Bihar Secondary Teacher 2024: TRE 3.0, Class 9 to 10, Science

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12/MAV/M-2024-08 Booklet Series
Candidate’s Roll Number
E Serial No.
Question Booklet
LANGUAGE, GENERAL STUDIES AND SCIENCE
Time Allowed : 2:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet is divided into three Parts–Part–I, Part–II and Part–III. Part–I contains questions of
Language (Qualifying), Part–II contains questions of General Studies and Part –III contains questions of
Science.
2. Part–I, Language (Qualifying) consists of Question Nos. 1 to 30. In Part–I, English Language consists of
Question Nos. E-1 to E-8 (common for all), Hindi Language consists of Question Nos. H-9 to H-30, Urdu
Language consists of Question Nos. U-9 to U-30 and Bengali Language consists of Question Nos. B-9 to B-30
(Students are required to choose the questions from any one language out of three languages). Part-II consists
of Question Nos. 31 to 70 and Part-III consists of Question Nos. 71 to 150. (the questions and their responses
are printed in English and Hindi versions both of Part-II and Part-III)
3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. An Answer Sheet has been supplied inside the question booklet to mark the answers. You must write your Roll
Number and other particulars in the space provided in the Answer Sheet, failing which your Answer Sheet will
not be evaluated.
5. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check up your Question Booklet and
attached answer sheet and ensure that the Question Booklet Series is printed on the top right - hand corner of
the Booklet and the series encoded in answer sheet are same. Also please check that the Booklet contains 48
printed pages including two pages (Page Nos. 46 and 47) for Rough Work and no page or question is missing
or unprinted or torn or repeated or question booklet and answer sheet have different series. If you find any
defect in this Booklet, get it replaced immediately by a complete Booklet with OMR sheet of the same series.
6. You must write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page. Do not write anything else on
the Question Booklet.
7. Each question comprises of Five responses–(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You are to select ONLY ONE correct
response and mark it in your Answer Sheet. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct responses
marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
8. In the Answer Sheet, there are Five circles– A , B , C , D and E against each question. To answer the
questions, you are to mark with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen ONLY ONE circle of your choice for each
question. Select only one response for each question and mark it in your Answer Sheet. If you mark more than
one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong. Use Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen only to
mark the answer in the Answer Sheet. Any erasure or change is not allowed.
9. If there is any sort of mistake either of printing or of factual nature, then out of English and Hindi versions of the
questions, the English version will be treated as standard.
10. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from the Question Booklet. You are not allowed to take this
Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the examination. After the
examination has concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Thereafter, you are
permitted to take away the Question Booklet with you.
11. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or penalty as the
Commission may decide at their discretion.
12. Candidates must assure before leaving the Examination Hall that their Answer Sheets will be kept in Self
Adhesive LDPE Bag and completely packed/sealed in their presence.
308 ܶmZ X| : AZwXoem| H$m {hÝXr ê$nmÝVa Bg nwpñVH$m Ho$ ApÝV‘ n¥ð> na N>nm h¡&
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PART - I
(English Language)
Directions (Q. Nos. E-1 to E-5) Read the passage E-4. When did Amitabh got recognition as a movie
given below and answer the questions that follow : star in India?
(A) 1966
Amitabh Bachchan, popularly known as big B, was (B) 1969
born in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh on 11 October 1942.
(C) 1973
He is an iconic actor whose career in Indian Cinema
(D) More than one of the above
has spanned four decades. His father H.R. Bachchan
(E) None of the above
was a well-known Hindi poet. (Bachchan is actually
his father’s pen name but has now become the family E-5. Which film of the following is Amitabh’s first
surname) Amitabh attended boys’ High School in film?
Allahabad, followed by Sherwood College in (A) ‘Zanjeer’
Nainital and earned a degree in science from Delhi (B) ‘Abhiman’
university. His first film was ‘Saat Hindustani’(1969). (C) ‘Saat Hindustani’
He became well-known as a movie star in 1973 (D) More than one of the above
after the success of ‘Abhimaan’ and ‘Zanjeer’ which (E) None of the above
was followed by his box office successes such as
‘Sholay’ ‘Amar Akbar Anthony’, ‘Trishul’, ‘Don’ Directions (Q. Nos. E-6 and E-7) : Fill in the blanks
and “Deewar’. He often played the role of an angry with suitable articles like ‘a’ ‘an’ ‘the’ :
young man fighting a corrupt establishment, a theme E-6. The shadow of moon fills on ______ Earth.
that had tremendous appeal in India at that time. (A) an
E-1. Which city is the birth place of Amitabh in (B) a
India? (C) the
(A) Bombay (D) More than one of the above
(B) Delhi (E) None of the above
(C) Bangalore
E-7. I have always wanted to study abroad, not
(D) More than one of the above
only for ____ degree but also for the
(E) None of the above
experience.
