Chhattisgarh Junior Engineer 2018: All papers, Sub Engineer (Electrical / Mechanical) combined recruitment test CSE18
Text of page 1
CSE-\8
SET cAelnoz01/NE JEM/RCE-M SI. No. : 104960
D
Seal of Superintendent of Eenminntion Centre To be filled in by the Candidate using Black or Blue Ballpoint Pen only.
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:
Declaratton Ihave read and understood the instructions given below.
(Signature of Invigilator)
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Turt/Total Marks-150
Tfr i 64
A/No. of Questions-150
Number of Pares in this Booklet-64 Time-3 Hours P
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10. This Question Booklet consists of the following two Parts:
PIR8T PART (A) : Common Questions for all
Q. Nos.
1-100
(1) IEe MAE Ia, (2) ATCe UT44 YITa, (3) VE3 Af74, (1) Applied Physics, (2) Applied Chemistry, (3) Applied
Mechanícs, (4) Strength of Material.
(u) wte rtfatn, (2) ifue. rèfaa (tfautn, (3) rta (1) Thermal Engineering. (2) Basic Electrical engineering,
Aufzn, (4) rut, (5) vàt
fs uyhu, (6) *« nt.fru ts (3) Electromagnetism, (4) Transformer, (5) Theory of
Machines, (6) Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics
frtra wrm (B) : rfaA 8ECOND PART (B): Electrical Q. Nos.
101-150
(C): 4.f4A y4 de 101-150 (C): Mechanical Q. Nos. 101-150
Piret Part ls compulsory. Choose any one from Second
Part (B) and (C).
11. In case of any ambiguity in Hindi version, the English
version shall be considered authentic.
/13-D
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Text of page 2
FIRST PART (A) / gAA Ym (A)
-
1. Which of the following is not a 1. fAfefaa à
ISH-SI yf
precipitate in lime-soda process?
(A) Al(OH) 3 (A) Al(OH)3
(B) CaCO3 (B) CaCO3
(C) Fe(0H)3 (C) Fe(OH)3
(D) Alz(SO 4)3 (D) Al2(SO4)3
2. In zeolite process, which type of ions
are removed?
(A) Cations (A) ca
(B) Anions (B)
A
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) (A) 3ir (B)
(D) None of the above
3. Ion-exchange resin is made from fa
which of the following polymers?
3. 34-GHHtfa fefa
(A) Polypropylene (A) qifeyyIgctt
(B) Styrene-Divinylbenzene eH
copolymer
(B) RIgt¬-fsagfti-sta
(C) Polyethylene (C) vfeTqfrcta
(D) Polyvinyl alcohol (D) iftfaAIgA 31c<AE
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4. Which statement about eutro
phication is not true?
(A)
It is a phenomenon of nutrient
enrichment of a water body.
(B) Human activities are mainly
(B)
H7 fafafuat faarqet qafrhzg
responsible for eutrophication.
(C)
(C) BOD gfa fery gfvA
Eutrophication is responsible
for increase of BOD.
(D) Plants and algae don't grow
well.
5. According to EPA, which one is not 5. EPA yarfas, H-I B: VHa vyi
among six major pollutants?
(A) Ozone (A)
iia
(B) Carbon dioxide (B) 14H SI3GHSS
(C) Carbon monoxide (C) 1dT tTHISS
(D) Nitrogen oxides (D) IsgIH 3RHIS
6. Soil erosion can be prevented by
(A) overgrazing (A)
3ftus
(B) deforestation
(C) afforestation (C) qU
(D) removal of vegetation (D) tg
Tf
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7. If the kinetic energy of the body
becomes four times its initial value,
then the new momentum will be
(A) twice the initial value
(B) three times the initial value
(C) four times the initial value
(D) 3rfafda
(D) unchanged
8. One watt is equal to
(A) O-1 /to
(A) 0-1 Joule/s
(B) 1
/Ào
(B) 1
Joule/s
(C) 10 Joule/s
(C) 10 /to
(D) 100 ga/to
(D) 100 Joule/s
9. The potential energy of a mass m kg
raised through a height h metres is
(A) mh A
(A) mh newton
(B) gh newton (B) gh A
(C) ½ mgh newton (C) ½ mgh eA
A
(D) mgh newton (D) mgh
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10. The maximum mechanical
advantage of a lifting machine is
1
1
(A)
m (A)
m
(B) m
(B) m
(C) 1+ m
(C) 1+m
(D) 1-m (D) 1-m
11. The velocity ratio of a first system of
pulleys with 4 pulleys is
(A) 4
(A) 4
(B) 8
(B) 8
(C) 12
(C) 12
(D) 16
(D) 16
12. The velocity ratio of a simple wheel
and an axle with D and
respectively as the diameters of
efort wheel and load axle, is
(A) D+d (A) D+d
(B) D-d (B) D- d
(C) Dxd (C) Dx d
(D) D/d (D) D/d
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13. The pitch ofa toothed wheel, wherc
d= diameter of the pitch circle and
T= no. of teeth on the whecl, is
(A)
Td
Td
(A) T
T
(B) T/d
(B) mT/d
(C) (C) n/Td
n/Td
(D) T/ nd (D) T/nd
14. The power transmitted by a belt is
maximum when the maximum
tension in the belt is equal to
(A) centrifugal tension
(B) two times of centrifugal tension
(C) three times of centrifugal
tension
(D) four times of centrifugal tension
15. Which of the following circles is an
imaginary circle in the study of
toothed gears? (A) fg HÁT
(A) Pitch circle (B)
ŠS4 HhT
(B) Dedendum circle (C) šSH HÁT
(C) Addendum circle
(D) 3
(D) All of the above
16. Which type of gearbox is used in
automobiles?
(A) Synchromesh
gearbox (A) fegatT 4-aTH
(B) Sliding mesh gearbox (B) Igfš A ffrer-afH
(C) Differential gearbox (C)
fttIAT fT-aH
(D) All of the above
(D) 3
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17. A load of 1
kN acts on a bar having 17. a4-t447 08 cm2
cross-sectional area 0-8 cm and 10 cm yeh 35 4 1
kN 51
length 10 cm, the stress developed
in the bar is
(A) 12-5 N/mm?
(A) 12:5 N/mm2
(B) 25 N/mm? (B) 25 N/mm?
(C) 50 N/mm? (C) 50 N/mm?
(D) 75 N/mm ? (D) 75 N/ mm
18. When a wire stretched to double its
length, the longitudinal strain
produced in it is
(A) 0-5 (A) 0-5
(B) 1-0 O1
(B) 1·0
(C) 1:5
(C) 15
(D) 2-0 (D) 2-0
19. The stress at which extension of a
material takes place more quickly as
compared to increase in load is
called
(A) elastic point
(B) plastic point
(B) GRA YSZ
(C) yield point (C)
irs sz
(D) breaking point (D)
fa ie
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20. The increase in length of a bar, 20.
length L, area A, modulus of
elasticity E due to load Pis given by
PL PL
(A) (A)
A²E A2E
PL PL
(B) (B)
AE AE
PLA PLA
(C) (C)
E E
(D) AE (D)
AE
PL PL
21. The ratio of lateral strain to linear
strain is called
(A) modulus of elasticity
(B) modulus of rigidity
(B) 4igcH 3ÍS fAffse
(C) bulk modulus
(C) rh HÍGTH
(D) Poisson's ratio (D) aHa RI
22. Within elastic limnit, when a tensile
force P acts on the body, the change
in length is given by
[P= GT, l= iIŠ, A =HAT, E -1
force, l length, A = area,
=
|P=
E=
Young's modulus ]
Pl (A)
Pl
(A)
AE AE
AE (B)
(B)
Pl Pl
PE (C)
PE
(C)
Al Al
PA PA
(D) (D)
E IE
E
f
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23. When a force applied over a
body,
the deformation per unit
called
length is
(A) fazfa
(A) strain
(B) (B) vffaa
stress
(C) tensile stress (C) 4 Tfraa
(D) None of
the above
24. The relation among modulus of 24. YTTAI TuTH (C)
elasticity (E), modulus of rigidity (C)
and Poisson's ratio is
(A)
(B)
(D) B-3c(2+
25. Hfzfu
25. Impact tests are used in studying
the strength of material.
