CBSE Junior Engineer 2024: Junior Engineer, CBSE Recruitment Examination, Tier 1, booklet code D1

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This booklet contains 40 Printed pages. Test Booklet No. / ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥ÅÿÊ
ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ 40 ◊ÈÁŒ˝Ã ¬Îc∆U „Ò¥– RAS-24
JER TEST BOOKLET / ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Test Booklet Code / ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê«U
ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê Ã’ Ã∑§ Ÿ πÊ‹¥ ¡’ Ã∑§ ∑§„Ê Ÿ ¡Ê∞–
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ Á¬¿U‹ •Êfl⁄UáÊ ¬⁄U ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏¥–
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
D1
¬⁄UˡÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê
1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed 1. OMR ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ •ãŒ⁄U ⁄UπÊ „Ò– ¡’ •ʬ∑§Ê ¬⁄UˡÊÊ
to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê πÊ‹Ÿ ∑§Ê ∑§„Ê ¡Ê∞, ÃÊ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ÁŸ∑§Ê‹ ∑§⁄U ¬Îc∆U-1 ∞fl¥ ¬Îc∆-U2 ¬⁄U
on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. äÿÊŸ ‚ ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’ÊÚ‹ ¬ÊÚߥ≈U ¬Ÿ ‚ Áflfl⁄UáÊ ÷⁄¥U–
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/ 2. ß‚ ¬Îc∆U ¬⁄U Áflfl⁄UáÊ •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UŸ ∞fl¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ¬⁄U ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ ‹ªÊŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
marking responses in the Answer Sheet. ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’ÊÚ‹ ¬ÊÚߥ≈U ¬Ÿ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿʪ ∑§⁄¥U–
3. The CODE for this Booklet is D1. Make sure that the CODE printed on 3. ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê ∑§Ê«U D1 „Ò– ÿ„ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øÃ ∑§⁄U ‹¥ Á∑§ ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê
Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Booklet. Also ensure
that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of
∑§Ê«U, ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§ ¬Îc∆U-2 ¬⁄U ¿U¬ ∑§Ê«U ‚ Á◊‹ÃÊ „Ò– ÿ„ ÷Ë ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øÃ ∑§⁄U
discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the ‹¥ Á∑§ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥ÅÿÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ‚¥ÅÿÊ Á◊‹Ã „Ò¥– •ª⁄U ÿ„ Á÷ÛÊ
Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet of „Ê¥ ÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ©‚Ë ∑§Ê«U ∑§Ê ŒÍ‚⁄UË ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ‹Ÿ ∑§
Same Code. Á‹∞ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê ÃÈ⁄Uãà •flªÃ ∑§⁄UÊ∞°–
4. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of 150 questions without any 4. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§Ë •flÁœ 2½ ÉÊ¥≈ „Ò¥ ∞fl¥ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ 150 ¬˝‡Ÿ „¥Ò– Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ∞∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ
time limit for each part of the Test individually. ∑§ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ÷ʪ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸ ‚◊ÿ ‚Ë◊Ê Ãÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§Ë ªß¸ „Ò–
5. This Test Booklet has six Parts, I, II, III, IV, V and VI consisting of 5. ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ ¿U„ ÷ʪ I, II, III, IV, V •ÊÒ⁄U VI „Ò¥, Á¡Ÿ◊¥ 150 flSÃÈÁŸc∆U
150 Objective Type Questions and each carries 2 marks. All the ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥ ÃÕÊ ¬˝àÿ∑§ 2 •¥∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ê „Ò– ‚÷Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ/÷ʪ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ „Ò¥– ¬˝àÿ∑§
questions/parts are compulsory. Two (2) marks shall be awarded to ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 2 •¥∑§ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝àÿ∑§ ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 0.5 •¥∑§
every correct answer and 0.5 shall be deducted for every incorrect ∑§Ê≈UÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ– •ŸÈûÊÁ⁄Uà ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸ •¥∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ ÁŒÿ ¡Ê∞°ª– Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë
answer. Unanswered questions will not be given any marks. Filling ¬˝‡Ÿ ◊¥ ∞∑§ ‚ •Áœ∑§ ªÊ‹Ê ÷⁄UŸÊ/¬˝àÿÈûÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸÊ ª‹Ã ¬˝àÿÈûÊ⁄U
up/darkening more than one response in any question will be treated
as wrong response and 0.5 mark as wrong response will be deducted.
◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ ÃÕÊ ª‹Ã ¬˝àÿÈûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 0.5 •¥∑§ ∑§Ê≈U Á‹∞ ¡Ê∞°ª–
Part-I : General Intelligence, Reasoning and ÷ʪ-I : ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ’ÈÁh, Ã∑¸§ ÃÕÊ
Analytical Ability (Q.Nos. 1-10) Áfl‡‹·áÊÊà◊∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ (¬˝.‚¥. 1-10)
Part-II : Quantitative Aptitude and Numerical ÷ʪ-II : ◊ÊòÊÊà◊∑§ •Á÷ˇÊ◊ÃÊ ÃÕÊ
Ability (Q.Nos. 11-20) ‚¥ÅÿÊà◊∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ (¬˝.‚¥. 11-20)
Part-III : Current Affairs and General Awareness (Q.Nos. 21-30) ÷ʪ-III : ‚Ê◊Áÿ∑§ ◊Ê◊‹ ÃÕÊ ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ¡ÊªL§∑§ÃÊ (¬˝.‚¥. 21-30)
Part-IV : Language Competency Test
(General English) & Language Competency
÷ʪ-IV : ÷Ê·Ê ˇÊ◊ÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ (‚Ê◊Êãÿ •¥ª˝¡Ë)
Test (General Hindi) (Q.Nos. 31-45) ÃÕÊ ÷Ê·Ê ˇÊ◊ÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ (‚Ê◊Êãÿ Á„ãŒË) (¬˝.‚¥. 31-45)
Part-V : Knowledge of Computer Operations, ÷ʪ-V : ∑§êåÿÍ≈U⁄U ‚¥øÊ‹Ÿ ∑§Ê ôÊÊŸ,
Techniques of Project Management (Q.Nos. 46-60) ¬Á⁄UÿÊ¡ŸÊ ¬˝’¥œŸ ∑§Ë Ã∑§ŸË∑¥§§ (¬˝.‚¥. 46-60)
Part-VI : Civil Engineering (Q.Nos. 61-150)
÷ʪ-VI : Á‚Áfl‹ •Á÷ÿ¥òÊáÊ (¬˝.‚¥. 61-150)
6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet
6. ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ ß‚ ¬˝ÿÊ¡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ŒË ªß¸ πÊ‹Ë ¡ª„ ¬⁄U „Ë
for the same.
7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark
∑§⁄¥U–
your responses carefully. No whitener/eraser is allowed for changing 7. ‚÷Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§fl‹ OMR ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ¬⁄U „Ë •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄¥U– •¬Ÿ ©ûÊ⁄U äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§
answers. •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄¥U– ©ûÊ⁄U ’Œ‹Ÿ „ÃÈ ‡flà ⁄¥U¡∑§/⁄U’«∏ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿʪ ÁŸÁ·h „Ò–
8. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions of questions/ 8. ÿÁŒ •¥ª˝$¡Ë •ÊÒ⁄U Á„ãŒË ‚¥S∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥/©ûÊ⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥ ∑§Ê߸ Áfl‚¥ªÁà „Ê ÃÊ
answers, English version will be taken as final. •¥ª˝$¡Ë ‚¥S∑§⁄UáÊ •¥ÁÃ◊ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ–
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________________________________________
¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ∑§Ê ŸÊ◊ (’«∏ •ˇÊ⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥) —
Roll Number (•ŸÈ∑˝§◊Ê¥∑§) — in figures (•¥∑§Ê¥ ◊¥) ________________________________________________________________________________________________
— in words (‡ÊéŒÊ¥ ◊¥) ________________________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : _____________________________________________________________________________________________________
¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§ãŒ˝ (’«∏ •ˇÊ⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥) —
Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : _________________________________________________
¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ∑§ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U — ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U —
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : ____________________________________________________________________________________________
∑§ãŒ˝ •œËˇÊ∑§ ∑§ »Ò§Á‚◊Êß‹ / ◊Ê„⁄U „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U —
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PART - I / ÷ʪ - I
General Intelligence, Reasoning and Analytical Ability / ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ’ÈÁh, Ã∑¸§ ÃÕÊ Áfl‡‹·áÊÊà◊∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ
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1. Study the following diagram carefully and answer the question.
The triangle stands for players who play Hockey, circle for who play Football, square for who play
Badminton and rectangle for who play Cricket.
Based on the above diagram, which one of the following statement is definitely true ?
(1) All Football players play Cricket also.
(2) All Cricket players, play Badminton and Hockey.
(3) All Football players play Hockey also.
(4) All Football players play Badminton.
ŸËø ÁŒ∞ •Ê⁄Uπ ∑§Ê •äÿÿŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —
ÁòÊ÷È¡ ©Ÿ Áπ‹ÊÁ«∏ÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê Œ‡ÊʸÃÊ „Ò ¡Ê „ÊÚ∑§Ë π‹Ã „¥Ò, flÎûÊ ¡Ê »È§≈U’ÊÚ‹ π‹Ã „¥Ò, flª¸ ¡Ê ’Ò«UÁ◊ã≈UŸ π‹Ã „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U •Êÿà ¡Ê
Á∑˝§∑§≈U π‹Ã „Ò¥–
™§¬⁄U ÁŒ∞ •Ê⁄Uπ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚àÿ „Ò?
(1) ‚÷Ë »È§≈U’ÊÚ‹ Áπ‹Ê«∏Ë Á∑˝§∑§≈U ÷Ë π‹Ã „Ò¥–
(2) ‚÷Ë Á∑˝§∑§≈U Áπ‹Ê«∏Ë, ’Ò«UÁ◊ã≈UŸ •ÊÒ⁄U „ÊÚ∑§Ë ÷Ë π‹Ã „¥Ò–
(3) ‚÷Ë »È§≈U’ÊÚ‹ Áπ‹Ê«∏Ë „ÊÚ∑§Ë ÷Ë π‹Ã „Ò¥–
(4) ‚÷Ë »È§≈U’ÊÚ‹ Áπ‹Ê«∏Ë ’Ò«UÁ◊ã≈UŸ ÷Ë π‹Ã „Ò¥–
2. X is the father of Z, but Z is not his son. M is the daughter of Z. N is the spouse of X. Y is the
brother of Z. P is the son of Y.
Who is the son of N ?
X, Z ∑§Ê Á¬ÃÊ „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ Z ©‚∑§Ê ¬ÈòÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò– M, Z ∑§Ë ¬ÈòÊË „Ò– N, X ∑§Ë ¬àŸË „Ò– Y, Z ∑§Ê ÷Ê߸ „Ò– P, Y ∑§Ê ¬ÈòÊ „Ò–
N ∑§Ê ¬ÈòÊ ∑§ÊÒŸ „Ò?
(1) Z (2) P (3) M (4) Y
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RAS-24 / JER 2 D1
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3. In a certain code language ‘973’ means ‘Leaves are green’, ‘728’ means ‘Green is beautiful’ and ‘83’
means ‘Beautiful leaves’, then in the same language what is the code for ‘Beautiful green leaves’ ?
Á∑§‚Ë ∑ͧ≈U ÷Ê·Ê ◊¥ ‘973’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò ‘Leaves are green’, ‘728’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò ‘Green is beautiful’ •ÊÒ⁄U ‘83’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸
‘Beautiful leaves’ „Ò, ÃÊ ß‚Ë ∑ͧ≈U ÷Ê·Ê ◊¥ ‘Beautiful green leaves’ ∑§Ê ∑ͧ≈U ÄÿÊ „ʪÊ?
(1) 982 (2) 827 (3) 873 (4) 392
4. Given below is a question followed by two statements numbered I and II, each containing some
information. You have to decide which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and decide the appropriate answer.
Mamta, Prabha, Anita and Komal are four friends. Who among them is the tallest ?
Statements : I. Prabha is taller than Mamta and Komal but shorter than Anita.
II. Mamta is shorter than Prabha and Anita but taller than Komal.
(1) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while statement I alone is not sufficient.
(2) Either statement I alone or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
(3) Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(4) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while statement II alone is not sufficient.
ŸËø ∞∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ŒÊ ∑§ÕŸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II, ¬˝àÿ∑§ ∑ȧ¿U ¡ÊŸ∑§Ê⁄UË ‚Á„à ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– •ʬ∑§Ê ÿ„ Ãÿ ∑§⁄UŸÊ „Ò Á∑§
∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/∑§ÊÒŸ ‚ ∑§ÕŸ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò/„Ò¥– ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬Á…∏∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ©ÁøÃ ©ûÊ⁄U Ãÿ ∑§ËÁ¡∞–
◊◊ÃÊ, ¬˝÷Ê, •ÁŸÃÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§Ê◊‹ øÊ⁄U ‚„Á‹ÿʰ „Ò¥– ©Ÿ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚’‚ ‹¥’Ë „Ò?
∑§ÕŸ : I. ¬˝÷Ê, ◊◊ÃÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§Ê◊‹ ‚ ‹¥’Ë „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ, •ÁŸÃÊ ‚ ¿UÊ≈UË „Ò–
II. ◊◊ÃÊ, ¬˝÷Ê •ÊÒ⁄U •ÁŸÃÊ ‚ ¿UÊ≈UË „Ò ‹Á∑§Ÿ ∑§Ê◊‹ ‚ ‹¥’Ë „Ò–
(1) ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ „Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò ¡’Á∑§ ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ ¬ÿʸåà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(2) ÿÊ ÃÊ ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ ÿÊ ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò–
(3) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ÕŸ I •ÊÒ⁄ II ∞∑§ ‚ÊÕ Á◊‹∑§⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò¥–
(4) ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ „Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò ¡’Á∑§ ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ ¬ÿʸåà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
5. If the second half of the English alphabet is written in the reverse order, which letter will be ninth
to the right of the twelfth letter from the left end ?
ÿÁŒ •¥ª˝¡Ë fláʸ◊Ê‹Ê ∑§ Á¬¿U‹ •Êœ fláÊÊZ ∑§Ê Áfl¬⁄UËà (©À≈UÊ) Á‹π ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ ÃÊ ’Êÿ¥ ‚ ’Ê⁄U„fl¥ fláʸ ∑§ ŒÊÿ¥ ‚ ŸÊÒ¥fl SÕÊŸ
¬⁄U ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê fláʸ „ʪÊ?
(1) C (2) S (3) F (4) P
6. Abhinav travels 100 km towards North, from there he travels 60 km towards South, then he
travels 30 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting
point ?
(1) 70 km, East (2) 60 km, South
(3) 90 km, East (4) 50 km, North-East
•Á÷Ÿfl 100 Á∑§.◊Ë. ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§Ë •Ê⁄U ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò, fl„ʰ ‚ ŒÁˇÊáÊ ÁŒ‡ÊÊ ◊¥ 60 Á∑§.◊Ë. ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– Á»§⁄U 30 Á∑§.◊Ë. ¬Ífl¸ ∑§Ë •Ê⁄U ¡ÊÃÊ
„Ò– flÊ •Ê⁄¥UÁ÷∑§ Á’ãŒÈ ‚ Á∑§ÃŸË ŒÍ⁄UË ¬⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U Á∑§‚ ÁŒ‡ÊÊ ◊¥ „Ò?
(1) 70 Á∑§.◊Ë., ¬Ífl¸ (2) 60 Á∑§.◊Ë., ŒÁˇÊáÊ
(3) 90 Á∑§.◊Ë., ¬Ífl¸ (4) 50 Á∑§.◊Ë., ©ûÊ⁄U-¬Ífl¸
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RAS-24 / JER 3 D1
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7. Find the mirror image of the following figure when the mirror is placed at ‘AB’ line as shown
below :
ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ÁøòÊ ∑§Ê Œ¬¸áÊ ¬˝ÁÃÁ’ê’ ôÊÊà ∑§⁄¥U; ¡’ Œ¬¸áÊ ∑§Ê ŸËø ÁŒπÊ∞ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ‘AB’ ⁄UπÊ ¬⁄U ⁄UπÊ ¡Ê∞–
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8. A statement is followed by two Assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and
assumptions and decide which of the given assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement : Children are influenced more by their teachers now-a-days.
Assumptions : I. Children spent a large amount of time in school.
II. The children consider teachers as their models.
(1) Only Assumption I is implicit.
(2) Only Assumption II is implicit.
(3) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
(4) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.
∞∑§ ∑§ÕŸ ∑§ ¬‡øÊØ ŒÊ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊÿ¥ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ŒË ªß¸ „Ò¥– ∑§ÕŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊʕʥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§⁄¥U •ÊÒ⁄U ÿ„ ÁŸáʸÿ ‹¥ Á∑§
∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë/‚ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ ∑§ÕŸ ◊¥ •¥ÃÁŸ¸Á„à „Ò/„Ò¥?