E-2. How long has Amitabh Bachchan dominated (A) an
Indian Cinema? (B) a
(A) Three decades (C) the
(B) Four decades (D) More than one of the above
(C) Two decades (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above E-8. First May 2024 is Wednesday, what day of
the week would be 9th of May?
E-3. From which university did Amitabh earn his (A) Friday
degree in science?
(B) Thursday
(A) Aligarh Muslim University
(C) Monday
(B) Banaras Hindu University
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Punjab University
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
12/MAV/M-2024-08/S-308-E 2



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(Urdu Language)
.U-12
19384
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) 1953
.U-13
(A)
U-14 U-9
(B)
(C)
.U-9
(D)
(A)
(E) (B)
(C)
1953 .U-14
(D)
(E)
(A)
.U-10
(B)
(A)
(C) (B)
(D) (C)
(D)
(E)
(E)
.U-11
1941 15
(A)
1999 35
(B)
(C)
(D)
1964 (E)
12/MAV/M-2024-08/S-308-E 6
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.U-18 (2001) 1967 :"(1977)
(A)
1988
(B)
(C)
(D) 1988 1955
(E) 2004
1998 .U-19
(A) U-20 U-15
(B)
(C) .U-15
(D)
(A)
(E)
(B)
.U-20 (C)
(A) (D)
(B) (E)
(C)
(D)
.U-16
(E)
(A)
.U-21 (B)
(C)
(A) (D)
(B)
(E)
(C)
(D)
(E) .U-17
(A)
.U-22 (B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(D) (E)
(E)
12/MAV/M-2024-08/S-308-E 7 [P.T.O.
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.U-27 .U-23
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
(E)
(E)
.U-28
.U-24
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(D)
(E)
.U-29
(A) .U-25
(B) (A)
(C) (B)
(D) (C)
(E) (D)
(E)
.U-30
.U-26
(A)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(E)
(D)
(E)
12/MAV/M-2024-08/S-308-E 8

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(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
12/MAV/M-2024-08/S-308-E 10
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òlyîû# xyîû þ›%îû&£ì !ô!¡öìëû öëéŸé¤yô!@ý̆þ ôyl%£ì– B-26. þ›%îûyöì” •þöìþ›yèþDéŸé†þy!¥!lîû ô)öì¡ öëéŸé˜,!ÜTèþ!D
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¥öìëûöìSé ŸŸŸé
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(A) lyîû#îû ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
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(B) þ›%îû&öì£ìîû !‹þ_¢!_«öì†þ
~¥z xyöì¡y îûî#wlyöìíîû †þ!îèþy£ìyëû òòôy™%ëÅóó ~¥z
(C) lyîû#îû !‹þ_¢!_« G ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
òòôy™%ëÅóóöì†þ îûî#wlyí òò¡y!¡•þÄóó öíöì†þ þ›,í†þ
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
†þöìîû !löìëûöìSélÐó
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
B-25. òòôyl%öì£ìîû ™ôÅóó î¡öì•þ îûî#wlyí öîyöìVþl韟Ÿé
B-30. òò¡y!¡•þÄóó ¢·!Øþîû î%Äêþ›!_ !lÁ¬îû*þ›é ŸŸŸé
(A) lyîû#éŸéþ›%îû&öì£ìîû !ô!¡•þ xy™Äy!d†þ ¤y™ly
(A) ¡!¡•þ + £ìøþÄ
(B) þ›%îû&öì£ìîû !‹þ_¢!_« G ²Ìy”¢!_«öì†þ
(B) ¡!¡•þ + ëê
(C) lyîû#éŸéþ›%îû&öì£ìîû !ô!¡•þ ¤yô!@ý̆þ ÷î!¢ÜTÄöì†þ
(C) ¡y!¡•þä + ë
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(D) ’þzþ›öìîûy_«=!¡îû ôöì™Ä ~öì†þîû öíöì†þ x!™†þ
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
(E) ’þzþ›öìîûîû ö†þyöìly!Øþ¥z lëû
12/MAV/M-2024-08/S-308-E 11 [P.T.O.
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PART - II
(GENERAL STUDIES)
31. A player makes 7 complete revolutions of a 3
circular path to complete a race of 2200 2
35. By what number should be divided
metres. The radius of the circular path is : 3
22 4
2
so that the quotient is ?