(A) compressive
(B) tensile (B) 4
(C) toughness (C)
r
(D) None of the above (D) 3gh Ti
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26. Name of the test performed on the
brittle materials like stone, concrete
and cast iron, is
(A) compression test
(B) tensile test (B) 7 qu
(C) impact test (C) g
(D) torsion test (D) ts4 ta
27. A heat engine receives 1000 kJ of
heat and produces 600 kJ of work. 27. r4 54 1000 kJ SE1 TH aI 3Ân
The amount of heat rejected in kJ 600 kJ 6TÝ JYA FHAI
and the efficiency percentage of the
tsd 51
engine, respectively will be
(A) 400, 40%
(A) 400, 40%
(B) 600, 60%
(C) 600, 40% (B) 600, 60%
(D) 400, 60%
(C) 600, 40%
28. A heat engine is a device that (D) 400, 60%
operates on a thermodynamic cycle
(A) to convert the heat supplied into
work energy under reversible
condition
(B) to produce useful work fromn the
heat received from a source and
also rejects the remaining heat
to the sink under all conditions
(C) to produce useful work from the
heat received from a source and
alsoreject the remaining heat to
the sink under reversible
condition
(D) to convert the heat supplied into
complete work energy under all
conditions
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29. The efficiency of a Carnot engine
depends on
(A) type of fuel
(B) size of engine
(C) design of engine
(D) temperature of source and sink
30. Second law of thermodynamics
defines
(A) entropy
(B) enthalpy (B)
(C) heat (C) GT
8
(D) work (D) ar
31. Which of the following is the unit of
entropy?
(A) J/kg K (A) J/kg K
(B) Nm/kg sec (B) Nm/kg sec
(C) J/kg (C) J/kg
(D) Nm/sec (D) Nm/sec
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, 34aqy atat
32. In an isothermal process, the heat
32. HHart yfa H
transfer is
(A) more than the work transfer
(B) equal to the work transfer
(B) r 34au aqAI
(C) less than the work transfer
(D) less than or equal to the work
transfer
33. As per the first law of
thermodynamics, when any system
confined within a boundary is
carried through a series of operation
such that the final state is same as
the initial state, then
(A) the net work transfer is lower
than the net heat transfer
(B) the net work transfer is equal to
or higher than the net heat
transfer
(C) the net work transfer is higher
than the net heat transfer
(D) the net work transfer is equal to
the net heat transfer 34. a fafRTe 4, C, y C,, q Hau
34. The relationship between two
specific heats, CpP and C, is Cp
(A) =y-1
Cy
(A) =y-1
Cy
(B) Cp -C, =
=R
(B) Cp -Cy
=J
J (C) Cp -C,
(C) Cp-Cy = R
R
(D) Cp +Cy =J
(D) C, + C, =J
R
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°C arq4G
35. What will be the volume of air at 35. qf qY hT 314dH 27
1.5 m3 a, at ag I 31YdT 327
°C
327 °C, if its volume at 27 °C is
1-5 m³p
(A) 3 m3 (A) 3 m3
(B) 1-5 m3 (B) 1-5 m3
(C) 6 m3 (C) 6
m3
(D) 10 m3 (D) 10 m3
36. Which of the following statements is 36. Afeifga -H TA4 TITT 3?
incorrect ?
(A) Work is high-grade energy.
(B) Work and heat are not
equivalent form of energies.
(C) Heat is low-grade energy.
(D) Heat is high-grade energy. c
37. The correct form of Ohm's law is
(A) V IR (A) V = IR
(B) V =I (B) V =I
(C) I= VR (C) I= VR
(D) Both (A) and, (B) (D) (A) qd (B)
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38. Kirchhoff's voltage law is
concerned 38. fais faya fry ifua
with (A) IR faz
(A) IR drop (B) zt $o o 5o
(B) battery e.m.f. (C) fu faya
(C) junction voltage
(D) (A)TT (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
39. In the following network, the value 12 2
30 2
of current I is
30 2 12 Q
20 2 22
W
20 2 22
16 V
HH
16 V
(A) 1 amp
(A) 1 f
(B) 0-5 t
(B) 0-5 amp
(C) 2 t
(C) 2 amp
(D) None of the above (D) 34y5À Ti
40. Three resistors, each of R ohms, are
connected to form a triangle. The
resistance between Th any two
terminals will be
(A) R
(A) R
(B) 2
(B) 2
R R
(C) 3R (C) 3R
R
(D) (D)
GUE
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41. If the diameter of a wire is halved, its
carrying capacity will become
approximately
(A) H4TH
(A) same
(B) 4 T-f
(B) 4 times
(C)
(C) gt
time
(D) 2 T-ft
(D) 2 times
42. The e.m.f. induced in a coil rotating
in a
uniform magnetic field is
maximum when the flux linkage by ferh
the coil is
(A) 3sfuaH
(A) maximum
H
(B)
(B) minimum
(C) zero (C)
(D) Cannot be said
04
43. Mutual inductance between two
magnetically coupled coils depends
On
A
(A) permeability of the core
8)
(B) the number of their turns
(C) cross-sectional area of their
Common core
(D) All of the above
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500 turns solenoid develops an
V
44. A 44. 500 5
iss 60 3A4a
average induced voltage of 60 V.
Over what time interval must a flux
change of 0-06 Wb occur to produce
such a voltage?
(A) 0-01 th3
(A) 0-01 sec
(B) 0-1 HAS
(B) 0-1 sec
(C) 0-5 sec (C) 0-5 thg
(D) 5 sec (D) 5 tks
45. Power factor of which of the
following circuits will be unity? a?
(A) Inductance (A) $sZa
(B) Capacitance
(C) Resistance (C) sfadu
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(D) (A) aT (B)
T
O00
W
46. While measuring power in
three-phase balanced circuit by two
wattmeter-method, the readings of
the twO wattmeters are equal and
opposite, when
(A) power factor is unity
power factor is zero
(B) viR her y
(B)
s
(C) load is pure inductive
(C)
faa sfa
(D) Both (B) and (C) (D) (B) TAT (C) At
TE
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of
47. In an ordinary transformer, which
the following does not change?