∑§ÕŸ — •Ê¡∑§‹ ’ëø •¬Ÿ •äÿʬ∑§Ê¥ ‚ ’„Èà ¬˝÷ÊÁflà „Êà „Ò¥–
¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ∞° : I. ’ëø, ÁfllÊ‹ÿ ◊¥ ’„Èà •Áœ∑§ ‚◊ÿ Á’ÃÊà „Ò¥–
II. ’ëø, •äÿʬ∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ê •¬ŸÊ •ÊŒ‡Ê¸ ◊ÊŸÃ „Ò¥–
(1) ∑§fl‹ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ I •ãÃÁŸ¸Á„à „Ò¥–
(2) ∑§fl‹ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ II •ãÃÁŸ¸Á„à „Ò–
(3) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ∞° I •ÊÒ⁄U II •ãÃÁŸ¸Á„à „Ò¥–
(4) Ÿ ÃÊ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ I Ÿ „Ë II •ãÃÁŸ¸Á„à „Ò–
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9. In this question, three statements are followed by two conclusions, numbered I and II. Find out
which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true, based on the given statements ?
Statements : E=L, L ≤ G, G > Q
Conclusions : I. G/E
II. L≤Q
(1) Only conclusion II is true.
(2) Either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(3) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(4) Only conclusion I is true.
ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ ◊¥ ÃËŸ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ŒÊ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U ¬ÃÊ ‹ªÊß∞ Á∑§ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/
∑§ÊÒŸ ‚ ÁŸc∑§·¸ ÁŸÁ‡øÃ M§¬ ‚ ‚àÿ „Ò/„Ò¥?
∑§ÕŸ : E=L, L ≤ G, G > Q
ÁŸc∑§·¸ — I. G/E
II. L≤Q
(1) ∑§fl‹ ÁŸc∑§·¸ II ‚àÿ „Ò–
(2) ÿÊ ÃÊ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I ÿÊ ÁŸc∑§·¸ II ‚àÿ „Ò–
(3) ÁŸc∑§·¸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚àÿ „Ò¥–
(4) ∑§fl‹ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I ‚àÿ „Ò–
10. J, M, N, T, P, Q and S are sitting in a circle facing at the centre. P is the neighbour of J and T. S is
not between Q and N. Q is to the immediate right of J. What is the position of Q ?
(1) Third to the left of N
(2) To the immediate left of J
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) Third to the right of T
J, M, N, T, P, Q •ÊÒ⁄U S ∞∑§ flÎà ◊¥ ∑§ãŒ˝ ∑§Ë •Ê⁄U ◊Ȱ„ ∑§⁄U∑§ ’Ò∆U „¥Ò– P, J •ÊÒ⁄U T ∑§Ê ¬«∏Ê‚Ë „Ò– S, Q •ÊÒ⁄U N ∑§ ’Ëø
◊¥ Ÿ„Ë¥ ’Ò∆UÊ „Ò– Q ∆UË∑§ ’ª‹ ◊¥ J ∑§ ŒÊßZ •Ê⁄U ’Ò∆UÊ „Ò– Q Á∑§‚ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ’Ò∆UÊ „Ò?
(1) N ∑§ ’ÊßZ •Ê⁄U ÃË‚⁄U SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U
(2) J ∑§ ’ª‹ ◊¥ ’ÊßZ •Ê⁄U
(3) M ∑§ ’ª‹ ◊¥ ŒÊßZ •Ê⁄U
(4) T ∑§ ŒÊßZ •Ê⁄U ÃË‚⁄U SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U
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PART - II / ÷ʪ - II
Quantitative Aptitude and Numerical Ability / ◊ÊòÊÊà◊∑§ •Á÷ˇÊ◊ÃÊ ÃÕÊ ‚¥ÅÿÊà◊∑§ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ
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11. A and B started partnership and invested ` 16,000 and ` 12,000 respectively. After 3 months,
A withdrew ` 5,000 while B invested ` 5,000 more. After 3 more months; C joins the business with
a capital of ` 21,000. The share of B exceeds that of C, out of a total profit of ` 26,400 after that one
year by :
ŒÊ √ÿÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ‘A’ •ÊÒ⁄U ‘B’ Ÿ ∞∑§ ‚ʤʌÊ⁄UË ¬˝Ê⁄Uê÷ ∑§⁄Uà ‚◊ÿ ∑˝§◊‡Ê— ` 16,000 fl ` 12,000 ‹ªÊ∞– ÃËŸ ◊„ËŸ ’ÊŒ ‘A’ Ÿ
` 5,000 ÁŸ∑§Ê‹ Á‹∞ ¡’Á∑§ ‘B’ Ÿ ` 5,000 •ÊÒ⁄U ‹ªÊ ÁŒ∞– •’ ÃËŸ ◊„ËŸ ’ÊŒ ‘C’ ÷Ë √ÿʬÊ⁄U ◊¥ ` 21,000 ‹ªÊ∑§⁄U
‚ʤʌÊ⁄U „Ê ªÿÊ– ‘B’ ∑§Ê Á„S‚Ê ‘C’ ∑§ Á„S‚ ‚ Á∑§ÃŸÊ •Áœ∑§ „ÊªÊ ÿÁŒ ‹Ê÷ ∑§Ë ∑ȧ‹ ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ∞∑§ fl·¸ ’ÊŒ ` 26,400 ⁄U„Ë
„Ê?
(1) ` 4,200 (2) ` 3,600 (3) ` 2,800 (4) ` 3,800
12. Find the value of :
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§Ê ◊ÊŸ ôÊÊà ∑§⁄¥U —
1 1 4 1
2 + 1 ÷ ×2 −1
4 3 9 4
(1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 12
13. X and Y can do some work in 30 days. While Y and Z can do the same work in 24 days and Z and
X in 20 days. They all work together for 10 days when Y and Z leave. How many days more X will
work to finish that work ?
(1) 36 days (2) 18 days (3) 24 days (4) 32 days
ŒÊ √ÿÁÄà X ÃÕÊ Y Á◊‹∑§⁄U Á∑§‚Ë ∑§Ê◊ ∑§Ê 30 ÁŒŸ ◊¥ ¬Í⁄UÊ ∑§⁄Uà „Ò¥ ¡’Á∑§ Y •ÊÒ⁄U Z Á◊‹∑§⁄U ©‚Ë ∑§Ê◊ ∑§Ê 24 ÁŒŸ ◊¥ ÃÕÊ
Z •ÊÒ⁄U X Á◊‹∑§⁄U 20 ÁŒŸ ◊¥ ¬Í⁄UÊ ∑§⁄Uà „Ò¥– ÿ ‚’ Á◊‹∑§⁄U 10 ÁŒŸ ∑§Ê◊ ∑§⁄Uà „Ò¥– ß‚∑§ ’ÊŒ Y •ÊÒ⁄U Z ∑§Ê◊ ¿UÊ«∏ ŒÃ „Ò¥–
•’ X ∑§Ê ‡Ê· ∑§Ê◊ ¬Í⁄UÊ ∑§⁄UŸ ◊¥ Á∑§ÃŸ ÁŒŸ ‹ª¥ª?
(1) 36 ÁŒŸ (2) 18 ÁŒŸ (3) 24 ÁŒŸ (4) 32 ÁŒŸ
14. Three persons walking around a circular track complete their respective single revolutions in
32 seconds, 40 seconds and 72 seconds respectively. After how many minutes they will be again
together at the common starting point ?
(1) 12 minutes (2) 24 minutes (3) 18 minutes (4) 36 minutes
ÃËŸ √ÿÁÄà ∞∑§ flÎûÊÊ∑§Ê⁄U ¬Á⁄U¬Õ ¬⁄U ÉÊÍ◊à „Ò¥– ©ã„¥ ∞∑§ ¬Í⁄UÊ øÄ∑§⁄U ‹ªÊŸ ◊¥ ∑˝§◊‡Ê— 32, 40 •ÊÒ⁄U 72 ‚Ò∑§ã«U ‹ªÃ „Ò¥– •’
fl Á∑§ÃŸË Á◊Ÿ≈U ’ÊŒ Á»§⁄U ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ¬˝Ê⁄¥UÁ÷∑§ Á’ãŒÈ ¬⁄U Á◊‹¥ª?
(1) 12 Á◊Ÿ≈ (2) 24 Á◊Ÿ≈ (3) 18 Á◊Ÿ≈ (4) 36 Á◊Ÿ≈
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15. If 10 years are subtracted from the present age of Mr. Kapoor and the remainder is divided by 12,
then you would get the present age of his grandson Saurabh. If Saurabh is 7 years younger to
Saloni whose age is 12 years, then what is the present age of Mr. Kapoor ?
(1) 80 years (2) 70 years (3) 84 years (4) 41 years
ÿÁŒ üÊË ∑§¬Í⁄U ∑§Ë •ÊÿÈ ◊¥ ‚ 10 fl·¸ ÉÊ≈UÊ ÁŒ∞ ¡Ê∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ‡Ê· ∑§Ê 12 ‚ ÷ʪ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ ÃÊ ©‚∑§ ¬ÊÒòÊ ‚ÊÒ⁄U÷ ∑§Ë •ÊÿÈ ¬˝Êåà „Ê
¡Ê∞ªË– ÿÁŒ ‚ÊÒ⁄U÷ ‚‹ÊŸË ‚ 7 fl·¸ ¿UÊ≈UÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ‚‹ÊŸË 12 fl·¸ ∑§Ë „Ò ÃÊ üÊË ∑§¬Í⁄U ∑§Ë flø◊ÊŸ •ÊÿÈ Á∑§ÃŸ fl·¸ „Ò?
(1) 80 fl·¸ (2) 70 fl·¸ (3) 84 fl·¸ (4) 41 fl·¸
16. A retailer bought 15 kg of rice at the rate of ` 45 per kg. He sold 40% of the total quantity at the rate
of ` 50 per kg. At what price per kg should he sell the remaining quantity to make 25% overall
profit ?
∞∑§ πÈŒ⁄UÊ√ÿʬÊ⁄UË Ÿ ` 45 ¬˝Áà Á∑§‹Ê ∑§ Á„‚Ê’ ‚ 15 Á∑§‹Ê øÊfl‹ π⁄Uˌʖ ©‚Ÿ ß‚◊¥ ‚ 40 ¬˝ÁÇÊà øÊfl‹ ∑§Ê
` 50 ¬˝Áà Á∑§‹Ê ∑§Ë Œ⁄U ¬⁄U ’ø ÁŒÿÊ– •’ ‡Ê· ◊ÊòÊÊ ∑§Ê Á∑§‚ ◊ÍÀÿ ¬⁄U ’øŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ Á¡‚‚ ¬Í⁄U ◊Ê‹ ¬⁄U 25% ‹Ê÷ Á◊‹
‚∑§?
(1) ` 43.75 (2) ` 45.50 (3) ` 42.50 (4) ` 48.75
17. The water in a rectangular reservoir having a base 40 m by 30 m is 6.5 m deep. In what time can
the water be emptied by a pipe of which the cross section is a square of side 10 cm, if the water
runs through the pipe at the rate of 15 km per hour ?
(1) 52 hrs. (2) 65 hrs. (3) 48 hrs. (4) 26 hrs.
∞∑§ 40 ◊Ë≈U⁄U×30 ◊Ë≈U⁄U •ÊœÊ⁄U ∑§Ê øÊÒ∑§Ê⁄U ¡‹ ‚¥ª˝Ê„∑§ 6.5 ◊Ë≈U⁄ ª„⁄UÊ „Ò– ∞∑§ 10 ‚.◊Ë. ∑§Ë ∞∑§ ÷È¡Ê flÊ‹ flªÊ¸∑§Ê⁄U
◊Èπ flÊ‹ ¬Ê߬ ‚ ß‚ ‚¥ª˝Ê„∑§ ∑§Ê Á∑§ÃŸ ‚◊ÿ ◊¥ πÊ‹Ë Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ªÊ ÿÁŒ ¬ÊŸË ∑§Ê ¬˝flÊ„ 15 Á∑§◊Ë ¬˝Áà ÉÊ¥≈UÊ ∑§Ë ªÁÃ
‚ „Ê ⁄U„Ê „Ò?
(1) 52 ÉÊ¥≈U (2) 65 ÉÊ¥≈U (3) 48 ÉÊ¥≈U (4) 26 ÉÊ¥≈U
18. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio between
the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is :
Ë ∑§Ë ∑§Ë◊ÃÊ¥ ◊¥ 25 ¬˝ÁÇÊà ∑§Ë flÎÁh „Ê ¡ÊÃË „Ò– ÿÁŒ √ÿÿ ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ◊¥ flÎÁh Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò ÃÊ Ã‹ ∑§Ë π¬Ã ◊¥ ∑§◊Ë •ÊÒ⁄U
◊Í‹ π¬Ã ◊¥ ÄÿÊ •ŸÈ¬Êà ⁄U„ªÊ?
(1) 1:4 (2) 1:3 (3) 1:7 (4) 1:5
19. The average price of three items of stationery is ` 12,800. If the prices are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 8, the
price of the cheapest item is :
‹πŸ ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë ∑§Ë ÃËŸ flSÃȕʥ ∑§Ê ◊ÍÀÿ ` 12,800 „Ò– ÿÁŒ ߟ ÃËŸ flSÃȕʥ ∑§ ◊ÍÀÿ ◊¥ 3 : 5 : 8 „Ò ÃÊ ‚’‚ ‚SÃË flSÃÈ ∑§Ê
◊ÍÀÿ „ÊªÊ —
(1) ` 6400 (2) ` 2400 (3) ` 3600 (4) ` 7200
20. The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is ` 1050. The simple
interest on the same sum for double the time at half the rate percent per annum is :
Á∑§‚Ë ◊Í‹œŸ ¬⁄U 10 ¬˝ÁÇÊà ¬˝ÁÃfl·¸ ø∑˝§flÎÁh éÿÊ¡ ∑§Ë Œ⁄U ‚ 2 fl·¸ ◊¥ éÿÊ¡ ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ` 1050 „Ê ¡ÊÃË „Ò– ©‚Ë ◊Í‹œŸ ¬⁄U
ß‚∑§Ë •ÊœË ‚ÊœÊ⁄UáÊ éÿÊ¡ ¬˝ÁÃfl·¸ ∑§Ë Œ⁄U ‚ ŒÊ ªÈŸ ‚◊ÿ ◊¥ Á∑§ÃŸË ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê „ʪË?
(1) ` 2000 (2) ` 1000 (3) ` 500 (4) ` 1500
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PART - III / ÷ʪ - III
Current Affairs and General Awareness / ‚Ê◊Áÿ∑§ ◊Ê◊‹ ÃÕÊ ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ¡ÊªL§∑§ÃÊ
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21. Consider the following statements about Beach games 2024 :
a. The second multi-sports Beach games was organized in January 2024 in Diu, India.
b. Madhya Pradesh emerged as the overall champion in the Beach games.
c. The games were organized at the Ghoghla Beach.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below.
(1) Only a is correct. (2) Only b is correct.
(3) Only a and b are correct. (4) Only b and c are correct.
’Ëø ªê‚, 2024 ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
a. ÁmÃËÿ ◊À≈UË-S¬Ê≈¸˜U‚ ’Ëø ªê‚ ∑§Ê •ÊÿÊ¡Ÿ ¡Ÿfl⁄UË, 2024 ◊¥ ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ŒËfl ◊¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ–
b. ’Ëø ªê‚ ◊¥ ◊äÿ ¬˝Œ‡Ê ‚◊ª˝ øÒÁê¬ÿŸ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ©÷⁄U∑§⁄U ‚Ê◊Ÿ •ÊÿÊ–
c. ªê‚ ÉÊÊÉÊ‹Ê ’Ëø ¬⁄U •ÊÿÊÁ¡Ã „È∞–
ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈UÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ øÈÁŸ∞ —
(1) ∑§fl‹ a ‚„Ë „Ò– (2) ∑§fl‹ b ‚„Ë „Ò–
(3) ∑§fl‹ a •ÊÒ⁄U b ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (4) ∑§fl‹ b •ÊÒ⁄U c ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
22. Among the following Green House Gases (GHG), which one contributed the highest in the total
net anthropogenic GHG during the period 1990 - 2022 ?
(1) F - gases (2) Fossil CO2
(3) CH 4 (4) N2O
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ª˝ËŸ „Ê©‚ ªÒ‚Ê¥ (¡Ë ∞ø ¡Ë) ◊¥ ‚ fl·¸ 1990 - 2022 ∑§Ë ∑§Ê‹ÊflÁœ ◊¥ ∑ȧ‹ ◊ÊŸflÊŒ˜÷Áfl∑§ ¡Ë ∞ø ¡Ë ◊¥ Á∑§‚
ªÒ‚ ∑§Ê •¥‡ÊŒÊŸ ‚flʸÁœ∑§ „Ò?
(1) F - ªÒ‚ (2) ¡Ëflʇ◊ ∑§Ê’¸Ÿ «UÊÿÊÄ‚Êß«U
(3) CH 4 (4) N 2O
23. What was the theme of the International Women’s Day observed on March 8, 2024 ?
(1) ‘Women for Healthy Planet’
(2) ‘Gender-responsive financing for Ending Poverty’
(3) ‘Invest in Women : Accelerate Progress’
(4) ‘Women for Peace’
8 ◊Êø¸, 2024 ∑§Ê ◊ŸÊ∞ ª∞ •¥Ã⁄U⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ◊Á„‹Ê ÁŒfl‚ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁìÁŒ∑§ (◊Í‹ Áfl·ÿ — ÕË◊) ÄÿÊ ÕÊ?
(1) “flË◊Ÿ »§ÊÚ⁄U „ÀŒË å‹ÒŸ≈U”
(2) “¡¥«U⁄U-Á⁄US¬Ê°Á‚fl »§ÊߟҥÁ‚¥ª »§ÊÚ⁄U ∞¥Á«¥Uª ¬ÊÚfl≈U˸”
(3) “ߟflS≈U ߟ flË◊Ÿ — ∞Ä‚‹⁄U≈U ¬˝Êª˝‚”
(4) “flË◊Ÿ »§ÊÚ⁄U ¬Ë‚”
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24. The first global public health treaty adopted by The World Health Organisation in 2002 was on
which issue ?
