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CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024: Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination, Tier 1, booklet code A1

  • Paper code: A1
  • Series: A1
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 40 pages
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 1 of 40
Page 1 of 40
Text of page 1
This booklet contains 40 Printed pages.                                                                                             Test Booklet No. / ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥ÅÿÊ
ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ 40 ◊ÈÁŒ˝Ã ¬Îc∆U „Ò¥–                         RAS-24
ASA                                                    TEST BOOKLET / ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.                                                                  Test Booklet Code / ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê«U
ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê Ã’ Ã∑§ Ÿ πÊ‹¥ ¡’ Ã∑§ ∑§„Ê Ÿ ¡Ê∞–
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ Á¬¿U‹ •Êfl⁄UáÊ ¬⁄U ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏¥–
       INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
                                                                                                                                         A1
                                                                                                               ¬⁄UˡÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê
  1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed             1. OMR ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ •ãŒ⁄U ⁄UπÊ „Ò–              ¡’ •ʬ∑§Ê ¬⁄UˡÊÊ
     to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars
     on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
                                                                                            ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê πÊ‹Ÿ ∑§Ê ∑§„Ê ¡Ê∞, ÃÊ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ÁŸ∑§Ê‹ ∑§⁄U ¬Îc∆U-1 ∞fl¥ ¬Îc∆-U2 ¬⁄U
  2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/               äÿÊŸ ‚ ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’ÊÚ‹ ¬ÊÚߥ≈U ¬Ÿ ‚ Áflfl⁄UáÊ ÷⁄¥U–
     marking responses in the Answer Sheet.                                              2. ß‚ ¬Îc∆U ¬⁄U Áflfl⁄UáÊ •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UŸ ∞fl¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ¬⁄U ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ ‹ªÊŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
  3. The CODE for this Booklet is A1. Make sure that the CODE printed on                    ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’ÊÚ‹ ¬ÊÚߥ≈U ¬Ÿ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄¥U–
     Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Booklet. Also ensure         3. ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê ∑§Ê«U A1 „Ò– ÿ„ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øÃ ∑§⁄U ‹¥ Á∑§ ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê
     that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of
     discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the
                                                                                            ∑§Ê«U, ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§ ¬Îc∆U-2 ¬⁄U ¿U¬ ∑§Ê«U ‚ Á◊‹ÃÊ „Ò– ÿ„ ÷Ë ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øÃ ∑§⁄U
     Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet of           ‹¥ Á∑§ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥ÅÿÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ‚¥ÅÿÊ Á◊‹Ã „Ò¥– •ª⁄U ÿ„ Á÷ÛÊ
     Same Code.                                                                             „Ê¥ ÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ©‚Ë ∑§Ê«U ∑§Ê ŒÍ‚⁄UË ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ‹Ÿ ∑§
  4. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of 150 questions without any             Á‹∞ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê ÃÈ⁄Uãà •flªÃ ∑§⁄UÊ∞°–
     time limit for each part of the Test individually.                                  4. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§Ë •flÁœ 2½ ÉÊ¥≈ „Ò¥ ∞fl¥ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ 150 ¬˝‡Ÿ „¥Ò– Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ∞∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ
  5. This Test Booklet has six Parts, I, II, III, IV, V and VI consisting of
                                                                                            ∑§ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ÷ʪ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸ ‚◊ÿ ‚Ë◊Ê Ãÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§Ë ªß¸ „Ò–
     150 Objective Type Questions and each carries 2 marks. All the
     questions/parts are compulsory. Two (2) marks shall be awarded to                   5. ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ ¿U„ ÷ʪ I, II, III, IV, V •ÊÒ⁄U VI „Ò¥, Á¡Ÿ◊¥ 150 flSÃÈÁŸc∆U
     every correct answer and 0.5 shall be deducted for every incorrect                     ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥ ÃÕÊ ¬˝àÿ∑§ 2 •¥∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ê „Ò– ‚÷Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ/÷ʪ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ „Ò¥– ¬˝àÿ∑§
     answer. Unanswered questions will not be given any marks. Filling                      ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 2 •¥∑§ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝àÿ∑§ ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 0.5 •¥∑§
     up/darkening more than one response in any question will be treated                    ∑§Ê≈UÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ– •ŸÈûÊÁ⁄Uà ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸ •¥∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ ÁŒÿ ¡Ê∞°ª– Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë
     as wrong response and 0.5 mark as wrong response will be deducted.
                                                                                            ¬˝‡Ÿ ◊¥ ∞∑§ ‚ •Áœ∑§ ªÊ‹Ê ÷⁄UŸÊ/¬˝àÿÈûÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸÊ ª‹Ã ¬˝àÿÈûÊ⁄U
     Part-I : Current Affairs and General Awareness                  (Q.Nos. 1-30)
     Part-II : General Mental Ability, Logical Reasoning
                                                                                            ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ ÃÕÊ ª‹Ã ¬˝àÿÈûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 0.5 •¥∑§ ∑§Ê≈U Á‹∞ ¡Ê∞°ª–
                   and Analytical Ability                           (Q.Nos. 31-60)          ÷ʪ-I : ‚Ê◊Áÿ∑§ ◊Ê◊‹ ÃÕÊ ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ¡ÊªL§∑§ÃÊ                               (¬˝.‚¥. 1-30)
     Part-III : Arithmetical & Numerical Ability,                                           ÷ʪ-II : ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ◊ÊŸÁ‚∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ, ‹ÊÚÁ¡∑§‹ ⁄UË¡ÁŸ¥ª
                  Data Interpretation                              (Q.Nos. 61-90)                           ÃÕÊ Áfl‡‹·áÊÊà◊∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ                               (¬˝.‚¥. 31-60)
     Part-IV : General Hindi, Comprehension and                                             ÷ʪ-III : •¥∑§ªÁáÊÃËÿ ÃÕÊ ‚¥ÅÿÊà◊∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ,
                  Communication Skill                            (Q.Nos. 91-105)
                                                                                                            «U≈UÊ ÁŸM§¬áÊ                                         (¬˝.‚¥. 61-90)
     Part-V : General English, Comprehension and
                  Communication Skill                           (Q.Nos. 106-120)            ÷ʪ-IV : ‚Ê◊Êãÿ Á„ãŒË, ’Êœ ÃÕÊ ‚¥øÊ⁄U ∑§Ê҇ʋ                       (¬˝.‚¥. 91-105)
     Part-VI : Basic Knowledge of Computer                                                  ÷ʪ-V : ‚Ê◊Êãÿ •¥ª˝¡Ë, ’Êœ ÃÕÊ ‚¥øÊ⁄U ∑§Ê҇ʋ (¬˝.‚¥. 106-120)
                  Operation                                      (Q.Nos. 121-150)           ÷ʪ-VI : ∑§êåÿÍ≈U⁄U ‚¥øÊ‹Ÿ ∑§Ê ’ÈÁŸÿÊŒË ôÊÊŸ                        (¬˝.‚¥. 121-150)
  6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet            6. ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ ß‚ ¬˝ÿÊ¡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ŒË ªß¸ πÊ‹Ë ¡ª„ ¬⁄U „Ë
     for the same.                                                                          ∑§⁄¥U–
  7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark
                                                                                         7. ‚÷Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§fl‹ OMR ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ¬⁄U „Ë •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄¥U– •¬Ÿ ©ûÊ⁄U äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§
     your responses carefully. No whitener/eraser is allowed for changing
     answers.                                                                               •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄¥U– ©ûÊ⁄U ’Œ‹Ÿ „ÃÈ ‡flà ⁄¥U¡∑§/⁄U’«∏ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ÁŸÁ·h „Ò–
  8. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions of questions/          8. ÿÁŒ •¥ª˝$¡Ë •ÊÒ⁄U Á„ãŒË ‚¥S∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥/©ûÊ⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥ ∑§Ê߸ Áfl‚¥ªÁà „Ê ÃÊ
     answers, English version will be taken as final.                                       •¥ª˝$¡Ë ‚¥S∑§⁄UáÊ •¥ÁÃ◊ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ–

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________________________________________
¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ∑§Ê ŸÊ◊ (’«∏ •ˇÊ⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥) —
Roll Number (•ŸÈ∑˝§◊Ê¥∑§) — in figures (•¥∑§Ê¥ ◊¥) _______________________________________________________________________________________________

                                 — in words (‡ÊéŒÊ¥ ◊¥) _______________________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : _____________________________________________________________________________________________________
¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§ãŒ˝ (’«∏ •ˇÊ⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥) —
Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : _________________________________________________
¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ∑§ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U —                                                              ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U —
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : ____________________________________________________________________________________________
∑§ãŒ˝ •œËˇÊ∑§ ∑§ »Ò§Á‚◊Êß‹ / ◊Ê„⁄U „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U —
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 2 of 40
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                                                              PART - I / ÷ʪ - I
                                 Current Affairs and General Awareness / ‚Ê◊Áÿ∑§ ◊Ê◊‹ ÃÕÊ ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ¡ÊªL§∑§ÃÊ
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1.                In the Financial Year 2023, which of the following countries has recorded the highest Global Food
                  Price Inflation ?
                  (1) India              (2) USA                 (3) Germany            (4) France
                  ÁflûÊËÿ fl·¸ 2023 ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ Œ‡Ê ◊¥ flÒÁ‡fl∑§ πÊl ◊ÍÀÿ ◊¥ ‚flʸÁœ∑§ ◊ÈŒ˝ÊS»§ËÁà Á⁄U∑§Ê«¸U ∑§Ë ªß¸ „Ò ?
                  (1) ÷Ê⁄Uà                    (2) ‚¥.⁄UÊ. •◊Á⁄U∑§Ê         (3) ¡◊¸ŸË                 (4) »˝§Ê¥‚

2.                Which of the following is not elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation
                  by means of single transferable vote, according to the Indian Constitution ?
                  (1) The President
                  (2) The Vice-President
                  (3) The representative of states in the Rajya Sabha
                  (4) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
                  ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚∑§Ê ÁŸflʸøŸ ∞∑§‹ ‚¥∑˝§◊áÊËÿ ◊à ∑§ ◊Êäÿ◊ ‚ •ʟȬÊÁÃ∑§
                  ¬˝ÁÃÁŸÁœ∑§ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
                  (1) ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§Ê ⁄UÊc≈˛U¬ÁÃ
                  (2) ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§Ê ©¬-⁄UÊc≈˛U¬ÁÃ
                  (3) ⁄UÊíÿ ‚÷Ê ◊¥ ⁄UÊíÿÊ¥ ∑§ ¬˝ÁÃÁŸÁœ
                  (4) ‹Ê∑§ ‚÷Ê •äÿˇÊ

3.                As per NEP 2020, by which year the four (4) - year integrated B.Ed. will become the minimal
                  degree qualification for school teachers ?
                  ⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ŸËÁÃ, 2020 ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ fl·¸ Ã∑§ øÊ⁄U fl·Ë¸ÿ ∞∑§Ë∑Χà ’Ë.∞«U. S∑ͧ‹Ë Á‡ÊˇÊ∑§Ê¥ ∑§ Á‹∞
                  ãÿÍŸÃ◊ Á«Uª˝Ë •„¸ÃÊ „Ê ¡Ê∞ªÊ?
                  (1)               2027                                                     (2)               2030                                                    (3)                2033                                                    (4)                2035

4.                What is the name of the law passed in 2023 by the Indian Parliament which ensures reservation
                  for women in legislatures ?
                  (1) Mahila Sashaktikaran Adhiniyam
                  (2) Vidhayika Samman Adhiniyam
                  (3) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam
                  (4) Saman Adhikar Mahila Adhiniyam
                  ÁflœÊÁÿ∑§Ê (ÁflœÊŸ◊¥«U‹ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚¥‚Œ) ◊¥ ◊Á„‹Ê•Ê¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚Ë≈¥U •Ê⁄UÁˇÊà ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ •ʇÊÿ ‚ ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ‚¥‚Œ mÊ⁄UÊ fl·¸ 2023
                  ◊¥ ¬ÊÁ⁄Uà ÁflÁœ ∑§Ê ÄÿÊ ŸÊ◊ „Ò?
                  (1) ◊Á„‹Ê ‚‡ÊÄÃË∑§⁄UáÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊
                  (2) ÁflœÊÁÿ∑§Ê ‚ê◊ÊŸ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊
                  (3) ŸÊ⁄UË ‡ÊÁÄà fl¥ŒŸ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊
                  (4) ‚◊ÊŸ •Áœ∑§Ê⁄U ◊Á„‹Ê •ÁœÁŸÿ◊
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                         2                                                                                                                                                                 A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 3 of 40
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5.                Snow Leopard is the State/Union Territories animal of __________.

                  (1)               Arunachal Pradesh                                                                                                (2)               Uttarakhand

                  (3)               Himachal Pradesh                                                                                                 (4)               Jammu and Kashmir

                  Á„◊ Ã¥ŒÈ•Ê ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ⁄UÊíÿ/‚¥ÉÊ ⁄UÊíÿ ˇÊòÊ ∑§Ê ⁄UÊ¡∑§Ëÿ ¬‡ÊÈ „Ò?

                  (1)               •M§áÊÊø‹ ¬˝Œ‡Ê                                                                                                  (2)               ©ûÊ⁄UÊπ¥«U

                  (3)               Á„◊Êø‹ ¬˝Œ‡Ê                                                                                                    (4)               ¡ê◊Í •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§‡◊Ë⁄U


6.                Among the following metals, which one is least reactive ?

                  (1)               Calcium                                                  (2)               Gold                                                    (3)                Lead                                                    (4)                Zinc

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà œÊÃÈ•Ê¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë œÊÃÈ ‚’‚ ∑§◊ •Á÷Á∑˝§ÿʇÊË‹ „Ò?

                  (1)               ∑Ò§ÁÀ‡Êÿ◊                                                (2)               ‚ÊŸÊ                                                   (3)                ‚Ë‚Ê                                                    (4)                ¡SÃÊ


7.                Consider the following statements :

                  A.                Vitamins are examples of Macronutrients that human body needs.

                  B.                Folic Acid is a type of Micronutrient needed by the body.

                  Choose the correct answer from the codes below :

                  (1)               Only A is correct.                                                                                               (2)               Only B is correct.

                  (3)               Both A and B are correct.                                                                                        (4)               Neither A nor B is correct.

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —

                  A.                Áfl≈UÊÁ◊Ÿ ∞‚ fl΄Œ˜¬Ê·∑§ Ãàfl ∑§ ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ „Ò¥ Á¡Ÿ∑§Ë ◊ÊŸfl ‡Ê⁄UË⁄U ∑§Ê •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ÃÊ ¬«∏ÃË „Ò–

                  B.                »§ÊÁ‹∑§ ∞Á‚«U ◊ÊŸfl ‡Ê⁄UË⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ •¬ÁˇÊà ‚͡◊ ¬Ê·∑§ Ãàfl ∑§Ê ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U „Ò–

                  ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞ —

                  (1)               ∑§fl‹ A ‚„Ë „Ò–                                                                                                  (2)               ∑§fl‹ B ‚„Ë „Ò–

                  (3)               A •ÊÒ⁄U B ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥–                                                                                       (4)               Ÿ ÃÊ A Ÿ „Ë B ‚„Ë „Ò–
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                         3                                                                                                                                                                 A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 4 of 40
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8.                What is the name of the first all-girls Sainik School which was inaugurated in Vrindavan in Mathura,
                  Uttar Pradesh on January 1, 2024 ?
                  (1)               ‘Rani Jhanshi Girls Sainik School’
                  (2)               ‘Veer Balika Sainik Vidyalaya’
                  (3)               ‘Bharatiya Raksha Girls Sainik School’
                  (4)               ‘Samvid Gurukulam Girls Sainik School’
                  1 ¡Ÿfl⁄UË, 2024 ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ¬˝Œ‡Ê ÁSÕà ◊ÕÈ⁄UÊ ◊¥ flÎ¥ŒÊflŸ ◊¥ ©Œ˜ÉÊÊÁ≈Uà ∑§fl‹ ’ÊÁ‹∑§Ê•Ê¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸÁ◊¸Ã Á∑§∞ ª∞ •’ Ã∑§ ∑§
                  ¬„‹ ‚ÒÁŸ∑§ S∑ͧ‹ ∑§Ê ÄÿÊ ŸÊ◊ „Ò?
                  (1) “⁄UÊŸË ¤Êʰ‚Ë ªÀ‚¸ ‚ÒÁŸ∑§ S∑ͧ‹”
                  (2) “flË⁄U ’ÊÁ‹∑§Ê ‚ÒÁŸ∑§ ÁfllÊ‹ÿ”
                  (3) “÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ⁄UˇÊÊ ªÀ‚¸ ‚ÒÁŸ∑§ S∑ͧ‹”
                  (4) “‚¥ÁflŒ ªÈL§∑ȧ‹◊ ªÀ‚¸ ‚ÒÁŸ∑§ S∑ͧ‹”


9.                Which of the following is the only ‘Mixed’ World Heritage site in India, according to the
                  Archaeological Survey of India ?
                  (1)               Kaziranga National Park                                                                                          (2)               Khangchendzonga National Park
                  (3)               Nanda Devi                                                                                                       (4)               Western Ghats
                  ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ¬È⁄UÊÃÊÁàfl∑§ ‚fl¸ˇÊáÊ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ÷Ê⁄Uà ◊¥ ÁSÕà ∞∑§ ◊ÊòÊ “Á◊ÁüÊÔ flÒÁ‡fl∑§ œ⁄UÊ„⁄U ¬È⁄UÊSÕ‹
                  „Ò?
                  (1) ∑§Ê¡Ë⁄¥UªÊ Ÿ‡ÊŸ‹ ¬Ê∑¸§                       (2) πÊ¥ªø¥«U$¡Ê¥ªÊ Ÿ‡ÊŸ‹ ¬Ê∑¸§
                  (3) Ÿ¥ŒÊ ŒflË                                     (4) flS≈UŸ¸ ÉÊÊ≈U (¬Á‡ø◊Ë ÉÊÊ≈U)


