Bihar Upper Primary Teacher 2024: TRE 3.0, Class 6 to 8, Hindi
Text of page 1
Serial No.
Booklet Series
I
11/MIV/M–2024 –02
Candidate’s Roll Number
TTTTTTT
TT T T
I Question Booklet
TTTTTT
Language, general studies and hindi
Time Allowed : 2:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
Important Instructions
1. This Question Booklet is divided into three Parts — Part – I, Part – II and Part – III. Part – I contains
questions of Language (Qualifying), Part – II contains questions of General Studies and Part – III
contains questions of Hindi.
2. Part – I, Language (Qualifying) consists of Question Nos. 1 to 30. In Part – I, English Language consists
of Question Nos. E-1 to E-8 (common for all), Hindi Language consists of Question Nos. H-9 to H-30,
Urdu Language consists of Question Nos. U-9 to U-30 and Bengali Language consists of Question Nos.
B-9 to B-30 (Students are required to choose the questions from any one language out of three languages).
Part – II consists of Question Nos. 31 to 70 (the questions and their responses are printed in English and
Hindi versions both) and Part – III consists of Question Nos. 71 to 150.
3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. An Answer Sheet has been supplied inside the question booklet to mark the answers. You must write
your Roll Number and encode it and write other particulars in the space provided in the Answer
Sheet, failing which your Answer Sheet will not be evaluated.
5. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check up your Question Booklet I
and attached answer sheet and ensure that the Question Booklet Series is printed on the top right-hand
corner of the Booklet and the series encoded in answer sheet are same. Also please check that the
Booklet contains 48 printed pages including four pages (Page Nos. 44 – 47) for Rough Work and
no page or question is missing or unprinted or torn or repeated or question booklet and answer
sheet have different series. If you find any defect in this Booklet and attached answer sheet, get it
replaced immediately by a complete Booklet with OMR sheet of the same series.
6. You must write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page. Do not write anything else
on the Question Booklet.
7. Each question comprises of five responses — (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You are to select Only One correct
response and mark it in your Answer Sheet. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
8. In the Answer Sheet, there are five circles — A , B , C , D and E against each question. To answer
the questions, you are to mark with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen Only one circle of your choice for each
question. Select only one response for each question and mark it in your Answer Sheet. If you mark more
than one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong. Use Black/Blue ink ballpoint
pen only to mark the answer in the Answer Sheet. Any erasure or change is not allowed.
9. If there is any sort of mistake either of printing or of factual nature, then out of English and Hindi versions
of the questions, the English version will be treated as standard.
10. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from the Question Booklet. You are not allowed to take this
Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the examination. After the
examination has concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Thereafter,
you are permitted to take away the Question Booklet with you.
11. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or penalty as the
Commission may decide at their discretion.
12. Candidates must assure before leaving the Examination Hall that their Answer Sheets will be kept in Self
Adhesive LDPE Bag and completely packed/sealed in their presence.
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paRt – I
( english Language )
directions (Q. Nos. e-1 to e-5) : Read the e-3. A spontaneous influence means
passage given below and answer the questions (A) A quicker influence
that follow. (B) Naturally created influence
Be like a flower. One must try to become like (C) A slow influence
a flower : open, frank, equal, generous and (D) More than one of the above
kind. So you know what it means ? A flower (E) None of the above
is open to all that surrounds it : nature, light,
e-4. A flower is open to all because
the rays of the sun, the wind etc. It exerts a
(A) It spreads its beauty to all
spontaneous influence on all that is around
(B) It influences all
it. It radiates joy and beauty. It is frank. It
hides nothing of its beauty lets its fragrance (C) It radiates joy
flow frankly out of itself. What is within (D) More than one of the above
and what is in its depths, it lets it come out (E) None of the above
so that everyone can see it. It is equal : it e-5. A flower is compared
has no preferences. Everyone can enjoy its (A) With girls
beauty and its perfume without rivalry. It is (B) With all living things
equal and the same for everybody. There is (C) With human beings
no difference or anything whatsoever. Then (D) More than one of the above
generous without reserve or restriction, it (E) None of the above
gives away the mysterious beauty and the
very own perfume of nature. It sacrifices directions (Q. Nos. e-6 and e-7) : Fill in
itself entirely for our pleasure, even its life the blanks with suitable articles like ‘a’, ‘an’
sacrifices to express this beauty and the and ‘the’ :
secret of the things gathered within itself.
e-6. He saw ________ elephant at the Zoo.