(1) Polio Eradication (2) Tobacco Control
(3) HIV Prevention (4) Tuberculosis Diagnosis
fl·¸ 2002 ◊¥ Áfl‡fl SflÊSâÿ ‚¥ª∆UŸ mÊ⁄UÊ ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚, Á∑§‚ ◊Èg ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ ¬˝Õ◊ flÒÁ‡fl∑§ ‹Ê∑§ SflÊSâÿ ‚¥Áœ ∑§Ê
•¥ªË∑Χà Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ?
(1) ¬ÊÁ‹ÿÊ ©ã◊Í‹Ÿ (2) Ãê’Ê∑ͧ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ
(3) ∞ø •Ê߸ flË ÁŸflÊ⁄UáÊ (4) ìÁŒ∑§ ÁŸŒÊŸ
25. Which of the following is a new offence introduced in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which
was not part of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 ?
(1) Abetment of Suicide (2) Sedition
(3) Culpable Homicide (4) Organized Crime
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ŸÿÊ •¬⁄UÊœ ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ãÿÊÿ ‚¥Á„ÃÊ, 2023 ◊¥ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò ¡Ê ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ Œ¥«U ‚¥Á„ÃÊ, 1860
∑§Ê •¥‡Ê Ÿ„Ë¥ ÕÊ?
(1) •Êà◊„àÿÊ ∑§Ê ŒÈc¬˝⁄UáÊ (2) ⁄UÊ¡Œ˝Ê„
(3) •ʬ⁄UÊÁœ∑§ ◊ÊŸfl flœ (4) ‚¥ªÁ∆U à •¬⁄UÊœ
26. Among the following destination countries for International migrants, which country has more
women immigrants than men, according to the World Migration Report, 2024 ?
(1) India (2) Malaysia (3) UAE (4) Kuwait
Áfl‡fl ¬˝fl˝¡Ÿ Á⁄U¬Ê≈¸U, 2024 ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U •ãÃ⁄U⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ¬˝flÊÁ‚ÿÊ¥ ∑§ ÁŸÁ◊ûÊ ª¥Ã√ÿ Œ‡ÊÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ Œ‡Ê ◊¥
¬ÈL§·Ê¥ ∑§Ë •¬ˇÊÊ∑Χà ◊Á„‹Ê •ʬ˝flÊÁ‚ÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ •Áœ∑§ „Ò?
(1) ÷Ê⁄Uà (2) ◊‹Á‡ÊÿÊ (3) ‚¥. •⁄U’ •◊Ë⁄UÊà (4) ∑ȧflÒÃ
27. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the appointment of a district judge in
India ?
(1) The appointment is made by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of
the High Court exercising jurisdiction over such state.
(2) The appointment is made by the Governor alone without consultation.
(3) The appointment is made by the Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising
jurisdiction in relation to such state.
(4) The appointment is made by the Governor in consultation with the National Judicial
Appointment, Commission.
÷Ê⁄Uà ◊¥ Á¡‹Ê ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄà ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò?
(1) Á¡‹Ê ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄà ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ⁄UÊc≈˛U¬Áà mÊ⁄UÊ ©‚ ⁄UÊíÿ ◊¥ •Áœ∑§ÊÁ⁄UÃÊ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿʪ ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹ ©ìÊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑§
◊ÈÅÿ ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê ∑§ ¬⁄UÊ◊‡Ê¸ ‚ ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò–
(2) Á¡‹Ê ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄà Á’ŸÊ Á∑§‚Ë ‚ ¬⁄UÊ◊‡Ê¸ Á∑§∞ „Ë ⁄UÊíÿ¬Ê‹ mÊ⁄UÊ ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò–
(3) Á¡‹Ê ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄà ⁄UÊíÿ¬Ê‹ mÊ⁄UÊ ©‚ ⁄UÊíÿ ◊¥ •Áœ∑§ÊÁ⁄UÃÊ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿʪ ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹ ©ìÊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑§ ¬⁄UÊ◊‡Ê¸
‚ ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò–
(4) Á¡‹Ê ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄà ⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ãÿÊÁÿ∑§ ÁŸÿÈÁÄà •Êÿʪ ∑§ ¬⁄UÊ◊‡Ê¸ ‚ ⁄UÊíÿ¬Ê‹ mÊ⁄UÊ ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò–
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RAS-24 / JER 9 D1
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28. Which is the first government TV channel of the country to launch Artificial Intelligence (AI)
anchors in May, 2024 ?
(1) DD Bharti (2) DD Kisan
(3) DD Saptagiri (4) DD Chandana
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ∑§ÊÒŸ ◊߸, 2024 ◊¥ ∑ΧÁòÊ◊ ’ÈÁh (•Ê≈U˸Á»§Á‡Êÿ‹ ߥ≈UÁ‹¡¥‚) ∞¥∑§⁄U ∑§Ê ‡ÊÈ÷Ê⁄¥U÷ ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹Ê Œ‡Ê ∑§Ê ¬„‹Ê
‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄UË ≈U‹ËflË¡Ÿ „Ò?
(1) «UË «UË ÷Ê⁄UÃË (2) «UË «UË Á∑§‚ÊŸ
(3) «UË «UË ‚åÃÁªÁ⁄U (4) «UË «UË ø¥ŒŸÊ
29. As per the National Education Policy (2020), which of the following institutions will be the third
vertical of Higher Education Commission of India ?
(1) General Education Council
(2) Higher Education Grants Council
(3) National Accreditation Council
(4) National Higher Education Regulatory Council
⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ŸËÁà (2020) ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë ‚¥SÕÊ ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ©ìÊÃ⁄U Á‡ÊˇÊÊ •Êÿʪ ∑§Ê ÃÎÃËÿ •ŸÈ‹¥’
(flÁ≈¸U∑§‹) „ʪÊ?
(1) ‚Ê◊Êãÿ/◊„Ê Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ¬Á⁄U·Œ (¡Ÿ⁄U‹ ∞¡È∑§‡ÊŸ ∑§Ê©¥Á‚‹)
(2) ©ìÊÃ⁄U Á‡ÊˇÊÊ •ŸÈŒÊŸ ¬Á⁄U·Œ
(3) ⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ¬˝àÿÊÿŸ ¬Á⁄U·Œ
(4) ⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ©ìÊÃ⁄U Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ÁflÁŸÿÊ◊∑§ ¬Á⁄U·Œ
30. What is the wavelength range of Microwaves ?
(1) 700 nm to 400 nm (2) 1 mm to 700 nm
(3) 0.1 m to 1 mm (4) > 0.1 m
◊Êß∑˝§Êflfl ∑§Ê Ã⁄¥UªŒÒäÿ¸ ¬⁄UÊ‚ (⁄¥U¡) Á∑§ÃŸÊ „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) 700 nm ‚ 400 nm (2) 1 mm ‚ 700 nm
(3) 0.1 m ‚ 1 mm (4) > 0.1 m
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RAS-24 / JER 10 D1
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PART - IV / ÷ʪ - IV
Language Competency Test (General English) & Language Competency Test (General Hindi) /
÷Ê·Ê ˇÊ◊ÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ (‚Ê◊Êãÿ •¥ª˝¡Ë) ÃÕÊ ÷Ê·Ê ˇÊ◊ÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ (‚Ê◊Êãÿ Á„ãŒË)
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31. Identify the clause of the underlined part in the given sentence.
She expected that she would get a prize .
(1) Adjective Clause (2) Principal Clause
(3) Noun Clause (4) Adverb Clause
32. Choose the best option in which the given sentence has been changed from Active Voice to Passive
Voice.
All the boys in the class appreciated his gesture.
(1) In the class, his gesture was appreciated by all the boys.
(2) His gesture in the class had been appreciated by all the boys.
(3) His gesture was appreciated by all the boys in the class.
(4) He was appreciated by all the boys in the class.
33. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Abhor
(1) Love (2) Ignore (3) Hate (4) Envy
34. Choose the option which correctly identifies the tense of the underlined part in the given sentence.
By the time I meet him, he will have finished the task.
(1) Present Perfect (2) Future Indefinite
(3) Future Perfect (4) Future Continuous
35. In the given sentence, choose the option which correctly identifies the part of speech of the
underlined word.
Drinking is a vice that has affected a large number of young people.
(1) Adjective (2) Noun (3) Verb (4) Conjunction
36. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the given word.
Erudite
(1) immature (2) experienced (3) scholarly (4) clever
37. Choose the option which correctly changes the given sentence from Direct Speech into Indirect
Speech.
I said to my younger brother, ‘Where have you been the whole day ?’
(1) I asked my younger brother where had he been the whole day ?
(2) Where he had been the whole day I asked my younger brother.
(3) I asked my younger brother his whereabouts for the whole day.
(4) I asked my younger brother where he had been the whole day.
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RAS-24 / JER 11 D1
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38. In the following sentence, identify the part which contains an error.
Among all the games, / I prefer / cricket / than hockey.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
39. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ √ÿÁÄÃflÊø∑§ ‚¥ôÊÊ flÊ‹Ê ‡ÊéŒ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò —
(1) “⁄UÊ◊” ∑§„Ÿ ‚ ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ „Ë ŒflÃÊ ∑§ ŸÊ◊ ∑§Ê ’Êœ „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(2) “∑§Ê‡ÊË” ∑§„Ÿ ‚ ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ Ÿª⁄U ∑§ ŸÊ◊ ∑§Ê ’Êœ „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(3) “ÉÊ⁄U” ∑§„Ÿ ‚ ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ ÉÊ⁄U ∑§ ŸÊ◊ ∑§Ê ’Êœ „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(4) “ª¥ªÊ” ∑§„Ÿ ‚ ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ ŸŒË ∑§ ŸÊ◊ ∑§Ê ’Êœ „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
40. “‹∑§Ë⁄U ∑§Ê »§∑§Ë⁄U „ÊŸÊ” - ◊È„Êfl⁄U ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò —
(1) ÁŸ⁄UʬŒ ⁄UÊSÃÊ ‹ŸÊ (2) •≈ÍU≈U ‚àÿ SflË∑§Ê⁄U ∑§⁄UŸÊ
(3) ¬È⁄UÊŸË ¬⁄¥U¬⁄UÊ ¬⁄U ø‹ŸÊ (4) •¬ŸÊ ⁄UÊSÃÊ Sflÿ¥ øÈŸŸÊ
41. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ •Ÿ∑§ÊÕ˸ ‡ÊéŒ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò —
(1) Œ‹ (2) •¥’⁄U (3) ◊œÈ (4) ‚È◊Ÿ
42. Áfl‹Ê◊ÊÕ˸ ‡ÊéŒ-ÿÈÇ◊Ê¥ ◊¥ •‚¥ªÃ „Ò —
(1) ©ŒÿÊø‹ - •SÃÊø‹ (2) ´§¡È - ‚⁄U‹
(3) ©¬Á⁄U - •œ— (4) ∑§ÁŸc∆U - flÁ⁄Uc∆U
43. “∑§◊⁄UÊ” ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ÷Ê·Ê ∑§Ê ‡ÊéŒ „Ò?
(1) •⁄U’Ë (2) »§Ê⁄U‚Ë (3) ÃÈ∑§Ë¸ (4) ¬ÊøȨ̀ªË¡
44. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ¬ÿʸÿflÊøË ‡ÊéŒÊ¥ ∑§ Áfl∑§À¬Ê¥ ◊¥ •‚¥ªÃ „Ò —
(1) •ÁÇŸ - „ÈÃʇʟ, ∑Χ‡ÊÊŸÈ, flÒ‡flÊŸ⁄U
(2) •Ê∑§Ê‡Ê - √ÿÊ◊, •¥ÃÁ⁄UˇÊ, ªªŸ
(3) ∑§¬«∏Ê - ¬≈U, øË⁄U, ¬Á⁄UœÊŸ
(4) •‡fl - ÉÊÊ«∏Ê, „ÿ, ÃÈ⁄¥Uª
45. “Œ⁄UflÊ$¡ ¬⁄U ∑§Ê߸ π«∏Ê „Ò–” flÊÄÿ ◊¥ ⁄UπÊ¥Á∑§Ã ‡ÊéŒ „Ò —
(1) ÁŸ‡øÿflÊø∑§ ‚fl¸ŸÊ◊ (2) •ÁŸ‡øÿflÊø∑§ ‚fl¸ŸÊ◊
(3) ¬ÈL§·flÊø∑§ ‚fl¸ŸÊ◊ (4) ¬˝‡ŸflÊø∑§ ‚fl¸ŸÊ◊
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RAS-24 / JER 12 D1
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PART - V / ÷ʪ - V
Knowledge of Computer Operations, Techniques of Project Management /
∑§êåÿÍ≈U⁄U ‚¥øÊ‹Ÿ ∑§Ê ôÊÊŸ, ¬Á⁄UÿÊ¡ŸÊ ¬˝’¥œŸ ∑§Ë Ã∑§ŸË∑¥§
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46. Which of the following is not an example of Input device ?
ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ Á«UflÊß‚ ◊¥ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ßŸ¬È≈U Á«UflÊß‚ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) Scanner (2) Mic (3) Plotter (4) Joystick
47. Which project management methodology focuses on continuous improvement and eliminating
waste ?
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ◊ÒŸ¡◊¥≈U ◊ÕÊ«UʋʡË, ‹ªÊÃÊ⁄U ‚ÈœÊ⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U flS≈U ∑§Ê ∞Á‹Á◊Ÿ≈U ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U ¡Ê⁄U «UÊ‹ÃË „Ò?
(1) Waterfall (2) Agile (3) Six Sigma (4) PRINCE2
48. Which of the following is not an Operating System ?
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê •ÊÚ¬⁄UÁ≈¥Uª Á‚S≈U◊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) Acrobat Reader (2) LINUX
(3) MacOS (4) Windows 10
49. Which of the following unit is used for network speed ?
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë ÿÍÁŸ≈U Ÿ≈Ufl∑¸§ S¬Ë«U ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬˝ÿʪ ◊¥ •ÊÃË „Ò?
(1) DPI (2) PPM (3) MMPS (4) GBPS
50. Which of the following devices, you can use to control inbound and outbound access and traffic in
a Local Area Network ?
∞∑§ LAN ◊¥, ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà Á«UflÊß‚¡ ◊¥ ‚ ∞‚Ê ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê Á«UflÊß‚ „Ò, Á¡‚∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ •ÊŸ ¡ÊŸ flÊ‹ «U≈UÊ ∑§Ê access •ÊÒ⁄U
traffic ∑§Ê ∑¥§≈˛UÊ‹ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§?
(1) HUB (2) SWITCH (3) MODEM (4) FIREWALL
51. Which of the following is a key characteristics of a project ?
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ∑§Ë ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë ◊Í‹ Áfl‡Ê·ÃÊ „Ò?
(1) Permanent (2) Repetitive (3) Unique (4) Ongoing
52. What is a Gantt Chart primarily used for in Project Management ?
(1) To allocate resources
(2) To track project costs
(3) To schedule project activities
(4) To communicate with stakeholders
¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ◊ÒŸ¡◊¥≈U ◊¥ ªÒ¥≈U øÊ≈¸U ◊ÈÅÿ× Á∑§‚ Á‹∞ ©¬ÿÊªË „Ò?
(1) Á⁄U‚Ê‚¸ ∞‹Ê∑§≈U ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
(2) ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ∑§ cost ∑§Ê ≈˛ÒU∑§ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
(3) ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ∑§Ë ∞ÁÄ≈UÁflÁ≈U¡ ∑§Ê ‡Ê«KÈ‹ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
(4) S≈U∑§„ÊÀ«U‚¸ ‚ ∑§êÿÈÁŸ∑§≈U ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
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53. __________ are small text information saved in the browser containing details of various visits of
websites and information filled in forms.
fl’ ’˝Ê©¡⁄U ◊¥ ∞∑§ ¿UÊ≈U ≈UÄ‚˜≈U ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ fl’‚Êß≈U ∑§Ë ÁflÁ¡≈U •ÊÒ⁄U »§Êꂸ ∑§ •¥Œ⁄U «UÊ‹Ë ªß¸ ßã»§ÊÚ⁄U◊‡ÊŸ __________ ◊¥
‚fl „Ê∑§⁄U ⁄UπË ¡ÊÃË „Ò–
(1) Spam (2) Cookies (3) Bookmarks (4) Private window
54. Which of the following is NOT a project management knowledge area according to PMBOK ?
(1) Project Sales Management (2) Project Integration Management
(3) Project Time Management (4) Project Risk Management
PMBOK ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U, ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ◊ÒŸ¡◊¥≈U ŸÊÚ‹¡ ∞⁄UËÿÊ ∑§ •¥Ãª¸Ã Ÿ„Ë¥ •ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ‚À‚ ◊ÒŸ¡◊¥≈U (2) ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ߥÁ≈Uª˝‡ÊŸ ◊ÒŸ¡◊¥≈U
(3) ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ≈UÊß◊ ◊ÒŸ¡◊¥≈U (4) ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U Á⁄US∑§ ◊ÒŸ¡◊¥≈U
55. In ChatGPT, what is full form of GPT ?
ChatGPT ◊¥, GPT ∑§Ê •Õ¸ ÄÿÊ „Ò?