(A)
(A) Voltage
(B)
(B) Current
(C) 3rgfr
(C) Frequency
(D) All of the above
48. The full-load copper loss and iron a 5000 w
loss of a transformer are 6400 W
BIfA 54T: 6400 W
and5000 W respectively. The copper
loss andiron loss at half-load will be
W
(A) 3200 W ya 2500
(A) 3200 W and 2500 W
(B) 3200 W yG 5200 W
(B) 3200 W and 5200 W
(C) 1600 W yT 1250 W
(C) 1600 W and 1250 W
(D) 1600 W yG 5000 W
(D) 1600 W and 5000 W
49. Which of the following is not a part
of DC machine? bas LAEi ?
(A) Armature
(A)
3Tr
(B) Commutator (B) r
(C) Field winding (C) frs aIsfT
(D) Damping winding (D) 1 aIsfšT
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50. The dircction of rotation of DC shunt
motor Can be reversed by
interchanging
(A) the supply terminal
(B) rag zffa f
(B) the field terminal
(C) the armature terminal only
(C)
frt ArT zftA ft
(D) ilg I AT zffrA fi
(D) cither the ficld or the armature
terminal
51. The speed of rotor of induction
motor is always
(A) less than synchronous spccd (B) ftziH fa à ftra
(B) more than synchronous speed
(C) equal to synchronous speed
(D) Cannot be said
52. Kinematic chain made up of 8 links
will have how many pairs?
(A) 6
(A) 6
(B) 8
(B) 8
(C) 9
(C) 9
(D) 11
(D) 11
53. The number of instantaneous centre
of four-bar mechanismn ís .30
(A) 2
(A) 2
(B) 4 (B) 4
(C)
(C) 6 6s
(D) 8 (D) 8
UE
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In cam profile, the circle with the
a 54. FaI
54.
least radius is called
(A) 37T gd
(A) base circle
(B) Vya gT
(B) prime circle
(C) fra Ja
(C) pitch circle
(D) cam circle
(D) 4 Ta
55. On which of the following machine 55.
parts, a lywheel is fitted?
(A) Crank shaft
(B) Crank
(B) h
(C) Connecting rod
(C) H
B
(D) Cross head (D) Y
56. The range of speed for an
isochronous governor is
(A) zerO (A)
(B) maximum (B) fahdH
(C) constant value (C) AG HH
(D) infinite (D) 3THd
57. Lap is made up of which material?
(A) Carbon steel (A) 144 FIG
(B)
(B) Alloy steel f FTA
(C) Grey cast iron
(D) High-speed steel (D) 3- 3a
58. The longitudinal movement of tools
on a turret head is controlled by
(A) index plate
(B) hand wheel of saddle
(C) stop bars and feed trips
(D) gear lever
(D) fr tar aI
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59. Maximum friction is developed in
which of the following milling
operations?
(A) Key-way milling (A) f-ri freftu
(B) End milling (B)
3e frcfty4
(C) Down/climb milling (C) 3r4:/3Ta frcfza
(D) Conventional/up /slab milling
(D) 53/3vf/faren fAreftua
60. The specific energy consumption in
electrochemical machining process
is approximately how may times
more than conventional machining
process?
(A) 250
(A) 250
(B) 150 (B) 15O
(C) 50 (C) 50
(D) 10 (D) 10
61. Diameter jig is used for
(A) to make holes
in a large part at
equal spacing
(B) making radial holes in
cylindrical and spherical
workpiece
(C) making holes from different
angles
(D) making holes on circular
flanged parts
ferg
62. Piezometer is used for
(A) to measure pressure in pipes
and canals
62. fiTtr I 34um sla
(B) to measure pressure difference
between two points
(C) to measure atmospheric
Ht pressure
(D) to measure very low pressures
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63. Due to which property, mercury 63.
does not wet the surface of glass?
(A) THdI
(A) Viscosity
H
(B)
(B) Cohesion
(C) 3TH
(C) Adhesion
THA
(D) y8
(D) Surface tension
64. Which is the best device to measure 64.
the velocity of flow in rivers?
(A) Pitot tube
(B) t
(B) Piezometer
(C) Venturimeter () gtrta
(D) TRfbH
(D) Orifice meter
65. Which of the following does. inot
relate to a centrifugal pump?
(A) Foot valve (A) ye aled
(B) Draft tube
(C) Delivery valve
(D) Suction valve (D) HA Ald
&.lod
66. A reciprocating pump has negative
slip, this means
(A) pump is leaking
cta
(B) there is separation (B)
(C) theoretical discharge is more (C) afa% fà tgifts fa
than actual discharge
(D) actual discharge is more than
theoretical discharge
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67. If the relation between two non-zero
vectors A and B is given by the
relation
-
|+ B|=| B|
then the angle between the two (A) 120°
vectors is
(A) 120° (B) 90°
(B) 90 (C) 60
(C) 60°
(D) 0°
(D) 0°
68. In an uniform circular motion
(A) both velocity and acceleration
remain constant
(B) acceleration and speed remain
constant but velocity changes
(C) both acceleration and velocity
change
(D) both acceleration and speed are
constant
69. If the units of length and force are
increased four times each, then the
unit of energy is increased (A) 4 y
(A) 4 times (B) 16 J
(B) 16 times
(C) 8 y
(C) 8 times
(D) No increase
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Text of page 23
R 73. fhtf R
73. For a gas, =0-67. The gas must fe,
Cv Cy
be
(A) fauryes
(A) diatomic
(B) fryje.
(B) triatomic
(C) mixture of monoatomic and
diatomic
(D) *4HIUR
(D) monoatomic
74. SI unit of gas constant is
(A)
(A) calorie/°C reirt ufa fstt àfrua
(B) joule/mole
(C) joule/k mole
(D)
(C) Tvfa faci g
joule/kg
(D) vfa feho jo
75. Let V, Vms. Vp respectively denote
the mean speed, root-mean-square
speed and most probable speed of
the molecules in an ideal
3t SHH4.alA HRT: V, Vms, Vp I
Inonoatomic gas at absolute
temperature T. The masS of a
molecule is m. Then
rms
(A) no molecule can have energy
greater than y2 Vms
(B) no molecule can have speed less
than
(C) Vp >V> Vrms (C) V, > V> Vrms
(D) the average kinetic energy of a
molecule is
3
4
mv mv ta
H TE
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/13-D 25 EI\M MA| P.T.O.
Text of page 24
76. Volume versus temperature graphs 76. yqh
à fafa
for a given mass of an ideal gas are
shown in figure given below at two
different values of constant pressure
P) and p. What can be inferred
about the relation between p) and ,P2
P2?
,P2 P1
ul)
ul)
T[K)
T(K)
(A) Pi > P2
(A) P1 > P2
(B) P1 = P2
(B) P1 = P2
1
(C) p < P2
(C) p1 <
P2
(D) HH 3Aquty
(D) Data is insufficient
77. When a monochromatic ideal gas
er absorbs AQ heat at a constant
pressure, then which one is true?
(A) AQ:AU:AW =7:5:2
(A) AQ:AU:AW =7:5:2
(B) AQ:AU:AW (B) AQ :AU:AW
=5:3:2 =5:3:2
(C) AQ :AU:AW =4:3:1 (C) AQ :AU:AW =
4:3:1
(D) AQ :AU:AW =7:5:3 (D) AQ:AU :AW =7:5:3
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/13-D 26
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thermally 78. 34K TT y fatTe Ha 3TYA AIe
M
78. A insulated vessel
contains an ideal gas of molecular
mass M and ratio of specific heats Y.
