BPSC Exam 2025: Integrated 70th Combined Main (Written) Competitive Examination, Optional, Civil Engineering
Text of page 1
Serial No.
Booklet Series
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09
I
Candidate’s Roll Number
Question Booklet
I
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 100
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet is divided into two Sections, Section – I and Section – II. Section – I is compulsory. Section – II
consists of four Parts, Part – A, Part – B, Part – C and Part – D. Candidates shall answer questions from any
two Parts out of four Parts.
2. This Question Booklet contains 150 questions in all. Section – I consists of Question Nos. 1 to 50 (Compulsory),
Section – II : Part – A consists of Question Nos. 51 to 75, Section – II : Part – B consists of Question Nos. 76 to 100,
Section – II : Part – C consists of Question Nos. 101 to 125 and Section – II : Part – D consists of Question Nos. 126 to 150.
3. Attempt questions from Section – I (Compulsory) and any two Parts out of four Parts of Section – II.
4. All questions carry equal marks.
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SECTION – I
(Compulsory)
1. The shape of a cable under self weight 4. As per IS456 : 2000 Lap length including
is anchorage value of hooks for bar
intension shall be
(A) Catenary (A) Ld or 30 whichever is greater
(B) 2Ld or 30 whichever is greater
(B) Circular (C) 2Ld or 20 whichever is greater
(D) Ld or 20 whichever is greater
(C) Parabolic
5. The newmark chart is used to determine
(D) Funnicular polygon the vertical stress under a uniformly
loaded area of
(A) Strip footing
2. The side face reinforcement shall be
provided along the two faces of the (B) Any shape
beam where the depth of the web
exceeds (C) Circular shape
(A) 650 mm (D) Rectangular shape
(B) 750 mm 6. Which of the following methods does not
fall under category of force method ?
(C) 550 mm
(A) Flexibility method
(D) 450 mm
(B) Clapron’s theorem
(C) Stiffness method
3. For the beam shown below, the ratio (D) Method of consistent deformation
P
Q 7. As per IS 456 : 2000, which of the
P
A B following statement is incorrect ?
C (A) Modulus of elasticity of concrete is
l l
taken as 5700 fck
Q
(B) Partial safety factors for concrete and
(A) 3 16 steel respectively may be taken as 1.5
and 1.15
(B) 5 16 (C) Lap length including anchorage value
(C) 5 8 shall be Ld or 30
(D) The tensile strength of concrete can
3
(D) 8 be obtained from 0.7 fck
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -2-
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8. Commercial steel and cast iron pipes 11. In
the Darcy-Weisbach friction factor
regarded as hydraulically smooth when depends only on the Reynolds number
and the two are related by
(A) The roughness elements are all
completely covered by the laminar 0.316
sub-layer (A) f 1
R 4
(B) The laminar layer 64
(B) f
R
(C) The roughness projections are of low
height (C) f 16
R
(D) The boundary surface is relatively (D) f 1
smooth R
12. If a continuous beam as shown in the
9. The maximum number of unknown
forces that can be determined in a distributed load wkN/m run, the value of
concurrent coplanar force system under central support-reaction becomes zero if
equilibrium is
central support-sinks by
(A) 3
wkN/m
(B) 5 A B C
EI, L EI, L
(C) 2
(A) wl4
(D) zero 48EI
7wl4
(B)
10. The shape of a phreatic line is 48EI
(A) A straight line
5wl4
(C)
(B) A circle 384EI
(C) A spiral
5wl4
(D)
(D) A parabola 24EI
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -4-
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13. As per IS 456 : 2000 which of the 15. For the beam loaded as shown below,
following statement is incorrect ? the reaction at C is
hinge
(A) The bar in column shall not be less
10 kN/m
than 12 mm in diameter C
A B
4m 4m
(B) Spacing of longitudinal bars measured
along periphery of the column shall (A) 7.5 kN
not exceed 300 mm
(B) 8.5 kN
(C) Minimum reinforcement in column is