(1) Generative Processed Transformer
(2) Generative Pre-programmed Transformer
(3) Generative Pre-processed Transformer
(4) Generative Pre-trained Transformer
56. Which of the following is not an Web Browser ?
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê fl’ ’˝Ê©¡⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) Google Chrome (2) Mozilla Firefox
(3) Acrobat Reader (4) Microsoft Edge
57. Which of the following is the smallest unit of memory compare to other options in computers ?
ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ◊◊Ê⁄UË ÿÍÁŸ≈U ◊¥ ‚’‚ ¿UÊ≈UÊ ◊ÊŸ Á∑§‚∑§Ê „Ò?
(1) KB (2) TB (3) MB (4) GB
58. What is the main purpose of a project charter ?
(1) To define the project budget (2) To assign project tasks
(3) To outline project schedule (4) To formally authorize the project
¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U øÊ≈¸U⁄U ∑§Ê ◊ÈÅÿ ©Œ˜Œ‡ÿ ÄÿÊ „Ò?
(1) ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ∑§ ’¡≈U ∑§Ê Á«U»§Êߟ ∑§⁄UŸÊ (2) ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ≈UÊS∑§ ∑§Ê ∞‚Êߟ ∑§⁄UŸÊ
(3) ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ‡Ê«KÈ‹ ∑§Ê •Ê©≈U‹Êߟ ∑§⁄UŸÊ (4) ¬˝Ê¡Ä≈U ∑§Ê »§ÊÚ◊¸‹Ë •ÊÕÊ⁄UÊß¡ ∑§⁄UŸÊ
59. Which of the following is an example of Application Software ?
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∞Áå‹∑§‡ÊŸ ‚ÊÚç≈Uflÿ⁄U ∑§Ê ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ „Ò?
(1) Operating System (2) Disk Defragmentor
(3) Microsoft Excel (4) Anti-virus Software
60. Which of the following is a multipurpose port in the computer, which allows different types of
devices get connected on the computer ?
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊÊ¥ ◊¥ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ◊ÁÀ≈U¬⁄U¬¡ ¬Ê≈¸U „Ò Á¡‚∑§ Œ˜flÊ⁄UÊ ÁflÁ÷ÛÊ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ Á«UflÊß‚ ∑§ŸÄ≈U Á∑§∞ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥?
(1) USB (2) VGA (3) RJ45 (4) AUX
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PART - VI / ÷ʪ - VI
Civil Engineering / Á‚Áfl‹ •Á÷ÿ¥òÊáÊ
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61. In limit state method of design of concrete structures, stress is assumed to be linear upto :
(1) failure (2) proportionality limit
(3) elastic limit (4) none of these
∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ‚¥⁄UøŸÊ•Ê¥ ∑§ •Á÷∑§À¬Ÿ ∑§Ë ‚Ë◊ʥà •flSÕÊ ÁflÁœ ◊¥ ¬˝ÁÃ’‹ ∑§Ê ∑§„ʰ Ã∑§ ⁄UπËÿ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) Áfl»§‹ÃÊ Ã∑§ (2) •ŸÈ¬ÊÁÃ∑§ ‚Ë◊Ê Ã∑§
(3) ¬˝àÿÊSÕ ‚Ë◊Ê Ã∑§ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§Ê߸ Ÿ„Ë¥
62. The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into threads
3 mm in diameter, is known :
(1) liquid limit (2) plastic limit (3) shrinkage limit (4) permeability limit
ãÿÍŸÃ◊ ¡‹Ê¥‡Ê, Á¡‚ ¬⁄U 3 Á◊.◊Ë. √ÿÊ‚ ∑§ œÊª ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ’ŸÊÿË ªÿË ◊ÎŒÊ ≈ÍU≈UŸÊ ¬˝Ê⁄¥U÷ ∑§⁄U ŒÃË „Ò, ∑§Ê ∑§„Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) Œ˝fl ‚Ë◊Ê (2) ‚ÈÉÊ≈K ‚Ë◊Ê (3) ‚¥∑ȧøŸ ‚Ë◊Ê (4) ¬Ê⁄UªêÿÃÊ ‚Ë◊Ê
63. According to the I.S. classification system, the soil can be classified into :
(1) 15 groups (2) 3 groups (3) 7 groups (4) 18 groups
•Ê߸.∞‚. flªË¸∑§⁄UáÊ ¬hÁà ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U, ◊ÎŒÊ ∑§Ê flªË¸∑Χà Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò —
(1) 15 flªÊZ ◊¥ (2) 3 flªÊZ ◊¥ (3) 7 flªÊZ ◊¥ (4) 18 flªÊZ ◊¥
64. In the design of overhead water tanks, the most economical design is possible by using :
(1) Rectangular shaped tanks (2) Circular shaped tanks
(3) Conical shaped tanks (4) Triangular shaped tanks
Á‡Ê⁄UʬÁ⁄U ¡‹ ≈¥U∑§Ë ∑§Ë •Á÷∑§À¬ŸÊ ◊¥, Á∑§‚∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ ∑§⁄U∑§ ‚flʸÁœ∑§ Á◊Ã√ÿÿË •Á÷∑§À¬ŸÊ ‚¥÷fl „Ò?
(1) •ÊÿÃÊ∑§Ê⁄U •Ê∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë ≈¥U∑§Ë (2) flÎûÊÊ∑§Ê⁄U •Ê∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë ≈¥U∑§Ë
(3) ‡Ê¥ÄflÊ∑§Ê⁄U •Ê∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë ≈¥U∑§Ë (4) ÁòÊ÷È¡Ê∑§Ê⁄U •Ê∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë ≈¥U∑§Ë
65. Zero slack indicates that the project is :
(1) On schedule (2) Behind the schedule
(3) Ahead of the schedule (4) All of the above
‡ÊÍãÿ S‹Ò∑§ ߥÁªÃ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò Á∑§ ¬Á⁄UÿÊ¡ŸÊ „Ò —
(1) ÁŸÿà ‚◊ÿ ¬⁄U (2) ÁŸÿà ‚◊ÿ ‚ ¬Ë¿U
(3) ÁŸÿà ‚◊ÿ ‚ •ʪ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ‚÷Ë
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RAS-24 / JER 15 D1
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66. Identify the incorrect statement :
(1) A network has only one initial node
(2) An event network has only one final node
(3) In the initial node, arrow only enters into
(4) In a final node, arrow only can enter
ª‹Ã ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê ¬„øÊÁŸ∞ —
(1) ∞∑§ Ã¥òÊ ◊¥ ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ •Ê⁄¥UÁ÷∑§ ŸÊ«U „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(2) ∞∑§ ÉÊ≈UŸÊ Ã¥òÊ ◊¥ ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ •¥ÁÃ◊ ŸÊ«U „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(3) •Ê⁄¥UÁ÷∑§ ŸÊ«U ◊¥ ÃË⁄U ∑§fl‹ •¥Œ⁄U •ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(4) •¥ÁÃ◊ ŸÊ«U ◊¥ ÃË⁄U ∑§fl‹ •¥Œ⁄U •Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò–
67. A well-conditioned triangle should not have angles more than :
∞∑§ ‚ÈÁSÕà ÁòÊ÷È¡ ◊¥ ∑§ÊáÊ Á∑§ÃŸ ‚ •Áœ∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊŸ øÊÁ„∞?
(1) 308 (2) 1208 (3) 458 (4) 608
68. The bearing of a line is the horizontal angle it makes with :
(1) true meridian (2) magnetic meridian
(3) arbitrary meridian (4) all of the above
∞∑§ ⁄UπÊ ∑§Ê ÁŒ∑˜§◊ÊŸ „ÊÃÊ „Ò ˇÊÒÁá ∑§ÊáÊ Á¡‚ fl„ ’ŸÊÃË „Ò —
(1) flÊSÃÁfl∑§ ◊Á⁄UÁ«UÿŸ ∑§ ‚ÊÕ (2) øÈ¥’∑§Ëÿ ◊Á⁄UÁ«UÿŸ ∑§ ‚ÊÕ
(3) Sflë¿U ◊Á⁄UÁ«UÿŸ ∑§ ‚ÊÕ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ‚÷Ë
69. Match Group-1 (post-tensioning system) to Group-2 (type of anchorage) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the groups :
Group-1 Group-2
P. Freyssinet I. Flat steel wedges in sandwich plates
Q. Gifford-Udall II. High strength nuts
R. Lee-McCall III. Split conical wedges
S. Magnel-Blaton IV. Conical serrated concrete wedges
flª¸-1 (¬‡ø-ߟ ¬hÁÃ) ∑§Ê flª¸-2 (ÁSÕ⁄U∑§ ∑§Ê ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U) ‚ Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U flªÊZ ∑§ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ
∑§⁄U∑§ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§Ê øÈÁŸ∞ —
flª¸-1 flª¸-2
P. »˝§‚ËŸ≈U I. ‚Ò¥«UÁflø å‹≈UÊ¥ ◊¥ ø¬≈UË ßS¬Êà fl¡
Q. Áª»§ÊÚ«¸U-©ŒÊ‹ II. ©ìÊ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ flÊ‹ Ÿ≈U
R. ‹Ë-◊Ò∑§‹ III. Áfl÷Êíÿ ‡Ê¥ÄflÊ∑§Ê⁄U fl¡
S. ◊ÒªŸ‹-é‹Ê≈UŸ IV. ‡Ê¥ÄflÊ∑§Ê⁄U Œ¥ÃÈÁ⁄Uà ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U fl¡
(1) P - II, Q - I, R - IV, S - III (2) P - IV, Q - III, R - II, S - I
(3) P - II, Q - III, R - IV, S - I (4) P - IV, Q - I, R - II, S - III
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RAS-24 / JER 16 D1
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70. The active earth pressure of a soil is proportional to : (Where φ is the angle of internal friction of the
soil.)
∞∑§ ◊ÎŒÊ ∑§Ê ‚Á∑˝§ÿ ◊ÎŒÊ ŒÊ’ Á∑§‚∑§ •ŸÈ¬ÊÃË „ÊÃÊ „Ò? (¡„ʰ φ ◊ÎŒÊ ∑§Ê •Ê¥ÃÁ⁄U∑§ ÉÊ·¸áÊ ∑§ÊáÊ „Ò–)
(1) tan (458−φ) (2) tan2 (458+φ/2)
(3) tan2 (458−φ/2) (4) tan (458+φ)
71. The intensity of vertical pressure in a soil at a depth Z directly below the point load Q on its axis of
loading is :
∞∑§ ◊ÎŒÊ ◊¥ ÷Ê⁄UáÊ •ˇÊ ¬⁄U Á’ãŒÈ ÷Ê⁄U Q ∑§ ∆UË∑§ ŸËø ª„⁄UÊ߸ Z ¬⁄U ™§äflʸœ⁄U ŒÊ’ ∑§Ë ÃËfl˝ÃÊ „ÊªË —
2Q 3Q 5Q 2Q
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4)
3πZ 2 πZ 2 πZ 5πZ 2
72. Which one of the following aggregate gives maximum strength in concrete ?
(1) Rebound aggregate (2) Elongated aggregate
(3) Flaky aggregate (4) Cubical aggregate
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ‚◊Èëøÿ ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ◊¥ •Áœ∑§Ã◊ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ¬˝ÁÃˇÊ¬ ‚◊Èëøÿ (2) ŒËÁÉʸà ‚◊Èëøÿ
(3) ¬òÊ∑§Ë ‚◊Èëøÿ (4) ÉÊŸËÿ ‚◊Èëøÿ
73. Match Group 1 (constituents of brick) to Group 2 (Corresponding influence) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the groups :
Group 1 Group 2
P. Alumina I. Color of brick
Q. Silica II. Plasticity recovery for moulding
R. Magnesia III. Reacts with silica during burning and causes particles to unite together
and development of strength
S. Limestone IV. Preserves the form of brick at high temperature and prevent shrinkage.
flª¸ 1 (ßZ≈U ∑§ ÉÊ≈U∑§) ∑§Ê flª¸ 2 (‚¥ªÃ ¬˝÷Êfl) ‚ Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U flªÊZ ∑§ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ ∑§⁄U∑§ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U
øÈÁŸ∞ —
flª¸ 1 flª¸ 2
P. ∞‹ÈÁ◊ŸÊ I. ßZ≈U ∑§Ê ⁄¥Uª
Q. Á‚Á‹∑§Ê II. ¬ÕÊ߸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚ÈÉÊ≈KÃÊ ∑§Ë ¬˝ÊÁåÃ
R. ◊ÒÇŸËÁ‚ÿÊ III. ífl‹Ÿ ∑§ ŒÊÒ⁄UÊŸ Á‚Á‹∑§Ê ‚ ¬˝ÁÃÁ∑˝§ÿÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§áÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê •ʬ‚ ◊¥ ¡Ê«∏ÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U
‚Ê◊âÿ¸ ∑§Ê Áfl∑§Ê‚ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
S. øÍŸÊ ¬àÕ⁄U IV. ©ìÊ Ãʬ◊ÊŸ ¬⁄U ßZ≈U ∑§ •Ê∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ‚¥⁄UÁˇÊà ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ‚¥∑ȧøŸ ‚ ’øÊÃÊ „Ò–
(1) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III (2) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
(3) P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III (4) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II
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74. The angle of internal friction is maximum for :
(1) angular-grained loose sand (2) angular-grained dense sand
(3) round-grained dense sand (4) round-grained loose sand
•Ê¥ÃÁ⁄U∑§ ÉÊ·¸áÊ ∑§ÊáÊ Á∑§‚∑§ Á‹∞ •Áœ∑§Ã◊ „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ∑§ÊáÊËÿ-∑§áÊÊ¥ flÊ‹Ë •‚¥„à ’Ê‹Í (2) ∑§ÊáÊËÿ-∑§áÊÊ¥ flÊ‹Ë ‚ÉÊŸ ’Ê‹Í
(3) ªÊ‹-∑§áÊÊ¥ flÊ‹Ë ‚ÉÊŸ ’Ê‹Í (4) ªÊ‹-∑§áÊÊ¥ flÊ‹Ë •‚¥„à ’Ê‹Í
75. Which section is good from the ductility point of view ?
(1) under-reinforced section (2) balanced section
(3) over-reinforced section (4) section with special steel
ÃãÿÃÊ ∑§Ë ŒÎÁc≈ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ¬Á⁄Uë¿UŒ •ë¿UÊ „Ò?U
(1) ãÿÍŸ-¬˝’Á‹Ã ¬Á⁄Uë¿UŒ (2) ‚¥ÃÈÁ‹Ã ¬Á⁄Uë¿UŒ
(3) •ÁÃ-¬˝’Á‹Ã ¬Á⁄Uë¿UŒ (4) Áfl‡Ê· ßS¬Êà flÊ‹Ê ¬Á⁄Uë¿UŒ
76. The maximum angle of inclination of a layer of a rock with the horizontal is :
(1) Dip (2) Heave angle
(3) Strike (4) Depth
∞∑§ ø≈˜≈U ÊŸ ∑§Ë ¬⁄Uà ∑§Ê ˇÊÒÁá ∑§ ‚ÊÕ ¤ÊÈ∑§Êfl ∑§Ê •Áœ∑§Ã◊ ∑§ÊáÊ „ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ŸÁà (Á«U¬) (2) ©àÕÊŸ („Ëfl) ∑§ÊáÊ
(3) ŸÁÃ‹ê’ (S≈˛UÊß∑§) (4) ª„⁄UÊ߸
77. The seismic waves which are also called transverse waves are :
(1) P-waves (2) S-waves (3) Rayleigh waves (4) Love waves
÷Í∑¥§¬Ë Ã⁄¥Uª¥, Á¡ã„¥ •ŸÈ¬˝SÕ Ã⁄¥Uª¥ ÷Ë ∑§„Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò, „Ò¥ —
(1) ¬Ë-Ã⁄¥Uª¥ (2) ∞‚-Ã⁄¥Uª¥ (3) ⁄U‹-Ã⁄¥Uª¥ (4) ‹fl-Ã⁄¥Uª¥
78. In RCC footing on soil, the thickness at the edge should not be less than :
(1) 20 cm (2) 15 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 25 cm
◊ÎŒÊ ¬⁄U •Ê⁄U.‚Ë.‚Ë. ¬ÊŒ ◊¥, Á∑§ŸÊ⁄U ¬⁄U ◊Ê≈UÊ߸ Á∑§ÃŸ ‚ ∑§◊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊŸË øÊÁ„∞ ?
(1) 20 ‚◊Ë. (2) 15 ‚◊Ë. (3) 10 ‚◊Ë. (4) 25 ‚◊Ë.
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RAS-24 / JER 18 D1
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79. Which one of the following materials is not a thermosetting plastic material ?
(1) Urea Formaldehyde (2) Phenol Formaldehyde
(3) Polyesters (4) Poly Propylene
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ¬ŒÊÕ¸ Õ◊ʸ‚Á≈¥Uª å‹ÊÁS≈U ∑§ ¬ŒÊÕ¸ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ÿÍÁ⁄UÿÊ »§Ê◊¸ÁÀ«U„Êß«U (2) Á»§ŸÊ‹ »§Ê◊¸ÁÀ«U„Êß«U
(3) ¬ÊÁ‹S≈U‚¸ (4) ¬Ê‹Ë ¬˝Ê¬ËÁ‹Ÿ
80. Which of the following is a type of Plan ?
I. Standing Plan II. Strategic Plan III. Administrative Plan
(1) II only (2) II and III only
(3) I and III only (4) I, II and III
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ •ÊÿÊ¡Ÿ (å‹ÊŸ) ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U „Ò?