It is moving with speed v and is
suddenly brought to rest. Assuming
no heat is lost to the surroundings,
its temperature increases by
(Y-1) My2 (A)
(y-1) Mu2
(A) K -K
2 (y+ 1)R 2 (y + 1)R
(Y
-1) MU²K (Y - 1)
(B) (B) Mu²K
2 yR 2 yR
(C)
YM?
K
2R (C) -K
2R
(D)
(r-1) Mu²K
2R (D) (r-1) Mu²K
2R
79. In a thermodynamic process, the
pressure of a fixed' mass of a gas is
changed in such a manner that the
gas releases 20 J of heat and 8J of
work is done on the gas. If the initial
internal energy of the gas was 30 J,
then the final internal energy will be
(A) 25J T
(A) 25
(B) 42 J (B) 42 T
(C) 18 J (C) 18 T
(D) 58 J
(D) 58 L00I
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/ 13-D 27 -81\1
Text of page 26
(y = 1. 4) >
80. A mass of
diatomic gas (y =1·4) at a 80. 5 furys fu
pressure of 2 atmosphere is
compressed adiabatically so that its
I Î
temperature rises from 27 °C to 27 °C 4Gh 927 °C E TI
927 'C. The pressure of the gAs in
the final state is
(A)
(A) 8 arqvgef
8 atmosphere
(B)
(B) 28 aygrgefu
28 atmosphere
(C) (C) 68-7 arurgcfa
68-7 atmosphere
(D) 256 atmosphere
(D) 256 rqrgef
81. zAT
feH HAT 10 °C (r =1-4) arg
81. A quantity air at of
=14) is 10 °C (y
compressed slowly to one-third of its
initial volume. The change in
temperature of air is (A) 30 °C
(A) 30 'C (B) 60 °C
(B) 60 °C (C) 15 °C
(C) 15 C (D) fada i TI
(D) No change
82. 1
mole mnonoatonic ideal gas is
heated from 0 °C to 80°C at
constant normal pressure. The heat
given to the gas is 1·0 k-joule. Find
out the work done by the gas and
the change in its internal energy.
[Given : Gas constant R = 8-3 joule/
mole.K]
(A) 299 J, 1
J (A) 299 i, 1 I
(B) 498 ,
(B) 498 J, 2 J 2 I
(C) 996 J, 4 J (C) ,
996 4 I
(D) 1992 J, 8
J (D) 1992 T, 8 H
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INEJEM/RCE-M/13-D 28
Text of page 27
83. A copper block of mass 2:5 kg is
heated in a furnance to a
temperature of 500 °C and then
placed on a large ice block. The
maximum amount of ice that can
melt is
(Specific heat of copper = (afa a fafTe 5U 0-39 Jg-l oc-l
=
0-39 Jg-loc-l 335 Jg)
Heat of fusion of ice = 335 Jg) (A) 4-875 fho To
(A) 4-875 kg o
(B) 1:455 fho
(B) 1:455 kg
(C) 3:35 kg
(C) 3:35 feho IIo
(D) 9-658 kg (D) 9-658 fho TTo
84. Steam at 100 °C is passed into 20g 84. 100°C uq t 10 °C q 20 T qf
of water at 10 °C. When water
acquires a temperature of 80 °C, the
mass of water present will be
= 1
(Take specific heat of water
= ( fafTe c1ft/ua/°C
l cal
g
c-l
=
and latent heat of steam (A) 24 IH
540cal g)
(B) 31-5 rA
(A) 24 g
(C) 22-5 UTH sls oC.sn
(B) 31-5 g
(C) 22-5 g (D) 42:5 YTA
(D) 42-5 g
a
85. In adiabatic process, volume of
monoatomic gas increases by 6%.
Find the percentage change in
|feen : 1-062/* = 1-04 ]
temperature (approx).
[Given : (1-06)2/ =1-04) (A) -2%
(A) -2% (B) -4%
(B) -4%
(C) 2%
(C) 2%
(D) 4%
(D) 4%
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/13-D 29
Text of page 28
#
thermodynamic 86.
86. VWe
system.
consider a
represents
If AU the
ari W ,
increase in its internal energy and W
the work done by the system, then
which of the following statements is
true?
HHATGty yu
(A) AU= -W in an adiabatic (B) AU = W ch
process
A = -W e5 HH
(C)
(B) AU = W in an isothermal
process
(D) AU
=
W #
ba4 y5R
(C) AU= -W in an isothermal
process
(D) AU= W in an adiabatic process
87. Melting point of pure metal (A) yeT
upon alloying. a
l
(B) 4GT
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) has no effect S01 (D) 3grhi
(D) None of the above
88. 3 g
88. Wood's metal is an alloy of. and
is used for
(A) Bi, Pb, Sn, Cd
(A) Bi, Pb, Sn, Cd
(B) Al, Pb, Sn (B) Al, Pb, Sn
(C) Bi, Sn, Al (C) Bi, Sn, Al
(D) None of the above
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/13-D 30
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89. Brass and Bronze are alloys of
which metals?
(A) Cu, Zn and Fe, Zn
(A) Cu, Zn 4I Fe, Zn
(B) Fe, Cu and Fe, Zn (B) Fe, Cu 4 Fe, Zn
(C) Cu, Zn and Cu, Sn (C) Cu, Zn 41 Cu, Sn
(D) Zn, Fe and Cu, Fe (D) Zn, Fe Cu, Fe
90. Which alloy has widespread utility 90. f4 fazurg ft fara stu afžtatsa àA
in aircraft and automobile scctor?
(A) Wood's metal
(B) Brass (B) faa
(C) Magnalumin (C) Aurgfa
(D) Duralumin (D) RIqa
91. Which statement is not true for
froth floatation process?
(A) Principle of froth floatation
process lies in wetting
properties of ore and gangue
particles with water and oil.
(B) Sulphide ore particles are
wetted only by oil.
(C) The ore particles settle at the
bottom and the impurities are
removed by froth.
(D) Pulverized ore is fed into tank of
water containing small amount
of pine oil and soap,
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92. fery
92. Zone refining is used for prepar5
highly pure metals such as
(A) Cu, Fe
(A) Cu, Fe
(B) Zn, Cu
(B) Zn, Cu
(C) Si, Ge (C) Si, Ge
(D) Fe, Zn (D) Fe, Zn
93. Which metal oxide is volatile in
nature?
93. voÍa -t
(A) Fez03
(A) Fe 203
(B) MoO3
(B) MoO3
(C) NiO (C) NiO
(D) Cuzo (D) Cuz0
94. In Galvanic series, electrode
potentials are measured by using
which electrode as reference
electrode?
GIGI ?
(A) Standard hydrogen electrode
(B) Mercury electrode
(C) Zinc electrode
(D) Calomel electrode
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95. Rate of corrosion of anodic region
directly varies with
(A) area of cathode
(B) area of anode (B) s HI
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) (A) 3r (B) i
(D) None of the above
96. Vitreous enamels are not resistant
to 96. aa fHcAI sfaief ži
?
(A) hydrochloric acid
A
(B) sulphuric acid (B) Hts
(C) hydrofluoric acid (C) EREIqents ra
(D) nitric acid 3ilon (D) IS5 34FT
97. Which one of the following is a
secondary fuel?