0.6 percent of gross cross sectional (C) 6.5 kN
area
(D) 5.5 kN
(D) Minimum reinforcement in slab using
tor bar is 0.12% of cross sectional
16. A soil sample (Sp.gr. 2.7) has a degree
area
of saturation of 40% at a water content of
20%, the void ratio of the sample is
14. (A) 2.64
with load W at the centre. If the support
(B) 5.40
B rotates by in anticlockwise direction,
(C) 0.03
(D) 1.35
WL 2EI
(A)
12 L
17. The bearing capacity factors for local
shear failure, are determined with
WL 4EI
(B) respect to
12 L
(A) Decrease C and increased
parameters
WL 4EI
(C)
8 L (B) Reduced C and parameters
(C) Increase C and reduced parameters
WL 2EI
(D) (D) Average C and parameters
8 L
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -6-
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18. Kani’s method is based on 21. If Kx and Kz are the permeabilities in the
horizontal and vertical directions, the
(A) Method of consistent deformation equivalent permeability K is
(A) Kx + Kz
(B) Strain energy method
Kx
(C) Column analogy method (B)
Kz
(D) Moment distribution method (C) Kx Kz
1
2
Kx
19. The side reinforcement in a beam, the (D)
Kz
total area of such reinforcement shall not
be less than
22. Flexibility matrix w.r.t. co-ordinates 1 and
(A) 0.2 percent of the web area 2 mentioned in the Fig. shown below is
(B) 0.25 percent of the web area 1
2
(C) 0.15 percent of the web area
(D) 0.1 percent of the web area
L L
20. For the beam shown below, the ratio of
3EI 8EI
forces P Q is when slope at C (A) f
L L
P
A B 8EI 3EI
C
l l L L
Q 6EI 8EI
(B) f
L L
1 8EI 6EI
(A) 4
L L
1 6EI 3EI
(C) f
(B) L L
8
3EI 6EI
1
(C) L L
3
3EI 6EI
(D) f
1 L L
(D)
2 6EI 3EI
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -8-
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23. The lower limit of the critical Reynolds 26. Which of the following statement is
number below which all disturbances correct as per IS 456 : 2000 in case of
isolated concrete footing ?
(A) The critical section for punching shear
are damped out by viscous action has a
value approximately equal to column
(B) The critical section for checking the
(A) 1000 development length in a footing shall
be assumed at the same planes as
those described in punching shear
(B) 2000 (C) The critical section for single shear is
d
at a distance from the face of the
(C) 500 2
column
(D) The critical section for bending is at
(D) 1 the face of the column
27. The static indeterminacy for the frame
24. A uniform simply supported beam is shown below is
subjected to a clockwise moment M at
the left end. The moment required at
right end of the beam so that the rotation hinge
of right end is zero, is equal to
(A) M 2
(A) 4
(B) 5
(B) M 3
(C) 3
(C) M (D) 2
(D) 2 M
28. The laminar boundary-layer over a long
t-plate becomes unstable and changes
25. If instead of single drainage, the number
of drainage faces is increased to two, the turbulent when the plate Reynolds
rate of compression will be number approaches a value which lies in
(A) 2 times faster the range
(A) 3 × 104 – 5 × 104
(B) 4 times faster
(B) 5 × 106 – 8 × 106
(C) 4 times slower (C) 3 × 105 – 6 × 105
(D) 2 times slower (D) 2 × 106 – 5 × 106
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -10-
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29. Total residual shrinkage strain for post 33. The parameters which determine the
tensioning is
pipe are
300 10 6
(A) (A) Reynolds number and relative
loge ( t 2)
roughness
(B) 200 10–6 (B) Mach number and relative
roughness
200 10 6 (C) Froude number and Mach number
(C)
loge ( t 2) (D) Froude number and relative
(D) 300 10–6 roughness
34.
30. A suspension bridge with a two hinged the minimum thickness of slab shall be
stiffening girder is (A) 125 mm
(B) 130 mm
(A) Statically indeterminate of 2 degree (C) 115 mm
(B) Statically indeterminate of 3 degree (D) 100 mm
(C) Statically indeterminate of 1 degree 35.
(D) Statically determinate
vicinity of the boundary gets retarded.