And then, kind : it has such a tenderness,
(A) the
it is so sweet, so close to us, so loving.
Its presence fills us with joy. It is always (B) a
cheerful and happy. Happy is he who can (C) an
exchange his qualities with real qualities of (D) More than one of the above
the flowers. (E) None of the above
e-1. The author here talks about e-7. _______ good education is important.
(A) Lily flower (A) The
(B) Rose flower (B) A
(C) Lotus flower (C) An
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
e-8. If 21 March is Wednesday, what will
e-2. The refined qualities of a flower are
be 25th March ?
(A) Frankness and honesty (A) Sunday
(B) Fragrance and beauty (B) Thursday
(C) Generosity and kindness (C) Friday
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 2
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( urdu Language )
.u-10
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
.u-11
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
.u-12
(A) .u-9
(B) (A)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(E)
(E)
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 6
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.u-13
.u-14
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(E)
(E)
.u-15
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
.u-16
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
.u-17
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 7 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 8
.u-18
.u-22
(A)
(B) TT
(A) T T TT
(C) TT
(B) (D)
(C) (E)
(D)
.u-19
(E)
(A)
.u-23 (B)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(E)
(C)
(D) .u-20
(A)
(E)
(B)
(C)
.u-24 (D)
(E)
(A) .u-21
(B)
(A)
(C) (B)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(E) (E)
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 8
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.u-25
.u-28
(A)
TTTTTTT (A)
TT T T
I
TTTTTT
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
(E) (E)
.u-29
.u-26
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D)
(D)
(E)
(E)
.u-27
.u-30 (A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D) (D)
(E)
(E)
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 9 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 10
( Bengali Language )
B-10.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
B-11.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
B-12.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
B-9. B-13.
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(E)
(E)
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 10
Text of page 11
B-14.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
B-15.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
B-16.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
B-17.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 11 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 12
B-18. B-21.
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D) (D)
(E) (E)
B-22.
(A)
(B)
B-19.
(C)
(A) (D)
(B)
(E)
(C)
(D) B-23.
(E)
(A)
B-20.
(B)
(A)
(B) (C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(E) (E)
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 12
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B-24. B-27.
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E) B-28.
(A)
B-25.
(B)
(C)
(A) (D)
(B)
(E)
(C)
B-29.
(D) (A)
(B)
(E) (C)
(D)
B-26.
(E)
(A)
B-30.
(B) (A)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D) (D)
(E) (E)
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 13 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 14
paRt – II
( geNeRaL studIes )
31. Which of the following oxides is 34. In how many years will ` 7,500 double
soluble in water ? at 8% simple interest ?
(A) 16 years
(A) FeO
(B) 10 years
(B) ZnO (C) 12.5 years
(C) CaO (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 35. Which one of the following is not
among the four pilots who have been
trained to become astronauts for the
32. Which one of the following is not a ISRO’s Gaganyaan mission to space
planned for 2024-25 ?
colloid ?
(A) Wing Commander Subhanshu
(A) Vinegar Shukla
(B) Smoke (B) Group Captain P.B. Nair
(C) Blood (C) Group Captain Ajit Krishnan
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
33. Which river makes boundary between 36. Which of the following represents
India and Nepal ? non-ohmic resistance ?
(A) Kosi (A) Copper
(B) Kali (B) Torch Bulb
(C) Gandak
(C) Nichrome
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 14
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37. Asiatic Society of Bengal was 3x
1
founded by 41. If = 0.008, then the value of
5
(A) Sir William Bentinck
(0.25)x is
(B) Sir James Todd
(C) Sir William Jones (A) 4.0
(D) More than one of the above
(B) 0.25
(E) None of the above
−
2 (C) 1.0
38. The value of (0.03125) 5 is
(A) 9 (D) More than one of the above
(B) 4
(E) None of the above
(C) 6
(D) More than one of the above
42. The Ministry of Science and
(E) None of the above
Technology recently announced a
39. Ghatshila of Jharkhand is famous new set of National Awards in the
for which mineral production ? field of Science, Technology and
(A) Mica Innovation known as ‘Rashtriya
(B) Copper Vigyan Puraskar’, for which the
(C) Bauxite award ceremony for all categories of
(D) More than one of the above awards will be held every year on
(E) None of the above (A) 23rd August – National Space Day
40. In which year was the African (B) 28th February – National Science
Convention for the Conservation of Day
Natural Resources held ?