(A) Natural gas
(B) ar
(B) Biogas
(C) Crude oil
(C) 34I
(D) tatferH
(D) Petroleum
H
f yZ
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33 Ccli4 308
8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/ 13-D
Text of page 32
faetes
98. Which one of the following is not an 98.
explosive? (A) 311o Sto
yHo
.
(A) RDX
(B) to
(B) TNT
(C)
o
(C) GMT
(D) to to yo
(D) GTN
99. External treatment of water does
not inlude Ti AT ?
(A) zeolite process
(A) fr3IZ AU
(B) colloidal conditioning process
(C) ion-exchange process (C) 3414--GeH
(D) line-soda process (D) IEY-HS àH
100. Hardness of 1 million litres of water
was removed by using zeolite
softner. The zeolite softner then
required 2500 L of NaCl solution
containing 150 g/L_of NaCl for 2500 ia NaC ât 3TGRyoall 4Ì, fHH
regeneration. Then what is the 150 g/L NaCi àI t hoRal ppm
hardness of water in ppm? fhdi?
(A) 320-5 (A) 320-5
(B) 150
(B) 150
(C) 250-5
(C) 250-5
(D) 300
(D) 300
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34
Text of page 33
SECOND PART (B) / tai T
(B)
ELECTRICAL / 3eecehtT
101. If the peak value of phase m.m.f. is
F,
max the peak value of the rotating F,
max
field caused by three-phase is
(A) Fmax 1
(A) 5max.
(B) Fmax
,
(C) 3-Fmax (B) Fmax
(D) 3F max () Fmax
102. In brushless excitation for
an
(D) 3Fmax
alternator, the armature and field
windings of main exciter are iecggu
mounted on
(A) armature on stator and field
winding on rotor
(B) armature On rotor and field
winding on stator
(C) armature and field windings
both are on stator
(D) armature and field windings
both are on rotor
103. In a synchronous machine, the
voltage induced by armature
reaction flux acts like the voltage
drop in
(A) jsÍa fùt
(A) inductive reactance qila (B) tfRA
(B) resistance (C) ferfza rÜRH
(C) capacitive reactance
(D) ssfaza FÍtH
(D) inductive impedance
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104. In an induction motor, the rotor ficld
runs with respect to the stator
(A) at synchronous speed in the (A)
same direction as the stator
field
(B)
(B) at synchronous spced in
opposite direction to the rotor
ficld
(C) at slip specd in the same
direction as the stator field (D)
(D) at slip speed in opposite
direction to the stator field
105. As resistance is added in the rotor
circuit of a slip-ring IM
(A) its max torque increases but
occurs at the same slip
(B) its max torque decreases. but
occurs at the same slip
(C) its max torque remains the
same but occurs at lower slip
(D) its max torque remains the
same but occurs at higher slip
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106. The output line in an induction
motor circle diagram is the line
joining the tip of
(A) the no-load Current phasor
to the point corresponding to
slip = oo
(B) the no-load current phasor to
the point corresponding to
slip = 1 =
(C) i-afe te ht fTY
(C) the short-circuit current phasor
to the point corresponding to
slip =oo (D) yi-Hfhe te a fRTY = 1
(D) the short-circuit current phasor
to the point corresponding to
slip =1
107. The starting current of an induction 4% tI gI
motor is five times the full-load
current while the full-load slip is
4%. The ratio of starting torque to
full-load torque is (A) 06
(A) 0-6EFR 0LL
(B) 08
(B) 0:8y s fs ,F A)
(C) 1:0
(D) 1-2 oh
(D) 1:2
GUR
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108. If the stator impedance is neglected,
the maximum torque of an induction
motor occurs at a slip of
(= rotor resistance and xo = rotor
rcactance)
(A) S=1
(A) S=l
(B) S
2 (B) S=
(C)
S=/r l X2 (C) S=r2 /x2
(D) None of the above
109. Regarding skewing of rotor bars
in a squirrel-cage induction motor,
which of the following statements is
false?
(A) It reduces motor humming
noise during operations.
(B) It produces more uniform hrol
torque.
(C) It increases starting torque.
(D) It prevents cogging.
110. The power factor of a
squirrel-cage
induction motor is
(A)
(A) low at light loads
only f, fers gret s
(B) low at rated load l 0 (B) AH, fAufta
(C) low at light and rated
is
loads both
(D) None of the above
(C) f, g ruita si
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38
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111. In an induction motor at rated spccd
the rotor core loss is
(A) negligible (A) u
(B) equal to stator core loss
(C) higherthan stator core loss
(D) None of the above
112. HVDC transmission lines are
preferred due to
(A) high skin effect
(B) asynchronous inter-connection (B)
UTH FA-G4
(C) slow fault clearance
(D) consume more reactive power
113. Which type(s) of filter(s) is/are used
in HVDCsystem?
(A) Only AC (A) fers o to
(B) Only DC (B)
T$ sto tto
(C) AC and DC stg
(D) None of the above
114. Which type of HVDC link is mostly
preferred?
(A) Monopolar (A)
Her
(B) Bipolar (B)
ER
(C) Homopolar la
(C)
aIAI4ia
(D) None of the above
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Text of page 38
115. Which of the following statements 115. faga
is true for cost versus distance
graph of transmission line?
(A) AC is more cconomical after (A) -347 gt
break-cven distance.
(B) DC is more cconomical bcforc (B) 6-34A gtt yd sto
break-cven distancc.
(C) AC and DC arc not cconomical (C)
at break-cven distance.
(D) DC is more cconomical after
brcak-even distance.
116. Which of the following devices is
not a part of an HVDC system?
(A) Converter unit
(B) Converter transformer (B)
4 ziTÁK
(C) Smoothing reactor
(C) ftrr
(D) Power transformer
(D)
f6 ziesft
117. The use of feedback diode in SCR
inverter circuit is to
(A) pass the load current
(B) feed energy to the source iqo
(C) feed energy to the load
(D) None of the above
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118. Which of the following typcs of
commutation is applicd in high
frequcncy inverter?
(A)
(A) Self-commutation te5-*2
(B) Load commutation
(B)
s ÍTA
(C) Rcsonancc pulsc commutation
(D) Complementary commutation
(D)
*ifitzt níeat
119. aá 3ASZe feruet Hgf fH
119. The frcqucncy of output signal in
inverter depends on
(A) conduction period of diode s
(B) conduction period of SCR
(C) Total on-off period of SCR
(D) turn-off period of SCR)
T9ortborw
120. In three-phase inverter, the short
circuit through SCR of the same leg
is avoided by
S
(A) three-phase 180° mode (A) 180° g-h
(B) three-phase 120° mode (B) 120° gf-h 4s
s
(C) 60° gh-h
(C) three-phase 60° mode
(D) 90° git-h HS s
(D) three-phase 90° mode
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41 EtM5
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zye zf
121. The capacitor across input terminals 121, gf-h at
of three-phase bridge inverter of
(A) low value and keep input d.c.
voltage constant
(B) high value and keep input d.c.
voltage constant
(C) low value and provide variable
input d.c.
(D) high value and provide variable
input d.c.