31. From the particle-size distribution curve,
it was found D10 (A) High velocity grients which exists at
30
and D60 and near the boundary
curvature will be (B) H
(A) 2.328 (C) T
(B) 3.325 (D) H
boundary layer
(C) 1.576
(D) 0.576 36.
with uniformly distributed load of wKN/m
’ the
32. The value of the ordinate at quarter span
BM of a simply supported beam is 0.6 m. wl2 6EI
(A)
If the span of the beam is doubled the 12 L2
corresponding value will be
wl2 6EI
(B)
(A) 0.3 m 12 L2
(B) 3.6 m wl2 6EI
(C)
8 L2
(C) 1.2 m
wl2 6EI
(D)
(D) 0.6 m 8 L2
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -12-
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37. For a purely cohesive soil, what will be 40. As per IS456 : 2000, at sections were
the bearing capacity at ground surface the moment capacity after re-distribution
is less than that from the elastic
for a circular footing as per Terzaghi
maximum moment-diagram, the following
analysis
Xu M
(A) qu (A) 0.6
d 100
(B) qu Xu M
(B) 0.6
d 150
(C) qu Xu M
(C) 0.4
d 150
(D) qu Xu M
(D) 0.4
d 100
38. The kinematic indeterminacy for the
structure shown below is
41. When its free swell index is between 20
hinge and 35, the degree of expansiveness of
a soil is
(A) High
(B) Very high
(C) Moderate
(A) 9
(D) Low
(B) 12
(C) 6 42. BM at point C of the structure shown
below is
(D) 3 A
10 kN
2m 10 kN
39. The stagnation pressure is sum of
(A) Dynamic pressure and vacuum B C
D
pressure 2m 2m
(B) Absolute pressure and dynamic
pressure (A) 20 kN-m
(B) 10 kN-m
(C) Static pressure and dynamic pressure
(C) 30 kN-m
(D) Vacuum pressure and static
pressure (D) 40 kN-m
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -14-
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43. According to Ehrenberger, the Darcy’s 47.
law is valid for velocities less than shall be at a distance from the periphery
(A) 3 to 4.5 mm/s of the column/capital/drop pannel,
perpendicular to the plane of slab is
(B) 5 to 10.5 mm/s
(C) 10 cm/s
(D) 1 m/s (A) 2d
(B) 3d
44. 22 for the beam
shown below is (C) d
1
(D) d
2
L L 48. The boundary layer exists in
2 2 2
L
(A)
3EI
L
(B)
4EI
L
(C)
2EI 49. A simple supported beam of span L
L
(D) moment M at one support. The strain
EI
energy due to bending is
45. The maximum pressure intensity which
a soil can carry without shear failure is 2
known as its (A) M L 2EI
(A) Net safe bearing capacity 2
(B) Net ultimate bearing capacity (B) M L EI
(C) Ultimate bearing capacity
(D) Safe bearing capacity M2L
(C)
3EI
46. 2
structure shown below is (D) M L
6EI
3m B
A
rigid link 50. In the oven drying method for the
C determination of water content, the
E
3m D 1m temperature should not exceed
3 kN
(A) 120° C
(A) – 12 kN-m
(B) 100° C
(B) – 15 kN-m
(C) – 9 kN-m (C) 110° C
(D) – 6 kN-m (D) 50° C
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -16-
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SECTION – II
Part – A
51. Granite is found in which State of India ? 55. Advantages of plywood over solid wood
are
(A) Bengal
(A) Water resistant
(B) Assam
(B) Availability of large size sheets
(C) Bihar (C) Nearly equal strength in all
directions
(D) Madhya Pradesh
(D) All the above
52. For DLC, the slump value is
56. Le Chatelier test is done for cement to
(A) 20 – 30 mm get its
(B) 30 – 50 mm (A) Soundness
(C) 10 –20 mm (B) Setting time
(D) Zero (C) Fineness
(D) None of these
53.
resistant ?
57.
(A) Duco paint
(A) Sedimentary rock
(B) Aluminium paint
(C) Synthetic enamal paint
(C) Metamorphic rock
(D) Asbestos paint
(D) Igneous rock
54. Teak wood is considered most suitable
for 58. Linseed oil is rapidly soluble in
(A) Packing cases (A) Alcohol
(B) Railway sleepers (B) Neptha
(C) Furnitures (C) Turpentine
(D) Sports articles (D) All the above
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -18-
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59. Which wood be the most durable for 63.