10.               Consider the following statements :
                  A.                The European Union was established prior to the unification of West and East Germany.
                  B.                European Union has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize.
                  C.                Britain’s exit from the European Union was based on a referendum.
                  Choose the correct answer from the codes below :
                  (1)               Only A is correct.                                                                                               (2)               Only A and B are correct.
                  (3)               Only B and C are correct.                                                                                        (4)               Only C is correct.
                  ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
                  A. ÿÍ⁄UÊ¬Ëÿ ‚¥ÉÊ ∑§Ë SÕʬŸÊ ¬Á‡ø◊Ë •ÊÒ⁄U ¬Ífl˸ ¡◊¸ŸË ∑§ ∞∑§Ë∑§⁄UáÊ ‚ ¬Ífl¸ „È߸ ÕË–
                  B.      ÿÍ⁄UÊ¬Ëÿ ‚¥ÉÊ ∑§Ê ŸÊ’‹ ¬Ë‚ ¬˝Êß¡ (‡ÊÊ¥Áà ∑§Ê ŸÊ’‹ ¬È⁄US∑§Ê⁄U) ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
                  C.      ÿÍ⁄UÊ¬Ëÿ ‚¥ÉÊ ‚ “Á’˝≈UŸ” ∑§ ÁŸ∑§‹Ÿ ∑§Ê ÁŸáʸÿ ∞∑§ ¡Ÿ◊à ‚¥ª˝„ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U „È•Ê ÕÊ–
                  ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞ —
                  (1) ∑§fl‹ A ‚„Ë „Ò–                                    (2) ∑§fl‹ A •ÊÒ⁄U B ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
                  (3) ∑§fl‹ B •ÊÒ⁄U C ‚„Ë „Ò¥–                           (4) ∑§fl‹ C ‚„Ë „Ò–
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                         4                                                                                                                                                                 A1
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11.               According to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, among the various energy
                  commodities utilized in India, the reliance on import is the maximum for which of the following,
                  as per the latest figures available for 2022-23 ?
                  (1)               Crude oil                                                (2)               Natural gas                                             (3)                Coal                                                    (4)                Ethanol
                  ‚Ê¥ÁÅÿ∑§Ë •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§Êÿ¸∑˝§◊ ∑§ÊÿʸãflÿŸ ◊¥òÊÊ‹ÿ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U fl·¸ 2022-23 ∑§ Á‹∞ ©¬‹éœ •lß •ʰ∑§«∏Ê¥ ◊¥ ÷Ê⁄Uà ◊¥ ¬˝ÿÈÄÃ
                  ÁflÁ÷㟠™§¡Ê¸ flSÃÈ•Ê¥ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚∑§ •ÊÿÊà ¬⁄U •Áœ∑§Ã◊ ÁŸ÷¸⁄UÃÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               ∑§ìÊÊ Ã‹                                                (2)               ¬˝Ê∑ΧÁÃ∑§ ªÒ‚                                          (3)                ∑§Êÿ‹Ê                                                 (4)                ßÕŸÊÚ‹

12.               What is the term for ‘number of Moles of solute present in one (1) kg of Solvent’ ?
                  (1)               Molarity                                                 (2)               Molality                                                (3)                Mass Percent                                            (4)                Mole Fraction
                  ∞∑§ Á∑§‹Êª˝Ê◊ Áfl‹Êÿ∑§ ◊¥ Áfll◊ÊŸ Áfl‹ÿ ∑§ •áÊÈ•Ê¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ ß¥ÁªÃ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬˝ÿÈÄà ¬Œ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê
                  „Ò?
                  (1)               ª˝Ê◊ÊáÊÈ∑§ÃÊ                                             (2)               ◊Ê‹ÊÁ‹≈UË                                              (3)                Œ˝√ÿ◊ÊŸ ¬˝ÁÇÊà                                         (4)                •áÊÈ Á÷ãŸ

13.               Who among the following defence personnels was posthumously awarded ‘Kirti Chakra’ on the
                  eve of 75th Republic Day 2024 ?
                  (1)               Major Digvijay Singh Rawat
                  (2)               Havildar Pawan Kumar Yadav
                  (3)               Major Deependra Vikram Basnet
                  (4)               Havildar Abdul Majid
                  75flÊ¥ ªáÊÃ¥òÊ ÁŒfl‚, 2024 ∑§ ‚◊Ê⁄UÊ„Êà‚fl ∑§ •fl‚⁄U ¬⁄U ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ⁄UˇÊÊ∑§◊˸ ∑§Ê ◊⁄UáÊÊ¬⁄Uʥà “∑§ËÁø ø∑˝§”
                  ‚ê◊ÊŸ ‚ Áfl÷ÍÁ·Ã Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ?
                  (1)               ◊¡⁄U ÁŒÁÇfl¡ÿ Á‚¥„ ⁄UÊflÃ
                  (2)               „fl‹ŒÊ⁄U ¬flŸ ∑ȧ◊Ê⁄U ÿÊŒfl
                  (3)               ◊¡⁄U ŒË¬ãŒ˝ Áfl∑˝§◊ ’SŸÃ
                  (4)               „fl‹ŒÊ⁄U •éŒÈ‹ ◊ÊÁ¡Œ

14.               Based on the Energy Statistics India - 2024, which of the following regions accounted for the
                  highest share in geographical distribution of installed capacity of electricity generating, as on
                  31.03.2023 ?
                  (1)               Northern Region                                                                                                  (2)               Southern Region
                  (3)               Western Region                                                                                                   (4)               Eastern Region
                  ™§¡Ê¸ ‚Ê¥ÁÅÿ∑§Ë ÷Ê⁄UÃ, 2024 ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U ’ÃÊ∞° Á∑§ 31.03.2023 ∑§Ë ÁSÕÁà ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ÁfllÈà ©à¬ÊŒŸ ∑§Ë ‚¥SÕÊÁ¬Ã
                  ˇÊ◊ÃÊ ∑§ ÷ÊÒªÊÁ‹∑§ •Ê’¥≈UŸ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ˇÊòÊ ∑§Ê ‡Êÿ⁄U ‚flʸÁœ∑§ „Ò?
                  (1)               ©ûÊ⁄UË ˇÊòÊ                                                                                                     (2)               ŒÁˇÊáÊË ˇÊòÊ
                  (3)               ¬Á‡ø◊Ë ˇÊòÊ                                                                                                     (4)               ¬Ífl˸ ˇÊòÊ
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                         5                                                                                                                                                                 A1
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15.               Which author was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award, 2023 in Tamil language ?
                  (1)               V. Naraynan (Maalan)                                                                                             (2)               K. Panjangam
                  (3)               R. Muthunagu                                                                                                     (4)               Rajasekaran (Devi Bharathi)

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ‹π∑§ ∑§Ê ÃÁ◊‹ ÷Ê·Ê ◊¥ fl·¸ 2023, ∑§Ê ‚ÊÁ„àÿ •∑§ÊŒ◊Ë ¬È⁄US∑§Ê⁄U ¬˝Êåà „È•Ê „Ò?
                  (1)               flË. ŸÊ⁄UÊÿáÊŸ (◊Ê‹Ÿ)                                                                                             (2)               ∑§. ¬¥¡¥ª◊
                  (3)               •Ê⁄U. ◊ÈÕÈŸÊªÍ                                                                                                   (4)               ⁄UÊ¡‡Êπ⁄UŸ (ŒflË ÷Ê⁄UÃË)


16.               When is the World Wetlands Day celebrated every year ?
                  (1)               February 2                                               (2)               April 18                                                (3)                August 10                                               (4)                December 5

                  Áfl‡fl •ÊŒ˝¸÷ÍÁ◊ ÁŒfl‚ ¬˝Áà fl·¸ ∑§’ ◊ŸÊÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               2 »§⁄Ufl⁄UË                                               (2)               18 •¬˝Ò‹                                                (3)                10 •ªSà                                                 (4)                5 ÁŒ‚ê’⁄U


17.               Consider the following statements regarding the Ranji Trophy final 2024 and identify the incorrect
                  statement.
                  (1)               Mumbai won Ranji Trophy 2024.
                  (2)               Mumbai won the Ranji Trophy 2024 after 8 years.
                  (3)               In the finals of Ranji Trophy 2024 Vidarbha was beaten by Mumbai.
                  (4)               Mumbai team for Ranji Trophy 2024 final was led by Rohit Sharma.

                  ⁄UáÊ¡Ë ≈˛UÊÚ»§Ë »§Êߟ‹, 2024 ∑§ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ª‹Ã ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê ÁøqÊ¥Á∑§Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞–
                  (1)               ◊Èê’߸ Ÿ ⁄UáÊ¡Ë ≈˛UÊÚ»§Ë 2024, ◊¥ ¡Ëà „ÊÁ‚‹ ∑§Ë–
                  (2)               ◊Èê’߸ Ÿ 8 fl·¸ ’ÊŒ ⁄UáÊ¡Ë ≈˛UÊÚ»§Ë 2024, ¡ËÃÊ–
                  (3)               ⁄UáÊ¡Ë ≈˛UÊÚ»§Ë 2024, ∑§Ë •¥ÁÃ◊ ¬Ê⁄UË (»§Êߟ‹) ◊¥ ◊Èê’߸ Ÿ ÁflŒ÷¸ ∑§Ê ¬⁄UÊÁ¡Ã Á∑§ÿÊ–
                  (4)               ⁄UáÊ¡Ë ≈˛UÊÚ»§Ë 2024, ∑§ •¥ÁÃ◊ ◊Òø ◊¥ ⁄UÊÁ„à ‡Ê◊ʸ Ÿ ◊Èê’߸ ≈UË◊ ∑§Ê ŸÃÎàfl Á∑§ÿÊ–


18.               Among the following which is the most recent inclusion, made in 2004, to the list of 22 languages
                  recognized by the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?
                  (1)               Kashmiri                                                 (2)               Angika                                                  (3)                Bhojpuri                                                (4)                Dogri

                  ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑§Ë •Ê∆UflË¥ •ŸÈ‚ÍøË ◊¥ ‚Áê◊Á‹Ã 22 ÷Ê·Ê•Ê¥ ∑§Ë ‚ÍøË ◊¥, fl·¸ 2004 ◊¥, ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ÷Ê·Ê ∑§Ê
                  „Ê‹ „Ë ◊¥ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ?
                  (1)               ∑§‡◊Ë⁄UË                                                 (2)               •¥Áª∑§Ê                                                 (3)                ÷Ê¡¬È⁄UË                                               (4)                «UÊª⁄UË
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                         6                                                                                                                                                                 A1
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19.               According to the World Migration Report 2024, which region has the highest proportion of
                  International Migrants ?
                  (1)               Europe                                                   (2)               North America (3)                                                          Oceania                                                 (4)                South America

                  flÒÁ‡fl∑§ ¬˝fl˝¡Ÿ Á⁄U¬Ê≈¸U, 2024 ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ˇÊòÊ ◊¥ ‚flʸÁœ∑§ •ãÃ⁄U⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ¬˝flÊ‚Ë „Ò¥?
                  (1)               ÿÍ⁄UÊ¬                                                  (2)               ©ûÊ⁄ •◊Á⁄U∑§Ê                                          (3)                •ÊÁ‚•ÊÁŸÿÊ                                             (4)                ŒÁˇÊáÊ •◊Á⁄U∑§Ê


20.               Consider the following statements :
                  A.                Both Mercury and Venus have zero confirmed moons but three and five provisional moons,
                                    respectively, waiting confirmation from additional observations.
                  B.                The terrestrial planets of the solar system have zero confirmed moons except for the Earth
                                    which has one Moon.
                  Choose the correct answer from the codes below :
                  (1)               Only A is correct.                                                                                               (2)               Only B is correct.
                  (3)               Both A and B are correct.                                                                                        (4)               Neither A nor B is correct.

                  ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
                  A.                ’Èœ •ÊÒ⁄U ‡ÊÈ∑˝§ ŒÊŸÊ¥ ª˝„Ê¥ ∑§ ¬Ê‚ ∞∑§ ÷Ë •Á÷¬Èc≈U øãŒ˝◊Ê Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò Á∑§ãÃÈ ßŸ∑§ ¬Ê‚ ∑˝§◊‡Ê— ÃËŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬Ê°ø •ÁŸÁ‡øÃ
                                    øãŒ˝◊Ê „Ò¥ Á¡Ÿ∑§Ë •ÁÃÁ⁄UÄà ¬˝ˇÊáÊÊ¥ ‚ ¬ÈÁc≈U „ÊŸ ∑§Ë ¬˝ÃˡÊÊ „Ò–
                  B.                ‚ÊÒ⁄U◊¥«U‹ ∑§ ÷Í-÷ʪËÿ ª˝„Ê¥ ∑§ ¬Ê‚ ∞∑§ ÷Ë •Á÷¬Èc≈U øãŒ˝◊Ê Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò Á‚flÊÿ ¬ÎâflË, Á¡‚∑§ ¬Ê‚ ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ øãŒ˝◊Ê „Ò–
                  ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞ —
                  (1)               ∑§fl‹ A ‚„Ë „Ò–                                                                                                  (2)               ∑§fl‹ B ‚„Ë „Ò–
                  (3)               A •ÊÒ⁄U B ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥–                                                                                       (4)               Ÿ ÃÊ A Ÿ „Ë B ‚„Ë „Ò–


21.               What percent of the total surface area of lands in India do mountains account for ?

                  ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ∑ͧ‹ ÷Í-ˇÊòÊ ∑§ Á∑§ÃŸ ¬˝ÁÇÊà ‚ÄU (¬Îc∆U ) ˇÊòÊ ◊¥ ¬fl¸Ã „Ò¥?
                  (1)               25%                                                      (2)               30%                                                     (3)                35%                                                     (4)                40%


22.               Which country was the host for UN World Environment Day, 2024 ?
                  (1)               Saudi Arabia                                             (2)               India                                                   (3)                Brazil                                                  (4)                Germany

                  ‚¥ÿÈÄà ⁄UÊc≈˛U Áfl‡fl ¬ÿʸfl⁄UáÊ ÁŒfl‚, 2024 ∑§Ê ◊¡’ÊŸ Œ‡Ê ∑§ÊÒŸ ÕÊ?
                  (1)               ‚™§ŒË •⁄U’                                               (2)               ÷Ê⁄Uà                                                   (3)                ’˝Ê¡Ë‹                                                  (4)                ¡◊¸ŸË
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                         7                                                                                                                                                                 A1
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23.               How many species of major taxonomy groups are mentioned as Critically Endangered (CR) in the
                  IUCN Red List version 2023-1 (updated on 11th December 2023) ?

                  •Ê߸ ÿÍ ‚Ë ∞Ÿ ⁄U«U Á‹S≈U ‚¥S∑§⁄UáÊ 2023-1 (Á¡‚ 11 ÁŒ‚ê’⁄U, 2023 ∑§Ê •lß Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ) ◊¥ ¬˝◊Èπ flÁª¸∑§Ë ‚◊Í„Ê¥ ∑§Ë
                  Á∑§ÃŸË ¬˝¡ÊÁÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê ∑˝§Ê¥ÁÃ∑§ M§¬ ‚ Áfl‹Èåà ¬˝Êÿ (‚Ë •Ê⁄U) ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ Œ‡ÊʸÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               7762                                                     (2)               8722                                                    (3)                9251                                                    (4)                9760


24.               Which part of the human brain controls the involuntary actions like salivation and vomiting ?
                  (1)               Fore-brain                                                                                                       (2)               Mid-brain
                  (3)               Medulla in the hind-brain                                                                                        (4)               Cerebellum in the hind-brain

                  ◊ÊŸfl ◊ÁSÃc∑§ ∑§Ê ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ÷ʪ ‹Ê‹ÊdfláÊ •ÊÒ⁄U fl◊Ÿ ¡Ò‚Ë •ŸÒÁë¿U∑§ Á∑˝§ÿÊ•Ê¥ ∑§ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ©ûÊ⁄UŒÊÿË „Ò?
                  (1)               •ª˝-◊ÁSÃc∑§                                                                                                      (2)               ◊äÿ-◊ÁSÃc∑§
                  (3)               ¬‡ø-◊ÁSÃc∑§ ∑§Ê ◊îÊÊ                                                                                             (4)               ¬‡ø-◊ÁSÃc∑§ ∑§Ê ¬˝◊ÁSÃc∑§ (•ŸÈ◊ÁSÃc∑§)


25.               Which of the following books published in 2023, is matched correctly with its author ?
                  (1)               ‘Raw Umber’                                                                                   -                  Amitav Ghosh
                  (2)               ‘Smoke and Ashes’                                                                             -                  Sara Rai
                  (3)               ‘Water in a Broken Pot’                                                                       -                  Yogesh Maitreya
                  (4)               ‘Homeless’                                                                                    -                  Indrani Mukherjee

                  fl·¸ 2023 ◊¥ ¬˝∑§ÊÁ‡Êà ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ¬ÈSÃ∑§ •ÊÒ⁄U ©‚∑§ ‹π∑§ ∑§Ê ÿÈÇ◊ ‚È◊Á‹Ã „Ò?
                  (1)               “⁄UÊÚ •ê’⁄U”                                                                                  -                  •Á◊ÃÊfl ÉÊÊ·
                  (2)               “S◊Ê∑§ ∞¥«U ∞‡Ê¡”                                                                          -                  ‚Ê⁄UÊ ⁄UÊÿ
                  (3)               “flÊ≈U⁄U ߟ • ’˝Ê∑§Ÿ ¬ÊÚ≈U”                                                                  -                  ÿÊª‡Ê ◊ÒòÊÿ
                  (4)               “„Ê◊‹‚”                                                                                     -                  ߥŒ˝ÊáÊË ◊Èπ¡Ë¸


26.               Which of the following was the last Kingdom to be annexed by the East India Company under the
                  ‘Doctrine of Lapse’, before the breakout of the Revolt of 1857 ?
                  (1)               Jhansi                                                   (2)               Sambalpur                                               (3)                Satara                                                  (4)                Nagpur

                  ‚Ÿ˜ 1857 ∑§Ê ÁflŒ˝Ê„ Á¿U«∏Ÿ ‚ ¬Ífl¸ “„«∏¬ ŸËÁÔ («UÊÚÁÄ≈˛UŸ •ÊÚ»§ ‹Òå‚) ∑§ •¥Ãª¸Ã ߸S≈U ߥÁ«UÿÊ ∑¥§¬ŸË mÊ⁄UÊ •¬Ÿ ⁄UÊíÿ ◊¥
                  Á◊‹ÊÿÊ ¡ÊŸflÊ‹Ê •¥ÁÃ◊ ⁄UÊíÿ ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ÕÊ?
                  (1)               ¤ÊÊ¥‚Ë                                                   (2)               ‚¥’‹¬È⁄U                                                (3)                ‚ÃÊ⁄UÊ                                                  (4)                ŸÊª¬È⁄U
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                         8                                                                                                                                                                 A1
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27.               According to the World Health Statistics 2023, published by the World Health Organization, the
                  mortality rate due to unsafe water and hygiene conditions is maximum for which among the
                  following regions ?
                  (1)               European Region                                                                                                  (2)               Western Pacific Region
                  (3)               Regions of the Americas                                                                                          (4)               Eastern Mediterranean Region
                  Áfl‡fl SflÊSâÿ ‚¥ª∆UŸ mÊ⁄UÊ ¬˝∑§ÊÁ‡Êà Áfl‡fl SflÊSâÿ ‚Ê¥ÁÅÿ∑§Ë, 2023 ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ˇÊòÊ ◊¥ •‚È⁄UÁˇÊà ¡‹
                  •ÊÒ⁄U SflÊSâÿ ‚¥’¥œË Œ‡ÊÊ ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ◊àÿ¸ÃÊ Œ⁄U ‚flʸÁœ∑§ „Ò?
                  (1)               ÿÍ⁄UÊ¬Ëÿ ˇÊòÊ                                                                                                  (2)               ¬Á‡ø◊Ë ¬˝‡Êʥà ◊„ʂʪ⁄UËÿ (flS≈UŸ¸ ¬Á‚Á»§∑§) ˇÊòÊ
                  (3)               •◊Á⁄U∑§Ê ∑§ ˇÊòÊ                                                                                              (4)               ¬Ífl¸ ÷Í◊äÿ‚ʪ⁄UËÿ ˇÊòÊ