I. S≈ÒUÁã«¥Uª •ÊÿÊ¡Ÿ II. ⁄UáÊŸËÁÃ∑§ •ÊÿÊ¡Ÿ III. ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚ÁŸ∑§ •ÊÿÊ¡Ÿ
(1) ∑§fl‹ II (2) ∑§fl‹ II •ÊÒ⁄U III
(3) ∑§fl‹ I •ÊÒ⁄U III (4) I, II •ÊÒ⁄U III
81. A flow net may be utilized for the determination of :
(1) exit gradient (2) seepage and seepage pressure
(3) hydrostatic pressure (4) all of the above
∞∑§ ¬˝flÊ„ ¡Ê‹ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ Á∑§‚∑§ ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ÁŸª¸◊ ¬˝fláÊÃÊ (2) Á⁄U‚Ÿ •ÊÒ⁄U Á⁄U‚Ÿ ŒÊ’
(3) Œ˝fl SÕÒÁÃ∑§ ŒÊ’ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄàÊ ‚÷Ë
82. The lines joining points of equal dip are called :
(1) aclinic lines (2) isogonic lines (3) agonic lines (4) isoclinic lines
‚◊ÊŸ ŸÁà (Á«U¬) flÊ‹ Á’ãŒÈ•Ê¥ ∑§Ê ¡Ê«∏Ÿ flÊ‹Ë ⁄Uπʕʥ ∑§Ê ∑§„à „Ò¥ —
(1) ∞Ä‹ËÁŸ∑§ ⁄UπÊ∞° (2) •Ê߂ʪÊÁŸ∑§ ⁄UπÊ∞° (3) ∞ªÊÁŸ∑§ ⁄UπÊ∞° (4) •Êß‚ÊÄ‹ËÁŸ∑§ ⁄UπÊ∞°
83. Rankine’s theory of earth pressure assumes that the back of the wall is :
(1) Vertical and smooth (2) Plane and smooth
(3) Vertical and rough (4) None of the above
◊ÎŒÊ ŒÊ’ ∑§Ê ⁄UÁã∑§Ÿ Á‚hʥà ∑§À¬ŸÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò Á∑§ Á÷ÁûÊ ∑§Ê ¬‡ø ÷ʪ „Ò —
(1) ™§äflʸœ⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U Áø∑§ŸÊ (2) ‚◊Ë •ÊÒ⁄U Áø∑§ŸÊ
(3) ™§äflʸœ⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U M§ˇÊ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄàÊ ◊¥ ‚ ∑§Ê߸ Ÿ„Ë¥
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84. Identify, which of the following is a PERT Event.
(1) Writing a report (2) Blueprints started
(3) Report is being written (4) Blueprints are being prepared
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ¬Ë.߸.•Ê⁄U.≈UË. ÉÊ≈UŸÊ „Ò?
(1) Á⁄U¬Ê≈¸U ∑§Ê Á‹πÊ ¡ÊŸÊ (2) éÀÿÍÁ¬˝¥≈U ∑§Ë ‡ÊÈL§•Êà „È߸
(3) Á⁄U¬Ê≈¸U Á‹πË ¡Ê ⁄U„Ë „Ò (4) éÀÿÍÁ¬˝¥≈U ÃÒÿÊ⁄U Á∑§ÿ ¡Ê ⁄U„ „Ò¥
85. For limit state of collapse, the partial safety factors recommended by IS : 456 - 2000 for estimating
the design strength of concrete and reinforcing steel are respectively :
(1) 1.15 and 1.5 (2) 1.0 and 1.0 (3) 1.5 and 1.15 (4) 1.5 and 1.0
ÁŸ¬Êà ∑§Ë ‚Ë◊ʥà •flSÕÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝’‹Ÿ ßS¬Êà ∑§Ë •Á÷∑§À¬Ÿ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ ∑§ •Ê∑§‹Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞
•Ê߸.∞‚. — 456 - 2000 mÊ⁄UÊ •ŸÈ‡Ê¥Á‚à •Ê¥Á‡Ê∑§ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ªÈáÊ∑§ ∑˝§◊‡Ê— „Ò¥ —
(1) 1.15 •ÊÒ⁄U 1.5 (2) 1.0 •ÊÒ⁄U 1.0 (3) 1.5 •ÊÒ⁄U 1.15 (4) 1.5 •ÊÒ⁄U 1.0
86. The planning is to be done :
(1) By the contractor only (2) By the owner only
(3) By owner and contractor both (4) By the architect only
ÁŸÿÊ¡Ÿ Á∑§‚∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ∑§fl‹ ∆U∑§ŒÊ⁄U ∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ (2) ∑§fl‹ SflÊ◊Ë mÊ⁄UÊ
(3) SflÊ◊Ë •ÊÒ⁄U ∆U∑§ŒÊ⁄U ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ (4) ∑§fl‹ •ÊÁ∑¸§≈ÒUÄ≈U mÊ⁄UÊ
87. In a cantilever beam carrying gravity load, main reinforcement is provided :
(1) above the neutral axis (2) as vertical stirrups
(3) as a helical reinforcement (4) below the neutral axis
ªÈL§àflËÿ ÷Ê⁄U fl„Ÿ ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹Ë ¬˝Ê‚ œ⁄UŸ ◊¥ ◊ÈÅÿ ¬˝’‹Ÿ ¬˝ŒÊŸ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ©ŒÊ‚ËŸ •ˇÊ ‚ ™§¬⁄U (2) ™§äflʸœ⁄U ÁS≈U⁄Uå‚ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥
(3) ∑È¥§«UÁ‹Ã ¬˝’‹Ÿ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ (4) ©ŒÊ‚ËŸ •ˇÊ ‚ ŸËø
88. The viability of a project depends on :
(1) Financial analysis (2) Economic analysis
(3) Technical analysis (4) All of the above
¬Á⁄UÿÊ¡ŸÊ ∑§Ë √ÿfl„Êÿ¸ÃÊ ÁŸ÷¸⁄U ∑§⁄UÃË „Ò —
(1) ÁflûÊËÿ Áfl‡‹·áÊ ¬⁄U (2) •ÊÁÕ¸∑§ Áfl‡‹·áÊ ¬⁄U
(3) Ã∑§ŸË∑§Ë Áfl‡‹·áÊ ¬⁄U (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ‚÷Ë
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89. Sheep foot roller is useful to compact soils except :
(1) Crushed rocks (2) Clayey soils
(3) Silty sand and sandy clay (4) Medium and heavy clays
Á∑§‚ ¿UÊ«∏∑§⁄U, ‡Êˬ »Í§≈U ⁄UÊ‹⁄U ◊ÎŒÊ ∑§ ‚¥„ŸŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ©¬ÿÊªË „Ò?
(1) ‚¥ŒÁ‹Ã ø≈˜U≈UÊŸ¥ (2) ◊ÎÁûÊ∑§Ê◊ÿË ◊ÎŒÊ
(3) ªÊŒË ’Ê‹Í •ÊÒ⁄U ’Ê‹È߸ ◊ÎÁûÊ∑§Ê (4) ◊äÿ◊ •ÊÒ⁄U •Áà ◊ÎÁûÊ∑§Ê∞¥
90. Consider the following statements for the strength of a good building stone :
i. Stones for high retaining walls, dams and large arches should be tested for crushing strength.
ii. Stones for beams, slabs and lintels should be tested for bending strength.
iii. Stones of sedimentary rocks are generally stronger than those of the igneous rocks.
iv. Stones with compact crystalline texture are very stronger.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(1) i, ii, iii and iv are correct (2) i, ii and iv are correct
(3) i and iii are correct (4) ii, iii and iv are correct
∞∑§ •ë¿U ÷flŸ ¬àÕ⁄U ∑§Ë ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
i. ™°§øË ¬˝ÁÜÊ⁄U∑§ Á÷ÁûÊ, ’ʰœ •ÊÒ⁄U ’«∏Ë «UÊ≈UÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬àÕ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ‚¥Œ‹Ÿ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞–
ii. œ⁄UŸ, ¿Uì≈U •ÊÒ⁄U Á‹¥≈U‹ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬àÕ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ’¥∑§Ÿ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ øÁ„∞–
iii. •fl‚ÊŒË ø≈˜U≈UÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ ¬àÕ⁄U ‚Ê◊Êãÿ× •ÊÇŸÿ ø≈˜U≈UÊŸÊ¥ ‚ •Áœ∑§ ◊$¡’Íà „Êà „Ò¥–
iv. ‚¥„à ⁄UflŒÊ⁄U ª∆UŸ flÊ‹ ¬àÕ⁄U ’„Èà ◊$¡’Íà „Êà „¥Ò–
ÁŸêŸ ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò¥?
(1) i, ii, iii •ÊÒ⁄U iv ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (2) i, ii •ÊÒ⁄U iv ‚„Ë „Ò¥
(3) i •ÊÒ⁄U iii ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (4) ii, iii •ÊÒ⁄U iv ‚„Ë „Ò¥
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91. Consider the following statements for the Anodizing of Aluminium :
i. The coating of Aluminium with a film of its oxide by electrolytic process is termed as Anodizing.
ii. The article to be anodized is placed in concentrated sulphuric acid bath with the Aluminium
as the anode.
iii. Aluminium can also be powder coated to give different shades.
iv. When the thickness of the covering on the metal is less than 0.1 mm, it is known as coating.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(1) i, ii, iii and iv are correct (2) i, ii and iii are correct
(3) i and iii are correct (4) i, iii and iv are correct
∞‹ÈÁ◊ÁŸÿ◊ ∑§ ∞ŸÊ«UË∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
i. ÁfllÈà •¬ÉÊ≈UŸË ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ ∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ∞‹ÈÁ◊ÁŸÿ◊ ∑§ •ÊÚÄ‚Êß«U ∑§Ë ¬⁄Uà ∑§ ‚ÊÕ ∞‹ÈÁ◊ÁŸÿ◊ ∑§Ë ∑§ÊÁ≈U¥ª ∑§⁄UŸÊ
∞ŸÊ«UË∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§„Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò–
ii. ∞‹ÈÁ◊ÁŸÿ◊ ∑§Ê ∞ŸÊ«U ’ŸÊ∑§⁄U ∞ŸÊ«UË∑Χà ∑§Ë ¡ÊŸË flÊ‹Ë flSÃÈ ∑§Ê ‚ÊÁãŒ˝Ã ‚‹çÿÍÁ⁄U∑§ •ê‹ ◊¥ ⁄UπÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò–
iii. ÁflÁ÷㟠¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ‡Ê«U ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∞‹ÍÁ◊ÁŸÿ◊ ∑§Ë ¬Ê©«U⁄U ∑§ÊÁ≈¥Uª ∑§Ë ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃË „Ò–
iv. ¡’ œÊÃÈ ¬⁄U •Êfl⁄UáÊ ∑§Ë ◊Ê≈UÊ߸ 0.1 mm ‚ ∑§◊ „ÊÃË „Ò ÃÊ ß‚ ∑§ÊÁ≈¥Uª ∑§„à „Ò¥–
ÁŸêŸ ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò¥?
(1) i, ii, iii •ÊÒ⁄U iv ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (2) i, ii •ÊÒ⁄U iii ‚„Ë „Ò¥
(3) i •ÊÒ⁄U iii ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (4) i, iii •ÊÒ⁄U iv ‚„Ë „Ò¥
92. Which is the type of fold with a similar degree of folding for indefinite depths ?
(1) Concentric fold (2) Uniform fold (3) Conjugate fold (4) Similar fold
•ÁŸÁ‡øÃ ª„⁄UÊ߸ ∑§ Á‹∞, ‚◊ÊŸ ∑§ÊÁ≈U ∑§ fl‹ÿŸ ∑§ ‚ÊÕ Á∑§‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê fl‹ÿ (»§ÊÀ«U) „Ò?
(1) ‚¥∑§ÁãŒ˝Ã fl‹ÿ (2) ∞∑§‚◊ÊŸ fl‹ÿ (3) ‚¥ÿÈÇ◊Ë fl‹ÿ (4) ‚◊ÊŸ fl‹ÿ
93. Which of the following scales is the largest one ?
(1) 1 cm = 50 m (2) 1 : 42000
(3) R.F.= 1/300000 (4) 1 cm = 50 km
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ¬Ò◊ÊŸÊ ‚’‚ ’«∏Ê „Ò?
(1) 1 ‚◊Ë. = 50 ◊Ë. (2) 1 : 42000
(3) •Ê⁄U.∞»§.= 1/300000 (4) 1 ‚◊Ë. = 50 Á∑§◊Ë.
94. What will be the correction for curvature for a distance of 1000 m ?
(1) 0.0673 m (2) 0.0785 m (3) 78.50 m (4) 6.73 m
∞∑§ 1000 ◊Ë. ∑§Ë ŒÍ⁄UË ∑§ Á‹∞ fl∑˝§ÃÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚¥‡ÊÊœŸ ÄÿÊ „ʪÊ?
(1) 0.0673 ◊Ë. (2) 0.0785 ◊Ë. (3) 78.50 ◊Ë. (4) 6.73 ◊Ë.
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95. Timber can be reasonably made fire-resistant by :
(1) by soaking it in ammonium sulphate.
(2) coating with tar paint.
(3) pumping creosote oil into timber under high pressure.
(4) seasoning process.
ß◊Ê⁄UÃË ‹∑§«∏Ë ∑§Ê Á∑§‚∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ÿÈÁÄà ‚¥ªÃ •ÁÇŸ⁄UÊœË ’ŸÊÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò?
(1) •◊ÊÁŸÿ◊ ‚À»§≈U ◊¥ •fl‡ÊÊ·áÊ ‚
(2) ÃÊ⁄U ¬ã≈U ∑§ ‹¬Ÿ ‚
(3) ‹∑§«∏Ë ◊¥ ©ëø ŒÊ’ ¬⁄U Á∑˝§ÿÊ‚Ê≈U Ë ∑§Ê ¬¥¬ ∑§⁄U∑§
(4) ‚¥‡ÊÊ·áÊ ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ
96. A mortar for which both lime and cement are mixed is known as :
(1) Gauged mortar (2) Lime mortar
(3) Light weight mortar (4) Cement mortar
∞∑§ ◊‚Ê‹Ê Á¡‚◊¥ øÍŸÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚Ë◊¥≈U ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê Á◊‹ÊÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò, ∑§„‹ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ªï«U ◊‚Ê‹Ê (2) øÍŸÊ ◊‚Ê‹Ê
(3) „À∑§Ê ◊‚Ê‹Ê (4) ‚Ë◊¥≈U ◊‚Ê‹Ê
97. If Nf , Nd and H are the total number of flow channels, total number of potential drops and total
hydraulic head difference respectively, the discharge q through the complete flow is given by :
(Where K is coefficient of permeability)
ÿÁŒ Nf , Nd •ÊÒ⁄U H ∑˝§◊‡Ê— ¬˝flÊ„ flÊÁ„∑§Ê•Ê¥ ∑§Ë ∑ȧ‹ ‚¥ÅÿÊ, Áfl÷fl ¬ÊÃÊ¥ ∑§Ë ∑ȧ‹ ‚¥ÅÿÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚∑§‹ ¡‹Ëÿ
ŒÊ’ÊëøÃÊ •ãÃ⁄U „Ò ÃÊ ¬Íáʸ ¬˝flÊ„ ‚ ÁŸS‚⁄UáÊ q Á∑§‚‚ ôÊÊà „ʪÊ? (¡„ʰ K ¬Ê⁄UªêÿÃÊ ªÈáÊÊ¥∑§ „Ò)
Nd Nf
(1) q=KH (2) q=KH
Nf Nd
Nf Nd
(3) q=K H (4) q=KH
Nd Nf
98. In CPM, activity times are :
(1) Deterministic (2) Probabilistic
(3) Non-deterministic (4) None of the above
‚Ë.¬Ë.∞◊. ◊¥, Á∑˝§ÿÊ ‚◊ÿ „Ò¥ —
(1) ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊÊà◊∑§ (2) ‚¥÷Ê√ÿ
(3) •ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊÊà◊∑§ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§Ê߸ Ÿ„Ë¥
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99. Workability of concrete can be determined using slump, compaction factor and Vee-Bee time.
Consider the following statements for workability of concrete :
i. As the slump increases, Vee-Bee time increases.
ii. As the slump increases, the compaction factor increases.
Which of the following is TRUE ?
(1) Both i and ii are True (2) Both i and ii are False
(3) i is True and ii is False (4) i is False and ii is True
∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ∑§Ë ‚È∑§Êÿ¸ÃÊ ∑§Ê ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ S‹ê¬, ∑§Êê¬Òćʟ »Ò§Ä≈U⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U flË-’Ë ‚◊ÿ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ ∑§⁄U∑§ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò– ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U
∑§Ë ‚È∑§Êÿ¸ÃÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
i. S‹ê¬ ∑§ ’…∏Ÿ ¬⁄U, flË-’Ë ‚◊ÿ ’…∏ÃÊ „Ò–
ii. S‹ê¬ ∑§ ’…∏Ÿ ¬⁄U, ∑§Êê¬Òćʟ »Ò§Ä≈U⁄U ’…∏ÃÊ „Ò–
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ‚àÿ „Ò?