doors ? during the process of moulding, are
known as
(A) Bamboo
(A) Fillet
(B) Chir (B) Frogs
(C) Sal (C) Projections
(D) None of these
(D) Teak
64. In residential buildings, the normal height
60. In residential buildings, the minimum of doors is
area of bathroom is
(A) 2.5 m
(A) 1.8 m2
(B) 3.0 m
(B) 1.2 m2
(C) 2.0 m
(C) 2.5 m2
(D) 1.5 m
(D) 3.4 m2
65. The normal water-cement ratio for
61. Modular dimensions of bricks are as concrete is
follows :
(A) 0.4 to 0.6
(A) 200 mm × 100 mm × 100 mm
(B) 0.5 to 0.7
(B) 195 mm × 95 mm × 95 mm
(C) 0.4 to 0.5
(C) 190 mm × 90 mm × 90 mm
(D) None of these (D) 0.25 to 0.40
62. 66. White cement should have least
percentage of
(A) Double charged
(A) Iron oxide
(B) Whole body (B) Aluminium oxide
(C) Magnesium oxide
(D) All the above (D) Silica
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -20-
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67. Separation of water from fresh concrete 71. Function of sand in concrete is
is called as (A) To provide strength
(A) Honey combing
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Hydration
(D) None of these
(C) Bleeding
72. Dewas windows and door are popular
(D) Segregation due to
68. Compressive strength of Class – 1 brick (B) Security
should be (C)
(A) 105 kg/cm2 (D) All of the above
(B) 115 kg/cm2
73. Grade-33 cement has following
(C) 90 kg/cm2 compressive strength
(D) 80 kg/cm2 (Where Pa is pascal)
(A) 33 × 106 Pa
69. Which construction material of Bihar is
(B) 33 × 107 Pa
most popular and common ?
(C) 33 × 105 Pa
(A) Overburnt brick
(D) 33 × 104 Pa
(B) Fired clay brick
(C) Both (A) and (B) 74. Nalanda is most famous for
(D) None of these (A) Site of ancient university
(B) Budhist centre
70. In brick units bounded together with the (C) Both (A) and (B)
help of mortar, following should be (D) None of these
(A) All courses are laid truly horizontal
75. The number of bricks required per cubic
(B) Thickness of joints by mortar is meter in brick masonary is
restricted to 13 mm
(A) 500
(C) Bricks are thoroughly soaked in water (B) 550
for atleast one hour before use
(C) 450
(D) All the above (D) 400
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -22-
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SECTION – II
Part – B
76. Unif 79. As per IRC : 37 – 2001 (2nd revision),
by
(Where D80, D60, D20 and D10 are
not be less than
(A) 200 mm
size of soil, respectively.)
(B) 250 mm
(A) D60/D20
(C) 150 mm
(B) D80/D20
(D) 100 mm
(C) D80/D10
(D) D60/D10 80. Chandigarh city is an excellent example
of roads of
(A) Hexagonal pattern
77. As per IRC :73 – 1980, recommendations, (B) Radial pattern
the super-elevation (e) is given by (C) Grid Iron pattern
(D) None of these
and R is the radius of curve
81. Addition of lime to soil is used to
V2
(A) (A) Reduce volume change only
250R
(B) Reduce plasticity only
2
V (C) Improve soil strength only
(B)
325R (D) All of the above
2
V
(C)
225R 82. As per IRC : 73 – 1980, the recommended
value of grade compensation on horizontal
V2 curve is (%)
(D)
125R Where R is the radius of curve.
