BPSC Exam 2025: Integrated 70th Combined Main (Written) Competitive Examination, Optional, Animal Husbandry And Veterinary Science

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Serial No.
Booklet Series
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 05
I
Candidate’s Roll Number
Question Booklet
I
ANIMAL HUSBANDRY AND VETERINARY SCIENCE
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 100
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
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1. Cottage cheese is a soft, unripened 5. It is estimated that about _______ ml of
cheese usually made from blood must pass through udder for the
production of one ml of milk.
(A) Toned milk
(A) 500
(B) Condensed milk
(B) 100
(C) Double toned milk
(C) 2000
(D) Skim milk
(D) 50
2. Lactation tetany is a metabolic disease 6. Extra allowance of concentrates during
of mare biochemically characterized by breeding season in sheep is termed as
(A) Hypomagnesemia (A) Challenge Feeding
(B) Hypocalcaemia (B) Precision Feeding
(C) Hypokalemia (C) Flushing
(D) Hypophosphatemia (D) None of the above
7.
3. In Poultry, feed intake is slightly more in
which form of feed ? (A) Zinc
(A) Mash (B) Calcium
(B) Dusty feed (C) Iron
(C) Pellet (D) Magnesium
(D) All of these
8. In ruminants, feeding of high roughage
and low concentrate ration favours the
4. Country with the highest cattle population production of which type of volatile fatty
acid ?
(A) Brazil
(A) Propionic Acid
(B) USA
(B) Butyric Acid
(C) China
(C) Acetic Acid
(D) India
(D) All of the above
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9. What is the primary function of red blood 13. The indicator of fecal contamination is
cells (RBCs) in the body ?
(A) S. Faecalis
(A) To produce antibodies
(B) E. coli
(C) S. Bovi
(C) To regulate blood pressure (D) Salmonella
(D) To carry oxygen to tissues
14. Volatile fatty acids (VFAs) produced
10. Which of the following is the effect of by ruminal fermentation provide more
homogenization on the appearance of than _______ of the ruminant’s energy
milk ?
supply.
(A) Blackish appearance
(A) 70%
(B) Whitish appearance
(B) 45%
(C) Dusty appearance
(C) 85%
(D) Yellowish appearance (D) 60%
11. Challenge feeding in dairy cattle should 15. Vitamin C, Vitamin E, BHT and BHA are
be started
(A) Stimulants
(A) 3 weeks before calving
(B) Flavour enhancers
(B) 2 weeks before calving
(C) Antioxidants
(C) 3 weeks after calving
(D) Anticaking agents
(D) 2 weeks after calving
16. Milk fever in dairy cattle occurs due to
12. What color does cytoplasm stain in H
and E staining ?
(A) Phosphorous
(A) Pink
(B) Calcium
(B) Blue
(C) Black (C) Cobalt
(D) Red (D) Magnesium
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17. Daily production of saliva in cows comes 21. Providing a high-quality diet of
around ______ litres. concentrate and forage 6 – 8 weeks
before calving in pregnant dairy cows is
(A) 1000 – 2000 called
(B) 100 – 200 (A) Precision feeding
(C) 1 – 2 (B) Steaming up
(D) 10 – 20 (C) Phase feeding
(D) Flushing
18. What is the CP requirement for broiler
starter feed according to BIS ?
22. Meat containing sarcocyst is
(A) 20%
(A) Passed
(B) 18%
(B) Rejected on aesthetic ground
(C) 16%
(C) Passed with caution of cooking
(D) 22%
(D) Rejected due to zoonoses
19. Which of the following acts as a
biological antioxidant ? 23. Calories : Protein ratio in broiler starter
must be
(A) Vit. K
(A) 129 : 1
(B) Vit. D
(B) 122 : 1
(C) Vit. E
(C) 139 : 1
(D) Vit. A
(D) 125 : 1
20. Mercury bromophenol blue stain use for
24. Rubbery legs condition in poultry is due
detection of which component ?