(1) i •ÊÒ⁄U ii ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚àÿ „Ò¥ (2) i •ÊÒ⁄U ii ŒÊŸÊ¥ •‚àÿ „Ò¥
(3) i ‚àÿ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ii •‚àÿ „Ò (4) i •‚àÿ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ii ‚àÿ „Ò
100. A helicoidal staircase provides an impressive appearance and is analysed as a :
(1) three-dimensional structure. (2) two-dimensional structure.
(3) semi-three dimensional structure. (4) one-dimensional structure.
∞∑§ ‚Á¬¸‹ $¡ËŸÊ ∞∑§ ¬˝÷Êfl‡ÊÊ‹Ë •Ê∑ΧÁà ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ß‚∑§Ê Áfl‡‹·áÊ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ÁòÊÁflÁ◊ÿ ‚¥⁄UøŸÊ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ (2) ÁmÁfl◊Ëÿ ‚¥⁄UøŸÊ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥
(3) •h¸-ÁòÊÁfl◊Ëÿ ‚¥⁄UøŸÊ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ (4) ∞∑§ Áfl◊Ëÿ ‚¥⁄UøŸÊ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥
101. The pressure that builds up in pore water due to load increment on the soil, is termed :
(1) excess pore pressure (2) excess hydrostatic pressure
(3) hydrodynamic pressure (4) all of the above
◊ÎŒÊ ¬⁄U ÷Ê⁄U ∑§Ë flÎÁh ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ Á¿UŒ˝ ¡‹ ◊¥ ©à¬ãŸ „ÊŸ flÊ‹ ŒÊ’ ∑§Ê ∑§„à „Ò¥ —
(1) •ÊÁœÄÿ Á¿UŒ˝ ŒÊ’ (2) •ÊÁœÄÿ Œ˝fl SÕÒÁÃ∑§ ŒÊ’
(3) Œ˝fl ªÁÃ∑§ ŒÊ’ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ‚÷Ë
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102. Consider the following statements for the retaining walls :
I. The factor of safety for overturning should be greater than or equal to 1.4
II. In counterfort retaining walls, the stem and heel slabs are designed as continuous slabs
supported over counterforts.
III. The counterforts are designed for passive earth pressure for the load from the stem portion
between the adjacent counterforts.
IV. The behaviour of buttress-retaining wall is similar to that of counterfort retaining wall.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(1) I, II, III and IV are correct (2) I, II and III are correct
(3) I, II and IV are correct (4) III and IV are correct
¬˝ÁÜÊ⁄U∑§ Á÷ÁûÊÿÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
I. •¬fløŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ªÈáÊ∑§ 1.4 ‚ •Áœ∑§ ÿÊ ß‚∑§ ’⁄UÊ’⁄U „ÊŸ øÊÁ„∞–
II. ∑§Ê©ã≈U⁄U»§Ê≈¸U ¬˝ÁÜÊ⁄U∑§ Á÷ÁûÊ ◊¥, ™§äfl¸ ¬≈˜≈ •ÊÒ⁄U ∞«∏Ë ¬≈˜U≈ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê©ã≈U⁄U»§Ê≈¸U ¬⁄U •Ê‹Áê’à ‚Ãà ¬≈˜U≈ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥
•Á÷∑§ÁÀ¬Ã Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– U U
III. ∑§Ê©ã≈U⁄U»§Ê≈¸U ∑§Ê, ÁŸ∑§≈UflÃ˸ ∑§Ê©ã≈U⁄U»§Ê≈UÊZ ∑§ ’Ëø ™§äfl¸ ¬≈˜U≈U ∑§ ÷ʪ ∑§ ÷Ê⁄U ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ÁŸÁc∑˝§ÿ ◊ÎŒÊ ŒÊ’ ∑§ Á‹∞,
•Á÷∑§ÁÀ¬Ã Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò–
IV. ’≈˛ÒU‚-¬˝ÁÜÊ⁄U∑§ Á÷ÁûÊ ∑§Ê √ÿfl„Ê⁄ ∑§Ê©ã≈U⁄U»§Ê≈¸U ¬˝ÁÜÊ⁄U∑§ Á÷ÁûÊ ∑§ √ÿfl„Ê⁄U ∑§ ‚◊ÊŸ „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
ߟ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò¥?
(1) I, II, III •ÊÒ⁄U IV ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (2) I, II •ÊÒ⁄U III ‚„Ë „Ò¥
(3) I, II •ÊÒ⁄U IV ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (4) III •ÊÒ⁄U IV ‚„Ë „Ò¥
103. Nominal size of a modular brick is 20×10×10 cm. What is the number of bricks required for
construction of a brick wall whose length, height and width are 5.0 m, 3.0 m and 300 mm
respectively ?
∞∑§ ◊Ê«ÈU‹⁄U ßZ≈U ∑§Ê •Á÷Á„à •Ê◊ʬ 20×10×10 ‚.◊Ë. „Ò– ∞∑§ ßZ≈U ∑§Ë ŒËflÊ⁄U, Á¡‚∑§Ë ‹ê’Ê߸, ™°§øÊ߸ •ÊÒ⁄U øÊÒ«∏Ê߸
∑˝§◊‡Ê— 5.0 ◊Ë., 3.0 ◊Ë. •ÊÒ⁄ 300 Á◊.◊Ë. „Ò, ∑§ ÁŸ◊ʸáÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ ßZ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ ÄÿÊ „Ò?
(1) 900 (2) 1125 (3) 1250 (4) 2250
104. The time corresponding to the minimum total project cost is called :
(1) Optimum time (2) Crash time (3) Normal time (4) Optimistic time
ãÿÍŸÃ◊ ‚∑§‹ ¬Á⁄UÿÊ¡ŸÊ ‹ÊªÃ ∑§ ‚¥ªÃ ‚◊ÿ ∑§„‹ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ßc≈UÃ◊ ‚◊ÿ (2) äfl¥‚ (∑˝Ò§‡Ê) ‚◊ÿ (3) ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ‚◊ÿ (4) •ʇÊÊflÊŒË ‚◊ÿ
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105. Consider the following statements relating to concrete :
i. Bleeding indicates deficiency of coarse material in the mix.
ii. Segregation indicates poor aggregate grading.
iii. Curing of concrete by steam pressure increases the compressive strength of concrete.
iv. Curing under steam pressure increases the rate of gain of compressive strength.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(1) i, ii and iii are correct (2) ii, iii and iv are correct
(3) ii and iv are correct (4) i, ii and iv are correct
∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
i. é‹ËÁ«¥Uª, Á◊üÊáÊ ◊¥ ◊Ê≈U ¬ŒÊÕ¸ ∑§Ë ∑§◊Ë ∑§Ê ߥÁªÃ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–
ii. ‚Òª˝Ëª‡ÊŸ, ÁŸ’¸‹ ‚◊Èëøÿ ª˝Á«¥Uª ∑§Ê ߥÁªÃ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò
iii. flÊc¬ ŒÊ’ mÊ⁄UÊ ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ÄÿÊÁ⁄U¥Uª, ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ∑§Ë ‚¥¬Ë«UŸ ‚ÊêÊâÿ¸ ∑§Ê ’…∏ÊÃË „Ò–
iv. flÊc¬ ŒÊ’ mÊ⁄UÊ ÄÿÊÁ⁄¥Uª, ‚¥¬Ë«UŸ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ ¬˝ÊÁåà ∑§Ë Œ⁄U ∑§Ê ’…∏ÊÃË „Ò–
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò¥?
(1) i, ii •ÊÒ⁄U iii ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (2) ii, iii •ÊÒ⁄U iv ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) ii •ÊÒ⁄U iv ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (4) i, ii •ÊÒ⁄U iv ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
106. The yield strength and tensile strength of low carbon steel may be improved by the addition of :
(1) Manganese (2) Chromium (3) Nickel (4) Vanadium
ÁŸêŸ ∑§Ê’¸Ÿ ßS¬Êà ∑§Ë ¬⁄UÊ÷fl ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ •ÊÒ⁄U ߟ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ ∑§Ê ÄÿÊ Á◊‹ÊŸ ‚ ‚ÈœÊ⁄UÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ◊Ò¥ªŸË$¡ (2) ∑˝§ÊÁ◊ÿ◊ (3) ÁŸ∑§‹ (4) flŸÊÁ«Uÿ◊
107. The method usually adopted to contour a rough country where ordinary levelling is tedious and
chaining is slow and inaccurate is :
(1) spirit levelling (2) differential levelling
(3) plane tabling (4) tacheometry
∞∑§ M§ˇÊ SÕÊŸ, ¡„ʰ ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ˡÊáÊ (‹flÁ‹¥ª) ◊ÈÁ‡∑§‹ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U øÁŸ¥ª œË◊Ê •ÊÒ⁄U •¬Á⁄U‡ÊÈh „Ò, ∑§ M§¬⁄UπáÊ (∑¥§≈ÍUÁ⁄¥Uª) ∑§
Á‹∞ ‚Ê◊Êãÿ× Á∑§‚ ÁflÁœ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ÁS¬Á⁄U≈U ˡÊáÊ (2) Áfl÷ŒË ˡÊáÊ
(3) 募 ≈U’Á‹¥ª (4) ≈U∑§Ê◊Ë≈˛UË
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108. Theory of probability is applied to :
(1) cumulative errors only (2) accidental errors only
(3) both accidental and cumulative (4) None of the above
¬˝ÊÁÿ∑§ÃÊ Á‚hʥà ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ „ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ∑§fl‹ ‚¥øÿË òÊÈÁ≈UÿÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ (2) •Ê∑§ÁS◊∑§ òÊÈÁ≈UÿÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞
(3) •Ê∑§ÁS◊∑§ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚¥øÿË ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§Ê߸ Ÿ„Ë¥
109. Bar charts are suitable for :
(1) Minor works (2) Major works
(3) Large projects (4) All the above
’Ê⁄U øÊ≈¸U Á∑§‚∑§ Á‹∞ ©¬ÿÈÄà „Ò¥?
(1) ¿UÊ≈U ∑§ÊÿÊZ ∑§ Á‹∞ (2) ’«∏U ∑§ÊÿÊZ ∑§ Á‹∞
(3) ’«∏Ë ¬Á⁄UÿÊ¡ŸÊ•Ê¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ‚÷Ë
110. The compound which is largely responsible for initial setting and early strength gain of Ordinary
Portland Cement is :
(1) Tricalcium Aluminate (2) Tricalcium Silicate
(3) Dicalcium Silicate (4) Tetracalcium Alumino Ferrite
‚Ê◊Êãÿ ¬Ê≈¸U‹Ò¥«U ‚Ë◊¥≈U ◊¥ ¬˝Ê⁄¥UÁ÷∑§ ¡◊Êfl •ÊÒ⁄U ‡ÊËÉÊ˝ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ ¬˝ÊÁåà ∑§ Á‹∞ ◊ÈÅÿ× ©ûÊ⁄UŒÊÿË ÿÊÒÁª∑§ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê „Ò?
(1) ≈˛UÊ߸∑Ò§ÁÀ‚ÿ◊ ∞‹ÈÁ◊Ÿ≈U (2) ≈˛UÊ߸∑Ò§ÁÀ‚ÿ◊ Á‚Á‹∑§≈U
(3) «UÊß∑Ò§ÁÀ‚ÿ◊ Á‚Á‹∑§≈U (4) ≈U≈˛UÊ∑Ò§ÁÀ‚ÿ◊ ∞‹ÈÁ◊ŸÊ »Ò§⁄UÊß≈U
111. Minimum tension steel in RC beam needs to be provided to :
(1) prevent sudden failure. (2) arrest crack width.
(3) control excessive deflection. (4) prevent surface hair cracks.
•Ê⁄.U‚Ë. œ⁄UŸ ◊¥ ãÿÍŸÃ◊ ߟ ßS¬Êà ¬˝ŒÊŸ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ Á∑§‚ Á‹∞ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò?
(1) •øÊŸ∑§ „ÊŸ flÊ‹Ë Áfl»§‹ÃÊ ‚ ’øŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ (2) Œ⁄UÊ⁄U ∑§Ë øÊÒ«∏Ê߸ ∑§Ê ⁄UÊ∑§Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞
(3) •àÿÁœ∑§ ÁflˇÊ¬ ∑§Ê ÁŸÿ¥ÁòÊà ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ (4) ‚Ã„Ë ¬Ã‹Ë Œ⁄UÊ⁄UÊ¥ ‚ ’øŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
112. For a given activity, the optimistic time, pessimistic time, and the most probable time estimates are
5, 17 and 8 days respectively, the expected time is :
(1) 8 days (2) 10 days (3) 9 days (4) 15 days
∞∑§ ¬˝ŒûÊ Á∑˝§ÿÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ •ʇÊÊflÊŒË ‚◊ÿ, ÁŸ⁄UʇÊÊflÊŒË ‚◊ÿ •ÊÒ⁄U •Áœ∑§ ‚ê÷Ê√ÿ ‚◊ÿ •Ê∑§‹Ÿ ∑˝§◊‡Ê— 5, 17 •ÊÒ⁄U 8 ÁŒŸ
„Ò¥, •¬ÁˇÊà ‚◊ÿ „Ò —
(1) 8 ÁŒŸ (2) 10 ÁŒŸ (3) 9 ÁŒŸ (4) 15 ÁŒŸ
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113. The centrally located job layout is ideal for :
(1) Earth dam (2) Irrigation canal (3) Highway (4) Multi-storied buildings
∑§ãŒ˝Ëÿ ÁSÕà ∑§Êÿ¸ •Á÷ãÿÊ‚ Á∑§‚∑§ Á‹∞ •ÊŒ‡Ê¸ „Ò?
(1) ◊ÎŒÊ ’ʰœ (2) Á‚¥øÊ߸ Ÿ„⁄U (3) ⁄UÊ¡◊ʪ¸ (4) ’„È◊¥Á¡‹Ê ÷flŸ
114. Match the sequence of determination of components of a concrete mix as per Indian Standard
method of mix design and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Group 1 Group 2
P. Cement content I. First step
Q. Aggregate content II. Second step
R. Water content III. Third step
S. Water-cement ratio IV. Fourth step
Á◊üÊáÊ •Á÷∑§À¬Ÿ ∑§Ë ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ◊ÊŸ∑§ ÁflÁœ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U Á◊üÊáÊ ∑§ ÉÊ≈U∑§Ê¥ ∑§ ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ ∑§ ∑˝§◊ ∑§Ê Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U
ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ ∑§⁄U∑§ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞ —
flª¸ 1 flª¸ 2
P. ‚Ë◊¥≈U ∑§Ë ◊ÊòÊÊ I. ¬˝Õ◊ ∑§Êÿ¸
Q. ‚◊Èëøÿ ∑§Ë ◊ÊòÊÊ II. ÁmÃËÿ ∑§Êÿ¸
R. ¡‹ ∑§Ë ◊ÊòÊÊ III. ÃÎÃËÿ ∑§Êÿ¸
S. ¡‹-‚Ë◊¥≈U •ŸÈ¬Êà IV. øÃÈÕ¸ ∑§Êÿ¸
(1) P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III (2) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I
(3) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I (4) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III
115. The degree of saturation of a natural soil deposit having a water content 15%, specific gravity 2.50
and void ratio 0.5, is :
15% ¡‹Ê¥‡Ê, 2.50 ÁflÁ‡Êc≈U ÉÊŸàfl •ÊÒ⁄U 0.5 Á⁄UÁÄà •ŸÈ¬Êà flÊ‹ ∞∑§ ¬˝Ê∑ΧÁÃ∑§ ◊ÎŒÊ ÁŸˇÊ¬ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÃÎåÃÃÊ ∑§ÊÁ≈U „ÊªË —
(1) 50% (2) 60% (3) 75% (4) 80%
116. In reinforced concrete, pedestal is defined as a compression member, whose effective length does
not exceed its dimension by :
(1) 12 times (2) 8 times (3) 16 times (4) 3 times
¬˝’Á‹Ã ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ◊¥, ¬Ò«US≈U‹ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ∞‚ ‚¥¬Ë«UŸ ‚ŒSÿ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ¬Á⁄U÷ÊÁ·Ã Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò Á¡‚∑§Ë ¬˝÷ÊflË ‹ê’Ê߸ ©‚∑§Ë
Áfl◊ʕʥ ‚ __________ ‚ •Áœ∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃË–
(1) 12 ªÈŸÊ (2) 8 ªÈŸÊ (3) 16 ªÈŸÊ (4) 3 ªÈŸÊ
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117. Which one of the following statements is correct for Flyash ?
(1) It is not vulnerable pollution hazard affecting land, water and air.
(2) It can be used as an Admixture in cement concrete.
(3) It cannot be used as an aggregate in road construction.
(4) It is the Furnace bottom ash forms large particles together.
ç‹Ê߸∞‡Ê ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò?