7 9
(A) 42 metres
2
(B) 45 metres (A)
3
(C) 50 metres
(D) More than one of the above 2
(B)
(E) None of the above 3
3
32. If the capacity of a cylindrical tank is 1848 m3 (C)
2
and the diameter of its base is 14 m, the depth (D) More than one of the above
22 (E) None of the above
of the tank is :
7
1
(A) 8 m 36. If x 5 , what is the value of x 4 14 ?
x x
(B) 12 m (A) 525
(C) 16 m (B) 527
(D) More than one of the above (C) 529
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
1 th 37. A bag contains 5-rupee, 2-rupee and 1-rupee
33. If of a number is 30, what will be 62% of
8 coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The total value of all
that number? the coins is N2,000. How many coins of
(A) 181.3 2-rupee are there in the bag?
(B) 178.24 (A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 148.8
(C) 400
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
34. The salary of an officer is increased by 25%. 38. The interior angle of a regular polygon exceeds
By what percent should the new salary be its exterior angle by 108º. How many sides
decreased to restore the original salary? does the polygon have?
(A) 10
(A) 25
(B) 9
(B) 22.5
(C) 8
(C) 20 (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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39. Zinc Oxide is normally used in the 44. Velocity of sound at 15ºC and 380mm
manufacture of pressure is 340m. sec–1. If the pressure is
(A) Paints doubled without change of temperature, the
(B) Explosives velocity of sound would become
(C) Solvents (A) 680m. sec–1
(D) More than one of the above (B) 170m. sec–1
(E) None of the above (C) 190m. sec
(D) 340m. sec–1
(E) None of the above
40. Lenz’s law is derived from the law of
conservation of
(A) Magnetism 45. If a bacterium cell divides in every 15 min,
(B) Momentum how many bacteria will be formed in 2 hours.
(C) Charge (A) 8
(D) More than one of the above (B) 16
(C) 64
(E) None of the above
(D) 256
(E) None of the above
41. Glycogen stored in liver and muscles of human
body is in form of
(A) Monosaccharide 46. Plants and animal cell differ in which of the
following structure?
(B) Polysaccharide
(A) Enzymes
(C) Protein
(B) Nuclei
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Cell wall
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
42. In which of the following blood has defective
haemoglobin?
47. According to the recent report of forbes,
(A) Haematoma
which is the strongest currency in the world?
(B) Sickle cell Anaemia
(A) Omani Rial
(C) Haemophilia (B) Kuwaiti Dinar
(D) More than one of the above (C) Bahrain Dinar
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
43. In which of the following medicine production,
ethyl alcohol can be used? 48. In which city of Maharashtra did PM
(A) Antiseptic Narendra Modi launch 8 AMRUT projects?
(B) Antipyretic (A) Kollam
(C) Anti-allergic (B) Baroda
(D) More than one of the above (C) Solapur
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
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49. IIT Madras has tied up with whom to launch 54. India has acquired the right to operate the
e Mobility Simulation Lab? foreign Sittwe Port, it is in which country?
(A) Altair (A) Sri Lanka
(B) Starlink (B) Bangladesh
(C) Myanmar
(C) Farber Speciality Lab
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
55. Mangrove forest of Ganga Delta is called
50. Who won the Best Actor Award at the (A) Sunderban
Academy Awards 2024 (Oscars)? (B) Sundergarh
(A) Dwayne Johnson (C) Surendranagar
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Cillian Murphy
(E) None of the above
(C) Tom Cruise
(D) More than one of the above 56. Which river is frequently changing its course
(E) None of the above of flow in Bihar
(A) Gandak
(B) Kosi
51. Who was recently selected as the ICC (C) Punpun
Women’s T20i Cricketer of the year 2023? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Smriti Mandhana (India) (E) None of the above
(B) Nat Seiver - Brunt (England)
(C) Hayley Mathews (West Indies) 57. Plant roots gets water from soil as -
(A) Bound water
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Hygroscopic water
(E) None of the above (C) Capillary water
(D) More than one of the above
52. Who was Crowned Miss World 2024 in (E) None of the above
Mumbai?
58. How much equatorial diameter is larger than
(A) Miss Czech Kristina Pishkova
polar diameter?
(B) Miss India Sini Shetty (A) 36 km
(C) Miss Lebanon Yasmina Zaytoun (B) 43 km
(D) More than one of the above (C) 49 km
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
53. In which country will the clean Energy Investor 59. The Indian Standard Time (IST) is taken at
Forum be organised by IPEF? which longitude -
(A) France (A) 82.5º E
(B) Singapore (B) 78.5º E
(C) Spain (C) 87.5º E
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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60. In India ‘Green revolution’ is known to credit 66. Who intervened in a dispute between the
to whom? workers and mill owners of Ahmedabad in
(A) Dr. V. Kurian 1918?