28.               Which of the following books on cinema was awarded the Swarna Kamal for best book on cinema
                  in the 69th National Film Awards 2021, which was announced in August 2023 ?
                  (1)               Music By Laxmikant Pyarelal : The incredibly Melodious Journey
                  (2)               Bengali Cinema : An Other Nation
                  (3)               Light of Asia : Indian Silent Cinema, 1912 - 1934
                  (4)               City Flicks - Indian Cinema and the Urban Experience
                  Á‚Ÿ◊Ê ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ¬ÈSÃ∑§ ∑§Ê 69flÊ¥ ⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ Á»§À◊ ¬È⁄US∑§Ê⁄U, 2021 ◊¥ Á‚Ÿ◊Ê ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ ‚flÊ¸à∑Χc≈U
                  ¬ÈSÃ∑§ ∑§ Á‹∞ Sfláʸ ∑§◊‹ •flÊ«¸U ‚ ‚ê◊ÊÁŸÃ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ Á¡‚∑§Ë ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ •ªSÃ, 2023 ◊¥ ∑§Ë ªß¸?
                  (1)               êÿÍÁ¡∑§ ’Êß ‹ˇ◊Ë∑§Ê¥Ã åÿÊ⁄U‹Ê‹ — Œ ßã∑˝§Á«Ué‹Ë ◊‹ÊÁ«Uÿ‚ ¡ŸË¸
                  (2)               ’¥ªÊ‹Ë Á‚Ÿ◊Ê — ∞Ÿ •Œ⁄U Ÿ‡ÊŸ
                  (3)               ‹Êß≈U •ÊÚ»§ ∞Á‡ÊÿÊ — ßÁã«UÿŸ ‚Êß‹¥≈U Á‚Ÿ◊Ê, 1912 - 1934
                  (4)               Á‚≈UË Áç‹Ä‚ - ߥÁ«UÿŸ Á‚Ÿ◊Ê ∞á«U Œ •’¸Ÿ ∞ÄS¬ËÁ⁄U∞¥‚

29.               What was the Mascot for Khelo India Winter Games 2024 ?
                  (1)               Panda                                                                                                            (2)               Ladakh Pika (Zabra)
                  (3)               White Tiger                                                                                                      (4)               Sheen-e-She (Shan)
                  π‹Ê ߥÁ«UÿÊ ‡ÊËÃ∑§Ê‹ËŸ π‹ (Áfl¥≈U⁄U ªê‚), 2024 ∑§Ê ‡ÊÈ÷¥∑§⁄U ÄÿÊ ÕÊ?
                  (1)               ¬Ê¥«UÊ                                                                                                           (2)               ‹Œ˜ŒÊπ ¬Ë∑§Ê ($¡Ê’⁄UÊ)
                  (3)               ‡flà √ÿÊÉÊ˝                                                                                                      (4)               ‡ÊËŸ-∞-‡ÊË (‡ÊÊŸ)

30.               An object of certain mass (in kg) is raised at a 4 m height above the ground. If the potential energy
                  of the object is 520 J, find the mass of the object (Given g=10 ms−2).
                  ∑§Áìÿ Œ˝√ÿ◊ÊŸ (Á∑§‹Êª˝Ê◊ ◊¥) flÊ‹Ë Á∑§‚Ë flSÃÈ ∑§Ê ¡◊ËŸ ‚ 4 ◊Ë≈U⁄U ∑§Ë ™°§øÊ߸ Ã∑§ ©∆UÊÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– ÿÁŒ ©‚ flSÃÈ ∑§Ë
                  Áfl÷fl ™§¡Ê¸ 520 ¡Í‹ „Ò, ÃÊ ôÊÊà ∑§ËÁ¡∞ Á∑§ ©‚ flSÃÈ ∑§Ê Œ˝√ÿ◊ÊŸ Á∑§ÃŸÊ „Ò (¡„ʰ g=10 ms−2 ÁflÁ„à „Ò)?
                  (1)               10 kg                                                    (2)               11 kg                                                   (3)                12 kg                                                   (4)                13 kg
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                         9                                                                                                                                                                 A1
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                                                         PART - II / ÷ʪ - II
  General Mental Ability, Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability / ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ◊ÊŸÁ‚∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ, ‹ÊÚÁ¡∑§‹ ⁄UË¡ÁŸ¥ª ÃÕÊ Áfl‡‹·áÊÊà◊∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ
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31.               Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given. Read both the statements
                  carefully and select the correct answer with the help of codes.
                  Assertion (A) : Earth is the only planet known to have life.
                  Reason (R) :      Earth has an atmosphere which is a mixture of gases.
                  (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
                  (2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
                  (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
                  (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
                  ŒÊ ∑§ÕŸ •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ (R) ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ŸÊ◊Ê¥Á∑§Ã Á∑§∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ ¬Á…∏∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑ͧ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ë
                  ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞–
                  •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) : ¬ÎâflË „Ë ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ ª˝„U „Ò ¡„ʰ ¬⁄U ¡ËflŸ „Ò–
                  ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ (R) :       ¬ÎâflË ∑§ øÊ⁄UÊ¥ •Ê⁄U flÊÿÈ◊¥«U‹ „Ò ¡Ê Á∑§ ªÒ‚Ê¥ ∑§Ê Á◊üÊáÊ „Ò–
                  (1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚àÿ „Ò¥, ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
                  (2) (A) •‚àÿ „Ò, ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ‚àÿ „Ò–
                  (3) (A) ‚àÿ „Ò, ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) •‚àÿ „Ò–
                  (4) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚àÿ „¥Ò, ÃÕÊ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ „Ò–

32.               A statement is followed by two Assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the Statement and
                  Assumptions and decide which of the given Assumptions is/are implicit in the Statement ?
                  Statement :       Retired persons should not be appointed for executive posts in other organisations.
                  Assumptions : I.          Retired persons may lack the zeal and commitment to carry out executive’s
                                            work.
                                    II. Retired persons do not take interest in the work and welfare of the new
                                            organisation.
                  (1) Only Assumption I is implicit.
                  (2) Only Assumption II is implicit.
                  (3) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
                  (4) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.
                  ∞∑§ ∑§ÕŸ ∑§ ¬‡øÊà ŒÊ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊÿ¥ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ŒË ªß¸ „Ò¥– ∑§ÕŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ•Ê¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§⁄¥U •ÊÒ⁄U ÿ„ ÁŸáʸÿ ‹¥ Á∑§
                  ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/‚ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ(ÿ¥) ∑§ÕŸ ◊¥ •¥ÃÁŸ¸Á„à „Ò/„Ò¥?
                  ∑§ÕŸ :               ‚flÊÁŸflÎûÊ √ÿÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê •ãÿ ‚¥ª∆UŸÊ¥ ∑§ ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚∑§Ëÿ ¬ŒÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁŸÿÈÄà Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞–
                  ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ∞° :      I.      ‚flÊÁŸflÎûÊ √ÿÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ◊¥ ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚∑§ ∑§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ÁŸfl¸„Ÿ „ÃÈ •¬ÁˇÊà ©à‚Ê„ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝ÁÃ’hÃÊ ∑§Ë ∑§◊Ë „Ê
                                               ‚∑§ÃË „Ò–
                                       II. ‚flÊÁŸflÎûÊ √ÿÁÄÃÿʰ Ÿ∞ ‚¥ª∆UŸ ∑§ ∑§Êÿ¸ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§ÀÿÊáÊ ◊¥ L§Áø Ÿ„Ë¥ Œ‡ÊʸÃ „Ò¥–
                  (1) ∑§fl‹ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ I •ãÃÁŸ¸Á„à „Ò–
                  (2) ∑§fl‹ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ II •ãÃÁŸ¸Á„à „Ò–
                  (3) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ∞° I •ÊÒ⁄U II •ãÃÁŸ¸Á„à „Ò¥–
                  (4) Ÿ ÃÊ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ I Ÿ „Ë ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ II •ãÃÁŸ¸Á„à „Ò–
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       10                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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33.               Five towns B, K, A, T and P are located near a straight lake. The town of A is West of P. T is East
                  of A but West of P. K is East of B but West of T and A. If they are all in the same district, then
                  which of the following is not true ?
                  (1)               B is West of A and K                                                                                             (2)               T is West of P
                  (3)               P is in the farthest East                                                                                        (4)               K is in the farthest East

                  ¬Ê°ø ‡Ê„⁄U B, K, A, T •ÊÒ⁄U P ∞∑§ ‚ËœË ¤ÊË‹ ∑§ Á∑§ŸÊ⁄U ÁSÕà „Ò¥– ‡Ê„⁄U A, P ∑§ ¬Á‡ø◊ ◊¥ „Ò– T, A ∑§ ¬Ífl¸ ◊¥ „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ
                  P ∑§ ¬Á‡ø◊ ◊¥ „Ò– K, B ∑§ ¬Ífl¸ ◊¥ „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ T •ÊÒ⁄U A ∑§ ¬Á‡ø◊ ◊¥ „Ò– ÿÁŒ ‚÷Ë ‡Ê„⁄U ∞∑§ „Ë Á¡‹ ◊¥ ÁSÕà „Ò, ÃÊ
                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ‚àÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
                  (1)               B, A •ÊÒ⁄U K ∑§ ¬Á‡ø◊ ◊¥ „Ò                                                                                    (2)               T, P ∑§ ¬Á‡ø◊ ◊¥ „Ò

                  (3)               P ‚ÈŒÍ⁄U ¬Ífl¸ ◊¥ „Ò                                                                                             (4)               K ‚ÈŒÍ⁄U ¬Ífl¸ ◊¥ „Ò


34.               In this question, three Statements are given, followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and
                  III. Assuming the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
                  facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
                  Statements :                                            Some tables are birds.
                                                                          No bird is pen.
                                                                          All pens are hills.
                  Conclusions :                                           I.                 Some hills are birds.
                                                                          II.                No hill is bird.
                                                                          III.               Some tables are pens.
                  (1)               Only conclusion II follows.                                                                                                        (2)                All conclusions I, II and III follow.
                  (3)               Either conclusion I or II follows.                                                                                                 (4)                Only conclusion I follows.

                  ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ ◊¥ ÃËŸ ∑§ÕŸ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥, Á¡‚∑§ ’ÊŒ ÃËŸ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I, II •ÊÒ⁄U III ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ‚àÿ ◊ÊŸÃ „È∞, ÷‹ „Ë
                  fl ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ôÊÊà ÃâÿÊ¥ ‚ Á÷㟠¬˝ÃËà „ÊÃ „Ê¥, ÁŸáʸÿ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ Á∑§ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ÁŸc∑§·¸ ÃÊÁ∑¸§∑§ M§¬ ‚ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê •ŸÈ‚⁄UáÊ
                  ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò/∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥–
                  ∑§ÕŸ :                               ∑ȧ¿U ◊$¡ ¬ˇÊË „Ò¥–
                                                       ∑§Ê߸ ¬ˇÊË ¬Ÿ (∑§‹◊) Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
                                                       ‚÷Ë ¬Ÿ (∑§‹◊)¬„Ê«∏ „Ò¥–
                  ÁŸc∑§·¸ :                            I.                 ∑ȧ¿U ¬„Ê«∏ ¬ˇÊË „Ò¥–
                                                       II.                ∑§Ê߸ ¬„Ê«∏ ¬ˇÊË Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
                                                       III.               ∑ȧ¿U ◊$¡¥ ¬Ÿ (∑§‹◊) „Ò¥–
                  (1)               ∑§fl‹ ÁŸc∑§·¸ II •ŸÈ‚⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–                                                                                               (2)                ‚÷Ë ÁŸc∑§·¸ I, II •ÊÒ⁄U III •ŸÈ‚⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥–
                  (3)               ÿÊ ÃÊ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I ÿÊ II •ŸÈ‚⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–                                                                                         (4)                ∑§fl‹ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I •ŸÈ‚⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       11                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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35.               Reshma, Kirti, Ashima and Jhanvi are students of a school. Three of them come by bus and one by
                  car to the school. Two study in class VII, one in class VIII and one in class IX. They study Hindi,
                  Mathematics, Social Science and Science. One is good at all the four subjects while another is weak
                  in all of these. Reshma comes by bus to the school and is good at Mathematics only while Kirti is
                  weak in Mathematics only and comes by car to the school. Neither of these two nor Ashima
                  studies in Class IX. One who is good at all the subjects studies in class VIII.
                  Which two girls are good at Hindi ?
                  (1) Jhanvi and Reshma                   (2) Kirti and Ashima
                  (3) Reshma and Kirti                    (4) Ashima and Jhanvi
                  ⁄U‡Ê◊Ê, ∑§ËÁø, •ÊÁ‡Ê◊Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ¡Êã„flË ∞∑§ ÁfllÊ‹ÿ ∑§ ÁfllÊÕ˸ „Ò¥– ߟ◊¥ ‚ ÃËŸ ÁfllÊ‹ÿ ’‚ ‚ •ÊÒ⁄U ∞∑§ ∑§Ê⁄U ‚ •ÊÃË „Ò– ŒÊ
                  ∑§ˇÊÊ VII ◊¥, ∞∑§ ∑§ˇÊÊ VIII ◊¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ∞∑§ ∑§ˇÊÊ IX ◊¥ ¬…∏ÃË „Ò¥– ‚÷Ë Á„ãŒË, ªÁáÊÃ, ‚Ê◊ÊÁ¡∑§ ôÊÊŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ÁflôÊÊŸ ¬…∏Ã „Ò¥– ∞∑§
                  ‚÷Ë øÊ⁄U Áfl·ÿÊ¥ ◊¥ •ë¿UË „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ¡’Á∑§ ∞∑§ øÊ⁄UÊ¥ Áfl·ÿÊ¥ ◊¥ ∑§◊¡Ê⁄U „Ò– ⁄U‡Ê◊Ê ÁfllÊ‹ÿ, ’‚ ‚ •ÊÃË „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§fl‹ ªÁáÊÃ
                  ◊¥ •ë¿UË „Ò– ¡’Á∑§ ∑§ËÁø ∑§fl‹ ªÁáÊà ◊¥ ∑§◊$¡Ê⁄U „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§Ê⁄U ‚ ÁfllÊ‹ÿ •ÊÃË „Ò– Ÿ ÃÊ ÿ„ ŒÊŸÊ¥ •ÊÒ⁄U Ÿ „Ë •ÊÁ‡Ê◊Ê ∑§ˇÊÊ
                  IX ◊¥ ¬…∏ÃË „Ò¥– ¡Ê ‚’ Áfl·ÿÊ¥ ◊¥ •ë¿UË „Ò fl„ ∑§ˇÊÊ VIII ◊¥ ¬…∏ÃË „Ò–
                  ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë ŒÊ ‹«∏Á∑§ÿʰ Á„ãŒË ◊¥ •ë¿UË „Ò¥?
                  (1) ¡Êã„flË •ÊÒ⁄U ⁄U‡Ê◊Ê                             (2) ∑§ËÁø •ÊÒ⁄U •ÊÁ‡Ê◊Ê
                  (3) ⁄U‡Ê◊Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§ËÁø                             (4) •ÊÁ‡Ê◊Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ¡Êã„flË

36.               Amit travels 3 km in North direction and then travels 6 km in East and further travels 5 km in
                  North direction. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point ?
                  (1) 14 km, North-East                               (2) 10 km, North
                  (3) 14 km, North                                    (4) 10 km, North-East
                  •Á◊à 3 Á∑§.◊Ë. ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§Ë •Ê⁄U ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò, Á»§⁄U 6 Á∑§.◊Ë. ¬Ífl¸ ∑§Ë •Ê⁄U ÃÕÊ 5 Á∑§.◊Ë. ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§Ë •Ê⁄U ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– •Ê⁄U¥Á÷∑§ Á’¥ŒÈ ‚
                  fl„ Á∑§ÃŸË ŒÍ⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U Á∑§‚ ÁŒ‡ÊÊ ◊¥ „Ò?
                  (1) 14 Á∑§.◊Ë., ©ûÊ⁄U-¬Ífl¸                                                                                                         (2)               10 Á∑§.◊Ë., ©ûÊ⁄U
                  (3) 14 Á∑§.◊Ë., ©ûÊ⁄U                                                                                                              (4)               10 Á∑§.◊Ë., ©ûÊ⁄U-¬Ífl¸

37.               B, K, M, N, O, P, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in
                  the same order. S sits second to the right of P. Only two persons sit between S and K. O sits
                  opposite to B, who is not an immediate neighbour of K and P. N is the immediate neighbour of
                  K and B. M sits third to the right of B. Which of the following statement is true ?
                  (1) O is the immediate neighbour of P and R.
                  (2) N sits opposite to the one who sits to the immediate left of R.
                  (3) M is the immediate neighbour of N.
                  (4) S sits third to the right of K.
                  B, K, M, N, O, P, R •ÊÒ⁄U S ∞∑§ flÎûÊÊ∑§Ê⁄U ◊¡ ∑§ øÊ⁄UÊ¥ •Ê⁄U ∑¥§Œ˝ ∑§Ë •Ê⁄U ◊Èπ ∑§⁄U∑§ ’Ò∆U „Ò¥, ‹Á∑§Ÿ ¡M§⁄UË Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ ß‚Ë
                  ∑˝§◊ ◊¥ „Ê– S, P ∑§ ŒÊ∞° ‚ ŒÍ‚⁄U SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ’Ò∆ÊU „Ò– S •ÊÒ⁄U K ∑§ ’Ëø ∑§fl‹ ŒÊ √ÿÁÄà ’Ò∆U „Ò¥– O, B ∑§ Áfl¬⁄UËà ’Ò∆ÊU „Ò ¡Ê
                  Á∑§ K •ÊÒ⁄U P ∑§Ê ÁŸ∑§≈UÃ◊ ¬«∏Ê‚Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò– N, K •ÊÒ⁄U B ∑§Ê ÁŸ∑§≈UÃ◊ ¬«∏Ê‚Ë „Ò– M, B ∑§ ŒÊÿ¥ ‚ ÃË‚⁄U SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ’Ò∆ÊU „Ò–
                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚àÿ „Ò?
                  (1) O, P •ÊÒ⁄U R ∑§Ê ÁŸ∑§≈UÃ◊ ¬«∏Ê‚Ë „Ò–
                  (2) N ©‚ √ÿÁÄà ∑§ Áfl¬⁄UËà ’Ò∆UÊ „Ò ¡Ê R ∑§ ∆UË∑§ ’Êÿ¥ ’Ò∆UÊ „Ò–
                  (3) M, N ∑§Ê ÁŸ∑§≈UÃ◊ ¬«∏Ê‚Ë „Ò–
                  (4) S, K ∑§ ŒÊÿ¥ ‚ ÃË‚⁄U SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ’Ò∆UÊ „Ò–
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       12                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 13 of 40
Page 13 of 40
Text of page 13
38.               Select the venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the following set of classes.

                  ©‚ flŸ •Ê⁄Uπ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ ¡Ê ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà flªÊZ ∑§ ‚◊Í„ ∑§ ’Ëø ‚ê’㜠∑§Ê ‚flÊ¸ûÊ◊ Ã⁄UË∑§ ‚ ÁŸM§Á¬Ã ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ê–
                  Musicians, Dancers, Women/‚¥ªËÃ∑§Ê⁄U, Ÿûʸ∑§, ◊Á„‹Ê∞°




                  (1)                                                                        (2)                                                                       (3)                                                                        (4)




39.               ‘A+B’ means A is the daughter of B.
                  ‘A $ B’ means A is the husband of B.
                  ‘A @ B’ means A is the brother of B.
                  ‘A * B’ means A is the mother of B.
                  A % B, means A is the son of B.
                  If Z @ Y % X $ M * N * J @ P + F then which of the following statements is correct ?
                  (1)               F is the father-in-law of X.                                                                                     (2)               M is the maternal grandmother of P.
                  (3)               F is the wife of N.                                                                                              (4)               M is the father of Z.