(A) Protein vitamin ?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Lipid
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Carbohydrate
(C) Vitamin D
(D) None of the above
(D) Vitamin B1
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25. Which of the following factors played 28. M
of pig is
important role in success of operation
(A) 6 – 8
(B) 10
(A) Presence of large commercial farms
(C) 5
(B) Presence of high yielding milch
(D) 12
cows
(C) Institution of co-operatives centred 29.
around marketing of milk mineral reduces spermatogenesis in bull,
delays sexual maturity and can cause
(D) Restrictive trade measures with foetal abnormalities ?
regards to milk (A) Zinc
(B) Phosphorus
26. What is the daily dry matter requirement (C) Calcium
of buffalo for maintenance ? (D) All of the above
(A) 1 – 1.5 kg/100 kg body weight
30. Farms in which 50 percent or more
income are obtained from a single
(B) 2 – 2.5 kg/100 kg body weight
source are called
(C) 3 – 4 kg/100 kg body weight (A) Specialized farm
(D) 2.5 – 3 kg/100 kg body weight (B) Mixed farms
(D) Integrated farm
27. In ruminants about ______ of total
protein present in the ration escapes the
ruminal degradation. 31. ______ is the main source of energy in
bull semen.
(A) 30
(A) Fructose
(B) 10 (B) Glucose
(C) 40 (C) Trehalose
(D) 20 (D) Sucrose
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32. Indian feeding standard was given by 36. Seminal plasma is
(A) Kellener (A) A collective name for accessory sex
gland secretions
(B) Fjord
(B) The same as semen
(C) Thaer
(D) San and Ray
(D) A component of blood
33. Which stain is most commonly used for 37. Which of the following is not an internal
indicator for the measurement of
digestibility ?
(A) Wright-Giemsa
(A) Titanium oxide
(B) Hematoxylin
(B) Silica
(C) Safranin
(C) Lignin
(D) Eosin
(D) None of the above
34.
38.
leads to tissue samples in liquid nitrogen ?
(A) Increased feed intake (A) It increases the sample’s volume
(B) Increase incidence of silent heat (B) It preserves tissue by reducing ice
crystal formation
(C) Increase milk production
(C) It eliminates all microorganisms
(D) Higher conception rates
(D) It allows for faster dehydration
35. What is the optimum ratio of calcium and
39. What is the number of essential amino
phosphorus for lactating cow ?
acids for ruminants ?
(A) 1 : 0.5
(A) 5 (Five)
(B) 1.5 – 2.5 : 1
(B) 10 (Ten)
(C) 3.5 : 1
(C) 0 (zero)
(D) 1 : 1
(D) 11 (Eleven)
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40. A concentrate mixture used for the 44. Rumen gas largely consists of Carbon
computation of balanced ration for cattle
dioxide and methane in the proportion of
should contain
(A) 12 – 18% DCP and 50 – 60% TDN (A) 65:35
(B) 25 – 30% DCP and 50 – 60% TDN
(B) 25:75
(C) 12 – 18% DCP and 65 – 75% TDN
(D) 25 – 30% DCP and 65 – 75% TDN (C) 85:15
(D) 45:55
41. As per BIS, minimum of Crude Protein
(CP) in creep ration of pig is
(A) 20 45. Which is the best source of phosphorus
(B) 12 supplement in poultry ?
(C) 6 – 8
(A) Wheat bran
(D) 18
(B) Meat meal
42. Which of the following does not form a
(C) Bone meal
(A) Animals (D) Fish meal
(B) Building
(C) Land
46. Which substance is commonly used to
(D) Fodder production
43. Which of the following is the method of (A) Ethanol
diet formulation in animals ?
(A) Trial and error (B) Xylene
(B) Linear Programming
(C) Glycerol
(C) Pearson square
(D) Water
(D) All of the above
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47. Which of the following are considered 50. Selective feeding is maximum in poultry
to be the two most limiting Amino Acids under _____ system of feeding which
(AA) in dairy cattle for synthesis of milk
and milk protein ?
(A) All mash feeding
(A) Alanine and Methionine
(B) Whole grain feeding
(B) Tryptophan and Lysine
(C) Crumble feeding
(C) Methionine and Lysine
(D) Pellet feeding
(D) Lysine and Alanine
48. How many generations is required to 51. W
obtain a progeny with more than symptoms such as decreased growth
95 percent phenotypic resemblance and development, body tissue loss,
to pure breed in case of grading up of poor hair coat and decreased physical
nondescript cows ? endurance ?