(B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (A) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Sri. S.L. Bahuguna (B) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) More than one of the above (C) Jamshedji Tata
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
61. Highest Mountain peak of India is known as
(A) Everest 67. Name the left-wing leader of Bihar Provincial
(B) Kanchenjunga Kisan Sabha who popularised this in Bihar?
(C) K-2 (A) Karyanand Sharma
(D) More than one of the above (B) Wadhwa Ram
(E) None of the above (C) P.C. Joshi
(D) More than one of the above
62. Indian continent was earlier part of (E) None of the above
(A) Gondwanaland
(B) Tethys 68. Muddiman Committee was appointed to
(C) Pangea report on the working of the
(D) More than one of the above (A) Dyarchy
(E) None of the above (B) Communal representation
(C) Federalism
63. Who led the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar? (D) More than one of the above
(A) Tatya Tope (E) None of the above
(B) Kunwar Singh
(C) Nana Saheb 69. “He was a great unifier in India who taught
(D) More than one of the above us not only bare tolerance of others but the
(E) None of the above willing acceptance of them as our friends and
comrades in common undertakings” who
64. The spiritual side of nationalism was voiced said it?
by (A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (B) Balgangadhar Tilak
(B) Swami Shraddhanand (C) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Swami Vivekananda (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
70. Who proceeded to organise the Provisional
65. Which newspaper propagated strong Government of Free India outside the
nationalist views during India’s freedom country?
struggle? (A) Raja Mahendra Pratap
(A) Pioneer (B) Rash Behari Bose
(B) Amrit Bazar Patrika (C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) Statesman (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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PART - III
(SCIENCE)
71. Which of the following is not a bisexual plant? 74. Which statement is true for rate of
evaporation?
(A) Papaya
(A) directly proportional to temperature of
(B) White Mulberry liquid
(B) independent of temperature of liquid
(C) Watermelon
(C) directly proportional to humidity of
(D) More than one of the above surrounding air
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
72. Which of the following are the “Big 3” primary
75. Following is the steam state of water:
nutrients in commercial fertilizers?
(A) Solid
(A) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
(B) Liquid
(B) Sodium, potassium and calcium (C) Gaseous
(C) Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
76. The melting point of a solid is an indication of:
(A) The strength of the force of attraction
between its particles
73. Following is the appropriate use of cow dung:
(B) The weakness of the force of attraction
(A) Medicine between its particles
(B) Fuel (C) The equal force of attraction between
its particles
(C) Manure
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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77. The melting point of ice is: 81. Which of the following elements are not in
liquid state at room temperature?
(A) 0°C
(A) Cesium
(B) 273.15 K
(B) Bromine
(C) 373.15 K (C) Gallium
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
82. Atomic mass of oxygen is:
78. When a solid melts, its temperature: (A) 12
(A) Increases
(B) 14
(B) Decreases
(C) 16
(C) Remains the same
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
83. Atomicity of sulphur is:
79. Scattering of a beam of light is called:
(A) Monoatomic
(A) Kelvin effect
(B) Diatomic
(B) Tyndall effect
(C) Tetra-atomic
(C) Newton effect
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
84. When a compound consists of a metal and a
80. Following activity takes place during burning
non-metal, the name or symbol of the metal
of a candle:
is written:
(A) Physical
(A) First
(B) Chemical
(B) Anywhere
(C) Burning
(C) Last
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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85. The mass of neutrons is: 88. Following is the characteristics of an isotopes:
(A) nearly equal to that of an electron (A) Similar chemical but different physical
properties
(B) nearly equal to that of a proton
(B) Similar physical but different chemical
(C) nearly equal to that of sum of an properties
electron and a proton
(C) Different chemical and physical
properties
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
86. 80 g of Helium contains:
89. Which of the following pairs represents
(A) 10 moles isobars?
(B) 20 moles (A) 24
Mg12 and 25Mgl2
(B) 40
K19 and 40Ca20
(C) 16 moles
(C) 40
K19 and 39K19
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
87. Which of the following is the exceptions to
90. Which of the following reaction is also termed
the Law of Constant Proportions?
as decomposition reaction?