(1) ÿ„ œ⁄UÃË, ¡‹ •ÊÒ⁄U flÊÿÈ ∑§Ê ¬˝÷ÊÁflà ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹Ê ÷Œ˜ÿ ¬˝ŒÍ·áÊ ‚¥∑§≈U Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(2) ‚Ë◊¥≈U ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ◊¥ Á◊‹ÊflŸ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ß‚∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò–
(3) ‚«∏∑§ ÁŸ◊ʸáÊ ◊¥ ß‚∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ ‚◊Èëøÿ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò–
(4) ÿ„ ÷≈˜U≈UË ∑§ Ë ∑§Ë ⁄UÊπ „Ò Á¡‚∑§ ∑§áÊ ’«∏ „Êà „Ò¥–
118. Match Group 1 (Admixtures) to Group 2 (Chemicals) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the groups :
Group 1 Group 2
P. Water reducing admixture I. Sulphonated melanin formaldehyde
Q. Air entraining agent II. Calcium chloride
R. Superplasticizer III. Lignosulphonate
S. Accelerator IV. Neutralized vinsol resin
flª¸ 1 (Á◊‹ÊflŸ) ∑§Ê flª¸ 2 (⁄U‚ÊÿŸ) ‚ Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U flªÊZ ∑§ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ ∑§⁄U∑§ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U
øÈÁŸ∞ —
flª¸ 1 flª¸ 2
P. ¬ÊŸË ÉÊ≈UÊŸ flÊ‹ Á◊‹ÊflŸ I. ‚À»§ÊŸÁ≈U«U ◊Ò‹ÊÁŸŸ »§Ê◊¸ÁÀ«U„Êß«U
Q. flÊÿÈ ¬˝ÁflÁc≈U ∑§Ê⁄U∑§ II. ∑Ò§ÁÀ‡Êÿ◊ Ä‹Ê⁄UÊß«U
R. ‚Ȭ⁄Uå‹ÊS≈UË‚Êß$¡⁄U III. Á‹ªAÊ‚À»§ÊŸ≈U
S. àfl⁄U∑§ IV. ÁŸc¬˝÷ÊÁflà ÁflŸ‚Ê‹ ⁄UÁ$¡Ÿ
(1) P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III (2) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-II
(3) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II (4) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I
119. Productivity can be increased by :
(1) Increasing the resources (2) Decreasing the resources
(3) Optimum utilization of resources (4) All are correct
©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ ∑§Ê Á∑§‚∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ’…∏ÊÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ‚¥‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ’…∏Ê∑§⁄ (2) ‚¥‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ∑§◊ ∑§⁄U∑§
(3) ‚¥‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ßc≈UÃ◊ ©¬ÿʪ (4) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë „Ò¥
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120. During all the stages of construction work, the process of controlling the expenditure is known as :
(1) Time control (2) Quality control
(3) Cost control (4) None of the above
ÁŸ◊ʸáÊ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§Ë ‚÷Ë •flSÕʕʥ ∑§ ŒÊÒ⁄UÊŸ, πøÊ¸ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ∑§Ë ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ ∑§Ê ß‚ M§¬ ◊¥ ¡ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ‚◊ÿ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ (2) ªÈáÊflàÃÊ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ
(3) ‹ÊªÃ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§Ê߸ Ÿ„Ë¥
121. Match Group 1 (purpose) to Group 2 (suitable stones) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the groups :
Group 1 Group 2
P. Masonry work in industrial area exposed I. Granite, Fine grained Sandstone
to smoke and chemical fumes
Q. Paving, door/window sills, steps II. Compact Sandstone
R. Buildings facing sea and exposed to strong III. Slate, Marble
dusty winds
S. Fire resistant masonry IV. Granite, Quartzite
flª¸ 1 (©g‡ÿ) ∑§Ê flª¸ 2 (©¬ÿÈÄà ¬àÕ⁄U) ‚ Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U flªÊZ ∑§ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ ∑§⁄U∑§ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U
øÈÁŸ∞ —
flª¸ 1 flª¸ 2
P. œÈ°•Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ⁄UÊ‚ÊÿÁŸ∑§ œÍ◊˝Ê¥ ‚ I. ª˝ŸÊß≈U, ’Ê⁄UË∑§ ∑§áÊÊ¥ flÊ‹Ê ’‹È•Ê ¬àÕ⁄U
¬˝÷ÊÁflà •ÊÒlÊÁª∑§ ˇÊòÊ ◊¥ ÁøŸÊ߸ ∑§Êÿ¸
Q. ∑ȧÁ≈˜U≈U◊ ÁŸ◊ʸáÊ, Œ⁄UflÊ¡/Áπ«∏∑§Ë ∑§Ë Œ„‹ (Á‚‹), ¬ÊŒ II. ‚¥„à ’‹È•Ê ¬àÕ⁄U
R. ¬˝’‹ œÍ‹ ÷⁄UË „flʕʥ ∑§Ê ‚Ê◊ŸÊ ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹ •ÊÒ⁄U III. S‹≈U, ‚¥ª◊⁄U◊⁄U
‚◊ÈŒ˝ ∑§ ‚Ê◊Ÿ ∑§ ÷flŸ
S. •ÁÇŸ⁄UÊœ∑§ ÁøŸÊ߸ ∑§Êÿ¸ IV. ª˝ŸÊß≈U, ÄflÊ≈¸U$¡Êß≈U
(1) P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III (2) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-II
(3) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II (4) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III
122. The most accurate method of plotting a traverse is by :
(1) independent coordinates (2) consecutive coordinates
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) tangents method
∞∑§ ø∑˝§◊ ∑§ •Ê⁄UπŸ ∑§Ë ‚flʸÁœ∑§ ¬Á⁄U‡ÊÈh ÁflÁœ „Ò —
(1) SflÃ¥òÊ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ (2) ∑˝§◊ʪà ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ
(3) ŒÊŸÊ¥ (1) •ÊÒ⁄U (2) (4) S¬‡Ê¸ ⁄UπÊ∞° ÁflÁœ mÊ⁄UÊ
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123. The quantitative measure of an earthquake is :
(1) seismic magnitude (2) seismic energy
(3) seismic intensity (4) seismic deflection
∞∑§ ÷Í∑¥§¬ ∑§Ê ¬Á⁄U◊ÊáÊÊà◊∑§ ◊ʬŸ „Ò —
(1) ÷Í∑¥§¬Ëÿ ¬Á⁄◊ÊáÊ (2) ÷Í∑¥§¬Ëÿ ™§¡Ê¸
(3) ÷Í∑¥§¬Ëÿ ÃËfl˝ÃÊ (4) ÷Í∑¥§¬Ëÿ ÁflˇÊ¬
124. Updating becomes necessary except in :
(1) Changes in the project plan (2) Rescheduling of activities
(3) Change in the duration of any activity (4) Change in a critical path
Á∑§‚ ¿UÊ«∏∑§⁄U, •lß •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ¬Á⁄UÿÊ¡ŸÊ ÁŸÿÊ¡Ÿ ◊¥ ¬Á⁄UfløŸ (2) Á∑˝§ÿʕʥ ∑§Ê ¬ÈŸÁŸ¸œÊ¸⁄UáÊ
(3) Á∑§‚Ë Á∑˝§ÿÊ ∑§Ë •flÁœ ◊¥ ¬Á⁄UfløŸ (4) ∑˝§Ê°ÁÃ∑§ ¬Õ ◊¥ ¬Á⁄UfløŸ
125. Power shovel can be used for excavation of all types of solids except :
(1) Loose soil (2) Clay (3) Loam (4) Solid rocks
¬Êfl⁄U ‡ÊÊÚfl‹ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ, Á∑§‚ ¿UÊ«∏∑§⁄U ‚÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ∆Uʂʥ ∑§ ©àπŸŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò?
(1) •‚¥„à ◊ÎŒÊ (2) ◊ÎÁûÊ∑§Ê (3) ŒÈU◊≈U (‹Ê◊) (4) ∆UÊ‚ ø≈˜U≈UÊŸ¥
126. Why are bricks soaked in water before using in the brick masonry ?
(1) For removing dust (2) For preventing depletion of moisture from mortar
(3) For reducing air voids (4) For reducing efflorescence
ßZ≈U ÁøŸÊ߸ ∑§Êÿ¸ ◊¥ ©¬ÿʪ ∑§⁄UŸ ‚ ¬„‹ ßZ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¡‹ ◊¥ •fl‡ÊÊÁ·Ã ÄÿÊ¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) œÍ‹ „≈UÊŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ (2) ◊‚Ê‹ ∑§Ë •ÊŒ˝¸ÃÊ ◊¥ ∑§◊Ë „ÊŸ ‚ ⁄UÊ∑§Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞
(3) flÊÿÈ Á⁄UÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê ∑§◊ ∑§⁄UŸ Á‹∞ (4) ‹ÊŸË ∑§Ê ∑§◊ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
127. The main reinforcement in an RC slab consists of 8 mm bars at 8 cm spacing. If the bars are
replaced by those of 10 mm size, spacing should be :
(1) 10 cm (2) 12 cm (3) 12.5 cm (4) 16 cm
∞∑§ •Ê⁄U.‚Ë. ¿Uì≈U ◊¥ ◊ÈÅÿ ¬˝’‹Ÿ 8 ‚◊Ë. ∑§ •¥Ã⁄UÊ‹ ¬⁄U 8 Á◊◊Ë. ∑§Ë ¿U«∏Ê¥ ‚ ’ŸÊ „Ò– ÿÁŒ ߟ ¿U«∏Ê¥ ∑§Ê 10 Á◊◊Ë. ∑§Ë
¿U«∏Ê¥ ‚ ’Œ‹ ÁŒÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò ÃÊ •¥Ã⁄UÊ‹ „ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ —
(1) 10 ‚◊Ë. (2) 12 ‚◊Ë. (3) 12.5 ‚◊Ë. (4) 16 ‚◊Ë.
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128. The clay mineral primarily governing the swelling behaviour of black cotton soil is :
(1) montmorillonite (2) halloysite
(3) kaolinite (4) illite
∑§Ê‹Ë Á◊≈˜U≈UË ∑§ S»§ËÁà √ÿfl„Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ◊ÈÅÿ× •ÁœÁŸÿ¥ÁòÊà ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹Ê ◊ÎÁûÊ∑§Ê πÁŸ¡ „Ò —
(1) ◊Êã≈U◊ÊÁ⁄U‹ÊŸÊß≈U (2) „‹Êÿ‚Êß≈U
(3) ∑§•ÊÁ‹ŸÊß≈U (4) ß‹Êß≈U
129. Safety in construction is important due to :
(1) Humanitarian concerns (2) Medical expenses
(3) Economic reasons (4) All the above
ÁŸ◊ʸáÊ ◊¥ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ Á∑§‚∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ◊„àfl¬Íáʸ „Ò?
(1) ◊ÊŸflËÿ ◊„àfl (2) Áø∑§à‚Ëÿ πø¸
(3) •ÊÁÕ¸∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ (4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ‚÷Ë
130. The area under the β-distribution curve is divided into two equal parts by the ordinate through
the :
(1) Pessimistic time (2) Optimistic time
(3) Most likely time (4) Expected time
β−ÁflÃ⁄UáÊ fl∑˝§ ∑§ ŸËø ∑§Ê ˇÊòÊ»§‹ Á∑§‚‚ ªÈ¡⁄UŸ flÊ‹Ë ∑§ÊÁ≈U ∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ŒÊ ’⁄UÊ’⁄U ÷ʪʥ ◊¥ ’Ê¥≈UÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ÁŸ⁄UʇÊÊflÊŒË ‚◊ÿ (2) •ʇÊÊflÊŒË ‚◊ÿ
(3) •Áœ∑§ ‚¥÷Ê√ÿ ‚◊ÿ (4) •¬ÁˇÊà ‚◊ÿ
131. Line of balance (L.O.B.) is :
(1) A planning technique for repetitive activities or work
(2) It is a modified bar chart
(3) It is a modified milestone chart
(4) None of the above
‚¥ÃÈ‹Ÿ ∑§Ë ⁄UπÊ (∞‹. •Ê. ’Ë.) „Ò —
(1) ¬ÈŸ⁄UÊflÎÁûÊ∑§ Á∑˝§ÿÊ ÿÊ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∞∑§ ÁŸÿÊ¡Ÿ Ã∑§ŸË∑§
(2) ÿ„ ∞∑§ M§¬Ê¥ÃÁ⁄Uà ’Ê⁄U øÊ≈¸U „Ò
(3) ÿ„ ∞∑§ M§¬Ê¥ÃÁ⁄Uà ◊Êß‹S≈UÊŸ øÊ≈¸U „Ò
(4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§Ê߸ Ÿ„Ë¥
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132. In an RCC beam, side face reinforcement is provided if its depth exceeds :
(1) 300 mm (2) 500 mm (3) 700 mm (4) 750 mm
∞∑§ •Ê⁄U.‚Ë.‚Ë. œ⁄UŸ ◊¥, ¬Ê‡fl¸ »§‹∑§ ¬˝’‹Ÿ ¬˝ŒÊŸ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò ÿÁŒ ß‚∑§Ë ª„⁄UÊ߸ __________ ‚ •Áœ∑§ „Ê–
(1) 300 UÁ◊.◊Ë. (2) 500 Á◊.◊Ë. (3) 700 Á◊.◊Ë. (4) 750 Á◊.◊Ë.
133. As per IS : 456 - 2000 for the design of reinforced concrete beam, the maximum allowable shear
stress depends on the :
(1) grade of concrete and grade of steel
(2) grade of concrete only
(3) grade of steel only
(4) grade of concrete and percentage of reinforcement
¬˝’Á‹Ã ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U œ⁄UŸ ∑§ •Á÷∑§À¬Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞, •Ê߸.∞‚. — 456 - 2000 ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U, •Áœ∑§Ã◊ •ŸÈôÊÿ •¬M§¬áÊ ¬˝ÁÃ’‹
ÁŸ÷¸⁄U ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ∑§ ª˝«U •ÊÒ⁄U ßS¬Êà ∑§ ª˝«U ¬⁄U
(2) ∑§fl‹ ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ∑§ ª˝«U ¬⁄U
(3) ∑§fl‹ ßS¬Êà ∑§ ª˝«U ¬⁄U
(4) ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ∑§ ª˝«U •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝’‹Ÿ ∑§ ¬˝ÁÇÊà ¬⁄U
134. Which of these methods is the most appropriate if we want to determine a soil’s water content ?
(1) pycnometer method (2) oven drying method
(3) calcium carbide method (4) sand bath method
ÿÁŒ ◊ÎŒÊ ∑§ ¡‹Ê¥‡Ê ∑§Ê ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UŸÊ „Ê ÃÊ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë ÁflÁœ ‚’‚ ©¬ÿÈÄà „Ò?
(1) Á¬∑§ŸÊ◊Ë≈U⁄U ÁflÁœ (2) •ÊflÊ ‡ÊÈc∑§Ë∑§⁄UáÊ ÁflÁœ
(3) ∑Ò§ÁÀ‡Êÿ◊ ∑§Ê’ʸ߫U ÁflÁœ (4) ’Ê‹Í SŸÊŸ ÁflÁœ
135. Which of the following is categorised as a long term loss of prestress in a prestressed concrete
member ?
(1) loss due to elastic shortening (2) loss due to friction
(3) loss due to relaxation of strands (4) loss due to anchorage slip
∞∑§ ¬Ífl¸¬˝ÁÃ’Á‹Ã ∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ‚ŒSÿ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ¬Ífl¸¬˝ÁÃ’‹ ∑§ ŒËÉʸ∑§ÊÁ‹∑§ OÊ‚ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ flªË¸∑Χà Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ
„Ò?
