 C
E-40 E E-20 E E-10 E E-30 E
P-1 D P-21 D P-11 D P-31 D
P-2 C P-22 A P-12 B P-32 C
P-3 A P-23 C P-13 A P-33 B
P-4 D P-24 D P-14 D P-34 D
P-5 B P-25 B P-15 C P-35 A
P-6 C P-26 A P-16 B P-36 C
The Indian forest
Services came into
existence in 1864.
Therefore "It keeps every
P-7 C P-27 A P-17 B P-37 C
community with in the
soverign authority of the
parliament" should be
the correct answer.
P-8 B P-28 B P-18 C P-38 A
P-9 D P-29 D P-19 D P-39 D
P-10 D P-30 D P-20 D P-40 D
P-11 B P-31 B P-21 C P-1 A
P-12 D P-32 D P-22 D P-2 D
P-13 A P-33 C P-23 A P-3 B
P-14 D P-34 D P-24 D P-4 D
P-15 D P-35 D P-25 D P-5 D
P-16 C P-36 A P-26 B P-6 C
P-17 A P-37 C P-27 A P-7 B
P-18 D P-38 D P-28 D P-8 D
P-19 B P-39 B P-29 C P-9 A
P-20 A P-40 C P-30 A P-10 B
P-21 D P-1 D P-31 D P-11 D
P-22 C P-2 A P-32 B P-12 C
P-23 C P-3 A P-33 B P-13 C
P-24 D P-4 D P-34 D P-14 D
P-25 D P-5 D P-35 D P-15 D
P-26 D P-6 D P-36 D P-16 D
P-27 D P-7 D P-37 D P-17 D
P-28 D P-8 D P-38 D P-18 D
P-29 C P-9 A P-39 B P-19 C
P-30 C P-10 A P-40 B P-20 C
P-31 B P-11 B P-1 C P-21 A
P-32 D P-12 D P-2 D P-22 D
P-33 D P-13 D P-3 D P-23 D
Page 6 of 7
Text of page 7
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
According to 42nd
amendment, the
president of Inida to act
P-34 B P-14 B P-4 C P-24 A
in according with the
advice rendered by the
council of minister.
P-35 D P-15 D P-5 D P-25 D
P-36 C P-16 A P-6 B P-26 C
Act. 21 ensures that
every person has the
right to life and liberty.
If any person or
P-37 D P-17 D P-7 D P-27 D organisation tries to
violate the right of that
person then the
aggrieved person can
directly go to the
Supreme Court.
P-38 B P-18 B P-8 C P-28 A
P-39 D P-19 D P-9 D P-29 D
P-40 D P-20 D P-10 D P-30 D
Page 7 of 7Page 1 of 64
Source: Bihar Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Bihar Public Service Commission.