(A) H2O
(A) Combination reaction
(B) NO 2 (B) Thermal Decomposition reaction
(C) FeO (C) Displacement reaction
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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91. The reaction 2Mgl2 + Mn(SO3)2 MgSO3 + 94. The main plant body of the bryophyte is:
Mnl4 is :
(A) Haploid
(A) Single Displacement
(B) Diploid
(B) Decomposition
(C) Tetraploid
(C) Double Displacement
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
95. Metamerically segment body is present in
92. Which of the following is combination following Phylum:
reaction(s)?
(A) Ctenophora
(A) MgO+H2OMg(OH)2
(B) Annelida
(B) 4A1+3O22Al2O3
(C) Arthropoda
(C) 2KClO3 2KCl+3O2
Heat
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
96. All prokaryotes have a cell wall surrounding
93. The genus Panthera includes: the cell membrane except in:
(A) Lion (A) Blue green Algae
(B) Leopard (B) PPLO
(C) Wolf (C) Mycoplasma
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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97. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is 100. Which of the following is not a connective
frequently observed in the cells actively tissue?
involved in:
(A) Blood
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Cartilage
(B) Secretion
(C) Skin
(C) Absorption
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
101. The amount of the filtrate formed by the
98. Non-staining secondary constrictions on a kidneys per minute is called:
chromosome is called:
(A) Reabsorption
(A) Centromere
(B) Glomerular filtration rate
(B) Satellite
(C) Ultra filtration rate
(C) Kinetochore
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
99. In the monocotyledons, the vascular bundles 102. A car is moving on a crowded street is an
have no: example of:
(A) Phloem (A) Uniform motion
(B) Xylem (B) Non-uniform motion
(C) Cambium (C) Unconditional motion
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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103. In a distance-time graph, which variable is 106. The SI units of force is?
plotted on the Y-axis?
(A) Newton-metre
(A) Velocity
(B) Newton
(B) Time
(C) Kgm/-s
(C) Distance
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
104. Which of the following equation represents 107. The linear momentum of an object is
the position-time relation? 500 g cm/s. If the velocity of the object is
10 m/s, what will be the mass of the object?
(A) v = u + at
(A) 0.2 g
(B) s = ut + ½ at 2
(B) 0.2 mg
(C) 2 as = v – u
2 2
(C) 2 mg
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
105. Which statement is true when a body moves
108. The law of gravitation defines as the
with a constant speed along a circle?
gravitational force between:
(A) There is no acceleration produced in (A) Earth and Moon only
the body
(B) Earth and Sun only
(B) No work is done on it
(C) Any two bodies having mass
(C) The body has constant velocity
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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109. Ability to do work is known as: 112. Low pressure region created by the backward
movement of a vibrating object is called:
(A) Force
(A) Rarefaction
(B) Power
(B) Reflection
(C) Energy
(C) Refraction
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
110. Which of the following statement is an
113. Children under the age of five can hear upto :
example of kinetic energy?
(A) 15 kHz
(A) The football is on floor
(B) 20 kHz
(B) The football is falling
(C) 25 kHz
(C) The football is on a player’s hand
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
114. Which part of the human ear vibrates in
111. If the linear momentum is increased by 50%
response to sound from an external source?
the kinetic energy will increase by:
(A) Tympanic membrane
(A) 75%
(B) External ear
(B) 125%
(C) Cochlea
(C) 225%
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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115. Buoyant force is also known as: 118. This decrease of ozone layer has been linked
to the use of:
(A) Strain
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
(B) Pressure force
(B) Fire extinguishers
(C) Thrust force
(C) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
116. Which of the following is not a natural
resource? 119. Which of the following process the carbon
return to the atmosphere as CO2?
(A) Water
(A) Decayed Organism
(B) Air
(C) Electricity (B) Respiration
(D) More than one of the above (C) Photosynthesis
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
117. Which type of monsoon is mostly seen in
India?
120. Which of the following is a strong acid?
(A) South-West monsoon
(A) HCl
(B) North-East monsoon
(B) CH3COOH
(C) South-East monsoon
(C) H2SO4
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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121. A neutral solution contains: 124. Which of the following carbon compound
contains two atoms of carbon?
(A) Large number of H+ and a smaller
number of OH– ions (A) Methane
(B) Smaller number of H+ and a larger
(B) Ethane
number of OH– ions
(C) Equal number of H+and OH– ions (C) Propane
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
122. The gain of oxygen is known as:
125. An example of a saturated hydrocarbon is
(A) Oxidation
(A) C2 H 2
(B) Reduction
(B) C2 H 4
(C) Equalization
(C) C2 H 6
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
123. Which of the following property of metals is
126. The bee-sting contains which carboxylic acid?
used for making bells?