                  ‘A+B’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò, A, B ∑§Ë ¬ÈòÊË „Ò–

                  ‘A $ B’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò, A, B ∑§Ê ¬Áà „Ò–

                  ‘A @ B’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò, A, B ∑§Ê ÷Ê߸ „Ò–

                  ‘A * B’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò, A, B ∑§Ë ◊ÊÃÊ „Ò–

                  A % B, ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò, A, B ∑§Ê ¬ÈòÊ „Ò–

                  ÿÁŒ Z @ Y % X $ M * N * J @ P + F „Ò ÃÊ ÁŸêŸ ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚àÿ „Ò?
                  (1)               F, X ∑§Ê ‚‚È⁄U „Ò–                                                                                               (2)               M, P ∑§Ë ŸÊŸË „Ò–

                  (3)               F, N ∑§Ë ¬ÁàŸ „Ò–                                                                                                (4)               M, Z ∑§Ê Á¬ÃÊ „Ò–


40.               If in a certain code language ‘CALENDER’ is coded as ‘DMZDQFCO’, then how would ‘DISTANCE’
                  be coded ?

                  ÿÁŒ Á∑§‚Ë ∑ͧ≈U ÷Ê·Ê ◊¥ ‘CALENDER’ ∑§Ê ‘DMZDQFCO’ Á‹πÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– ß‚Ë ÷Ê·Ê ◊¥ ‘DISTANCE’ ∑§Ê Á∑§‚
                  ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U Á‹πÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ?
                  (1)               FKBDDBMB                                                 (2)               STHEDDMB                                                (3)                STHEFBMB                                                (4)                STICDDMB
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       13                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 14 of 40
Page 14 of 40
Text of page 14
41.               The opposite sides of a solid cube of 8×8×8 cm is coloured with Red, Green and Yellow. After
                  that cube is cut into 2 cm small and equal size cubes. Number of small cubes which have two sides
                  coloured with Red and Yellow is :

                  8×8×8 ‚.◊Ë. ÷È¡Ê ∑§ ∞∑§ ÉÊŸ ∑§Ë •Ê◊Ÿ-‚Ê◊Ÿ ∑§Ë »§‹∑§Ê¥ ¬⁄U ∑˝§◊‡Ê— ‹Ê‹, „⁄UÊ fl ¬Ë‹Ê ⁄¥Uª, ⁄¥Uª ÁŒÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò–
                  ÃଇøÊØ ©‚◊¥ ‚ 2 ‚.◊Ë. ÷È¡Ê ∑§ ¿UÊ≈U ∞∑§ ‚◊ÊŸ ÉÊŸ ∑§Ê≈U ¡ÊÃ „Ò¥– ©Ÿ ÉÊŸÊ¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ Á¡Ÿ∑§Ë ∑§fl‹ ŒÊ »§‹∑§Ê¥ ¬⁄U ‹Ê‹
                  fl ¬Ë‹Ê ⁄¥Uª „Ê, ôÊÊà ∑§⁄¥U–

                  (1)               4                                                        (2)               32                                                      (3)                16                                                      (4)                8



42.               Select the number that will replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

                  ©‚ ‚¥ÅÿÊ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ ¡Ê ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà oÎ¥π‹Ê ◊¥ ¬˝‡Ÿ Áøã„ (?) ∑§Ê SÕÊŸ ‹ ‚∑§–

                  20, 18, 54, 51,                                        ?            , 199, 1194

                  (1)               48                                                       (2)               153                                                     (3)                194                                                     (4)                204



43.               A doctor plans to visit each of six clinics F, G, H, X, Y and Z exactly once during the course of one
                  day. She is setting up her schedule for the day as per following conditions.

                  i.                She must visit F before G and Y.

                  ii.               She must visit G before X.

                  iii.              The third clinic she visits must be H.

                  ∞∑§ «UÊÚÄ≈U⁄U ¿U„ ÁÄ‹ÁŸ∑§ F, G, H, X, Y •ÊÒ⁄U Z ◊¥ ∞∑§ ÁŒŸ ◊¥ ∞∑§ ’Ê⁄U ¡ÊÃË „Ò– fl„ •¬ŸÊ ∑§Êÿ¸∑˝§◊ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ÁSÕÁÃÿÊ¥
                  ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ’ŸÊÃË „Ò–

                  i.                fl„ ÁÄ‹ÁŸ∑§ F ◊¥ G •ÊÒ⁄U Y ‚ ¬„‹ ¡Ê∞ªË–

                  ii.               fl„ ÁÄ‹ÁŸ∑§ G ◊¥, X ‚ ¬„‹ ¡Ê∞ªË–

                  iii.              ÃË‚⁄U Ÿê’⁄U ¬⁄U fl„ H ÁÄ‹ÁŸ∑§ ◊¥ ¡Ê∞ªË–

                  If she visits clinic Z first, which clinic must she visit second ?

                  •ª⁄U fl„ ‚’‚ ¬„‹ ÁÄ‹ÁŸ∑§ Z ◊¥ ¡ÊÃË „Ò ÃÊ ŒÍ‚⁄U Ÿê’⁄U ¬⁄U Á∑§‚ ÁÄ‹ÁŸ∑§ ◊¥ ¡Ê∞ªË?

                  (1)               G                                                        (2)               X                                                       (3)                F                                                       (4)                Y
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       14                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 15 of 40
Page 15 of 40
Text of page 15
44.               Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question. The numbers in different sections
                  indicate the number of persons.




                  ÁŒ∞ ª∞ •Ê⁄Uπ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ ¬…∏∑§⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞– ÁflÁ÷㟠πá«UÊ¥ ◊¥ ŒË ªß¸ ‚¥ÅÿÊÿ¥ √ÿÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ „Ò¥–




                  How many players are singers but not lawyers ?
                  Á∑§ÃŸ Áπ‹Ê«∏Ë ªÊÿ∑§ „Ò¥ ‹Á∑§Ÿ fl∑§Ë‹ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
                  (1)               24                                                       (2)               17                                                      (3)                12                                                      (4)                16

45.               Some words are given, which are related in some way. Choose the alternative which has the
                  similar relationship among the words as the given words.
                  State : Country : District
                  (1) Chair : Furniture : Table          (2) Square : Quadrilateral : Rectangle
                  (3) Pen : Stationery : Nib             (4) Banana : Fruits : Mango
                  ∑ȧ¿U ‡ÊéŒ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥ ¡Ê Á∑§‚Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò¥– ÁŒ∞ ª∞ Áfl∑§À¬Ê¥ ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ Á¡‚◊¥ ‡ÊéŒ ‚◊Í„
                  ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ‡ÊéŒÊ¥ ∑§ ‚◊ÊŸ •ʬ‚ ◊¥ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ê–
                  ⁄UÊíÿ : Œ‡Ê : Á$¡‹Ê
                  (1) ∑ȧ‚˸ : »§ŸË¸ø⁄U : ◊¡                            (2) flª¸ : øÃÈ÷¸È¡ : •ÊÿÃ
                  (3) ∑§‹◊ : ‹πŸ ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë : ÁŸ’                           (4) ∑§‹Ê : »§‹ : •Ê◊

46.               Select the letter number cluster that can replace the question mark [?] in the following series.
                  ©‚ •ˇÊ⁄U ‚¥ÅÿÊ ‚◊Í„ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ ¡Ê ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà oÎ¥π‹Ê ◊¥ ¬˝‡Ÿ Áøã„ [?] ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÃSÕÊÁ¬Ã ∑§⁄¥U–
                  E V 10, H S 16, M N 26,      ? , C X 58
                  (1) T H 40               (2) T G 36              (3) S G 36                   (4) T G 40

47.               Find out how many such pairs of letters are there in the given word each of which has as many
                  letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet.
                  ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ‡ÊéŒ ◊¥ ß‚ Ã⁄U„ ∑§ Á∑§ÃŸ fláʸ ÿÈÇ◊ „Ò¥ Á¡Ÿ◊¥ ‚ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ◊¥ ©ÃŸ „Ë fláʸ „Ò Á¡ÃŸ Á∑§ •¥ª˝¡Ë fláʸ◊Ê‹Ê ◊¥ „Ò¥–
                  INCREDIBLE
                  (1) 4                                                                      (2)               7                                                       (3)                8                                                       (4)                6
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       15                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 16 of 40
Page 16 of 40
Text of page 16
48.               In a certain code language ‘nee dee pee’ means ‘WINTER IS COLD’, ‘tee nee ree fee’ means ‘I LIKE
                  COLD COFFEE’ and ‘pee ree zee’ means ‘COFFEE IS DARK’, then how will you write ‘COLD
                  DARK WINTER’ in the same language ?
                  ∞∑§ ∑ͧ≈U ÷Ê·Ê ◊¥ ‘nee dee pee’ ∑§Ê ◊Ë’ ‘WINTER IS COLD’, ‘tee nee ree fee’ ∑§Ê ◊Ë’ ‘I LIKE COLD
                  COFFEE’ •ÊÒ⁄U ‘pee ree zee’ ∑§Ê ◊Ë’ ‘COFFEE IS DARK’, ÃÊ ß‚Ë ∑ͧ≈U ÷Ê·Ê ◊¥ ‘COLD DARK WINTER’
                  ∑§Ê Á∑§‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U Á‹πÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ?
                  (1)               nee dee pee                                              (2)               nee zee ree                                             (3)                nee zee dee                                             (4)                pee ree nee


49.               Select the term which is related to the fifth term in the same way, as the second term is related to
                  the first term and fourth term is related to the third term.
                  ©‚ Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ ¡Ê ¬Ê¥øfl ¬Œ ‚ ©‚Ë ‚◊ÊŸ M§¬ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò Á¡‚ M§¬ ‚ ŒÍ‚⁄UÊ ¬Œ ¬„‹ ‚ •ÊÒ⁄U øÊÒÕÊ ¬Œ
                  ÃË‚⁄U ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò–
                  XLD:KYQ::PVC:CIP::RNT:                                                                                                                     ?           .



                  (1)               EBG                                                      (2)               EAH                                                     (3)                EAF                                                     (4)                EAG


50.               Find the mirror image of the following figure, when the mirror is placed at ‘AB’ line as shown
                  below.
                  ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ÁøòÊ ∑§Ê Œ¬¸áÊ ¬˝ÁÃÁ’¥’ ôÊÊà ∑§⁄¥U, ¡’ Œ¬¸áÊ ∑§Ê ŸËø ÁŒπÊÿ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ‘AB’ ⁄UπÊ ¬⁄U ⁄UπÊ ¡Ê∞–




                  (1)                                                                                                                                                                     (2)




                  (3)                                                                                                                                                                     (4)



RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       16                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 17 of 40
Page 17 of 40
Text of page 17
51.               Given below is a question followed by two Statements numbered I and II, each containing some
                  information. You have to decide which of the Statements is/are sufficient to answer the
                  question. Read both the Statements and decide the appropriate answer.


                  Meena, Prabha, Anita and Kirti are four friends. Who among them is the heaviest ?


                  Statements :


                  I.                Prabha is heavier than Meena and Kirti but lighter than Anita.


                  II.               Meena is lighter than Prabha and Anita but heavier than Kirti.


                  (1)               Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while Statement I alone is not sufficient.


                  (2)               Either Statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.


                  (3)               Both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.


                  (4)               Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while Statement II alone is not sufficient.


                  ŸËø ∞∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ ¬‡øÊà ŒÊ ∑§ÕŸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ¬˝àÿ∑§ ∑ȧ¿U ¡ÊŸ∑§Ê⁄UË ‚Á„à ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– •ʬ∑§Ê ÿ„ Ãÿ ∑§⁄UŸÊ „Ò Á∑§ ∑§ÊÒŸ
                  ‚Ê/‚ ∑§ÕŸ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò/„Ò¥– ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬Á…∏∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ©ÁøÃ ©ûÊ⁄U Ãÿ ∑§ËÁ¡∞–

                  ◊ËŸÊ, ¬˝÷Ê, •ŸËÃÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§ËÁø øÊ⁄U ‚„Á‹ÿʰ „Ò¥Ò– ©Ÿ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚’‚ ÷Ê⁄UË „Ò?

                  ∑§ÕŸ :

                  I.                ¬˝÷Ê, ◊ËŸÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§ËÁø ‚ ÷Ê⁄UË „Ò, ‹Á∑§Ÿ •ŸËÃÊ ‚ „À∑§Ë „Ò–

                  II.               ◊ËŸÊ, ¬˝÷Ê •ÊÒ⁄U •ŸËÃÊ ‚ „À∑§Ë „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ ∑§ËÁø ‚ ÷Ê⁄UË „Ò–

                  (1)               ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ „Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò ¡’Á∑§ ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ ¬ÿʸåà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–

                  (2)               ÿÊ ÃÊ ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ ÿÊ ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò–

                  (3)               ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ÕŸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ∞∑§ ‚ÊÕ Á◊‹∑§⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò¥–

                  (4)               ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ „Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò ¡’Á∑§ ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ ¬ÿʸåà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       17                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 18 of 40
Page 18 of 40
Text of page 18
52.               In a row of girls facing North, Rita is 12th to the left of Parvati, who is 23rd from the right end. If
                  Mamta, who is 17th from the left end, is fourth to the right of Rita, how many girls are there in the
                  row ?


                  ‹«∏Á∑§ÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ¬¥ÁÄà ◊¥ Á¡Ÿ∑§Ê ◊Ȱ„ ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§Ë •Ê⁄U „Ò ⁄UË≈UÊ, ¬Êfl¸ÃË ∑§ ’ÊßZ •Ê⁄U 12fl¥ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U „Ò ¡Ê ŒÊ∞° ¿UÊ⁄U ‚ 23fl¥ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U
                  „Ò– ÿÁŒ ◊◊ÃÊ ’ÊßZ •Ê⁄U ‚ 17fl¥ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ⁄UË≈UÊ ∑§ ŒÊßZ¸ •Ê⁄U øÊÒÕ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U „Ò, ÃÊ ¬¥ÁÄà ◊¥ Á∑§ÃŸË ‹«∏Á∑§ÿʰ „¥Ò?

                  (1)               49                                                       (2)               43                                                      (3)                47                                                      (4)                46




53.               Find the number of triangles in the following figure :


                  ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ÁøòÊ ◊¥ ÁòÊ÷È¡Ê¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ ôÊÊà ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —




                  (1)               18                                                       (2)               22                                                      (3)                20                                                      (4)                24




54.               There are six members L, H, K, I, J and M in a family. J is the brother of L’s husband. M is the
                  mother of J. H is the daughter of I and L and the grand-daughter of K. How is K related to J ?


                  (1)               Brother                                                  (2)               Father                                                  (3)                Son                                                     (4)                Grandson


                  ∞∑§ ¬Á⁄UflÊ⁄U ◊¥ L, H, K, I, J •ÊÒ⁄U M ¿U— ‚ŒSÿ „Ò¥– J, L ∑§ ¬Áà ∑§Ê ÷Ê߸ „Ò– M, J ∑§Ë ◊ÊÃÊ „Ò– H, I •ÊÒ⁄U L ∑§Ë ’≈UË „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U
                  K ∑§Ë ¬ÊÃË „Ò– K, J ‚ ∑Ò§‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò?


                  (1)               ÷Ê߸                                                     (2)               Á¬ÃÊ                                                    (3)                ¬ÈòÊ                                                    (4)                ¬ÊÃÊ/ŒÊÃÊ
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       18                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 19 of 40
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Text of page 19
55.               Given below is a question followed by two statements numbered I and II, each containing some
                  information. Decide which of the statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question ?
                  Garima ranks eighteenth from the top in a class. What is her rank from the last ?
                  Statements :
                  I.                Reena, who ranks 10th in the same class, ranks 38th from the last.
                  II.               There are 47 students in the class.
                  (1)               The statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement II alone is not
                                    sufficient.
                  (2)               The statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement I alone is not
                                    sufficient.
                  (3)               Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
                  (4)               Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
                  ŸËø ∞∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò, Á¡‚∑§ ¬‡øÊà ŒÊ ∑§ÕŸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ¬˝àÿ∑§ ∑ȧ¿U ¡ÊŸ∑§Ê⁄UË ‚Á„Ã, ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– ÁŸáʸÿ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ Á∑§
                  ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/‚ ∑§ÕŸ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò/„Ò¥?
                  ∞∑§ ∑§ˇÊÊ ◊¥ ªÁ⁄U◊Ê ™§¬⁄U ‚ •∆UÊ⁄U„fl¥ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U „Ò– ©‚∑§Ê SÕÊŸ ŸËø ‚ ÄÿÊ „ÊªÊ?
                  ∑§ÕŸ —
                  I.                ⁄UËŸÊ ¡Ê Á∑§ ©‚Ë ∑§ˇÊÊ ◊¥ Œ‚fl¥ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U „Ò, ŸËø ‚ 38fl¥ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U „Ò–
                  II.               ©‚ ∑§ˇÊÊ ◊¥ ∑ȧ‹ 47 ÁfllÊÕ˸ „Ò¥–
                  (1)               ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ „Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò ¡’Á∑§ ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ ¬ÿʸåà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
                  (2)               ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ „Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò ¡’Á∑§ ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ ¬ÿʸåà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
                  (3)               ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ÕŸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ß∑§_, ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò¥–
                  (4)               ÿÊ ÃÊ ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ ÿÊ ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò–

56.               If 1st and 26th, 2nd and 25th, 3rd and 24th and so on letters of the English alphabet are paired, then
                  which of the following pairs is correct ?
                  ÿÁŒ ¬„‹Ê •ÊÒ⁄U 26flʰ, ŒÍ‚⁄UÊ •ÊÒ⁄U 25flʰ, ÃË‚⁄UÊ •ÊÒ⁄U 24flʰ •ÊÒ⁄U ß‚Ë Ã⁄U„ •¥ª˝¡Ë fláʸ◊Ê‹Ê ∑§ fláÊÊZ ∑§ ÿÈÇ◊ ’ŸÊ∞ ¡Ê∞, ÃÊ
                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ÿÈÇ◊ ‚„Ë „Ò?
                  (1)               HT                                                       (2)               JP                                                      (3)                FV                                                      (4)                IR