78. As per IS 6241 – 1971, the stripping (A) 30 R
R
value of aggregates used in bituminous
40 R
road construction should be less than (B)
R
(A) 10%
20 R
(B) 5% (C)
R
(C) 15%
10 R
(D)
(D) 20% R
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -24-
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83. 86. In grade separation, roads are
(A) CBR only (A) Separated and constructed at different
elevations
(B) Constructed at the same level
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
(D) None of these
84. The braking distance (S) is expressed as
follows 87. Express way is a part of following plan
(A) Both Nagpur and Lucknow
V3 (B) Lucknow
(A) S
254 f
V 0 .5 (C) Nagpur
(B) S
254 f
V2 (D) None of these
(C) S
254 f
V
(D) S
254f 88. The carriage width of road under
PMGSY Scheme in general is taken as
85. The Poisson’s ratio for concrete follow :
pavement is generally taken as
(A) 5.5 m
(A) 0.20 to 0.275
(B) 0.25 to 0.30 (B) 7.5 m
(C) 0.15 to 0.24 (C) 4.50 m
(D) 0.10 to 0.15 (D) 3.75 m
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -26-
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89. As per IRC (Pocket-Book 2006), the 92. If
abrasion value of base and sub-base then the load distribution on front and
course should be less than rear axle is
(A) 30% (A) Equal load on front and rear axles
(B) 45%
(B) 2w/3 on front axle and w/3 on rear
axle
(C) 20%
2
(C) w/3 on front axle and w on rear
(D) 10% 3
axle
(D) None of these
90. As per IRC : 93 – 1985, the minimum
number of conditions or warrants, under
93. Width of carriage way at intersection
depends on
(A) 3
(A) Inner radius and design speed
(B) 4
(B) Number of lanes
(C) 2
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) 1
(D) None of these
91. In rigid pavement, the dowel bar is
94. Engineering survey includes followings
provided in
(A) Soil and construction survey
(A) Longitudinal joints
(B) Preliminary and location survey
(B) Warping joints
(C) Contraction joints (C) Reconnaissance survey
(D) Expansion joints (D) All of the above
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -28-
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95. Functions of mountain kerbs are 98. The length of the tangent of a simple curve
and radius of
curvature R, is equal to
way
(A) R tan 2
(B) Go over the kerb from shoulder in
case of emergency (B) R cot 2
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) R cos 2
(D) None of these (D) R sin 2
96. As per IRC : SP : 2007 and IRC : SP : 2008, 99. Vehicle Damage Factor (VDF) is
expressed as follow.
Wher s are the load on any
number of groups.
one axle and standard load, respectively.
(A) 4 (A) VDF 3
W Ws
(B) 5 4
(B) VDF W Ws
(C) 3 2
W
(C) VDF Ws
(D) 2
(D) VDF W Ws
97. As per IRC : 64 – 1990, PCV equivalent
100. As per IRC : 67-2010, warning signs
factor for larger bullock cart is are located ahead of point of hazard for
National and State highways of plain
terrain as follows
(A) 4.0
(A) 120 m
(B) 8.0
(B) 100 m
(C) 1.0
(C) 150 m
(D) 0.5 (D) 200 m
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -30-
Text of page 32
SECTION – II
Part – C
101. Leakage through the transverse joints in 106. The ordinate of the uplift pressure at a
a gravity dam is prevented by point is found to be 2.8 m while designing
(A) water stops If the relative density of concrete is 2.4
(B) galleries
to be provided for resisting uplift pressure
(C) keyways without accounting safety factor is
(D) shear keys
(A) 0.8 m
(B) 2.8 m
102.
arrangement, protects the weir from what ? (C) 2 m
(A) Piping (D) 1.16 m
(B) Leakage Problems
(C) Scouring
(D) Silting Action 107. The total pressure on the surface of a
vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top
2 m surface being 0.5 m below the water
103. Ratio of inertia force to surface tension is level will be
known as
(A) Reynold’s number (A) 1500 kg
(B) Weber’s number
(B) 2000 kg
(C) Froude number
(D) Mach number (C) 1000 kg
(D) 500 kg
104. Unit Hydrograph theory was enunciated by
(A) Le-Roy K. Shermen 108.
a horizontal pipe with a changeable
(B) Robert E. Horten
diameter. The water velocity is 2 m/sec
(C) W. W. Horner and the pressure is 2.5 kPa at point A. The
(D) Merril Bernard pressure assure drops to 1.5 kPa at point
B. What is the water velocity at point B?
105. Euler’s equation in the differential form for
(A) 3 m/sec
the motion of liquids is given by
(A) (B) 3 m/sec
(B)
(C) 6 m/sec
(C) dp/
(D) dp/ (D) 6 m/sec
02/GO/CC/M-2025 – 09/I -32-
Text of page 34
109. 113. A concrete gravity dam section is shown in
created by the construction of a weir ?
as 10 kN/m3 and unit weight of concrete
(A) Scouring as 24 kN/m3, the uplift force per unit length
of the dam (expressed in kN/m) at PQ is
(B) Retrogression
65 m Drain
(D) Crest Damage
holes
5m
P Q
110. According to Etcheverry and Harding, the 40 m
10 m
range of conveyance loss is highest in
which soil ? (A) 45000 kN/m
(B) 10500 kN/m
(A) Clay Loam
(C) 6000 kN/m
(B) Rocks (D) 15000 kN/m
(C) Loose sandy soil 114. In a certain month,the reference crop
(D) Sandy Loam evapotranspiration at a location is
111. How many river training works are
needed on the canal head works ?
the actual evapotranspiration in mm/day is
(A) 4 (A) 6.8
(B) 8
(B) 2 (C) 7.2
(D) 5.76
(C) 3
(D) 5 115. The length of the divergent cone in a
Venturimeter is _______ that of the
convergent cone.