(A) Malleability (A) Methanoic acid
(B) Ductility (B) Acetic acid
(C) Sonorousness (C) Citric acid
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
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127. The law of octaves was proposed by: 130. Which of the following is the damaging effect
of ozone layer to human health?
(A) Johann Dobereiner
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) John Alexander Newlands
(B) Skin cancers
(C) Dmitri Mendeleev
(C) Dyspepsia
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
128. Which of the following is the most reactive
element of group 17? 131. The bioremediation process involving the
usage of plants to degrade pollutants is:
(A) Oxygen
(A) Composting
(B) Sodium
(B) Land farming
(C) Fluorine
(C) Phytoremediation
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
129. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas due to its
activity as it: 132. Which of the following minerals plays a major
role in energy storage and transfer of ADP
(A) Absorb heat into ATP molecules?
(B) Absorb light (A) Phosphorus
(C) Absorb warm currents (B) Magnesium
(D) More than one of the above (C) Molybdenum
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
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133. Earthworms breathe through: 136. Which of the following is a voluntary action?
(A) Mouth (A) Beating of Heart
(B) Skin (B) Respiration
(C) Lungs
(C) Urine formation
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
134. Which of the following carries deoxygenated
blood to the lungs from the right ventricle? 137. Vegetative propagation found in:
(A) Pulmonary artery (A) Spirogyra
(B) Pulmonary vein (B) Bryophyllum
(C) Aorta (C) Rhizopus
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
138. The book “On the Origin of Species” was
135. Which of the following is not a function of the
written by:
stomata in excretion?
(A) Jean-Baptiste de Monet Lamarck
(A) Regulating water balance
(B) Charles Darwin
(B) Removing carbon dioxide
(C) Thomas Malthus
(C) Absorbing nutrients
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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139. What will be the resistance when the length 142. Which of the following rules is used to identify
of the conductor is doubled and the area of the direction of the current induced in a wire
cross-section remains the same? moving in a magnetic field?
(A) Remains the same (A) Ampere’s Rule
(B) Will be doubled (B) Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule
(C) Will become half (C) Right-hand thumb rule
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
143. Which of the following principle the metal
140. What will be the ratio of resistance of two
detectors are based?
bulbs rated 40W, 220V and 60W, 220V?
(A) electromagnetic difference
(A) 3:4
(B) electromagnetic induction
(B) 2:3
(C) potential difference
(C) 3:2
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
144. On which type of mirrors the laws of reflection
141. Two magnetic field lines intersect: are valid?
(A) At the neutral point (A) Convex mirror
(B) At the midpoint of the magnet (B) Plane mirror
(C) Concave mirror
(C) Near north-pole or south pole
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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145. Which of the following type of image is 148. From the following statements choose the
produces by a concave lens: correct one regarding Chipko movement:
(A) It was initiated by Sundarlal Bahuguna
(A) Virtual image
(B) People protected trees from being cut
(B) Erect image by hugging them