122. In chopper circuit, free wheeling
diode is used to pass
(A) line current when chopper is ON
(B) load current when chopper
is OFF
(C) line current whenm chopper
is OFF
(D) load current when chopper
is ON
123. The output voltage of chopper does
not depend on
(A)
(A) duty cycle S HIHET
(B)
(B) chopping frequency aiT 31fa
(C) s
(C) load current yI
(D) input voltage
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JEM/RCE-M/13.D 42
8201/NE
Text of page 41
124. Which of
the following is not a type
of chopper?
(A)
Buck converter
(B) Boost converter (B) R
hatr
(C) Buck-Boost converter (C) %-3qe BaEt
(D) Cycloconverter (D) 5Rr-aat
125. By using pulse width modulation
control in chopper, the effect is
(A) harmonics increases
(B) harmonics decreases
(C) power factor decreases
(D) None of the above
126. Which of the following types of
chopper is suitable for motoring
and regenerative breaking action of
DC motors?
(A) Type A chopper
(A) 'A'yAR H| K
(B) Type B chopper (B) B' yR aI
(C) Type C chopper
(D) Type D chopper
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127. Zener diode is suitable for voltage 127.
regulation, because it provides
(A) constant voltage before reverse (4) farf
breakdown
(B) fai
(B) constant voltage after rcverse
breakdown (C)
(C) variable voltage before reverse
breakdown (D)
(D) variable voltage after reverse
brcakdown
128. yafa viq HTIÉ
128. The main advantage of SMPS over
conventional power supply is
(A) low output ripple
(B) low radio interference
(C) small size and high efficiency
(D) high sensitive to input
129. The output voltage of shunt-voltage
regulator using transistor
Zener is represented by
(A) Vout =Vzener -Vbe
(A) Vout =Vzener - Vbe
(B) Vout = Vyener + Vbe (B) Vout =
Vzener+Vbe
(C) Vout = Vin +IRseries
(C) Vout = Vin
t IRseries
(D) Vout = Vin - Vzener (D) Vout =
Vin-Vzener
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130. VWhich of the following represcnts
shunt regulator using Zener
controlled transistor?
R R
(A) (A) RL
Ri
R R
w (B) RL
(B)
R
R
w
(C) RL
(C) RL
R
R
hne oieltn.
W
RL
(D) RL
(D)
ulomt IO1. lo
131. The output voltage of series voltage
regulator using Zener and transistor
is given by
- Vz uet
sesp Von9(A) Vo= Vbe
(A) V = Vbe'-Ve
ei 1 (B) V,= Vbe + Vz
(B) V, = Vbe +
V
(C) V,= Vdb -Vz be
(C) V,= Vcb -Vz
V, = Vcb
(D) V,= Veb + Vz
(D) t Vz
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Text of page 44
3410
132. An SCR chopper circuit supplies
power to d.C. motor. The nature of
motor armature Current will be (A) Thy
(A) sinusoidal
(B) exponential rise and decay (C) fR
(C) constant
(D) None of the above
133. io flo Í
133. In speed control of d.c. motor by d.c.
chopper circuit, the elimination of
discontinuous conduction region
improves
(A) fd frea
(A) speed regulation
(B) #frs Azfr4I
(B) transient response
(C) both the speed regulation and
transient response
(D) None of the above
134. Speed control of induction notor
I.
by cycloconverter has
I Only one conversion stage
II. Capable of transferring power in
either direction without addition
of any other circuitry
III. Output voltage and frequency
can be controlled independently
From these, the correct answer is
(A) I ya II
(A) I and II
(B) II and III (B) II V II
(C) I, II and III (C) I, II yd II
(D) only II (D) r$ III
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Text of page 45
135. In 3-phase
controlled rectifier
(converter), the
regeneration
135. -ta fAufa tR (rt) fta
possible with the circuit is
of
(A) semi-converter (A)
ft-hrai
(B) full converter (B)
F-hrt
(C) both semi and full converter
(D) None of the above
136. Inter-group reactor
in dual
converter is necded
I. to absorb the instantaneous
voltage inequalities
II to absorb the regenerated
cnergy from motor and load
inertia
III. to avoid abrupt transfer of
current from one converter to
other
From these, the correct answer is
(A)
(A) only I
slvg hI
(B) II
(B) only II
(C) I and II (C) I aT II
(D) I, II and III (D) I, II TT III
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aI 4gfA
137. A full-pitched coil in an 8-pole 137. # 8-i
machinc has mechanical and
clectrical angle span of
(A) 30°, 60°
(A) 30°, 60
(B) 45°, 180°
(B) 45°, 180°
(C) 90°, 360°
(C) 90°, 360
(D) 180°, 360° (D) 180°, 360°
138. Why a d.c. machine ficld poles are in
rotor and armature in stater is not
constructed?
(A) Field poles in rotor will have
large centrifugal forces
(B) Higher field current for given air
gap field
(C) Air gap flux will be
sinusoidal bsol bto
which is not desired in d.c.
machine
(D) To accommnodate commutator,
armature must be rotor
e
139. If is angle measured in electrical
degrees between any point in pole
face and centre of pole then the air
,
gap length at that point should be
(A) l, « sin8 (B) , cOs 0 (A) , sin
oc 9 (B) , cos 0
L.
be I
(C) 8
sin
1
(D) ,« cOs0
1
(C) ,« (D) ,y «
sin ®
cosb
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/ 13-D 48
Text of page 47
140. DC motors are
still preferred for
use in
(A) f GTI
electric excavators,
and cranes
steel mills
(B) lathes and machine tools
(C) flour mills and jaw
crushers
(D) paper industry
141. For smooth and precise
speed
control over a wide range preferable
motor is
(A) squirrel-cage induction motor
(B) synchronous motor
(C) DC motor
(D) single-phase induction motor
142. The poles and pole shoes of a.c.
machine are laminated in order to
reduce
(A) copper loss
O1
(B) hysteresis loss (B) fRafra ta
(C) reluctance of magnetic circuit
(D) heating due to eddy current
143. The shaft of synchronous machine is
made up of
F E
(A) mild steel
F(B) chrome steel
(C) alnico
(D) stainless steel
t GUR
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8201/NEJEM/RCE-M/13-D 49 E0PT.0.
Text of page 48
144. About point out 144.
a.c. windings,
incorrect statement. ANI
(A) It is always open winding. (A) 48
(B) The number of circuits in (B) sfa h H4THÍI
parallel per phase may bc one
or more.
(C) The numbcr of coil laycrs per
(C) sfa
slot may be onc or morc.
(D) The coils are normally short
pitched.