57.               In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order in one of
                  the alternatives. Choose the correct option.
                  ŸËø ŒË ªß¸ fláʸ oÎ¥π‹Ê ◊¥ ∑ȧ¿U fláʸ Áfl‹Èåà „Ò¥ ¡Ê Á∑§ ∑˝§Á◊∑§ M§¬ ‚ •ˇÊ⁄U ‚◊Í„ ◊¥ ∞∑§ Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– ‚„Ë
                  Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄¥U–
                  yyz_xxxy_z_zx_yy_zzx
                  (1)               xyzyx                                                    (2)               zxzyz                                                   (3)                zyzxy                                                   (4)                zyxyz
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       19                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 20 of 40
Page 20 of 40
Text of page 20
58.               In the following question, a relationship between different elements is shown in the Statement
                  followed by two Conclusions I and II. Assuming the Statement to be true, decide which of the
                  Conclusions is/are definitely true ?
                  Statement :                                             X £ S, K / S, K < L
                  Conclusions :                                           I.                 K/X
                                                                          II.                L>S
                  (1)               Only conclusion I is true.
                  (2)               Only conclusion II is true.
                  (3)               Both conclusions I and II are true.
                  (4)               Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
                  ÁŸêŸ ¬˝‡Ÿ ◊¥ ÁflÁ÷㟠ÃàflÊ¥ ∑§ ’Ëø ∑§Ê ‚ê’㜠ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑§ÕŸ ◊¥ Œ‡ÊʸÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò Á¡‚∑§ ¬‡øÊà ŒÊ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ÁŒ∞
                  ª∞ „Ò¥– ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê ‚àÿ ◊ÊŸÃ „È∞ ÁŸáʸÿ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ Á∑§ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/‚ ÁŸc∑§·¸ ÁŸÁ‡øÃ M§¬ ‚ ‚àÿ „Ò/„Ò¥?
                  ∑§ÕŸ                   :             X £ S, K / S, K < L

                  ÁŸc∑§·¸ :                            I.                 K/X
                                                       II.                L>S
                  (1)               ∑§fl‹ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I ‚àÿ „Ò–
                  (2)               ∑§fl‹ ÁŸc∑§·¸ II ‚àÿ „Ò–
                  (3)               ŒÊŸÊ¥ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ‚àÿ „Ò¥–
                  (4)               Ÿ ÃÊ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I Ÿ „Ë ÁŸc∑§·¸ II ‚àÿ „Ò–

59.               Four pairs of the words are given, out of which the words of three pairs bear a certain common
                  relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related.
                  (1)               Lizard : Insects                                                                                                 (2)               Fish : River
                  (3)               Giraffe : Leaves                                                                                                 (4)               Lion : Meat
                  øÊ⁄U ‡ÊéŒ-ÿÈÇ◊ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „¥Ò Á¡Ÿ ◊¥ ‚ ÃËŸ ∞∑§ ÁŸÁ‡øÃ Ã⁄UË∑§ ‚ ‚◊ÊŸ M§¬ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò– ÁŸêŸ ◊¥ ‚ ©‚ ‡ÊéŒ ÿÈÇ◊ ∑§Ê
                  øÈÁŸ∞ Á¡‚ ∑§ ‡ÊéŒ •ʬ‚ ◊¥ •ãÿ ∑§ ‚◊ÊŸ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
                  (1)               Á¿U¬∑§‹Ë : ∑§Ë«∏                                                                                                (2)               ◊¿U‹Ë : ŸŒË
                  (3)               Á$¡⁄UÊ»§ : ¬ûÊ                                                                                                  (4)               ‡Ê⁄U : ◊ʰ‚

60.               Some groups of letters are given, all of which except one share a common similarity while one is
                  different. Choose the option which is different from others.
                  ∑ȧ¿U •ˇÊ⁄U-‚◊Í„ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥, Á¡Ÿ◊¥ ‚ ∞∑§ ∑§ •ÁÃÁ⁄UÄà •ãÿ ‚÷Ë ‚◊ÊŸ M§¬ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò¥– ©‚ ‚◊Í„ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞
                  ¡Ê •ãÿ ‚ Á÷㟠„Ò–
                  (1)               CFU                                                      (2)               FIR                                                     (3)                ILO                                                     (4)                LPM
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       20                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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Page 21 of 40
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RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




                                      PART - III / ÷ʪ - III
Arithmetical & Numerical Ability, Data Interpretation / •¥∑§ªÁáÊÃËÿ ÃÕÊ ‚¥ÅÿÊà◊∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ, «U≈UÊ ÁŸM§¬áÊ
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




61.                If ary=a2+2y, what is the value of p if 8r(5rp)=138 ?

                   ÿÁŒ ary=a2+2y, ÿÁŒ 8r(5rp)=138 ÃÊ p ∑§Ê ◊ÊŸ ÄÿÊ „Ò?
                   (1)               5                                                       (2)                4                                                       (3)                8                                                       (4)                6



62.                A wholeseller buys 40 books at the marked price of 32 books and passes on to a retailer. The
                   retailer in turn sells them at the marked price. Find the gain or loss percent to the retailer.

                   (1)               gain 20%                                                (2)                loss 20%                                                (3)                loss 25%                                                (4)                gain 25%

                   ∞∑§ ÕÊ∑§ Áfl∑˝§ÃÊ 40 ¬ÈSÃ∑¥§, 32 ¬ÈSÃ∑§Ê¥ ¬⁄U •¥Á∑§Ã ◊ÍÀÿ ◊¥ π⁄UËŒ∑§⁄U πÈŒ⁄UÊ √ÿʬÊ⁄UË ∑§Ê Œ ŒÃÊ „Ò– πÈŒ⁄UÊ √ÿʬÊ⁄UË ßã„¥
                   •¥Á∑§Ã ◊ÍÀÿ ¬⁄U ’ø ŒÃÊ „Ò– πÈŒ⁄UÊ √ÿʬÊ⁄UË ∑§Ê ‹Ê÷ •ÕflÊ „ÊÁŸ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÇÊà ôÊÊà ∑§ËÁ¡∞–
                   (1)               ‹Ê÷ 20 ¬˝ÁÇÊà                                          (2)                „ÊÁŸ 20 ¬˝ÁÇÊà                                         (3)                „ÊÁŸ 25 ¬˝ÁÇÊà                                         (4)                ‹Ê÷ 25 ¬˝ÁÇÊÃ


63.                Two trains 140 and 100 metres long, are going in the same direction. The faster train takes
                   one minute to pass the other completely. If they are moving in the opposite directions, they pass
                   each other completely in 6 seconds. The speed of the faster train is :

                   (1)               42 m/sec                                                (2)                22 m/sec                                                (3)                20 m/sec                                                (4)                28 m/sec

                   ŒÊ ⁄U‹ªÊÁ«∏ÿʰ 140 ◊Ë. •ÊÒ⁄U 100 ◊Ë. ‹ê’Ë ∞∑§ ÁŒ‡ÊÊ ◊¥ ¡Ê ⁄U„Ë „Ò– Ã¡ ªÁà flÊ‹Ë ⁄U‹ªÊ«∏Ë ŒÍ‚⁄UË ∑§Ê ¬Ê⁄U ∑§⁄UŸ ◊¥ ∞∑§ Á◊Ÿ≈U
                   ‹ÃË „Ò– ÿÁŒ ŒÊŸÊ¥ Áfl¬⁄UËà ÁŒ‡ÊÊ ◊¥ ¡ÊÃË „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U 6 ‚Ò∑¥§«U ◊¥ ∞∑§ ŒÍ‚⁄ ∑§Ê ¬Ê⁄U ∑§⁄UÃË „Ò¥ ÃÊ Ã¡ ªÁà flÊ‹Ë ⁄U‹ªÊ«∏Ë ∑§Ë ªÁÃ
                   „Ò —
                   (1)               42 ◊Ë/‚Ò∑¥§«U                                          (2)                22 ◊Ë/‚Ò∑¥§«U                                          (3)                20 ◊Ë/‚Ò∑¥§«U                                          (4)                28 ◊Ë/‚Ò∑¥§«U



64.                Pipe ‘M’ can fill an empty tank in 40 minutes and pipe ‘N’ can empty the full tank in 50 minutes.
                   If both pipes are opened simultaneously, in what time will it be half filled ?

                   (1)               2 hours, 20 minutes                                                                                              (2)               1 hour, 30 minutes

                   (3)               3 hours, 20 minutes                                                                                              (4)               1 hour, 40 minutes

                   ∞∑§ πÊ‹Ë ≈Ò¥U∑§ ∑§Ê ÷⁄UŸ ◊¥ ¬Ê߬ ‘M’ ∑§Ê 40 Á◊Ÿ≈U ‹ªÃ „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬Í⁄U ÷⁄U ≈Ò¥U∑§ ∑§Ê πÊ‹Ë ∑§⁄UŸ ◊¥ ¬Ê߬ ‘N’ ∑§Ê 50 Á◊Ÿ≈U
                   ‹ªÃ „Ò¥– ÿÁŒ ŒÊŸÊ¥ ¬Ê߬Ê¥ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ‚ÊÕ πÊ‹ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ ÃÊ Á∑§ÃŸ ‚◊ÿ ◊¥ ≈Ò¥U∑§ •ÊœÊ ÷⁄UÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ?
                   (1)               2 ÉÊ¥≈U, 20 Á◊Ÿ≈U                                                                                               (2)               1 ÉÊ¥≈ÊU, 30 Á◊Ÿ≈U

                   (3)               3 ÉÊ¥≈U, 20 Á◊Ÿ≈U                                                                                               (4)               1 ÉÊ¥≈ÊU, 40 Á◊Ÿ≈U
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       21                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 22 of 40
Page 22 of 40
Text of page 22
65.               A’s age 4 years ago was four times the present age of ‘B’. At present, C’s age is thrice the age of ‘B’.
                  Also ‘C’ is 24 years younger than ‘A’. What is the present age of ‘C’ ?

                  (1)               42 years                                                 (2)               60 years                                                (3)                54 years                                                (4)                30 years

                  øÊ⁄U fl·¸ ¬Ífl¸ ‘A’ ∑§Ë •ÊÿÈ, ‘B’ ∑§Ë flø◊ÊŸ •ÊÿÈ ∑§Ë øÊ⁄U ªÈŸË ÕË– ‘C’ ∑§Ë flø◊ÊŸ •ÊÿÈ ‘B’ ∑§Ë •ÊÿÈ ∑§Ë ÃËŸ ªÈŸË „Ò ÃÕÊ
                  ‘C’, ‘A’ ‚ 24 fl·¸ ¿UÊ≈UÊ „Ò– ‘C’ ∑§Ë flø◊ÊŸ •ÊÿÈ Á∑§ÃŸË „Ò?

                  (1)               42 fl·¸                                                   (2)               60 fl·¸                                                  (3)                54 fl·¸                                                  (4)                30 fl·¸




66.               The following chart gives the percentage of the different subject teachers in a particular school.
                  Total number of teachers is 1600.




                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà øÊ≈¸U ∞∑§ ÁfllÊ‹ÿ ∑§ Á÷ÛÊ-Á÷ÛÊ Áfl·ÿÊ¥ ∑§ •äÿʬ∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÇÊà ∑§Ê Œ‡ÊʸÃÊ „Ò–

                  ∑ȧ‹ •äÿʬ∑§ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ - 1600




                  What is the number of male teachers of mathematics if the ratio of mathematics teachers of male to
                  female is 3 : 1 ?

                  ªÁáÊà ∑§ ¬ÈL§· •äÿʬ∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ ÄÿÊ „ÊªË ÿÁŒ ªÁáÊà ∑§ ¬ÈL§· •äÿʬ∑§Ê¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ◊Á„‹Ê •äÿʬ∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ê •ŸÈ¬Êà 3 : 1 ‚ „Ê?

                  (1)               352                                                      (2)               264                                                     (3)                88                                                      (4)                176
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       22                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 23 of 40
Page 23 of 40
Text of page 23
67.               Study the table and answer the question. Number of new patients admitted and number of patients
                  discharged in four hospitals A, B, C and D in different months of certain year are given in the
                  table.
                                           Details of new patients admitted and discharged
                                   August              September                October      November
                   Hospitals
                             New Admi. Discharge New Admi. Discharge New Admi. Discharge New Admi. Discharge
                      A         80        56          64          78         87         69  58        74
                      B         89        74          88          62         62         77  79        72
                      C         75        58          59          78         85         88  83        73
                      D         76        87          86          72         82         68  79        82
                  During August to October, which hospital has seen the maximum increase in the number of patients ?
                  ÃÊÁ‹∑§Ê ∑§Ê •äÿÿŸ ∑§⁄¥U •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U Œ¥– øÊ⁄U •S¬ÃÊ‹Ê¥ A, B, C •ÊÒ⁄ DU ◊¥ •‹ª-•‹ª ◊„ËŸÊ¥ ◊¥ Á∑§‚Ë ∞∑§ fl·¸
                  ∑§ Ÿ∞ ◊⁄UË$¡Ê¥ ∑§ ŒÊÁπ‹ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¿ÈU^Ë ŒŸ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ ÃÊÁ‹∑§Ê ◊¥ ŒË ªß¸ „Ò¥–
                                                                                                           ZE _arµOm| Ho$ àdoe Am¡a Nw> Å>r XoZ o H$m {ddaU
                                                                            AJñV                                                                 {gV§~ a                                                              AŠQy> ~a                                                              Zdå~a
                     AñnVmb
                                                       ZE àdoe Nw> Å>r {H$E ZE àdoe Nw> Å>r {H$E ZE àdoe Nw> Å>r {H$E ZE àdoe Nw> Å>r {H$E
                               A                                 80                                56                                 64                                 78                                 87                                 69                                 58                                74
                               B                                 89                                74                                 88                                 62                                 62                                 77                                 79                                72
                               C                                 75                                58                                 59                                 78                                 85                                 88                                 83                                73
                               D                                 76                                87                                 86                                 72                                 82                                 68                                 79                                82

                  •ªSà ‚ •Ä≈ÍU’⁄U ∑§ ŒÊÒ⁄UÊŸ Á∑§‚ •S¬ÃÊ‹ ◊¥ ◊⁄UË$¡Ê¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ ◊¥ ‚’‚ •Áœ∑§ flÎÁh ŒπË ªß¸ „Ò?
                  (1)               B                                                        (2)               C                                                       (3)                A                                                       (4)                D


68.               The digit in the unit’s place of the number (47)25−1 must be :
                  ‚¥ÅÿÊ (47)25−1 ◊¥ ß∑§Ê߸ ∑§Ê •¥∑§ ÄÿÊ „ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ —
                  (1)               1                                                        (2)               8                                                       (3)                6                                                       (4)                7


69.               The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in a class of 64 students is 5 : 3. If 6 more girls
                  are added to the class, then how many more boys should be admitted so that the ratio of boys to
                  that of the girls becomes 3 : 2 ?
                  ∞∑§ 64 ÁfllÊÁÕ¸ÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ∑§ˇÊÊ ◊¥ ‹«∏∑§Ê¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ‹«∏Á∑§ÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê •ŸÈ¬Êà 5 : 3 „Ò¥– ÿÁŒ ∑§ˇÊÊ ◊¥ 6 ‹«∏Á∑§ÿʰ •ÊÒ⁄U •Ê ¡ÊÃË „Ò ÃÊ
                  ‹«∏∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ ◊¥ Á∑§ÃŸË flÎÁh ∑§Ë ¡Ê∞ Á∑§ ‹«∏∑§Ê¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ‹«∏Á∑§ÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê ŸÿÊ •ŸÈ¬Êà 3 : 2 „Ê ¡Ê∞?
                  (1)               12                                                       (2)               8                                                       (3)                5                                                       (4)                6


70.               A mobile is listed at ` 20,000 and a discount of 25% is offered on the list price. What addition
                  discount must be offered to the customer to bring the net price to ` 13,200 ?
                  ∞∑§ ◊Ê’Êß‹ ¬⁄U ` 20,000 ◊ÍÀÿ •¥Á∑§Ã „Ò– ß‚ ¬⁄ 25%U ∑§Ë ¿Í≈U ŒË ¡ÊÃË „Ò– ÿÁŒ ª˝Ê„∑§ ∑§Ê ß‚ ` 13,200 ∑§Ë ‡ÊÈh ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê
                  ◊¥ ’øŸÊ „Ê ÃÊ ª˝Ê„∑§ ∑§Ê Á∑§ÃŸ ¬˝ÁÇÊà ¿ÍU≈U •ÊÒ⁄U ŒŸË „ÊªË?
                  (1)               10%                                                      (2)               12%                                                     (3)                32%                                                     (4)                18%
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       23                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 24 of 40
Page 24 of 40
Text of page 24
71.               There are two numbers such that the sum of twice of the first and thrice of the second is 25, while
                  the sum of thrice of the first and twice of the second is 20. The largest of the two is :
                  ∞‚Ë ŒÊ ‚¥ÅÿÊ∞° „Ò¥ Á¡Ÿ◊¥ ‚ ¬„‹Ë ∑§Ê ŒÊ ªÈŸÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ŒÍ‚⁄UË ∑§Ê ÃËŸ ªÈŸÊ Á◊‹∑§⁄U 25 „ÊÃÊ „Ò ¡’Á∑§ ¬„‹Ë ∑§ ÃËŸ ªÈŸ •ÊÒ⁄U
                  ŒÍ‚⁄UË ∑§ ŒÊ ªÈŸ ∑§Ê ÿÊª 20 „Ò– ŒÊŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ’«∏Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ ÄÿÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               10                                                       (2)               5                                                       (3)                7                                                       (4)                8


72.               A dishonest milkman wanted to sell his milk at cost price but he mixes it with water and thereby
                  gains 25%. The percentage of water in the mixture is :
                  ∞∑§ ’߸◊ÊŸ ŒÈÇœ Áfl∑˝§ÃÊ ŒÍœ ∑§Ê ∑˝§ÿ ◊ÍÀÿ ¬⁄U Áfl∑˝§ÿ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê ŒÊflÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò ¬⁄UãÃÈ ¬ÊŸË Á◊‹Ê ŒÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U 25 ¬˝ÁÇÊà ∑§Ê
                  ‹Ê÷ •Á¡¸Ã ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò– ©‚∑§ Á◊üÊáÊ ◊¥ ¬ÊŸË ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÇÊà ÄÿÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               25%                                                      (2)               20%                                                     (3)                10%                                                     (4)                50%


73.               Find the value of question mark (?) in the following :
                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ¬˝‡Ÿ Áøã„ (?) ∑§Ê ◊ÊŸ ôÊÊà ∑§⁄¥U —
                          3    1       4   2    3
                   1        + 5 − (?) × ÷ 2 = 5
                          4    8       3   3    4
                                             1                                                                          1                                                                          1                                                                          3
                  (1)                 3                                                      (2)                 3                                                     (3)                 2                                                      (4)                 5
                                             2                                                                          4                                                                          4                                                                          4


74.               The average of reciprocals of a and b is :
                  a •ÊÒ⁄U b ∑§ √ÿÈà∑˝§◊ ∑§Ê •ÊÒ‚Ã „Ò —

                                      2 (a + b)                                                                  a+b                                                                          2ab                                                                      (a + b)
                  (1)                                                                        (2)                                                                       (3)                  ( + b)                                                (4)
                                         ab                                                                       2ab                                                                        a                                                                         (a − b)

75.               Find the value of ∗ in the following :
                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ∗ ∑§Ê ◊ÊŸ ôÊÊà ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
                  60.04÷0.02=∗×0.5
                  (1)               60.04                                                    (2)               6004                                                    (3)                600.4                                                   (4)                6004.4