112. A 1-h rainfall of 10 cm magnitude at a
station has a return period of 50 years. The (A) Five to six times
probability that a 1-h rainfall of magnitude (B) Three to four times
10 cm or more will occur in each of two (C) Double
successive years is (D) Equal to
(A) 0.02
116. The duty is largest
(B) 0.0004 (A) at the head of a main canal
(B) same at all places
(C) 0.2
(C) at the head of watercourse
(D) 0.04
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117. In deriving the equation for the hydraulic 121. A uniform body 3 m long, 2 m wide and
jump in a rectangular channel in terms
of conjugate depths and initial Froude immersion is 0.6 m, then the weight of the
number body is
(A) Continuity and momentum equations (A) 33.3 kN
are used (B) 353.3 kN
(C) 3.53 kN
(B) Energy, momentum and continuity
equations are used (D) 35.3 kN
(C) Only continuity equation is used 122.
(D) Energy and continuity equations are (A) Greater than 2
used
(B) Greater than 4
(C) Greater than unity
118. What type of points is needed to be joined (D) Unity
to form an equipotential line ?
(A) Velocity gradient points 123. Due to inadequate drainage which factor
causes water-logging with constant
(B) Points of intersection of streamlines percolation ?
and velocity components (A) Inadequate Surface Drainage
(C) Residual heads which still need (B) Flat Topography
energy dissipation (C) Impervious Obstruction
(D) Over and Intensive Irrigation
(D) Equal pressure points
124. Open wells are most suitable for which of
the following?
119. By how much percentage canal capacity
is increased to meet peak demands ? (A) Deep and low yield aquifers
(B) Deep and high yield aquifers
(A) 15 to 20%
(C) Shallow and high yield aquifers
(B) 20 to 30%
(D) Shallow and low yield aquifers
(C) 20 to 25%
(D) 30 to 35% 125. The discharge through an external
Cross-
120. The standard height of a standard rain sectional area of the mouthpiece and
gauge is
(A) 30 cm (A) 1.585 a. (2gH)
(B) 50 cm (B) 5.85 aH. (2g)
(C) 20 cm (C) 1.855 aH. (2g)
(D) 10 cm (D) 0.855 a. (2gH)
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SECTION – II
Part – D
126. What is the minimum excess amount of 129. The hardy cross method of hydraulic
chlorine required to corrode equipment ? analysis of pipe networks, besides
(A) 50 mg/L satisfying the continuity and energy
principles must also satisfy the condition
(B) 60 mg/L that
(C) 40 mg/L (A) algebraic sum of the head losses
around any closed loop is zero
(D) 30 mg/L (B) momentum principle is followed
(C) flow in each pipe has head loss
127. Turbidity is measured on according to Darcy’s Weisbach or any
other pipe head loss equation
(A) Standard platinum scale (D)
(B) Standard silica scale
(C) Standard cobalt scale
130. Which of the following is a disadvantage
(D) Platinum cobalt scale of the zeolite process?
(A) Suspended impurities get deposited
around the zeolite particles
128. The present population of a community is
28000 with an average water consumption (B) Zero hardness can be occurred
of 4200 m3/d. The existing water treatment (C) The process is almost automatic
plant has a design capacity of 6000 m3/d. It
is expected that the population will increase (D) No sludge is formed
to 44000 during the next 20 years. The
131. A process equipment emits 5 kg/h of
number of years from now when the plant Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs). If a
will reach its design capacity, assuming an hood placed over the process equipment
arithmetic rate of population growth, will captures 95% of the VOCs, then the
be fugitive emissions in kg/h is
(A) 15 years (A) 2.5
(B) 16.5 years (B) 0.25
(C) 8.6 years (C) 4.75
(D) 5.5 years (D) 0.48
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132. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by 135.