(A) 1990 (C) 11th May – National Technology
(B) 1980 Day
(C) 1960
(D) More than one of the above
(D) 1968
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 16
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43. Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was 46. What is manganese used for ?
formed in the year
(A) Matchbox industry
(A) 1934
(B) 1930 (B) Battery production
(C) 1932 (C) Photography industry
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
44. Subramaniam and Naidu donate
some money in a relief fund. The 47. Which of the following organs control
amount paid by Naidu is ` 125 more body balance ?
than that of Subramaniam. If the
total money paid by them is ` 975,
(A) Cerebellum
then the amount of money donated
by Subramaniam is
(B) Ear
(A) ` 385
(C) Ribs
(B) ` 575
(D) More than one of the above
(C) ` 425
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
48. Subhashchandra Bose was President
of Indian National Congress in the
45. Which Country in the world became
the first to enshrine right to abortion year/s
in its Constitution ?
(A) 1939
(A) Denmark
(B) 1937
(B) United States
(C) 1938
(C) France
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 18
Text of page 20
49. Which of the following is true ? 51. Who was conferred the Dadasaheb
Phalke Award 2023 for lifetime
31 17 43 59 contribution to cinema ?
(A) < < <
36 18 45 60
(A) Asha Parekh
17 31 43 59 (B) Waheeda Rehman
(B) < < <
18 36 45 60
(C) Dilip Kumar (Posthumously)
31 17 59 43 (D) More than one of the above
(C) < < <
36 18 60 45 (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above 52. Which of the following is true about
respiration ?
(E) None of the above (A) Energy is not released at all
(B) Energy is released and stored in
50. Bihar Diwas is celebrated on form of ATP
___________ to
(C) Energy is released and stored in
form of ADP
(A) On March 22 to commemorate
its separation form the Calcutta (D) More than one of the above
Presidency (E) None of the above
(B) On March 22 to commemorate
53. The formation of Simon Commission
its separation form the Mughal
was announced on
Presidency
th
(A) 8 November 1929
(C) On March 22 to commemorate
its separation form the Bengal (B) 8th December 1927
Presidency
(C) 8th November 1928
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 20
Text of page 22
54. Store house of malarial parasite in 57. What was the electoral symbol
our body is that was restored to Imran Khan’s
Pakistan Tehreek-e-Insaf party by a
(A) Stomach ruling of the Peshawar High Court
against the decision of the Country’s
(B) liver election commission in January 2024 ?
(C) Spleen (A) Cricket ‘Ball’
(B) Cricket ‘ Bat’
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Crescent Moon
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
55. The ratio of two numbers is 14 : 25. (E) None of the above
If the difference between them is 264,
then the smaller of the two numbers is
58. Where has the Gharial Breeding
Center been established in India ?
(A) 336
(A) Corbett (Uttarakhand)
(B) 282
(B) Morena (M.P.)
(C) 317
(C) Sundarbans (W.B.)
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
56. For what purpose is water used the 4 4
59. If x + y = 17 and x + y = 1, then the
most in India ? 2 2
value of x y – 2xy is
(A) Domestic (A) 12
(B) Irrigation (B) 4
(C) Industries (C) 8
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 22
Text of page 24
60. Who threw harmless bombs in the 63. National library of India started its
Central legislative Assembly ? journey with the opening of
(A) Jatin Das
(A) Calcutta Public library in
March 1838
(B) Chandrashekhar Azad
(B) Calcutta Public library in
(C) Batukeshwar Dutt
March 1836
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Calcutta Public library in
March 1837
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
61. lamps used in street lighting are
connected in
(E) None of the above
(A) Both series and parallel
(B) Parallel
64. A room is 8 meters long, 6 meters wide
(C) Series
and 10 meters high, then the length
(D) More than one of the above of the longest pole that can be placed
in the room is
(E) None of the above
(A) 12 6 meters
62. Where are more favorable conditions
found in India for tidal and wave
energy production ?