                                                                                       5
76.               A tank of water was                                                    full. When 22 buckets of water was taken out and 11 buckets of water was
                                                                                       7
                                                                                           2
                  poured into it, it was                                                     full. How many total buckets of water can the tank contain ?
                                                                                           5
                                                                5                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                  2
                  ∞∑§ ≈Ò¥U∑§ ¬ÊŸË ‚ 7 ÷⁄UÊ „Ò, ¡’ ©‚◊¥ ‚ 22 ’ÊÁÀ≈Uÿʰ ¬ÊŸË ÁŸ∑§Ê‹Ê ªÿÊ •ÊÒ⁄U 11 ’ÊÁÀ≈Uÿʰ ¬ÊŸË ÷⁄UÊ ªÿÊ ÃÊ ÿ„ 5 ÷⁄UÊ ÕÊ–
                  ≈Ò¥U∑§ ∑§Ê ÷⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑ȧ‹ Á∑§ÃŸË ¬ÊŸË ∑§Ë ’ÊÁÀ≈Uÿʰ ∑§Ë •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ÃÊ „ÊªË?
                  (1)               42                                                       (2)               33                                                      (3)                39                                                      (4)                35
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       24                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 25 of 40
Page 25 of 40
Text of page 25
77.               Two friends invested ` 3,000 and ` 7,500 in a business. They earned a profit of ` 2,800. One half
                  of the profit was divided equally between them and the other half was divided in proportion to
                  their capitals. How much did each of them receive respectively ?
                  ŒÊ Á◊òÊÊ¥ Ÿ ∞∑§ ‚ʤÊÊ √ÿʬÊ⁄U ◊¥ ` 3,000 ÃÕÊ ` 7,500 ‹ªÊ∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ©ã„Ê¥Ÿ ` 2,800 ∑§Ê ‹Ê÷ ∑§◊ÊÿÊ– ‹Ê÷ ∑§Ê •ÊœÊ ŒÊŸÊ¥
                  Ÿ ’⁄UÊ’⁄U-’⁄UÊ’⁄U ’Ê¥≈U Á‹ÿÊ– ‡Ê· ‹Ê÷ ∑§Ê •¬ŸË ‹ªÊ߸ ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ∑§ •ŸÈ¬Êà ◊¥ ’Ê¥≈U Á‹ÿÊ– ©ã„Ê¥Ÿ ∑ȧ‹ Á∑§ÃŸ-Á∑§ÃŸ L§¬ÿ
                  ∑˝§◊‡Ê— ¬˝Êåà Á∑§∞?
                  (1)               ` 1,000, ` 1,800                                                                                                 (2)               ` 1,200, ` 1,600
                  (3)               ` 1,100, ` 1,700                                                                                                 (4)               ` 1,300, ` 1,500

78.               Water is flowing at the rate of 10 km/hr through a cylindrical pipe of diameter 14 cm into a
                  rectangular tank which is 100 m long and 44 m wide. In what time the level of water in the tank
                  will be risen by 7 cm ?
                  (1) 3 hours             (2) 4 hours         (3) 2 hours          (4) 1½ hours
                  ∞∑§ ’‹ŸÊ∑§Ê⁄U (Á‚‹¥Á«˛U ∑§‹U) ¬Ê߬ Á¡‚∑§Ê √ÿÊ‚ 14 ‚.◊Ë. „Ò ◊¥ ‚ ¬ÊŸË 10 Á∑§.◊Ë./ÉÊ¥≈UÊ ∑§Ë ⁄UçÃÊ⁄U ‚ ∞∑§ •ÊÿÃÊ∑§Ê⁄U
                  ≈Ò¥U∑§ Á¡‚∑§Ë ‹ê’Ê߸ 100 ◊Ë. •ÊÒ⁄U øÊÒ«∏Ê߸ 44 ◊Ë. „Ò¥, ◊¥ ’„ ⁄U„Ê „Ò– ¬ÊŸË ∑§ ≈Ò¥U∑§ ◊¥ Á∑§ÃŸ ‚◊ÿ ◊¥ ¬ÊŸË ∑§Ê SÃ⁄U 7 ‚.◊Ë. ’…∏U
                  ¡Ê∞ªÊ?
                  (1) 3 ÉÊ¥≈U                 (2) 4 ÉÊ¥≈U                     (3) 2 ÉÊ¥≈U                       (4) 1½ ÉÊ¥≈U


79.               If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 300% and the denominator is increased by 400%, the
                                                                                     16
                  resultant fraction is                                                 . What was the original fraction ?
                                                                                     25
                  ÿÁŒ Á∑§‚Ë Á÷ÛÊ ∑§ •¥‡Ê ◊¥ 300 ¬˝ÁÇÊà ∑§Ë flÎÁh ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U „⁄U ∑§Ê 400 ¬˝ÁÇÊà ’…∏ÊÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò ÃÊ ¬˝Êåà Á÷ÛÊ ∑§Ê ◊ÊŸ
                   16
                   25
                      ¬˝Êåà „ÊÃÊ „Ò– ◊Í‹ Á÷ÛÊ ’ÃÊß∞–

                                      12                                                                          4                                                                         4                                                                          2
                  (1)                                                                        (2)                                                                       (3)                                                                        (4)
                                      25                                                                         15                                                                         5                                                                          5


80.               Jacob bought a table for a certain sum of money. He spent 20% of the cost on repairs and sold the
                  table for a profit of ` 1,200. How much did he spend on repairs if he made a profit of 25% ?
                  ¡Ò∑§’ Ÿ ∞∑§ ◊¡ ∑ȧ¿U ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ◊¥ π⁄UËŒË •ÊÒ⁄U ◊ÍÀÿ ∑§Ê 20% ©‚∑§Ë ◊⁄Uê◊à ¬⁄U ‹ªÊÿÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ©‚ ` 1,200 ∑§ ‹Ê÷ ◊¥ ’ø
                  ÁŒÿÊ– ÿÁŒ ©‚ 25 ¬˝ÁÇÊà ∑§Ê ‹Ê÷ „È•Ê ÃÊ ©‚Ÿ ◊⁄Uê◊à ¬⁄U Á∑§ÃŸ L§¬ÿ πø¸ Á∑§∞?
                  (1)               ` 540                                                    (2)               ` 500                                                   (3)                ` 800                                                   (4)                ` 820

81.               45 men can complete a work in 16 days. After six days when they started working, 30 more men
                  joined them. How many days will they now take to complete the remaining work ?
                  (1) 8 days           (2) 6 days            (3) 12 days            (4) 10 days
                  45 √ÿÁÄà ∞∑§ ∑§Ê◊ ∑§Ê 16 ÁŒŸ ◊¥ ¬Í⁄UÊ ∑§⁄UÃ¥ „Ò¥– ∑§Ê◊ •Ê⁄¥U ÷ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ 6 ÁŒŸ ’ÊŒ 30 •ÊÒ⁄ √ÿÁÄà ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ê ª∞– ‡Ê· ∑§Ê◊
                  ∑§Ê ¬Í⁄UÊ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ •’ ©ã„¥ Á∑§ÃŸ ÁŒŸ ‹ª¥ª? U
                  (1) 8 ÁŒŸ                     (2) 6 ÁŒŸ                                                                                                              (3)                12 ÁŒŸ                                                  (4)                10 ÁŒŸ
RAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASARAS24ASA




RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       25                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 26 of 40
Page 26 of 40
Text of page 26
1
82.               Brother and sister both appear for an interview. The probability of the selection of brother is                                                                                                                                                                                                                         ,
                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        6
                                                                                                                                                               3
                  while the probability of rejection of sister is                                                                                                . What is the probability that one of them is selected ?
                                                                                                                                                               4
                                                                                                                                                                                                                                            1
                  ÷Ê߸ •ÊÒ⁄U ’„Ÿ ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∞∑§ ‚ÊˇÊÊà∑§Ê⁄U ◊¥ ©¬ÁSÕà „ÊÃ „Ò¥– ÷Ê߸ ∑§Ê øÈŸŸ ∑§Ë ¬˝ÊÁÿ∑§ÃÊ 6 „Ò ¡’Á∑§ ’„Ÿ ∑§Ê •SflË∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UŸ
                                                       3
                  ∑§Ë ¬˝ÊÁÿ∑§ÃÊ 4 „Ò– ŒÊŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∞∑§ ∑§Ê øÿŸ „ÊŸ ∑§Ë ÄÿÊ ¬˝ÊÁÿ∑§ÃÊ „Ò?

                                      2                                                                          1                                                                          1                                                                          5
                  (1)                                                                        (2)                                                                       (3)                                                                        (4)
                                      3                                                                          3                                                                          4                                                                          6


83.               A number is first decreased by 20% and then increased by 15%. The number so obtained is 64
                  less than the original number. The original number is :
                  ∞∑§ ‚¥ÅÿÊ ∑§Ê ¬„‹ 20% ÉÊ≈UÊÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U Á»§⁄ 15% ’…∏ÊÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– ß‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ‚ ¬˝Êåà ‚¥ÅÿÊ ◊Í‹ ‚¥ÅÿÊ ‚ 64 ∑§◊
                  „Ò– ◊Í‹ ‚¥ÅÿÊ ôÊÊà ∑§ËÁ¡∞–
                  (1)               850                                                      (2)               750                                                     (3)                700                                                     (4)                800

84.               A man gets a simple interest of ` 2,000 on a certain principal at the rate of 5% per annum in
                  4 years. What compound interest will he get on twice the principal in 2 years at the same rate ?
                  ∞∑§ ÁŸÁ‡øÃ œŸ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ¬⁄U ∞∑§ √ÿÁÄà ∑§Ê 5% ¬˝Áà fl·¸ Œ⁄ ‚, 4 fl·¸ ◊¥ ` 2,000 ‚ÊœÊ⁄UáÊ éÿÊ¡ Á◊‹ÃÊ „Ò– ©‚∑§Ê ŒÊ ªÈŸÊ
                  œŸ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ¬⁄U 2 fl·¸ ◊¥ ©‚Ë éÿÊ¡ Œ⁄U ¬⁄U Á∑§ÃŸÊ ø∑˝§flÎÁh éÿÊ¡ Á◊‹ªÊ?
                  (1)               ` 2,250                                                  (2)               ` 2,350                                                 (3)                ` 2,050                                                 (4)                ` 2,150


85.               There are x desks and y students in a school. If on each desk only one student is sitting, then one
                  desk remains without a student. If on each desk, two students are sitting, then one desk remains
                  without a student. Therefore x and y are respectively :
                  (1)               5 and 6                                                  (2)               4 and 5                                                 (3)                3 and 4                                                 (4)                7 and 8
                  ∞∑§ ÁfllÊ‹ÿ ◊¥ x «US∑§ •ÊÒ⁄ yU ÁfllÊÕ˸ „Ò¥– ÿÁŒ ¬˝àÿ∑§ «US∑§ ¬⁄U ∞∑§ ÁfllÊÕ˸ „Ë ’Ò∆UÃÊ „Ò, ÃÊ ∞∑§ ÁfllÊÕ˸ ⁄UÁ„à «US∑§ ’ø
                  ¡ÊÃË „Ò– ÿÁŒ ¬˝àÿ∑§ «US∑§ ¬⁄U ŒÊ ÁfllÊÕ˸ ’Ò∆UÃ „Ò¥, ÃÊ Á»§⁄U ‚ ∞∑§ «US∑§ ÁfllÊÕ˸ ⁄UÁ„à ’ø ¡ÊÃË „Ò– x •ÊÒ⁄U y ∑§ ◊ÊŸ ÄÿÊ
                  „Ò¥?
                  (1) 5 •ÊÒ⁄U 6                (2) 4 •ÊÒ⁄U 5                     (3) 3 •ÊÒ⁄U 4                 (4) 7 •ÊÒ⁄U 8


86.               Mr. Prem Malhotra borrowed a sum of ` 48,000 from his friend on 31 st December 2019 for
                  one year at simple interest at 8% per annum. However, Mr. Prem returned the money on 1 July
                  2020. How much amount he had to return to his friend ?
                  üÊË ¬˝◊ ◊À„ÊòÊÊ Ÿ ` 48,000 ∑§Ë ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ∞∑§ fl·¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚ÊœÊ⁄UáÊ éÿÊ¡ ¬⁄U 8% ¬˝ÁÃfl·¸ ∑§Ë Œ⁄U ‚ 31 ÁŒ‚ê’⁄ 2019 ∑§Ê
                  •¬Ÿ ŒÊSà ‚ ©œÊ⁄U ‹Ë– ‹Á∑§Ÿ üÊË ¬˝◊ ◊À„ÊòÊÊ Ÿ flÊ ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê 1 ¡È‹Ê߸ 2020 ∑§Ê flÊÁ¬‚ ∑§⁄U ŒË– ©ã„Ê¥Ÿ •¬Ÿ ŒÊSà ∑§Ê ∑ȧ‹
                  Á∑§ÃŸË œŸ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê flÊÁ¬‚ ∑§Ë? U
                  (1)               ` 49,920                                                 (2)               ` 49,910                                                (3)                ` 49,840                                                (4)                ` 49,260
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       26                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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Text of page 27
87.               20 people went to a hotel for combine dinner party. 15 of them spent ` 80 each on their dinner
                  and rest spent ` 6 more than the average expenditure of all the 20. What was the total money
                  spent by them ?

                  20 √ÿÁÄà ∞∑§ ‚¥ÿÈÄà ¬Ê≈U˸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∞∑§ „Ê≈U‹ ◊¥ ª∞– 15 √ÿÁÄÃÿÊ¥ Ÿ ` 80 ¬˝Áà √ÿÁÄÃ πø¸ Á∑§∞– ‡Ê· ‹ÊªÊ¥ Ÿ ‚÷Ë 20 ‹ÊªÊ¥
                  ∑§ •ÊÒ‚Ã ‚ ` 6 •Áœ∑§ πø¸ Á∑§ÿÊ– ¬Ê≈U˸ ◊¥ ∑ȧ‹ Á∑§ÃŸ L§¬ÿ √ÿÿ Á∑§∞ ª∞ ?
                  (1)               ` 1,640                                                  (2)               ` 1,600                                                 (3)                ` 1,900                                                 (4)                ` 1,380



88.               ‘P’ took 15 seconds to cross a rectangular field diagonally walking at the rate of 56 m/min and ‘R’
                  took the same time to cross the same field along its sides walking at the rate of 72 m/min. The area
                  of the field is :

                  (1)               68 m2                                                    (2)               60 m2                                                   (3)                128 m2                                                  (4)                64 m2

                  √ÿÁÄç‘P’ ∞∑§ •ÊÿÃÊ∑§Ê⁄U ˇÊòÊ ◊¥ ∑§áʸ (diagonal) ∑§ ◊ʪ¸ ‚ ŒÍ‚⁄U ∑§ÊŸ Ã∑§U 56 ◊Ë≈U⁄UU/Á◊Ÿ≈U ∑§Ë ªÁà ‚ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– ŒÍ‚⁄UÊ
                  √ÿÁÄà ‘R’ 72 ◊Ë≈U⁄UU/Á◊Ÿ≈U ∑§Ë ªÁà ‚ øÊ⁄UÊ¥U •Ê⁄U ÉÊÍ◊ÃÊ „Ò– ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ‚◊ÿ (15 ‚Ò∑§á«U) ’⁄UÊ’⁄U ‹ªÃÊ „Ò– ˇÊòÊ ∑§Ê ˇÊòÊ»§‹
                  Á∑§ÃŸÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               68 ◊Ë≈U⁄U2                                               (2)               60 ◊Ë≈U⁄U2                                              (3)                128 ◊Ë≈U⁄U2                                             (4)                64 ◊Ë≈U⁄U2



89.               3 bells beep at an interval of 30, 45 and 54 minutes. If they beep together at 11 a.m., then they will
                  beep again together at :

                  (1)               4 pm                                                     (2)               3.30 pm                                                 (3)                4.30 pm                                                 (4)                3 pm

                  ÃËŸ ÉÊ¥Á≈Uÿʰ 30, 45 •ÊÒ⁄U 54 Á◊Ÿ≈U ∑§ •ãÃ⁄UÊ‹ ‚ ’¡ÃË „Ò¥– ÿÁŒ fl 11 ’¡ ¬˝Ê× ∞∑§ ‚ÊÕ ’¡ÃË „¥Ò, ÃÊ Á»§⁄U ∑§’ ∞∑§ ‚ÊÕ
                  ’¡¥ªË?
                  (1)               4 ’¡ •¬⁄UÊq                                             (2)               3.30 ’¡ •¬⁄UÊq                                         (3)                4.30 ’¡ •¬⁄UÊq                                         (4)                3 ’¡ •¬⁄UÊq



90.               The speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. Time taken by the boat to cover a certain distance
                  upstream is 5 hours more than the time taken to cover the same distance downstream. If the speed
                  of the stream is 3 km/hr., then what is the total distance (upstream and downstream) covered by
                  the boat ?

                  (1)               54 km                                                    (2)               45 km                                                   (3)                60 km                                                   (4)                65 km

                  ∞∑§ ŸÊfl ∑§Ë ªÁà ÁSÕ⁄U ¡‹ ◊¥ 9 Á∑§.◊Ë. ¬˝Áà ÉÊ¥≈UÊ „Ò– ¬ÊŸË ∑§ Áfl¬⁄UËà ¬˝flÊ„ ◊¥ ø‹Ÿ ¬⁄U ¬ÊŸË ∑§ ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ¬˝flÊ„ ∑§ ø‹Ÿ ∑§Ë
                  •¬ˇÊÊ Á∑§‚Ë ŒÍ⁄UË ∑§Ê Ãÿ ∑§⁄UŸ ◊¥ 5 ÉÊ¥≈U •Áœ∑§ ‹ªÃ „Ò¥– ÿÁŒ ¬ÊŸË ∑§Ë ªÁà 3 Á∑§.◊Ë. ¬˝Áà ÉÊ¥≈UÊ „Ò ÃÊ ’ÃÊßÿ ŒÊŸÊ¥ ÁŒU‡ÊÊ•Ê¥
                  ◊¥ ŸÊfl Á∑§ÃŸË ŒÍ⁄UË Ãÿ ∑§⁄UÃË „Ò?
                  (1)               54 Á∑§.◊Ë.                                               (2)               45 Á∑§.◊Ë.                                              (3)                60 Á∑§.◊Ë.                                              (4)                65 Á∑§.◊Ë.
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       27                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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                                                                                                                                      PART - IV / ÷ʪ - IV
 General Hindi, Comprehension and Communication Skill / ‚Ê◊Êãÿ Á„ãŒË, ’Êœ ÃÕÊ ‚¥øÊ⁄U ∑§Ê҇ʋ
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ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ªlÊ¥‡Ê ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ ¬…∏∑§⁄U ©‚ ¬⁄U •ÊœÊÁ⁄Uà ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ (91 - 93) ∑§ ‚≈UË∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
       ¬ÈÁc¬Ã •‡ÊÊ∑§ ∑§Ê Œπ∑§⁄U ◊⁄UÊ ◊Ÿ ©ŒÊ‚ „Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– ß‚Á‹∞ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ ‚ÈãŒ⁄U flSÃÈ•Ê¥ ∑§Ê „Ø÷ÊÇÿ ‚◊¤ÊŸ ◊¥ ◊ȤÊ ∑§Ê߸ Áfl‡Ê·
⁄U‚ Á◊‹ÃÊ „Ò– ∑ȧ¿U ‹ÊªÊ¥ ∑§Ê Á◊‹ÃÊ „Ò– fl ’„Èà ŒÍ⁄UŒ‡Ê˸ „ÊÃ „Ò¥– ¡Ê ÷Ë ‚Ê◊Ÿ ¬«∏ ªÿÊ, ©‚∑§ ¡ËflŸ ∑§ •¥ÁÃ◊ ◊È„Íø Ã∑§ ∑§Ê Á„‚Ê’
fl ‹ªÊ ‹Ã „Ò¥– ◊⁄UË ŒÎÁc≈U ßÃŸË ŒÍ⁄U Ã∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ ¡ÊÃË– Á»§⁄U ÷Ë ◊⁄UÊ ◊Ÿ ß‚ »Í§‹ ∑§Ê Œπ∑§⁄U ©ŒÊ‚ „Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– •‚‹Ë ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ÃÊ ◊⁄U
•¥Ãÿʸ◊Ë „Ë ¡ÊŸÃ „Ê¥ª, ∑ȧ¿U ÕÊ«∏Ê-‚Ê ◊Ò¥ ÷Ë •ŸÈ◊ÊŸ ∑§⁄U ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ͱ–
91. ªlÊ¥‡Ê ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë ∑§ÕŸ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò —
       (1) ‚È¥Œ⁄U flSÃÈ•Ê¥ ∑§Ê „Ø÷ÊÇÿ ‚◊¤ÊŸ ◊¥ ‹π∑§ ∑§Ê Áfl‡Ê· ⁄U‚ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á◊‹ÃÊ „Ò–
       (2) ‹π∑§ ∑§Ë ŒÎÁc≈U ŒÍ⁄U Ã∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ ¡ÊÃË–
       (3) •¥Ãÿʸ◊Ë ‚„Ë ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ¡ÊŸÃ „Ò¥–
       (4) Á»§⁄U ÷Ë ‹π∑§ ∑§Ê ◊Ÿ ©ŒÊ‚Ë ‚ Ÿ„Ë¥ ÷⁄UÃÊ–