(1) ¬˝àÿÊSÕ ‹ÉÊÈ∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ OÊ‚ (2) ÉÊ·¸áÊ ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ OÊ‚
(3) Ã¥Ãȕʥ ∑§Ë Áflo˝Ê¥Áà ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ OÊ‚ (4) ÁSÕ⁄U∑§ ∑§ Á»§‚‹Ÿ ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ OÊ‚
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136. Factor of safety against sliding of a slope is the ratio of :
(1) actual cohesion to that required to maintain stability of slope
(2) shear strength to shear stress along the surface
(3) neither (1) nor (2)
(4) both (1) and (2)
∞∑§ …U‹ÊŸ ∑§Ê ‚¬¸áÊ ∑§ ÁflL§h ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ªÈáÊÊ¥∑§ Á∑§‚∑§Ê •ŸÈ¬Êà „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) flÊSÃÁfl∑§ ‚¥‚¥¡Ÿ ∑§Ê …U‹ÊŸ ∑§ SÕÊÁÿàfl ∑§Ê ’ŸÊ∞ ⁄UπŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ ‚¥‚¥¡Ÿ ∑§ ‚ÊÕ
(2) ‚Ä ¬⁄U •¬M§¬áÊ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ ∑§Ê •¬M§¬áÊ ¬˝ÁÃ’‹ ∑§ ‚ÊÕ
(3) Ÿ ÃÊ (1) •ÊÒ⁄U Ÿ „Ë (2)
(4) ŒÊŸÊ¥ (1) •ÊÒ⁄U (2)
137. Lateral ties in RC column are provided to resist :
(1) bending moment
(2) shear
(3) buckling of longitudinal steel bars
(4) both bending and shear
•Ê⁄U.‚Ë. SÃ¥÷ ◊¥ ¬Ê‡fl¸ ’¥œ∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ Á∑§‚∑§ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UÊœ ∑§ Á‹∞ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ’¥∑§Ÿ •ÊÉÊÍáʸ
(2) •¬M§¬áÊ
(3) •ŸÈŒÒÉÿ¸ ßS¬Êà ¿U«∏Ê¥ ∑§Ê √ÿÊ∑È¥§øŸ
(4) ’¥∑§Ÿ •ÊÒ⁄U •¬M§¬áÊ ŒÊŸÊ¥
138. In case of a two-way slab, the defection of the slab is :
(1) primary function of the long span
(2) primary function of the short span
(3) independent of span
(4) mostly primary function of long span but sometimes of short span
∞∑§ ÁmÁŒ‡Ê ¿Uì≈U ◊¥, ¿Uì≈U ∑§Ê ÁflˇÊ¬ „Ò —
(1) ŒËÉʸ ÁflSÃÎÁà ∑§Ê ◊ÈÅÿ »§‹Ÿ
(2) ‹ÉÊÈ ÁflSÃÎÁà ∑§Ê ◊ÈÅÿ »§‹Ÿ
(3) ÁflSÃÎÁà ‚ SflÃ¥òÊ
(4) •Áœ∑§Ã⁄U ŒËÉʸ ÁflSÃÎÁà ∑§Ê ◊ÈÅÿ »§‹Ÿ ¬⁄UãÃÈ ∑§÷Ë-∑§÷Ë ‹ÉÊÈ ÁflSÃÎÁà ∑§Ê
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139. Match Group 1 to Group 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the groups :
Group 1 Group 2
P. Setting time of cement I. Le Chatelier apparatus
Q. Consistency of cement II. Air-permeability test
R. Soundness of cement III. Vicat’s apparatus
S. Fineness of cement IV. Pycnometer
flª¸ 1 ∑§Ê flª¸ 2 ‚ Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U flªÊZ ∑§ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ ∑§⁄U∑§ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞ —
flª¸ 1 flª¸ 2
P. ‚Ë◊¥≈U ∑§Ê ¡◊Êfl ‚◊ÿ I. ‹Ë øÒ≈UÁ‹•⁄U ©¬∑§⁄UáÊ
Q. ‚Ë◊¥≈U ∑§Ë ∑§Áã‚S≈U ã‚Ë II. flÊÿÈ-¬Ê⁄ªêÿÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ
R. ‚Ë◊¥≈U ∑§Ë ‚Ê©ã«UŸÒ‚ III. Áfl∑§Ê≈U ∑§Ê ©¬∑§⁄UáÊ
S. ‚Ë◊¥≈U ∑§Ë ◊„ËŸÃÊ IV. Á¬∑§ŸÊ◊Ë≈U⁄U
(1) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I (2) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV
(3) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II (4) P-III, Q-II, R-I, S-IV
140. A mosque is situated on the far side of a river and is inaccessible. It can be located by :
(1) radiation (2) traversing
(3) intersection (4) resection
∞∑§ ◊ÁS¡Œ ŸŒË ∑§ ŒÍ‚⁄U Á∑§ŸÊ⁄U ¬⁄U ÁSÕà „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U •ªêÿ „Ò– ß‚∑§Ë ÁSÕÁà ∑§Ê ôÊÊà Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò —
(1) Áfl∑§Ë⁄UáÊ (⁄UÁ«U∞‡ÊŸ) mÊ⁄UÊ (2) ø∑˝§◊áÊ mÊ⁄UÊ
(3) •¥Ã⁄U¿UŒŸ mÊ⁄UÊ (4) ¬˝ÁÃë¿UŒŸ mÊ⁄UÊ
141. A dozer is used mainly for :
(1) Pushing the material (2) Lifting the material
(3) Digging the material (4) Pulling the material
∞∑§ «UÊ$¡⁄U ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ ◊ÈÅÿ× Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë ∑§Ê œÄ∑§Ê ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ (2) ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë ∑§Ê ©∆UÊŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
(3) ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë ∑§Ê πÊŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ (4) ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë ∑§Ê πË¥øŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
142. The property of a mineral by virtue of which it can be cut with a knife is :
(1) Parting (2) Sectile (3) Malleable (4) Ductile
∞∑§ πÁŸ¡ ∑§Ê ªÈáÊ Á¡‚∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ß‚ ∞∑§ øÊ∑ͧ ‚ ∑§Ê≈UÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò, „Ò —
(1) ¬ÊÁ≈ZUª (2) ‚Ä≈UÊß‹ (3) ◊Á‹∞’‹ (4) «UÄ≈UÊß‹
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143. Pile foundation are generally preferred to for :
(1) bridge foundations (2) residential buildings
(3) sky scrapper buildings (4) runways
SÕÍáÊÊ (¬Êß‹) ŸË¥fl ∑§Ê ‚Ê◊Êãÿ× fl⁄UËÿÃÊ ŒË ¡ÊÃË „Ò —
(1) ¬È‹ ∑§Ë ŸË¥fl ∑§ Á‹∞ (2) •ÊflÊ‚Ëÿ ÷flŸÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞
(3) ªªŸøÈ¥’Ë ÷flŸÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ (4) œÊflŸ ¬Õ ∑§ Á‹∞
144. The most widespread rock on Earth is :
(1) Igneous rock (2) Metamorphic rock
(3) Sedimentary rock (4) All are in equal quantities
¬ÎâflË ¬⁄U ‚flʸÁœ∑§ ¬ÊÿË ¡ÊŸ flÊ‹Ë ø≈˜≈U ÊŸ „Ò —
(1) •ÊÇŸÿ ø≈˜≈U ÊŸ (2) ∑§ÊÿÊ¥ÃÁ⁄Uà ø≈˜≈U ÊŸ
(3) •fl‚ÊŒË ø≈˜≈U ÊŸ (4) ‚÷Ë ‚◊ÊŸ ◊ÊòÊÊ ◊¥ „Ò¥
145. The bearing capacity of soil depends upon :
(1) size and shape of the particles
(2) cohesive properties of particles
(3) internal frictional resistance of particles
(4) all of the above
◊ÎŒÊ ∑§Ë œÊ⁄UáÊ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ Á∑§‚ ¬⁄U ÁŸ÷¸⁄U ∑§⁄UÃË „Ò?
(1) ∑§áÊÊ¥ ∑§ •Ê◊ʬ •ÊÒ⁄U •Ê∑§Ê⁄U ¬⁄U
(2) ∑§áÊÊ¥ ∑§ ‚¥‚¥¡ŸË ªÈáÊœ◊ÊZ ¬⁄U
(3) ∑§áÊÊ¥ ∑§ •Ê¥ÃÁ⁄U∑§ ÉÊ·¸áÊ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UÊœ ¬⁄U
(4) ©¬⁄UÊÄà ‚÷Ë
146. The definition of the soft storey mainly refers to :
(1) strength (2) stiffness (3) mass (4) damping
Ÿ◊¸ Ë (◊¥Á¡‹) ∑§Ë ¬Á⁄U÷Ê·Ê ◊ÈÅÿ× Á∑§‚ •Ê⁄U ‚¥∑§Ã ∑§⁄UÃË „Ò?
(1) ‚Ê◊âÿ¸ (2) ŒÎ…∏ÃÊ (3) Œ˝√ÿ◊ÊŸ (4) •fl◊¥ŒŸ
147. One of the main disadvantages in the lime mortar is that it :
(1) is not durable. (2) does not set quickly.
(3) swells. (4) is plastic.
øÍŸ ∑§ ◊‚Ê‹ ◊¥ ◊ÈÅÿ „ÊÁŸÿÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∞∑§ „Ò —
(1) ÿ„ Á≈U∑§Ê™§ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò– (2) ÿ„ ‡ÊËÉÊ˝ Ÿ„Ë¥ ¡◊ÃÊ „Ò–
(3) ÿ„ »Í§‹ÃÊ „Ò– (4) ÿ„ ‚ÈÉÊ≈˜Uÿ „Ò–
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RAS-24 / JER 36 D1
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148. Considering the following strengths of concrete, select the correct sequence in increasing order.
i. Cube strength
ii. Cylinder strength
iii. Split tensile strength
iv. Modulus of rupture
∑¥§∑˝§Ë≈U ∑§Ë ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ‚Ê◊âÿÊZ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§⁄Uà „È∞, ’…∏à „È∞ ∑˝§◊ ◊¥ ‚„Ë ∑˝§◊ ∑§Ê øÈÁŸ∞ —
i. ÉÊŸ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸
ii. ’‹Ÿ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸
iii. Áfl÷Êíÿ ߟ ‚Ê◊âÿ¸
iv. ÷¥¡Ÿ ∑§Ê ◊ʬʥ∑§
(1) iii, iv, ii, i (2) iii, iv, i, ii (3) iv, iii, ii, i (4) iv, iii, i, ii
149. For survey of broken boundaries with a plane table most appropriate method will be :
(1) open traversing (2) radiation
(3) intersection (4) resection
募 ≈U’‹ mÊ⁄UÊ ÷ÇŸ ¬Á⁄U‚Ë◊ʕʥ ∑§ ‚fl¸ˇÊáÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚’‚ ©¬ÿÈÄà ÁflÁœ „ÊªË —
(1) ◊ÈÄà ø∑˝§◊áÊ (2) Áfl∑§Ë⁄UáÊ (⁄UÁ«U∞‡ÊŸ)
(3) •¥Ã⁄U¿UŒŸ (4) ¬˝ÁÃë¿UŒŸ
150. The ring beam at the base of circular domes covering the water tanks is subjected to :
(1) compressive forces (2) shear forces
(3) hoop tension (4) bending and torsion
¡‹ ∑§Ë ≈¥U∑§Ë ∑§Ê •Êfl⁄UáÊ ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹Ë flÎûÊÊ∑§Ê⁄U «UÊ◊ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U fl‹ÿ œ⁄UŸ ¬⁄U ‹ªÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ‚¥¬Ë«UŸ ’‹ (2) •¬M§¬áÊ ’‹
(3) ¬Á⁄UœËÿ ߟ (4) ’¥∑§Ÿ •ÊÒ⁄U ∞¥∆UŸ
-o0o-
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RAS-24 / JER 37 D1
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¡ª„ RAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JER RAS-24 / JER 38 D1

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¡ª„ RAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JERRAS24JER RAS-24 / JER 39 D1

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READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY : ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏¥ —
1. The manner in which the different questions are to be answered has been 1. Á¡‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ‚ ÁflÁ÷ÛÊ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ÁŒ∞ ¡ÊŸ „Ò¥ ©‚∑§Ê fláʸŸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ
explained in the Test Booklet which you should read carefully before actually ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò, Á¡‚ •ʬ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ ‚ ¬„‹ äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏
answering the questions. ‹¥–
2. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the correct 2. ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ øÊ⁄U Áfl∑§À¬Ê¥ ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ OMR
answer is to be darkened completely with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen on ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§ ¬Îc∆U-2 ¬⁄U ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ flÎûÊ ∑§Ê „Ë ¬Í⁄UË Ã⁄U„ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’ÊÚ‹ ¬ÊÚßã≈U
Side-2 of the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not liable ¬Ÿ ‚ ÷⁄¥U– ∞∑§ ’Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ©‚ ’Œ‹Ê Ÿ„Ë¥ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ
to be changed. In case more than one circle is darkened, the question „Ò– ∞∑§ ‚ •Áœ∑§ flÎûÊ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ
will not be assessed.
¡Ê∞ªÊ–
3. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not 3. ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øÃ ∑§⁄¥U Á∑§ ß‚ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§Ê ◊Ê«∏Ê Ÿ ¡Ê∞ ∞fl¥ ©‚ ¬⁄U ∑§Ê߸
make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. •ãÿ ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ Ÿ ‹ªÊ∞°– ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ •¬ŸÊ •ŸÈ∑˝§◊Ê¥∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄UÃ
anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
SÕÊŸ ∑§ •ÁÃÁ⁄UÄà •ãÿòÊ Ÿ Á‹π¥–
4. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no 4. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∞fl¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ ¬˝ÿʪ ∑§⁄¥U, ÄÿÊ¥Á∑§ Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë
circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code or Number ¬Á⁄UÁSÕÁà ◊¥ (∑§fl‹ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∞fl¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§ ∑§Ê«U ÿÊ ‚¥ÅÿÊ ◊¥
and Answer Sheet Code or Number), another set will be provided. Á÷ãŸÃÊ ∑§Ë ÁSÕÁà ∑§Ê ¿UÊ«∏∑§⁄U) ŒÍ‚⁄UË ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ©¬‹éœ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÊÿË
5. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet Code and Number as ¡Ê∞ªË–
given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. 5. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê/©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ◊¥ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê«U fl ‚¥ÅÿÊ ∑§Ê
6. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer Sheet. ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ‚„Ë Ã⁄UË∑§ ‚ ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-¬òÊ ◊¥ Á‹π¥–
Hence, no information should be left incomplete and it should not be different 6. OMR ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ◊¥ ∑§ÊÁ«Uà ¡ÊŸ∑§Ê⁄UË ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ◊‡ÊËŸ ¬…∏ªË– ß‚Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸
from the information given in the Admit Card. ÷Ë ‚ÍøŸÊ •œÍ⁄UË Ÿ ¿UÊ«∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ÿ„ ¬˝fl‡Ê-¬òÊ ◊¥ ŒË ªß¸ ‚ÍøŸÊ ‚ Á÷㟠Ÿ„Ë¥
7. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written „ÊŸË øÊÁ„∞–
bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material 7. ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ mÊ⁄UÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ◊¥ ¬˝fl‡Ê-¬òÊ ∑§ Á‚flÊÿ Á∑§‚Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë
except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room. ¬Ê∆K-‚Ê◊ª˝Ë, ◊ÈÁŒ˝Ã ÿÊ „SÃÁ‹Áπà ∑§Êª$¡ ∑§Ë ¬Áø¸ÿʰ, ¬¡⁄U, ◊Ê’Êß‹
8. Mobile phones, wireless communication devices (even in switched off »§ÊŸ, ß‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸ∑§ ©¬∑§⁄UáÊ ÿÊ Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë ∑§Ê ‹ ¡ÊŸ ÿÊ
mode) and the other banned items should not be brought in the examination ©¬ÿʪ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë •ŸÈ◊Áà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
halls/rooms. Failing to comply with this instruction, it will be considered as 8. ◊Ê’Êß‹ »§ÊŸ, ’ÃÊ⁄U ‚¥øÊ⁄U ÿÈÁÄÃÿʰ (ÁSflø •ÊÚ»§ •flSÕÊ ◊¥ ÷Ë) •ÊÒ⁄U •ãÿ
using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them ¬˝ÁÃ’¥ÁœÃ flSÃÈ∞° ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ◊¥ Ÿ„Ë¥ ‹Ê߸ ¡ÊŸË øÊÁ„∞– ß‚ ‚ÍøŸÊ ∑§Ê
including cancellation of examination.
¬Ê‹Ÿ Ÿ „ÊŸ ¬⁄U ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ •ŸÈÁøÃ ‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿʪ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ •ÊÒ⁄U
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. ©Ÿ∑§ ÁflL§h ∑§Êÿ¸flÊ„Ë ∑§Ë ¡Ê∞ªË, Á¡‚◊¥ ©Ÿ∑§Ë ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ⁄Ug ∑§⁄UŸÊ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or „Ò–
Invigilator, should leave his/her seat. 9. ¬Í¿U ¡ÊŸ ¬⁄U ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸, ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê •¬ŸÊ ¬˝fl‡Ê-¬òÊ ÁŒπÊ∞°–
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall/Room without handing 10. ∑§ãŒ˝ •œËˇÊ∑§ ÿÊ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ë Áfl‡Ê· •ŸÈ◊Áà ∑§ Á’ŸÊ ∑§Ê߸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸
over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance •¬ŸÊ SÕÊŸ Ÿ ¿UÊ«∏¥–
Sheet twice. Cases where candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet 11. ∑§Êÿ¸⁄Uà ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê •¬ŸÊ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ÁŒ∞ Á’ŸÊ ∞fl¥ ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-¬òÊ ¬⁄U ŒÈ’Ê⁄UÊ
second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U Á∑§∞ Á’ŸÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ¿UÊ«∏¥ª– ÿÁŒ Á∑§‚Ë
dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ Ÿ ŒÍ‚⁄UË ’Ê⁄U ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-¬òÊ ¬⁄U „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§∞, ÃÊ ÿ„ ◊ÊŸÊ
put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the
¡Ê∞ªÊ Á∑§ ©‚Ÿ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ‹ÊÒ≈UÊÿÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ÿ„ •ŸÈÁøÃ ‚ÊœŸ ∑§Ê
Attendance Sheet.
◊Ê◊‹Ê ◊ÊŸÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ– ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ •¬Ÿ ’Ê∞° „ÊÕ ∑§ •¥ªÍ∆U ∑§Ê ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited. ¬òÊ ◊¥ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U •fl‡ÿ ‹ªÊ∞°–
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examining 12. ß‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸ∑§/„SÃøÊÁ‹Ã ¬Á⁄U∑§‹∑§ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿʪ flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò–
Body with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall/Room. All cases 13. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ◊¥ •Êø⁄UáÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ ‚¥SÕÊ ∑§ ‚÷Ë
of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the ÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∞fl¥ ÁflÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ mÊ⁄UÊ ÁŸÿÁ◊à „Ò¥– •ŸÈÁøÃ ‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§ ‚÷Ë ◊Ê◊‹Ê¥ ∑§Ê
Examining Body.
»Ò§‚‹Ê ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ ‚¥SÕÊ ∑§ ÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∞fl¥ ÁflÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U „ʪʖ
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any 14. Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬Á⁄UÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê߸ ÷ʪ •‹ª
circumstances. Ÿ ∑§⁄¥U–
15. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer 15. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚ê¬ãŸ „ÊŸ ¬⁄U, ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ¿UÊ«∏Ÿ ‚ ¬Ífl¸ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§
Sheet to the Invigilator in the Hall / Room. The candidates are ∑§Ê •fl‡ÿ ‚ÊÒ¥¬ Œ¥– ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê ‹ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã
allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. „Ò¥–
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RAS-24 / JER 40 D1



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Source: Central Board of Secondary Education. Question paper published by Central Board of Secondary Education.