(B) 10 2 meters
(A) Ganga river
(C) 12 meters
(B) Gulf of Kutch
(C) Mannar bay (D) More than one of the above
(D) Khambhat bay
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 24
Text of page 26
65. Under the Government of India 68. Plants appear to bend towards light
Act 1935, who was the first elected due to
Chairman of Bihar legislative
(A) Concentration of auxins at shoot
Council ?
tip
(A) Rai Bahadur Satish Chandra
(B) Diffusion of auxins towards
(B) Rajendra Prasad shady side of shoot
(C) Concentration of auxins at root tip
(C) Rajiv Ranjan Sinha
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
69. What is India’s position in the world
66. Where is the UN Climate Change on the basis of per capita water
Conference 2024 scheduled to be availability per year ?
held in November 2024 ?
rd
(A) 133
(A) Dubai-UAE
(B) 140th
(B) Sharmel-Sheikh-Egypt (C) 100th
(C) Baku-Azerbaijan (D) 123rd
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above 70. Famous for his role during 26/11
Mumbai terrorist attacks,
67. Which city was recently declared as Dr. Sadanand Date was appointed
the tourism capital of the Country by as Chief of which one of the following
the government of Nepal ? forces in March 2024 ?
(A) Pokhara
(A) Enforcement Directorate (ED)
(B) lumbini
(B) Border Security Force (BSF)
(C) Kathmandu (C) Central Reserve Police Force
(CRPF)
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
11/MIV/M–2024 – 02/I 26
Text of page 1
Bihar Public Service Commission
Class -6-8, Subject - Language, General Studies and Hindi
Final Answer Key
D.O.E- 19.07.2024
SET-I
Question No. Set-I Remark
E-1 D
E-2 D
E-3 B
E-4 D
E-5 C
E-6 C
E-7 D
E-8 A
H-9 A
H-10 B
H-11 A
H-12 A
H-13 B
H-14 A
H-15 C
H-16 A
H-17 B
H-18 C
H-19 B
H-20 B
H-21 B
H-22 C
H-23 C
H-24 A
H-25 D
H-26 A
H-27 C
H-28 A
H-29 A
H-30 B
U-9 A
U-10 C
U-11 C
U-12 C
U-13 A
U-14 D
U-15 E
U-16 B
Text of page 2
U-17 C U-18 A U-19 A U-20 D U-21 A U-22 B U-23 E U-24 C U-25 A U-26 A U-27 A U-28 E U-29 E U-30 D B-9 B B-10 D B-11 A B-12 A B-13 A B-14 C B-15 A B-16 B B-17 B B-18 C B-19 C B-20 C B-21 C B-22 B B-23 A B-24 A B-25 A B-26 A B-27 A B-28 C B-29 B B-30 A 31 C 32 A 33 B 34 C 35 E 36 B 37 C 38 B 39 B 40 D
Text of page 3
41 B 42 A 43 A 44 C 45 C 46 D 47 B 48 D 49 A 50 C 51 B 52 B 53 E 54 C 55 A 56 B 57 B 58 B 59 C 60 C 61 B 62 D 63 B 64 B 65 C 66 C 67 A 68 B 69 A 70 E 71 C 72 C 73 C 74 C 75 A 76 C 77 B 78 A 79 A 80 A 81 C 82 B 83 A 84 B 85 A 86 B
Text of page 5
131 C 132 C 133 C 134 A 135 B 136 A 137 D 138 C 139 C 140 B 141 C 142 A 143 A 144 B 145 D 146 C 147 C 148 C 149 B 150 A
Text of page 6
Set-J
Question No. Set-J Remark
E-1 D
E-2 B
E-3 D
E-4 A
E-5 D
E-6 C
E-7 A
E-8 D
H-9 B
H-10 C
H-11 B
H-12 C
H-13 C
H-14 C
H-15 A
H-16 A
H-17 C
H-18 B
H-19 C
H-20 B
H-21 D
H-22 B
H-23 C
H-24 C
H-25 B
H-26 C
H-27 B
H-28 A
H-29 A
H-30 A
U-9 C
U-10 C
U-11 A
U-12 A
U-13 A