92.               ¬ÈÁc¬Ã •‡ÊÊ∑§ ¡Ò‚Ë ‚È¥Œ⁄U flSÃÈ•Ê¥ ∑§Ê Œπ∑§⁄U ‹π∑§ —
                  (1) ’„Èà ¬˝‚㟠„ÊÃÊ „Ò–                            (2) ’„Èà ŒÈπË „Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò–
                  (3) ©‚∑§Ê ◊Ÿ ©ŒÊ‚ „Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò–                      (4) ¬˝»È§ÁÀÀÊà „Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò–


93.               ªlÊ¥‡Ê ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ŒÍ⁄UŒ‡Ê˸ ‹Êª ∑Ò§‚ ’ÃÊ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥?
                  (1) ŒÍ⁄U ‚ Œπ ‹Ã „Ò¥–
                  (2) Á∑§‚Ë øË¡ ∑§Ê Œπ∑§⁄U ©‚∑§ •¥ÁÃ◊ ◊È„Íø Ã∑§ ∑§Ê Á„‚Ê’ ‹ªÊ ‹Ã „Ò¥–
                  (3) ’«∏ ÁflmÊŸ „ÊÃ „Ò¥–
                  (4) •¥Ãÿʸ◊Ë „ÊÃ „Ò¥–


94.               ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ‡ÊéŒ ÿÈÇ◊Ê¥ ◊¥ Áfl‡Ê·áÊ •ÊÒ⁄U Áfl‡Êcÿ ∑§Ë ŒÎÁc≈U ‚ ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò —
                  (1) Œ‡Ê„⁄UË - •Ê◊                                  (2) Á‚¥ŒÍ⁄UË - •Ê◊
                  (3) ‚ÍπÊ - flÎˇÊ                                    (4) ¡ÊŸfl⁄U - ¡¥ª‹Ë


95.               Áfl‹Ê◊ÊÕ˸ ‡ÊéŒ ÿÈÇ◊Ê¥ ◊¥ •‚¥ªÃ „Ò —
                  (1) •ŸÈ∑ͧ‹ - ¬˝ÁÃ∑ͧ‹                                                                                                             (2)               •Sà - ©Œÿ
                  (3) •¥Ã⁄¥Uª - ’Á„⁄¥Uª                                                                                                              (4)               •flŸÁà - ¬ÃŸ

96.               “Áª‹Ê‚” Á∑§‚ ÷Ê·Ê ∑§Ê ‡ÊéŒ „Ò?
                  (1) »§Ê⁄U‚Ë               (2) •⁄U’Ë                                                                                                                  (3)                ¬ÊøȨ̀ªË¡                                               (4)                •¥ª˝¡Ë
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       28                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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97.               ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚¥Áœ ‚¥’¥œË ÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∑§Ë ŒÎÁc≈U ‚ •‡ÊÈh ‡ÊéŒ „Ò —
                  (1) •àÿÈÁÄàÊ               (2) •ˇÊÊÒÁ„áÊË               (3) •àÿÊÁœ∑§                                                                                                                                                            (4)                •ŸÁœ∑§Ê⁄UË

98.               ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ •¬ÊŒÊŸ Ãà¬ÈL§· ‚◊Ê‚ flÊ‹Ê ‡ÊéŒ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò —
                  (1) Sflª¸¬˝Êåà            (2) ∑§Ê◊øÊ⁄U              (3)                                                                                                                 Œ‡Ê ÁŸ∑§Ê‹Ê                                            (4)                ŸÊ◊‚Êπ

99.               “ÁŒŸ ◊¥ ÃÊ⁄U ÁŒπÊ߸ ŒŸÊ” ◊È„Êfl⁄U ∑§Ê ‚„Ë •ʇÊÿ „Ò —
                  (1) ’„Èà ŸÈ∑§‚ÊŸ „Ê ¡ÊŸÊ                           (2)                                                                                              ’ÈÁh ø∑§⁄UÊ ¡ÊŸÊ
                  (3) ¡Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ¤Ê≈U∑§Ê ‹ªŸÊ                          (4)                                                                                              •øÊŸ∑§ •¥œ⁄UÊ ¿UÊ ¡ÊŸÊ

100. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ¬Ífl˸ Á„ãŒË ∑§Ë ’Ê‹Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò —
                  (1)               ∑§ãŸÊÒ¡Ë                                                 (2)               •flœË                                                    (3)                ’ÉÊ‹Ë                                                  (4)                ¿UûÊË‚ª…∏Ë

101. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà Ãà‚◊-ÃŒ˜÷fl ‡ÊéŒ ÿÈÇ◊Ê¥ ◊¥ •‚¥ªÃ „Ò —
                  (1)               •ˇÊ⁄U - •Êπ⁄U                                                                                                    (2)               •ÊôÊÊ - •ÊŸ
                  (3)               flà‚ - ’ìÊÊ                                                                                                       (4)               ¬ˇÊ - ¬⁄Uπ

102. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ Sfl⁄U ‚¥Áœ flÊ‹Ê ‡ÊéŒ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò —
                  (1)               Áª⁄UËãŒ˝                                                 (2)               •÷Ëc≈U                                                  (3)                ÷ÍÁ¡¸Ã                                                  (4)                ÁŸc¬ˇÊ

103. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ fláʸ •ÊÒ⁄U ©‚∑§ flª¸ ∑§Ë ŒÎÁc≈U ‚ •‚¥ªÃ ÿÈÇ◊ „Ò —
                  (1)               ª - ∑¥§∆K                                                                                                        (2)               ‡Ê - ÃÊ‹√ÿ
                  (3)               ‚ - ◊Íœ¸ãÿ                                                                                                       (4)               ¬ - •Êc∆K

104. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ⁄UπÊ¥Á∑§Ã ‡ÊéŒ ‚◊Í„flÊø∑§ ‚¥ôÊÊ ‡ÊéŒ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò —
                  (1)               ŸŒË ’„ ⁄U„Ë „Ò–                                                                                                  (2)               ‚ŸÊ ’È‹Ê ‹Ë ªß¸ „Ò–
                  (3)               ¬ÈÁ‹‚ •Ê ªß¸ „Ò–                                                                                                 (4)               ‚÷Ê „Ê ⁄U„Ë „Ò–

105. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ •‚¥ªÃ „Ò —
                  (1)               „◊ •Ê∞ - ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ÷ÍÃ∑§Ê‹
                  (2)               fl •Ê߸ „Ò¥ - •ʂ㟠÷ÍÃ∑§Ê‹
                  (3)               ◊Ò¥ ’ÊÃÊ „Ͱ - ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ÷ÍÃ∑§Ê‹
                  (4)               fl„ •ÊÿÊ „ÊªÊ - ‚¥÷Ê√ÿ ÷ÍÃ∑§Ê‹
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       29                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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                                       PART - V / ÷ʪ - V
  General English, Comprehension and Communication Skill / ‚Ê◊Êãÿ •¥ª˝¡Ë, ’Êœ ÃÕÊ ‚¥øÊ⁄U ∑§Ê҇ʋ
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106. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the following sentence.
                  A freeze warning was posted for Thursday night.
                  (1)                Noun                                                    (2)                Adjective                                               (3)                Adverb                                                  (4)               Conjunction


107. While writing a letter to an organisation, you will address it as :
     (1) My dear Sir         (2) Dear Sirs          (3) Dear Sir                                                                                                                                                                                   (4)               My dear Sirs

108. Choose the punctuation mark you will use in the following sentence.
                  When will you complete your work
                  (1) Full stop                                                                                                                      (2)                Mark of Interrogation
                  (3) Mark of Exclamation                                                                                                            (4)                Semicolon

109. Choose the option in which the following sentence has been correctly changed into Indirect Speech.
     “Hurry up”, he said to his servant, “do not waste time”.
     (1) He told his servant to hurry up and did not waste time.
     (2) He ordered his servant to hurry up and not to waste time.
     (3) He hurried up his servant not to waste time.
     (4) He advised his servant to hurry up without wasting his time.

                  Change the sentences given below (110-111) into Passive Voice.
110. Who did this ?
     (1) By whom this was done.                                                                                                                      (2)                By whom was this done.
     (3) By whom was this done ?                                                                                                                     (4)                This was done by who ?

111. They asked me my name.
     (1) I was asked my name by them.                                                                                                                (2)                My name was asked.
     (3) My name had been asked.                                                                                                                     (4)                My name by them was asked.

                  In each of the following sentences (112-113), identify the part which has an error in it.
112. None is so deaf as those who will not hear .
                          (1)                           (2)                         (3)                                           (4)


113. Cannot one do what one likes with his own ?
                                (1)                                   (2)                            (3)                                     (4)
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       30                                                                                                                                                                  A1
CBSE Assistant Secretary 2024 question paper, Assistant Secretary (Administration), CBSE Recruitment Examination 2024, Tier 1, booklet code A1, page 31 of 40
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In each of the following sentences (114-115), identify the clause of the underlined expression.
114. I think I know your face .
                  (1)               Principal                                                (2)               Noun                                                    (3)                Adjective                                               (4)                Adverb

115. So great a fire raged that London was burnt down .
                  (1)               Principal                                                (2)               Noun                                                    (3)                Adjective                                               (4)                Adverb

Read the passsage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct option
in each case (116-120) :
       We can define a gentleman as one who never inflicts pain. Such a definition is both genteel and, as
far as it goes, correct. Most of the time a gentleman is busy removing the hindrances that lie in the way
of the people around him. He always offers a helping hand to those in distress. He does never impose
himself upon others in their activities, rather lets them have a free hand in whatever they want to do.
His helpful nature is just providing comfort like the offer of an easy chair or a glass of cool water to a
weary traveller.
116. Choose the True/False statement(s).
       A. A gentleman insists upon helping even those who don’t want his help.
       B.    Life of people around a gentleman is made comfortable.
       (1) A is true and B is false.
       (2) B is true and A is false.
       (3) Both A and B are true.
       (4) Both A and B are false.

117. Which of the following statements is NOT false ?
     (1) The writer seems to have observed a gentleman from a distance.
     (2) He is all praise for a gentleman.
     (3) A gentleman is critical of people in trouble.
     (4) He turns a blind eye to obstacles.

118. Identify the word from the passage which is nearly opposite in meaning to ‘comfort/happiness’.
     (1) Hindrance         (2) Distress          (3) Genteel           (4) Weary

119. Identify the word from the passage which means nearly the same as ‘force’ (Verb).
     (1) Impose            (2) Inflict          (3) Provide           (4) Offer

120. Choose the TRUE/FALSE statement(s).
     A. A gentleman is generally helpful by nature.
     B.  He would offer a cool drink in winter to a tired traveller.
     C.  He finds that helping others is often painful.
     (1) A is true, B and C are false.
     (2) B is true, A and C are false.
     (3) C is true, A and B are false.
     (4) A, B and C are all true.
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       31                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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                                                             PART - VI / ÷ʪ - VI
                                      Basic Knowledge of Computer Operation / ∑§êåÿÍ≈U⁄U ‚¥øÊ‹Ÿ ∑§Ê ’ÈÁŸÿÊŒË ôÊÊŸ
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121. Which of the following is not an output device ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∞∑§ •Ê©≈U¬È≈U ©¬∑§⁄UáÊ (output device) Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
                  (1)               Plotter                                                  (2)               Headphone                                               (3)                Microphone                                              (4)                Projector



122. Which of the following is an electronic, encrypted stamp of authentication on digital information
     such as e-mail messages, macros or electronic documents ? Select the most accurate option.

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∞∑§ ß‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸ∑§, ∞Áã∑˝§å≈U« ¬˝◊ÊáÊË∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§Ê ◊È„⁄U (electronic, encrypted stamp) „Ò ¡Ê
                  ߸-◊‹ ‚¥Œ‡Ê, ◊Ò∑˝§Ê (macros) ÿÊ ß‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸ∑§ ŒSÃÊfl$¡ ¡Ò‚Ë digital information ¬⁄U „ÊÃÊ „Ò? ‚’‚ ‚≈UË∑§ Áfl∑§À¬
                  øÈŸ¥–U
                  (1)               Digital signature                                                                                                (2)               Compression

                  (3)               Encryption                                                                                                       (4)               Hash Function



123. Which of the following files generally represents an audio file ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë $»§Êß‹ (file) ‚Ê◊Êãÿ× •ÊÚÁ«UÿÊ $»§Êß‹ (audio file) ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÃÁŸÁœàfl ∑§⁄UÃË „Ò?
                  (1)               album.pdf                                                (2)               album.jpg                                               (3)                album.bmp                                               (4)                album.wav



124. Which of the following is not suggested while buying something online using e-Commerce ?

                  (1)               Prefer https over http

                  (2)               Prefer a public and free WiFi

                  (3)               Prefer a firewall

                  (4)               Prefer to type the URL instead of clicking a shared link

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ߸-∑§ÊÚ◊‚¸ (e-Commerce) ∑§Ê ©¬ÿÊª ∑§⁄U∑§ ∑ȧ¿U •ÊÚŸ‹Êߟ π⁄UËŒÃ ‚◊ÿ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê Ÿ„Ë¥ ‚ȤÊÊÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ?
                  (1)               http ∑§Ë ’¡Êÿ https ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄¥U

                  (2)               ‚Êfl¸¡ÁŸ∑§ •ÊÒ⁄U ◊Èçà WiFi ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄¥U
                  (3)               firewall ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄¥U

                  (4)               ‚ʤÊÊ Á∑§∞ ª∞ Á‹¥∑§ ¬⁄U ÁÄ‹∑§ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë ’¡Êÿ URL ≈UÊ߬ ∑§⁄U¥
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       32                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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125. Which company has developed the popular app “Teams”, a workspace for real-time collaboration
     and communication, meetings, file and app sharing ?

                  Á∑§‚ ∑¥§¬ŸË Ÿ ‹Ê∑§Á¬˝ÿ ∞¬ ““≈UËê‚”” (Teams) ∑§Ê Áfl∑§Á‚à Á∑§ÿÊ „Ò, ¡Ê flÊSÃÁfl∑§ ‚◊ÿ ◊¥ ‚„ÿÊª •ÊÒ⁄U ‚¥øÊ⁄U,
                  meetings, file •ÊÒ⁄ appU ‚ʤÊÊ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∞∑§ ∑§Êÿ¸SÕ‹ „Ò?
                  (1)               Google                                                   (2)               Microsoft                                               (3)                Apple                                                   (4)                Acrobat


126. In a computer system, ‘Mbps’ is a popular unit of :

                  ∑¥§åÿÍ≈U⁄U ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ◊¥, ‘Mbps’ ∞∑§ ‹Ê∑§Á¬˝ÿ ß∑§Ê߸ (unit) „Ò ¡Ê Á∑§‚ øË¡ ∑§Ê „Ò?
                  (1)               internet speed                                                                                                   (2)               printer’s speed
                  (3)               processor’s speed                                                                                                (4)               video resolution


127. Which one of the following extensions is the most common extension of a Microsoft Excel file ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∞∑§ ◊Êß∑˝§Ê‚ÊÚç≈U ∞Ä‚‹ $»§Êß‹ (Microsoft Excel file) ∑§Ê ‚’‚ ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ∞Ä‚≈¥U‡ÊŸ (most
                  common extension) „Ò?
                  (1)               .exl                                                     (2)               .xlsx                                                   (3)                .excl                                                   (4)                .exc


128. Which of the following has the maximum data storage capacity ?
                  (1)               1010 Kilobyte Hard Disk                                                                                          (2)               108 Megabyte Hard Disk
                  (3)               104 Gigabyte Hard Disk                                                                                           (4)               10 Terabyte Hard Disk

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚∑§Ë «U≈UÊ ‚¥ª˝„áÊ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ (data storage capacity) ‚’‚ •Áœ∑§ „Ò?
                  (1)               1010 Kilobyte „Ê«¸UÁ«US∑§                                                                                        (2)               108 Megabyte „Ê«¸UÁ«US∑§

                  (3)               104 Gigabyte „Ê«¸UÁ«US∑§                                                                                         (4)               10 Terabyte „Ê«¸UÁ«US∑§


129. In which of the following years did some major amendments take place in the IT Act of India ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ fl·¸ ◊¥ ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ •Ê߸≈UË •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ (IT Act) ◊¥ ∑ȧ¿U ◊„àfl¬Íáʸ ‚¥‡ÊÊœŸ „È∞ Õ?
                  (1)               2000                                                     (2)               2004                                                    (3)                2011                                                    (4)                2008


130. Expand the term VPN :

                  VPN ∑§Ê ÁflSÃÊ⁄U ÄÿÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               Virtual Public Network                                                                                           (2)               Virtual Private Network
                  (3)               Virtual Protected Network                                                                                        (4)               Virtual Proxy Network
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       33                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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131. A school wishes to connect all their computers in the administrative block through a computer
     network using Ethernet cables. Which of the following will be the most probable form of
     network ?
                  ∞∑§ S∑ͧ‹ •¬Ÿ ‚÷Ë ∑¥§åÿÍ≈U⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚ÁŸ∑§ π¥«U (administrative block) ◊¥ ߸Õ⁄UŸ≈U ∑§’‹ (Ethernet Cable) ∑§Ê
                  ©¬ÿÊª ∑§⁄U∑§ ∞∑§ ∑¥§åÿÍ≈U⁄U Ÿ≈Ufl∑¸§ (Computer Network) ∑§ ◊Êäÿ◊ ‚ ∑§ŸÄ≈ (Connect) ∑§⁄UŸÊ øÊ„ÃÊ „Ò– ß‚∑§Ê
                  ‚’‚ ‚¥÷ÊÁflà Ÿ≈Ufl∑¸§ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê „ÊªÊ?U
                  (1)               MAN                                                      (2)               LAN                                                     (3)                WAN                                                     (4)                PAN