(A) 7 (A) Water
(B) 5 (B) Fat
(C) 4 (C) Carbohydrate
(D) 2 (D) Protein
49. With what objective was TRYSEM 52. Which hormones form the Lactogenic
launched by Government of India ? complex ?
(A) To provide semen of elite bulls to (A) Prolactin, progesterone, luteinizing
villages for breed improvement hormone and calcitonin
(B) To help rural youth gain self- (B) Estrogen, progesterone, prolactin
and thyroid hormones
employment
(C) Prolactin, luteinizing hormone,
(C) For empowerment of rural women
calcitonin and aldosterone
SHGs
(D) Estrogen, progesterone,
(D) To conserve indigenous livestock
aldosterone and GnRH
breeds
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53. What is the optimum litter moisture for 56. Standard degree of purity of air for
broiler deep litter housing ? animal houses should not be lower than
(A) 60-75 percent (A) 95.7%
(B) 93.7%
(B) 15-25 percent
(C) 96.7%
(C) Less than 5 percent
(D) 94.7%
(D) 30-45 percent
57. Process of maintenance and
enhancement of established lactation is
54. Which of the following layers of the cow called
embryo eventually forms the digestive (A) Lactogenesis
and respiratory systems ? (B) Mammogenesis
(C) Involution
(A) Endoderm
(D) Galactopoiesis
(B) Ectoderm
(C) Blastoderm 58. Contrast radiography of GIT is performed
following ingestion of
(D) Mesoderm (A) Magnesium sulphate
(B) Magnesium oxide
(C) Air
55. Cotton seed cake contains anti-
(D) Barium meal
nutritional factor named
59. Enteric fermentation in ruminants is
(A) Gossypol
mainly responsible for global warming
due to higher production of
(A) Nitrous oxide
(C) Mimosin (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Hydrogen Sulphide
(D) All of the above
(D) Methane
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60. Milk mirror refers to 64. Ropiness in milk is mainly caused by
(A) Space just ahead of udder (A) Bacillus Stearothermophilus
(B) Mammary veins (B) Lactobacillus delbruekii
(C) Space just above udder between (C) Acidogenes atilactis
Buttocks
(D) Alcaligenes viscolactis
(D) Mammary arteries
65. Urea used in Ruminant feeding contains
61. lntramammary (IMP) pressure and milk Nitrogen percentage (N%) as
secretion rate in cows is (A) 25
(A) Directly related (B) 46
(B) No correlation exists (C) 37
(C) Inversely related (D) 50
(D) None of the above
66. COD is used as a means to determine
62. Foot-rot in animals is caused by
(A) Staphylococcus aureus (A) CO2 requirement
(B) Clostridium perfringes (B) Oxygen requirement
(C) Streptococcus hycius (C) Health
(D) Fusobacterium necrophorum (D) Chemical requirement
63. The digestible portion of feed for 67. Gid in sheep is caused by
ruminants is absorbed in the
(A) Oestrus ovis
(A) Omasum
(B) Rumen (B) Taenia multiceps
(C) Small Intestine (C) Taenia solium
(D) Reticulum (D) Coenurus cerebralis
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68. Which of the following is an example 71. Which of the following attributes are
of protein rich concentrate used for helpful to judge uraemia ?
livestock feeding ? (A) BUN
(B) Creatinine
(A) Molasses
(C) None
(B) Maize Grain
(D) Both
(C) Soyabean Meal
(D) De-oiled Rice bran
72. Roughages are those feed stuffs which
contain
69. Measures taken before construction
of farm like distance between farm
buildings, location of farm etc. to (A) CF > 18% and TDN > 60%
minimize the introduction of infectious
agents in the farm forms which level of
biosecurity ? (B) CF < 18% and TDN > 60%
(A) Conceptual
(C) CF > 18% and TDN < 60%
(B) Operational
(D) CF < 18% and TDN < 60%
(D) Structural
73. Excessive bran like deposition on skin
70. Approximately how many days after
surface is known as
fertilization does implantation occur in
cows ?