U-14 B
U-15 C
U-16 E
U-17 D
U-18 A
U-19 C
U-20 C
U-21 C
Text of page 7
U-22 C U-23 E U-24 E U-25 D U-26 A U-27 D U-28 E U-29 B U-30 C B-9 C B-10 B B-11 D B-12 C B-13 C B-14 B B-15 A B-16 C B-17 A B-18 B B-19 C B-20 A B-21 C B-22 A B-23 A B-24 B B-25 A B-26 C B-27 C B-28 C B-29 B B-30 C 31 E 32 C 33 B 34 A 35 B 36 A 37 A 38 B 39 A 40 A 41 B 42 A 43 B 44 B 45 B
Text of page 8
46 A 47 D 48 C 49 E 50 A 51 A 52 C 53 B 54 C 55 B 56 A 57 B 58 A 59 B 60 C 61 A 62 E 63 C 64 A 65 B 66 D 67 B 68 D 69 B 70 B 71 A 72 C 73 C 74 B 75 A 76 B 77 B 78 A 79 B 80 A 81 C 82 B 83 C 84 B 85 A 86 A 87 C 88 B 89 C 90 C 91 C
Text of page 10
136 D 137 B 138 A 139 A 140 C 141 C 142 D 143 A 144 C 145 B 146 A 147 C 148 A 149 A 150 B
Text of page 11
SET-K
Question No. Answer Remark
E-1 D
E-2 D
E-3 C
E-4 A
E-5 D
E-6 B
E-7 D
E-8 C
H-9 A
H-10 B
H-11 A
H-12 B
H-13 B
H-14 A
H-15 B
H-16 C
H-17 C
H-18 B
H-19 C
H-20 B
H-21 B
H-22 A
H-23 B
H-24 B
H-25 A
H-26 C
H-27 A
H-28 A
H-29 C
H-30 D
U-9 C
U-10 C
U-11 B
U-12 B
U-13 C
U-14 C
U-15 A
U-16 B
U-17 E
U-18 D
U-19 B
U-20 B
U-21 E
Text of page 12
U-22 D U-23 C U-24 E U-25 B U-26 A U-27 D U-28 B U-29 E U-30 B B-9 D B-10 B B-11 B B-12 A B-13 B B-14 A B-15 A B-16 C B-17 B B-18 C B-19 B B-20 B B-21 A B-22 B B-23 B B-24 C B-25 C B-26 A B-27 C B-28 C B-29 B B-30 B 31 A 32 C 33 E 34 A 35 A 36 C 37 C 38 C 39 C 40 A 41 C 42 C 43 A 44 C 45 A
Text of page 13
46 D 47 C 48 B 49 A 50 A 51 E 52 A 53 B 54 A 55 B 56 E 57 A 58 D 59 A 60 D 61 B 62 C 63 A 64 A 65 B 66 D 67 B 68 A 69 B 70 C 71 A 72 C 73 B 74 A 75 A 76 B 77 C 78 A 79 B 80 A 81 A 82 A 83 A 84 A 85 B 86 B 87 B 88 A 89 D 90 A 91 C
Text of page 15
136 C 137 B 138 A 139 D 140 C 141 D 142 A 143 B 144 C 145 B 146 A 147 C 148 B 149 C 150 C
Text of page 16
SET-L
Question No. Answer Remark
E-1 C
E-2 B
E-3 D
E-4 D
E-5 D
E-6 A
E-7 B
E-8 D
H-9 A
H-10 A
H-11 A
H-12 C
H-13 C
H-14 B
H-15 A
H-16 C
H-17 A
H-18 B
H-19 C
H-20 B
H-21 A
H-22 D
H-23 C
H-24 B
H-25 A
H-26 B
H-27 C
H-28 C
H-29 A
H-30 A
U-9 B
U-10 B
U-11 A
U-12 A
U-13 B
U-14 A
U-15 D
U-16 B
U-17 C
U-18 E
U-19 D
U-20 A
U-21 A
Text of page 17
U-22 A U-23 D U-24 C U-25 E U-26 E U-27 A U-28 A U-29 B U-30 E B-9 A B-10 A B-11 C B-12 A B-13 D B-14 B B-15 B B-16 C B-17 C B-18 A B-19 A B-20 A B-21 A B-22 A B-23 B B-24 C B-25 C B-26 A B-27 B B-28 B B-29 A B-30 B 31 A 32 C 33 B 34 A 35 C 36 B 37 C 38 B 39 C 40 E 41 C 42 B 43 B 44 A 45 C
Text of page 19
90 B 91 A 92 B 93 A 94 A 95 B 96 C 97 B 98 B 99 C 100 A 101 B 102 A 103 B 104 A 105 A 106 B 107 B 108 D 109 A 110 B 111 C 112 C 113 C 114 B 115 B 116 A 117 A 118 B 119 A 120 C 121 A 122 A 123 C 124 A 125 A 126 A 127 C 128 C 129 B 130 B 131 A 132 B 133 B 134 C 135 B
Text of page 20
136 B 137 B 138 A 139 C 140 D 141 A 142 A 143 C 144 D 145 B 146 A 147 B 148 C 149 B 150 B
Page 1 of 48
Source: Bihar Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Bihar Public Service Commission.