132. Oracle, MySQL, MS Access are examples of :
                  Oracle, MySQL, MS Access ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ „Ò¥ —
                  (1)               RDBMS                                                                                                            (2)               Utility Software
                  (3)               Operating System                                                                                                 (4)               Application Software


133. Which of the following cannot be true in a valid e-mail address ?
                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∞∑§ ◊Êãÿ ߸-◊‹ ¬Ã (e-mail address) ◊¥ ‚ø Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               The email address may contain more than one dot sign ‘.’
                  (2)               The email address may contain more than one digit
                  (3)               The email address may contain more than one hyphen sign ‘-’
                  (4)               The email address may contain more than one at-the-rate sign ‘@’


134. Which of the following is not a supercomputer developed by India ?
                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ÷Ê⁄Uà mÊ⁄UÊ Áfl∑§Á‚à ‚Ȭ⁄U∑¥§åÿÍ≈U⁄U (supercomputer) Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò ?
                  (1)               Mihir                                                    (2)               Param                                                   (3)                Pratyush                                                (4)                Pragyan


135. When we expand the term USB, ‘S’ stands for :
                  USB ‡ÊéŒ ∑§Ê ÁflSÃÊ⁄U ∑§⁄UÃ ‚◊ÿ, ‘S’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ ÄÿÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               Sequential                                               (2)               Serial                                                  (3)                System                                                  (4)                Structured


136. Which of the following types of software do you recommend most to the secretariat staff of a
     school for preparing the school’s annual report for printing purpose using various fonts, colours,
     formats and images ?
                  •ʬ S∑ͧ‹ ∑§ ‚ÁøflËÿ ∑§◊¸øÊÁ⁄UÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê Á∑§‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ‚ÊÚ$ç≈Uflÿ⁄U ∑§Ë ‚’‚ •Áœ∑§ Á‚»§ÊÁ⁄U‡Ê ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥, Á¡‚∑§Ê ©¬ÿÊª
                  S∑ͧ‹ ∑§Ë flÊÁ·¸∑§ Á⁄U¬Ê≈¸U ∑§Ê ¿UʬŸ ∑§ ©g‡ÿ ‚ ÁflÁ÷㟠»§ÊÚã≈U (fonts), ⁄¥Uª (colours), SflM§¬ (formats) •ÊÒ⁄U ¿UÁflÿÊ¥
                  (images) ∑§Ê ©¬ÿÊª ∑§⁄U∑§ ÃÒÿÊ⁄U Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               Text editor                                                                                                      (2)               Spreadsheet
                  (3)               Word processor                                                                                                   (4)               Browser
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137. While sending an e-mail using Gmail.com or some other popular e-mail service providers, the term
     ‘bcc’ refers :

                  Gmail.com ÿÊ Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ ¬˝Á‚h ߸-◊‹ ‚flÊ ¬˝ŒÊÃÊ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿÊª ∑§⁄UÃ ‚◊ÿ, ‘bcc’ ‡ÊéŒ ∑§Ê ÄÿÊ •Õ¸ „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               Blind carbon copy                                                                                                (2)               Bonus carbon copy
                  (3)               Boot carbon copy                                                                                                 (4)               Besides carbon copy


138. Which of the following is a network security system that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing
     network traffic based on an organization’s previously established security policies ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë ∞∑§ Ÿ≈Ufl∑¸§ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë (network security system) „Ò ¡Ê ‚¥ª∆UŸ ∑§Ë ¬Ífl¸ ◊¥ SÕÊÁ¬Ã ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ
                  ŸËÁÃÿÊ¥ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U •ÊŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ¡ÊŸ flÊ‹ Ÿ≈Ufl∑¸§ ≈˛ÒUÁ»§∑§ (incoming and outgoing network traffic) ∑§Ê ◊ÊÚÁŸ≈U⁄U
                  •ÊÒ⁄U Á$»§À≈U⁄U (monitors and filters) ∑§⁄UÃË „Ò?
                  (1)               Modem                                                    (2)               Repeater                                                (3)                Firewall                                                (4)                Scanner


139. Full form of the term IoT, commonly used in smart homes is :

                  S◊Ê≈¸U „Êê‚ (smart homes) ◊¥ •Ê◊ÃÊÒ⁄U ¬⁄U ¬˝ÿÈÄà ≈U◊¸ IoT ∑§Ê ¬Í⁄UÊ M§¬ ÄÿÊ „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               Integration of Technologies                                                                                      (2)               Internet of Things
                  (3)               Internet of Technologies                                                                                         (4)               Integration of Things


140. Which of the following is not a popular example of a virtual assistant device ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∞∑§ fløÈ¸•‹ ‚„Êÿ∑§ ©¬∑§⁄UáÊ (virtual assistant device) ∑§Ê ‹Ê∑§Á¬˝ÿ ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
                  (1)               Amazon Alexa                                                                                                     (2)               Google Assistant
                  (3)               Apple Siri                                                                                                       (4)               Microsoft Edge


141. Which of the following devices do you recommend most to use if someone wishes to connect a
     laptop to a classroom smartboard for high-resolution screencast ?

                  ÿÁŒ ∑§Ê߸ √ÿÁÄà ©ìÊ Á⁄U$¡ÊÚÀÿ͇ʟ S∑˝§ËŸ∑§ÊS≈U (high-resolution screencast) ∑§ Á‹∞ ∞∑§ ‹Ò¬≈UÊÚ¬ ∑§Ê ∑§ˇÊÊ S◊Ê≈¸U’Ê«¸U
                  (smartboard) ‚ ∑§ŸÄ≈U ∑§⁄UŸÊ øÊ„ÃÊ „Ò, ÃÊ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ •ʬ Á∑§‚ ©¬∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§Ê ‚’‚ •Áœ∑§ Á‚»§ÊÁ⁄U‡Ê ∑§⁄¥Uª?
                  (1)               PS2                                                      (2)               VGA                                                     (3)                USB                                                     (4)                HDMI


142. A smaller-sized version of an image that represents a larger image is popularly known as :

                  ∞∑§ ’«∏Ë ¿UÁfl (image) ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ¿UÊ≈U •Ê∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ‚¥S∑§⁄UáÊ ¡Ê ∞∑§ ’«∏Ë ¿UÁfl (image) ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÃÁŸÁœàfl ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò, ‹Ê∑§Á¬˝ÿ
                  M§¬ ‚ Á∑§‚ ¡ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               clipart                                                  (2)               bitmap                                                  (3)                graphic                                                 (4)                thumbnail
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143. Linking of which of the following cards to DigiLocker is strongly recommended to use the service
     efficiently ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚∑§Ë ∑§Ê«¸U ∑§Ê DigiLocker ‚ ¡Ê«∏ŸÊ (Linking) ‚flÊ ∑§Ê ¬˝÷ÊflË ©¬ÿÊª ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ •ŸÈ‡Ê¥Á‚Ã
                  „Ò?
                  (1)               Aadhaar Card                                             (2)               PAN Card                                                (3)                Voter Card                                              (4)                School ID Card



144. Identify the full form of WWW.

                  WWW ∑§Ê ¬Í⁄UÊ M§¬ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà ∑§⁄¥U–

                  (1)               World Wise Web                                                                                                   (2)               World Wide Web

                  (3)               World Wise Websites                                                                                              (4)               World Wide Websites



145. Which of the following is not a popular example of an operating system ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∞∑§ ‹Ê∑§Á¬˝ÿ •ÊÚ¬⁄UÁ≈¥Uª Á‚S≈U◊ (operating system) ∑§Ê ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
                  (1)               Ubuntu                                                   (2)               Android                                                 (3)                Linux                                                   (4)                Opera



146. Which of the following is not an example of cloud storage ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê Ä‹Ê©« ‚¥ª˝„U (cloud storage) ∑§Ê ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
                  (1)               Google Drive                                                                                                     (2)               Microsoft Azure

                  (3)               Microsoft Edge                                                                                                   (4)               pCloud



147. Which of the following companies is not known for developing antivirus software ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë ∑¥§¬ŸË ∞¥≈UËflÊÿ⁄U‚ ‚ÊÚ$ç≈Uflÿ⁄U (Antivirus Software) Áfl∑§Á‚à ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ Ÿ„Ë¥ ¡ÊŸË ¡ÊÃË
                  „Ò?
                  (1)               McAfee                                                   (2)               Kaspersky                                               (3)                Ubuntu                                                  (4)                Quick Heal



148. Which of the following is the unique identifying number assigned to every device connected to the
     internet ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∞∑§ •ÁmÃËÿ ¬„øÊŸ Ÿ¥’⁄U (unique identifying number) „Ò, ¡Ê ߥ≈U⁄UŸ≈U ‚ ¡È«∏ „⁄U ©¬∑§⁄UáÊ
                  ∑§Ê ¬˝ŒÊŸ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
                  (1)               BUS address                                              (2)               MAC address                                             (3)                IP address                                              (4)                BOOT address
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149. Which of the following is a type of malware that disguises itself as a legitimate useful app or
     software and gains access to the devices once we download and install it on our devices ?

                  ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∞∑§ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ◊Ò‹flÿ⁄U (malware) „Ò, ¡Ê •¬Ÿ •ʬ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ flÊSÃÁfl∑§ ©¬ÿÊªË App ÿÊ
                  ‚ÊÚ$ç≈Uflÿ⁄U ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ Á¿U¬Ê∑§⁄U „◊Ê⁄U ©¬∑§⁄UáÊÊ¥ (devices) ¬⁄U „◊ «UÊ©Ÿ‹Ê«U •ÊÒ⁄U ߥS≈UÊÚ‹ ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U Á»§⁄U ◊Ò‹flÿ⁄U
                  (malware) ©ã„¥ ¬„È¥ø ¬˝Êåà (gains access) ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥?

                  (1)               Spam                                                     (2)               Worm                                                    (3)                Phishing                                                (4)                Trojan


150. In the abbreviation for volatile memory RAM, ‘R’ stands for :

                  flÊÚ‹≈UÊß‹ ◊◊Ê⁄UË (volatile memory) RAM ∑§ ‚¥ˇÊ¬ ◊¥ ‘R’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò —
                  (1)               Read                                                     (2)               Random                                                  (3)                Resource                                                (4)                Retention


                                                                                                                                                           -o0o-




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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¡ª„




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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¡ª„




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READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY :                                                                                                                                                     ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏¥ —
   1. The manner in which the different questions are to be answered has been                                                                                               1.  Á¡‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ‚ ÁflÁ÷ÛÊ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ÁŒ∞ ¡ÊŸ „Ò¥ ©‚∑§Ê fláʸŸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ
      explained in the Test Booklet which you should read carefully before actually                                                                                             ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò, Á¡‚ •ʬ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ ‚ ¬„‹ äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏
      answering the questions.                                                                                                                                                  ‹¥–
   2. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the correct                                                                                       2. ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ øÊ⁄U Áfl∑§À¬Ê¥ ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ OMR
      answer is to be darkened completely with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen on                                                                                                   ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§ ¬Îc∆U-2 ¬⁄U ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ flÎûÊ ∑§Ê „Ë ¬Í⁄UË Ã⁄U„ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’ÊÚ‹ ¬ÊÚßã≈U
      Side-2 of the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not liable                                                                                                      ¬Ÿ ‚ ÷⁄¥U– ∞∑§ ’Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ©‚ ’Œ‹Ê Ÿ„Ë¥ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ
      to be changed. In case more than one circle is darkened, the question                                                                                                     „Ò– ∞∑§ ‚ •Áœ∑§ flÎûÊ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ
      will not be assessed.
                                                                                                                                                                                ¡Ê∞ªÊ–
   3. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not                                                                                              3. ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øÃ ∑§⁄¥U Á∑§ ß‚ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§Ê ◊Ê«∏Ê Ÿ ¡Ê∞ ∞fl¥ ©‚ ¬⁄U ∑§Ê߸
      make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No.                                                                                                      •ãÿ ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ Ÿ ‹ªÊ∞°– ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ •¬ŸÊ •ŸÈ∑˝§◊Ê¥∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄UÃ
      anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
                                                                                                                                                                                SÕÊŸ ∑§ •ÁÃÁ⁄UÄà •ãÿòÊ Ÿ Á‹π¥–
   4. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no                                                                                                       4. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∞fl¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄¥U, ÄÿÊ¥Á∑§ Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë
      circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code or Number                                                                                                      ¬Á⁄UÁSÕÁà ◊¥ (∑§fl‹ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∞fl¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§ ∑§Ê«U ÿÊ ‚¥ÅÿÊ ◊¥
      and Answer Sheet Code or Number), another set will be provided.                                                                                                           Á÷ãŸÃÊ ∑§Ë ÁSÕÁà ∑§Ê ¿UÊ«∏∑§⁄U) ŒÍ‚⁄UË ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ©¬‹éœ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÊÿË
   5. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet Code and Number as                                                                                                     ¡Ê∞ªË–
      given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.                                                                                                       5. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê/©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ◊¥ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê«U fl ‚¥ÅÿÊ ∑§Ê
   6. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer Sheet.                                                                                                        ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ‚„Ë Ã⁄UË∑§ ‚ ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-¬òÊ ◊¥ Á‹π¥–
      Hence, no information should be left incomplete and it should not be different                                                                                        6. OMR ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ◊¥ ∑§ÊÁ«Uà ¡ÊŸ∑§Ê⁄UË ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ◊‡ÊËŸ ¬…∏ªË– ß‚Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸
      from the information given in the Admit Card.                                                                                                                             ÷Ë ‚ÍøŸÊ •œÍ⁄UË Ÿ ¿UÊ«∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ÿ„ ¬˝fl‡Ê-¬òÊ ◊¥ ŒË ªß¸ ‚ÍøŸÊ ‚ Á÷㟠Ÿ„Ë¥
   7. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written                                                                                              „ÊŸË øÊÁ„∞–
      bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material                                                                                          7. ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ mÊ⁄UÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ◊¥ ¬˝fl‡Ê-¬òÊ ∑§ Á‚flÊÿ Á∑§‚Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë
      except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.                                                                                                                   ¬Ê∆K-‚Ê◊ª˝Ë, ◊ÈÁŒ˝Ã ÿÊ „SÃÁ‹Áπà ∑§Êª$¡ ∑§Ë ¬Áø¸ÿʰ, ¬¡⁄U, ◊Ê’Êß‹
   8. Mobile phones, wireless communication devices (even in switched off                                                                                                       »§ÊŸ, ß‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸ∑§ ©¬∑§⁄UáÊ ÿÊ Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë ∑§Ê ‹ ¡ÊŸ ÿÊ
      mode) and the other banned items should not be brought in the examination                                                                                                 ©¬ÿÊª ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë •ŸÈ◊Áà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
      halls/rooms. Failing to comply with this instruction, it will be considered as                                                                                        8. ◊Ê’Êß‹ »§ÊŸ, ’ÃÊ⁄U ‚¥øÊ⁄U ÿÈÁÄÃÿʰ (ÁSflø •ÊÚ»§ •flSÕÊ ◊¥ ÷Ë) •ÊÒ⁄U •ãÿ
      using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them                                                                                               ¬˝ÁÃ’¥ÁœÃ flSÃÈ∞° ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ◊¥ Ÿ„Ë¥ ‹Ê߸ ¡ÊŸË øÊÁ„∞– ß‚ ‚ÍøŸÊ ∑§Ê
      including cancellation of examination.
                                                                                                                                                                                ¬Ê‹Ÿ Ÿ „ÊŸ ¬⁄U ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ •ŸÈÁøÃ ‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ◊ÊŸÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ •ÊÒ⁄U
   9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.                                                                                                 ©Ÿ∑§ ÁflL§h ∑§Êÿ¸flÊ„Ë ∑§Ë ¡Ê∞ªË, Á¡‚◊¥ ©Ÿ∑§Ë ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ⁄Ug ∑§⁄UŸÊ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹
   10. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or                                                                                                 „Ò–
       Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.                                                                                                                              9. ¬Í¿U ¡ÊŸ ¬⁄U ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸, ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê •¬ŸÊ ¬˝fl‡Ê-¬òÊ ÁŒπÊ∞°–
   11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall/Room without handing                                                                                            10. ∑§ãŒ˝ •œËˇÊ∑§ ÿÊ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ë Áfl‡Ê· •ŸÈ◊Áà ∑§ Á’ŸÊ ∑§Ê߸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸
       over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance                                                                                               •¬ŸÊ SÕÊŸ Ÿ ¿UÊ«∏¥–
       Sheet twice. Cases where candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet                                                                                               11. ∑§Êÿ¸⁄Uà ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê •¬ŸÊ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ÁŒ∞ Á’ŸÊ ∞fl¥ ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-¬òÊ ¬⁄U ŒÈ’Ê⁄UÊ
       second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and                                                                                                  „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U Á∑§∞ Á’ŸÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ¿UÊ«∏¥ª– ÿÁŒ Á∑§‚Ë
       dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to                                                                                                  ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ Ÿ ŒÍ‚⁄UË ’Ê⁄U ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-¬òÊ ¬⁄U „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§∞, ÃÊ ÿ„ ◊ÊŸÊ
       put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the
                                                                                                                                                                                ¡Ê∞ªÊ Á∑§ ©‚Ÿ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ‹ÊÒ≈UÊÿÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ÿ„ •ŸÈÁøÃ ‚ÊœŸ ∑§Ê
       Attendance Sheet.
                                                                                                                                                                                ◊Ê◊‹Ê ◊ÊŸÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ– ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ •¬Ÿ ’Ê∞° „ÊÕ ∑§ •¥ªÍ∆U ∑§Ê ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-
   12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.                                                                                                                       ¬òÊ ◊¥ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U •fl‡ÿ ‹ªÊ∞°–
   13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examining                                                                                            12. ß‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸ∑§/„SÃøÊÁ‹Ã ¬Á⁄U∑§‹∑§ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿÊª flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò–
       Body with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall/Room. All cases                                                                                            13. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ◊¥ •Êø⁄UáÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ ‚¥SÕÊ ∑§ ‚÷Ë
       of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the                                                                                                   ÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∞fl¥ ÁflÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ mÊ⁄UÊ ÁŸÿÁ◊à „Ò¥– •ŸÈÁøÃ ‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§ ‚÷Ë ◊Ê◊‹Ê¥ ∑§Ê
       Examining Body.
                                                                                                                                                                                »Ò§‚‹Ê ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ ‚¥SÕÊ ∑§ ÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∞fl¥ ÁflÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U „ÊªÊ–
   14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any                                                                                             14. Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬Á⁄UÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê߸ ÷ʪ •‹ª
       circumstances.                                                                                                                                                           Ÿ ∑§⁄¥U–
   15. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer                                                                                                   15. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚ê¬ãŸ „ÊŸ ¬⁄U, ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ¿UÊ«∏Ÿ ‚ ¬Ífl¸ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§
       Sheet to the Invigilator in the Hall / Room. The candidates are                                                                                                          ∑§Ê •fl‡ÿ ‚ÊÒ¥¬ Œ¥– ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê ‹ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã
       allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.                                                                                                                        „Ò¥–
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RAS-24 / ASA                                                                                                                                                       40                                                                                                                                                                  A1
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Source: Central Board of Secondary Education. Question paper published by Central Board of Secondary Education.

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