(A) Addition of carbon dioxide (A) Wastewater from kitchen, laundry
(B) Removal of dissolved oxygen (B) Toxic wastewater
(C) Addition of calcium carbonate (C) Septic wastewater
(D) Removal of copper sulfate (D) Fresh wastewater
136. Given below are two statements.
133. Assertion (A) : At a manhole, the crown
Statement I : An incineration process
of the outgoing sewer should not be used to destroy highly toxic and hazardous
higher than the crown of the incoming waste differs from the municipal solid waste
sewer. incineration process.
Reason (R) : Transition from a larger Statement II : Incineration emits small
diameter incoming sewer to a smaller
chemicals and produces ash residues
diameter outgoing sewer at a manhole
should not be made.
The correct option evaluating the above statements, choose the correct answer
statements is : from the options given below
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false (A) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) Statement I is false but Statement II
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is is true
not the correct reason for (A)
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is false
the correct reason for (A) (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true
134. The moisture content of sewage sludge
of two samples was reduced as follows :
Sample A : 97% to 95% 137. A coastal city produces Municipal Solid
Sample B : 98% to 96% Waste (MSW) with high moisture content,
Select the correct inference.
(A) There is an increase in volume of 60% and low inorganic materials. The most
for Sample A and 50% for Sample B effective and sustainable option for MSW
(B) There is an decrease in volume management in that city is
of 60% for Sample A and 50% for
Sample B (A) Incineration
(C) The decrease in volume for Samples
(C) Dumping in sea
(D) The decrease in volume for Samples
(D) Composting
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138. Which of the following is not commonly 141. The indicator used in COD test is
(A) ferrous ammonium sulphate
of water ? (B) ferroin
(C) phenolphthalein
(A) Sand
(D) starch
(B) Anthracite
(C) Crushed rock 142. Which of the following IS-Code is used for
the basic requirements for water supply,
(D) Garnet sand
drainage and sanitation ?
139. In a certain situation, waste water (A) IS 1172 : 1993
discharged into a river, mixes with (B) IS 456
the river water instantaneously and
(C) IS 10500 (2012)
completely. Following is the data
available. (D) IS 1035 (Part 32)
Waste water :
.00 mg/L 143. The average composition of Municipal
3/s Solid Waste is
River water : (A) 30% organic, 20% inert & 50%
recyclable
3/s
(B) 19% organic, 41% inert & 40%
recyclable
(C) 20% organic, 60% inert & 20%
Initial amount of DO in the mixture of recyclable
waste and river shall be
(D) 41% organic, 40% inert & 19%
(A) 6.5 mg/L recyclable
(B) 8.4 mg/L 144. A water treatment plant has a
(C) 5.3 mg/L sedimentation basin of depth 3 m, width
(D) 7.6 mg/L
rate is 500 m3/h. The removal fraction
of particles having a settling velocity of
140. In which system of water supply, water is
1.0 m/h is ______.(Consider the particle
available for 24 hours but uneconomically
density as 2650 kg/m3 and liquid density
used ? as 991 kg/m3)
(A) Intermittent supply (A) 0.2
(B) Low supply (B) 0.4
(C) Fixed supply (C) 0.1
(D) Continuous supply (D) 0.8
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145. For a grit channel, if the recommended 148. In the context of water distribution system,
which of the following is also known as
tree system ?
period is 1 minute, then the length of the
tank is (A) Dead end system
(B) Grid iron system
(A) 40 m
(C) Radial system
(B) 15 m
(D) Ring system
(C) 16.8 m
149. What is the Theoretical Oxygen Demand
(D) 17.7 m
(TOD) in mg/L of a glucose solution of
concentration 500 mg/L
146. Which of the following is known as
(A) 650.21
washout valve?
(B) 380.65
(B) Altitude valve (C) 533.33
(C) Sluice valve (D) 250.33
(D) Scour valve
150. Which of the following is the use of
Altitude valves?
147. The treatment options for an elevated
(A) Distribution system to shut off the
Total Dissolved Solid (TDS) depends on
supply whenever required
(A) Nature of suspended solids
(B) Supplies water to elevated tanks or
standpipes
(B) Type of microbes
(C) To blow off or remove the sand
(C) Nature of ions
(D
(D) Quantity of water direction only
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Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 48
Source: Bihar Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Bihar Public Service Commission.