(D) ÍCT
AZUT
I-f4s at
145. flo Hgia
o
Y
Ti
145. Which of the following is not a part
of a.c. machine? (A) feTg fy
(A) Slip-ring
(B) Commutator
(B) 72a
(C) Poles (C)
(D) Brush (D) ART
146. The stator of alternator is made up
of
(A) high permeability sheet steel
laminations
(B) stainless steel laminations
AARH
(C) cast iron laminations
(C) IR 3TA
(D) forged steel
147. The synchronous reactance of
alternator is the
(A) reactance due to armature (A) HsfrA
tùRA
reaction of the machine
(B) reactance due to leakage flux
(C) combined reactance due to
leakage flux and armature
reaction
(D) None of the above
(D)
3 Ti
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8201/NE- JEM/RCE-M/13-D
Text of page 49
148. For a uniformly distributed
winding | 148,
of alternator
with a phase
fet 3ezÀu A HHTA F4 À hefi (taia)
of
degrees, the distributionsprcad
is factor fa uris
(A) sin 9 (A) sin0
2 sin
(B) 0/2 (B) 2sin 9/2
(C)
sin 0/2 sin /2
(C)
(D) sin9/2 (D) sin 8/2
20 20
149. A synchronous alternator is feeding
a zero power factor (lagging) load
at rated Current. The armature
reaction is
(A) AAzrgf
(A) magnetizing
(B) fsAhersfT
(B) demagnetizing
(C) cross-magnetizing ieu (C) TH-4ZIgfT
(D) ineffective (D) 9Tt
150. The phase relationship between
m.m.f. phasor F and e.m.f. phasor E
in a synchronous machine is 90°
(A) F
is oi àE
(A) F leads E by 90°
(B) F I
hI
E
90°
(B) F lags E by 90°
(C) F ya E h
(C) F and E are in phase
(D) None of the above
R
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S201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/13-D
Text of page 50
SECOND PART (C) / fafu (C)
MECHANICAL / afAht
101. Specific humidity is also called 101. frfhch gfafef
(A) relative humidity
(A) Rtfla gfsf
(B) humidity ratio (B) urfsf
(C) absolute humidity (C) freufafsfe
(D) (D) Agra ffsfe
saturation humidity
102. During sensible hcating proccss
(A) dry-bulb temperature increascs
(B) relative humidity decreases
(C) wet-bulb temperature increases
(D) All of the above (D) 34ýs f
103. Consider: 103. faaR aI:
Room sensible heat = 50 kW 64 HÍd ge = 50 kW
=
Room latent heat = 50 kW R4 il 50 kW
Room sensible heat factor is equal to
(A) 0-5 (A) 0-5
(B) 1
(B) 1
(C) 0-75 (C) 075
(D) None of the above
104. Sensible heat loss from human body
is negligibe at
(A) 25°C DBT (A) 25 °C DBT
(B) 37 °C DBT (B) 37 °C DBT
(C) 0 °C DBT (C) 0 °C DBT
(D) 20 °C DBT (D) 20 °C DBT
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Text of page 51
105. For room
maximum air distribution, the
variation in temperature
and desirable
velocities are
(A) 3°C
and 1 m/min (A) 3 °C 3fR 1 m/min
(B) 1 °C
and 7-5 m/min
(B) 1 °C 3fr 7-5 m/min
(C) 0-5 °C
and 12 m/min
(D) 1 (C) 0-5 °C 3ÂR 12
°C and 15 m/min m/min
(D) 1°C n
106. The most desirable 15 m/min
dircction of air is
(A) from the
front side towards the
face of person
(B) from the front side towards
feet of person the
(C) from the backside towards
the
back of person
(D) from any side is equally effective
and desirable
107. In all-water system of central air
conditioning system 107. rg R-Grstf fFZA 3TT-eI
(A) cooling medium is chilled water
or brine water and not direct
refrigerarnt
(B) the cooling medium may be
supplied from a source away
from the conditional space
(C) the cooling medium may be
circulated through coils of an
air terminal
(D) All of the above
(D)
3
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Text of page 52
A-F-EIfi fyzy , T244
108. In air-conditioning system the 108.
volume control method of taking
fau
care of part loads is applicable (A) T4T 50%
(A) for load changes of about 50%
(B) THT 20%
(B) for load changes of about 20% TTH"T 60%
fau,
(C)
(C) for load changes of about 60% fm
(D) TTT 80% TE
YÍaÁH
(D) for load changes of about 80%
109. The art of finding the cost which is 109.
likely to be incurred for the
manufacture of an articlc, bcfore it
is actually manufactured, is called
(A)
(A) quoting
(B) Íf
(B) costing
(C) contracting
(D) estimating (D) RAfei
110. Direct cost consists of
(A) direct labour COst + direct
expenses
(B) direct material cost + direct
expenses
(C) direct material cost + direct
labour cost + direct expenses
(D) direct material cost + direct
labour cost distribution
expenses
111. The length of one edge of a cast iron
cube is 100 cmn. If the density of cast
iron is 72 g/cc, its mass will be
(A)
72 kg (A) 7:2 feheiA
(B) 72 kg (B) 72 feiuTH
(C) 720 kg (C) 720 feheiTH
(D) 7200 kg
(D) 7200 feheiyr4
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/13-D 54
Text of page 53
112. The density of mild
steel is
equal to
(A) 3-87 gm/cc
(B) 5-87 gm/cc (A) 3-87 gm/cc
(C) 7-87 gm/cc (B) 5-87 gm/cc
(D) 9:87 gm/cc (C) 7-87 gm/cc
(D) 9-87 gm/cc
113. In cOmmercial vehicle
engine is located layouts,
forward, rear or
under floor mainly to
(A) increase fuel economy
(B) better weight distribution
(C) reduce weight of chassis
(D) better utilization of space
114. The function of gearboxin an
automobile is to
(A) vary speed (A)
f HerTH
(B) vary torque (B) -3A1ui HICH
(C) provide permanentspeed
reduction
(D) disconnect the road wheels from
the engine when desired
115. The number of points at which the 115. -q-preiH SH$ ifsI
?
HUTta
engine-clutch-gearbox unit is (frame) frat far
supported on the chassis frame is R
(A)
(A) four
(B)
(B) two
(C) three
(C) a
(D) y
(D) one
R
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Text of page 54
116. Advantages of using hclical gears 116.
over spur gears in a transmission
are
(A) high strengthand low cost (B)
(B) hight strength and less end thrust)
thrust
(C) low noise level and high
strength
(D) low noise level and economy
117. During braking the push rod
directly operates
(A) primary cell
(B) residual pressure valve (C) fe I
(C) piston
(D) compensating port
118. figt alra fbHGI fE?
118. A needle valve is a part of
(A) fuel injection pump
(B) float chamber of carburettor
(C) main jet of carburettor
(D) venturi of carburettor (D)
Hrfa àgt
119. The most preferred fuels for SI 119. SI S9H fI HHHdGT H34T
engines are (A) qrAtaE
(A) aromatics (B) uf
(B) paraffins
(C) olefins
(C) 3f
(D) naphthenes
(D)
fT
120. Cetane number of diesel oil normally
available in market is in the range
(A) 45-60 (A) 45-60
(B) 60-75 (B) 60-75
(C) 75-90 (C) 75-90
(D) 90--105 (D) 90-105
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/ 13-D 56
Text of page 55
121. In a diesel
pressure engine the fuel injection
(A) 10-20
(B) 20-40
is usually in
bar
the range
Žta , A:
bar (A) 10-20 TK
(C) 60-80
bar (B) 2040 K
(D) 100-200
bar (C) 60-80 R
122. In a diesel
engine the function (D) 100-200
fuel injector of a
is
(A) to
ignite air-fuel
mixtue
(B) to provide
adequate
mixture for combustion air-fuel
(C) to spray atomized
fuel in the
cylinder
(D) to inject air for combustion
123. The self-starting motor
123. 3ÍZIHrAISA AG-Efån ta
of
automobile is a (A) DC je ia
(A) DC shunt motor (B) DC frtg ZI
(B) DC series motor (C) f-gaTH
(C) synchronous motor (D) s4RH HZ
(D) induction motor
124. The central gear of an epicyclic
gearbox is called (A) fn frR
(A) ring gear e
(B) planet gear
(B)
fr
(C) sun gear
(C) H7 R
a
(D) internal gear
(D)
fir
125. The universal joints permit a change
in
(A) the length of the shaft
yfa
(B)
(B) speed of rotation
(C) angle of drive
(D) None of the above
E
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/13-D 57 P.T.0.