(C) Diminished image (C) This was a movement for the
conservation of forest
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
146. Near sightedness is termed as: 149. Biogas is considered a ‘good’ source of
energy because it:
(A) Myopia
(A) Produces ashes
(B) Hypermetropia (B) Produces methane
(C) Presbyopia (C) Decomposes in the absence of oxygen
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
150. The energy produced in nuclear reaction
147. Deforestation may increase the chances of:
comes from:
(A) frequent landslides (A) Nuclear fission
(B) erosion of surface soil (B) The mass of the fuel
(C) rainfall (C) Heavy Water
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
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Text of page 1
Bihar Public Service Commission
Exam Date- 21-07-2024
Advt. No. 22/2024, Science, Class 9-10
Final Answer key
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
E-1 E E-4 E E-3 E E-4 E
E-2 B E-5 B E-4 C E-5 A
E-3 E E-6 E E-5 E E-1 E
E-4 C E-7 A E-1 B E-2 C
E-5 C E-8 A E-2 B E-3 C
E-6 C E-1 A E-7 B E-7 C
E-7 B E-2 B E-8 C E-6 A
E-8 B E-3 B E-6 C E-8 A
H-9 C H-15 A H-19 B H-16 C
H-10 A H-16 C H-20 A H-17 B
H-11 C H-17 A H-21 B H-18 C
H-12 B H-18 B H-22 C H-19 A
H-13 E H-19 E H-23 E H-20 E
H-14 B H-20 B H-24 C H-21 A
H-15 B H-21 B H-25 C H-22 A
H-16 E H-22 E H-26 E H-23 E
H-17 A H-23 C H-27 A H-24 B
H-18 C H-24 A H-28 B H-25 C
H-19 A H-25 C H-29 A H-26 B
H-20 C H-26 A H-30 B H-27 C
H-21 C H-27 A H-9 B H-28 C
H-22 B H-28 B H-10 C H-29 A
H-23 D H-29 D H-11 D H-30 D
H-24 D H-30 D H-12 D H-9 D
H-25 D H-9 D H-13 D H-10 D
H-26 B H-10 B H-14 C H-11 A
H-27 B H-11 B H-15 C H-12 A
H-28 A H-12 C H-16 A H-13 B
H-29 C H-13 A H-17 B H-14 C
H-30 B H-14 B H-18 C H-15 A
U-9 B U-15 B U-19 C U-16 A
U-10 A U-16 C U-20 A U-17 B
U-11 C U-17 A U-21 B U-18 C
U-12 C U-18 A U-22 B U-19 C
U-13 A U-19 C U-23 A U-20 B
U-14 B U-20 B U-24 C U-21 A
U-15 B U-21 B U-25 C U-22 A
U-16 A U-22 C U-26 A U-23 B
U-17 A U-23 C U-27 A U-24 B
U-18 A U-24 C U-28 A U-25 B
U-19 DELETED U-25 DELETED U-29 DELETED U-26 DELETED
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Text of page 2
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
U-20 B U-26 B U-30 C U-27 A
U-21 C U-27 A U-9 B U-28 C
U-22 B U-28 B U-10 C U-29 A
U-23 A U-29 C U-11 A U-30 B
U-24 B U-30 B U-12 C U-9 A
U-25 B U-9 B U-13 C U-10 A
U-26 A U-10 C U-14 A U-11 B
U-27 C U-11 A U-15 B U-12 C
As per firozul lughat
(famous urdu dictionary),
the "Tedhi Kheer" is said
as Zarbul Masal but
Zarbul Masal is an
Arabic word and in urdu
it is also said "
U-28 D U-12 D U-16 D U-13 D
Kahawat". Hence Zarbul
Masal & Kahawat are
synonyms. So Answer in
option A & B both are
correct, therefore the
correct answer is option "
D".
U-29 B U-13 B U-17 C U-14 A
U-30 C U-14 A U-18 B U-15 C
B-9 E B-25 E B-28 E B-21 E
B-10 B B-26 B B-29 C B-22 A
B-11 B B-27 B B-30 C B-23 A
B-12 C B-28 A B-9 B B-24 C
B-13 D B-29 D B-10 D B-25 D
B-14 C B-30 A B-11 B B-26 C
B-15 B B-9 B B-12 C B-27 A
B-16 A B-10 C B-13 A B-28 B
B-17 D B-11 D B-14 D B-29 D
B-18 B B-12 B B-15 C B-30 A
B-19 C B-13 A B-16 B B-9 C
B-20 B B-14 B B-17 C B-10 A
B-21 A B-15 C B-18 A B-11 B
B-22 A B-16 C B-19 A B-12 B
B-23 A B-17 C B-20 A B-13 B
B-24 B B-18 B B-21 C B-14 A
B-25 C B-19 A B-22 B B-15 C
B-26 A B-20 C B-23 A B-16 B
B-27 A B-21 C B-24 A B-17 B
B-28 C B-22 A B-25 B B-18 C
B-29 E B-23 E B-26 E B-19 E
B-30 A B-24 C B-27 A B-20 B
31 C 51 A 41 B 61 C
32 B 52 B 42 C 62 A
33 C 53 A 43 B 63 C
34 C 54 A 44 B 64 C
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Text of page 3
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
35 B 55 B 45 C 65 A
36 B 56 B 46 C 66 A