(A) Parakeratosis
(A) 15 – 18 days
(B) Pruritis
(B) 1 – 3 days
(C) Pachyderma
(C) 30 – 32 days
(D) 7 – 9 days (D) Pityriasis
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74. A parasitic disease which can be 78. Which one of the following cells lines the
periphery of the seminiferous tubules
(A) Trypanosomiasis and provides a “nurse” function for
(B) Theileriosis developing spermatozoa ?
(C) Onchocercosis
(A) MPS cells
(D) Anaplasmosis
(B) Sertoli cell
(C) Myoid cells
75. How many sesamoid bones are present
in the forelimb of ox ?
(D) Leydig cell
(A) 14
(B) 12
79. What is the minimum level of crude
(C) 3
protein in compound cattle feed type 1
(D) 6
(A) 18%
76. Ketosis is characterized by
(B) 16%
(A) Ketonuria
(C) 22%
(B) Hypoglycemia
(C) Ketonaemia (D) 20%
(D) All of the above
80. Green fodder requirement of adult cattle/
77. Which of the following is a gravimetric buffalo is
test to determine fat content of milk ?
(A) 5% of body weight
(A) Burette test
(B) Gerber method (B) 25% of body weight
(C) MBRT (C) 10% of body weight
(D) Rose Gottlieb
(D) 30% of body weight
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81. Ptosis is the disease of which organ ? 85. According to the PFA Rules chhana
should not contain
(A) Eye
(A) more than 20 per cent moisture
(B) Ear
(B) more than 70 per cent moisture
(C) Head
(D) Lung (C) any moisture
(D) less than 80 per cent moisture
82.
closely when heritability of trait is
86. Maximum milk fat percentage is found in
(A) Medium
(A) Last drawn milk
(B) High
(B) Fore-milk
(C) Low
(C) Uniform throughout milking
(D) None
(D) Milk drawn during middle of milking
83. Goose stepping gait in pig is caused by
87. The joint formed between 1st phalanx
and 2nd phalanx is known as
(C) Excess of biotin
(B) Fetlock
(D) Excess of pantothenic acid
(C) Hock
(D) Pastern
84. _______ disease is a public health
problem in areas where step wells are in
use. 88. Milk fat is
(A) Guinea worm
(A) Colloidal state
(B) Cholera
(B) Gas in liquid emulsion
(C) E. Coli
(C) Oil-in-water type emulsion
(D) Taeniais
(D) Water-in-oil type emulsion
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89. 92. Hairless piglets are born due to
(A) Autocrine glands
(B) Sebaceous glands (A) Manganese
(C) Lacrimal glands (B) Copper
(D) Endocrine glands (C) Zinc
(D) Iodine
90. Which governing body sets the limit
of fat percent in different types of milk
93. Which hormone regulates water
available in the market ?
reabsorption in the kidneys ?
(A) FSSAI
(A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
(B) WHO
(B) Aldosterone
(C) FCl
(C) Cortisol
(D) Apeda
(D) Insulin
91.
contribute to perosis ? 94. Calcium containing feed ingredients in
poultry ration are
(A) Thiamine, Biotin and Choline
(A) Grit
(B) Manganese and Choline
(B) Marble chips
(C) Vit B12, Manganese, Choline, Biotin
and Folic acid (C) Oyster shell
(D) Biotin and Folic acid (D) All of the above
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95. Sheep requires _______ kg dry matter 98. The production of testosterone by Leydig
per day. cells is controlled by
(A) 3 – 3.5 (A) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
(B) 1 – 2 (B) Estradiol
(C) 3.5 – 4 (C) Prostaglandins
(D) 2.5 – 3 (D) Follicle Stimulating Hormone
96. New born animals should be fed 99.
colostrum at the rate of leads to
(A) 5% of body weight (A) Poor uterine involution
(B) 2% of body weight (B) Weak calves
(C) Abortion
(C) 10% of body weight
(D) All of the above
(D) 3% of body weight
100. Which type of cartilage is present in the
97. Antidote of nitrate poisoning
epiglottis ?
(A) 1% methylene blue
(A) Elastic
(B) CaEDTA
(B) Fibrocartilage
(C) Sodium thiosulphate
(C) Hyaline
(D) Dimercaprol
(D) All of the above
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Source: Bihar Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Bihar Public Service Commission.