37 E 57 E 47 E 67 E
38 A 58 C 48 A 68 B
39 A 59 C 49 A 69 B
40 E 60 E 50 E 70 E
41 B 61 B 51 C 31 A
42 B 62 B 52 C 32 A
43 A 63 C 53 A 33 B
44 D 64 D 54 D 34 D
45 D 65 D 55 D 35 D
46 C 66 A 56 B 36 C
47 B 67 B 57 C 37 A
48 C 68 A 58 B 38 C
49 A 69 C 59 A 39 B
50 B 70 B 60 C 40 A
51 C 31 A 61 B 41 C
52 A 32 C 62 A 42 B
53 B 33 B 63 C 43 A
54 C 34 A 64 B 44 C
55 A 35 C 65 A 45 B
56 B 36 B 66 C 46 A
57 C 37 A 67 B 47 C
58 B 38 B 68 C 48 A
59 A 39 C 69 A 49 B
60 B 40 B 70 C 50 A
61 C 41 A 31 B 51 C
62 DELETED 42 DELETED 32 DELETED 52 DELETED
63 B 43 B 33 C 53 A
64 C 44 A 34 B 54 C
65 B 45 B 35 C 55 A
66 B 46 B 36 C 56 A
67 A 47 C 37 A 57 B
68 A 48 C 38 A 58 B
69 E 49 E 39 E 59 E
70 B 50 B 40 C 60 A
71 D 95 D 113 D 131 D
72 A 96 C 114 A 132 B
73 C 97 A 115 B 133 C
74 A 98 C 116 A 134 B
75 C 99 A 117 B 135 C
76 A 100 C 118 A 136 B
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SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
77 D 101 D 119 D 137 D
78 C 102 A 120 B 138 C
79 B 103 B 121 C 139 A
80 D 104 D 122 D 140 D
81 D 105 D 123 D 141 D
82 C 106 A 124 B 142 C
83 E 107 E 125 E 143 E
84 A 108 C 126 A 144 B
85 B 109 B 127 C 145 A
86 B 110 B 128 C 146 A
87 C 111 A 129 B 147 C
88 A 112 C 130 A 148 B
89 B 113 B 131 C 149 A
90 B 114 B 132 C 150 A
91 C 115 A 133 B 71 C
92 D 116 D 134 D 72 D
93 D 117 D 135 D 73 D
94 A 118 C 136 A 74 B
Both Annelids and
Arthropoda have
matamericallyu
95 D 119 D 137 D 75 D
segmented body.
Hence more than one
options is correct.
Mycoplasma which is
initially also called as
PPLO lack cell wall
96 D 120 D 138 D 76 D around the cell
membrane. So more
than one options is
correct
The cells which are
actively involved in
the synthesis of
protein including
97 A 121 C 139 A 77 B secretory protein
contain a large
quantity of rough
endoplasmic
reticulum.
98 B 122 B 140 C 78 A
99 C 123 A 141 B 79 C
100 C 124 A 142 B 80 C
101 B 125 B 143 C 81 A
102 B 126 B 144 C 82 A
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Text of page 5
SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
103 C 127 A 145 B 83 C
104 B 128 B 146 C 84 A
105 B 129 B 147 C 85 A
106 B 130 B 148 C 86 A
107 E 131 E 149 E 87 E
108 C 132 A 150 B 88 C
109 C 133 A 71 B 89 C
110 B 134 B 72 C 90 A
111 B 135 B 73 C 91 A
112 A 136 C 74 A 92 B
113 C 137 A 75 B 93 C
114 A 138 C 76 A 94 B
Thrust forces on
different parts of
submerged body are
not necessarily
vertical while
115 E 139 E 77 E 95 E
buoyancy is always
vertically upward.
Buoyancy is neither
strain not pressure
force.
116 C 140 A 78 B 96 C
117 A 141 C 79 A 97 B
118 D 142 D 80 D 98 D
119 B 143 B 81 C 99 A
120 D 144 D 82 D 100 D
121 C 145 A 83 B 101 C
122 A 146 C 84 A 102 B
123 C 147 A 85 B 103 C
124 B 148 B 86 C 104 A
125 C 149 A 87 B 105 C
126 A 150 C 88 A 106 B
127 B 71 B 89 C 107 A
128 C 72 A 90 B 108 C
129 A 73 C 91 A 109 B
130 B 74 B 92 C 110 A
131 C 75 A 93 B 111 C
132 A 76 C 94 A 112 B
133 B 77 B 95 C 113 A
134 A 78 C 96 A 114 B
135 D 79 D 97 D 115 D
136 E 80 E 98 E 116 E
137 D 81 D 99 D 117 D
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SET-E ANSWER KEY SET-F ANSWER KEY SET-G ANSWER KEY SET-H ANSWER KEY REASON
138 B 82 B 100 C 118 A
139 B 83 B 101 C 119 A
140 C 84 A 102 B 120 C
141 E 85 E 103 E 121 E
142 B 86 B 104 C 122 A
143 B 87 B 105 C 123 A
144 D 88 D 106 D 124 D
145 D 89 D 107 D 125 D
146 A 90 C 108 A 126 B
147 D 91 D 109 D 127 D
148 D 92 D 110 D 128 D
Biogas contains
mainly methane (up to
149 B 93 B 111 C 129 A
75%). So it is good
source of energy.
150 B 94 B 112 C 130 A
Page 6 of 6Page 1 of 48
Source: Bihar Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Bihar Public Service Commission.