Text of page 56
126. The driving and the driven shafts 126. E
connected by a Hooke's joint will
1
rotate at cqual specd, when =
1
(A) tan 9 COS
=
(A) tan
COsoY
tan = cos a
(B)
(B) tan = cosa
(C) tan =a2 (C) tan = a2
(D) tan0 = tcosa (D) tan 0 = tVcosa
127. The fitting of the front whecls from
the vertical is callcd
(A)
(A) caster
(B)chamber
(B) r
(C) toe-in
(C) à-
(D) toe-out (D) -3HSZ
128. Too much toe-in will be noticed by
(A) excessive tyre wear
(B) steering wander Filisg (B) fT -st
(C) feathering of tyres
(C) ZR fafT
(D) light steering
(D) IZ Ety
129. The function of an alternator in an
automobile is to
(A) supply power to the starter
motor when the engine is being
started
(B) continually recharge the battery
(C) act as reservoir of electricity
(D) use chemical action to provide
electricity
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/13-D 58
Text of page 57
130. 1ne equation for correct steering of L
the vehicle is 130. aIga Ht uf fey H
(A) cot o - cot90 (A) cot o - cot =
(B) cos -cos = (B) cos - cos = (0
(C) cot o - cot = (C) cot - cot =
e
(D) cos - cos = (D) cos - cos =
()
131. The process of removing air from the
brake systemn is known as
(A) bleeding (A) efifsT
(B) self-energizing (B)
t5-aisf
(C) servo action (C) Hai tA
(D) trapping (D)
1
132. Brake lining is mounted on
(A) brake shoe (A)
(B) brake drumn (B) TçH
(C) master cylinder (C) HIR AÍinst
(D) wheel cylinder (D) T Aferst
133. In suspension system, leaf spring
absorbs shoks by
(A) tension
(C) twisting
(B) compression
(D) bending
(A)
r (B)
A
(C) RafrT (D) af
134. The purpose of the shock absorbers
is to
(A) strengthen frame
(B) damp spring oscillations
(C) improve rigidity of spring
mounting
(D) absorb heat radiated by engine
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8201/NE- JEM/RCE-M/13-D 59 | P.T.0.
Text of page 58
135. Sports and Racing cars are generally
equipped with
(A) wire spoked wheels
(B) drop centre rim-type wheel
(C) AnftfrH 34Y tl
(C) magnesium alloy whecls
(D) three-picce flat basc rim-type
wheel
136. The tyre construction employing two
separate air chambers is known as
gegt r
(A) tubeless tyre (B)
(B) bulletproof tyre
(C) g4T ZR
(C) dual tyre
(D) captive-air tyre
(D) a- Z
137. Which of the
following is an
inhalation dissolved in the blood
hemoglobin more rapidly than
OXygen? (A)
H SIAHIS
(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) HGT ATGRIES
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C)
(C) Ozone
9r
(D) Nitrous oxide
138. Air pollution from automobiles can
be controlled by fitting
(A) cyclone separator
(B) electrostatic precipitator
(C) catalytic converter (C) zrfetfz hradi
(D) wet scrubber (D) Ghe{
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8201/NEJEM/RCE-M/ 13-D 60
Text of page 59
139. Which of the following
cyclcs uses
air as the refrigerant?
(A) Ericsson
(B) Stirling
(A)
vít4
(B) zft
(C) Carnot
(C) H7
(D) Bel]-Coleman
(D) -itett4
140. One ton of refrigeration is cqual to
(A) 210 kJ/min
(A) 210 kJfmin
(B) 21 kJ/min
(B) 21 kJ/min
(C) 420 kJ/min
(C) 420 kJ/min
(D) 620 kJ/min (D) 620 kJ/min
141. Air rcfrigeration cycle is used in
aeroplanes because of
(A) high heat transfer rate of air
(B) higher COP
(C) lower temperature attainable
(D) lower weight of machine per ton
of refrigeration
142. A refrigerator works on reversed
Carnot cycle producing a temperature
of -40 °C. Work done per TR is
700 kJ per 10 minutes. What is the
700 kJ H fto 3io fio 1 44
value of its COP? I?
(A) 3 (A) 3
(B) 4-5 (B) 4:5
(C) 5-8 (C) 5-8
(D) 7-0 (D) 7:0
E
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/13-D 61 | P.T.0.
Text of page 60
143. The suction pipe diameter of
refrigerating unit Comprcssor in
comparison to delivery side is
(A) 4G1
(A) bigger
(B) smaller
(B) Bt
(C) cqual (C) HHH
(D) Nonc of the abovc
144. Wet comprcssion in vapour
comprcssion cyclc mcans
(A) presence of water in refrigerant
vapour during compression
(B) prescnce of liquid refrigerant in
refrigerant vapour during
compression
(C) compression of liquid refrigerant
only
(D) compression of water only
145. Which of the following refrigerating
plants requires no electricity?
(A) Vapour absorption
(B)Vapour compression
Y
(C)
(C) Air-refrigeration RÍaE
(D) Vortex tube D) TlR aA
146. In absorption refrigeration
an
system, which of the following
Components removes any traces of
the water fromn the refrigerant?
(A) Condenser
(A) Hyfa
(B) Generator (B)
f
(C) Rectifier (C) Hy
(D) Absorber (D) 3qyA
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8201/NE-JEM/RCE-M/ 13-D 62
Text of page 61
147. The refrigerant for a refrigerator
should have
(A) high sensible heat
(B) high total heat
(C) high latent heat
(D) low latent heat
148. Which of the following refrigerants (D) h4 TH SE
has lowest freczing point?
(A) Freon-12
(B) NH3
(A) H-12
(C) CO2
(B) NH3
(D) Freon-22
(C) CO2
149. The reciprocating refrigerant
compressors are very suitable for (D) h3--22
(A) small displacements and high
condensing pressure
(B) large displacement and high
condensing pressure (A) G4
(C) small displacement and low
condensing pressure
(D) large displacement and low
condensing pressure
150. A domestic refrigerator usese
(A) natural convection air-cooled
condenser
(B) shell and coil-type condenser
(C) forced convection air-cooled
condenser
double-pipe condenser
(D) S4qT-91S4 hasR
(D)
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JEM/RCE-M/13-D
8201/NE-
Text of page 62
:
:3 y2 150
Time for marking all 150 Maximum Marks : 150
questions : 3 hourS
SET
NOTE
1. This Question Booklet Consists of
following two Parts :
(A) : f f 3ftarg
FIRST PART (A)
JA Ho 1-100 Common Questions for all Q. Nos. 1-100
(1) TSS
Ma IA, (2) IS H44 a, (1) Applied Physics, (2) Applied
(3) 1S AH, (4)Ry S T2Ru Chemistry, (3) Applied Mechanics, (4)
(1) Strength of Material.
fa irufti, (2) afr# zfrzhci stfuf, (1) Thermal Engineering, (2) Basic
(3) agAAfvA,
(4) íHt, (5)
tt ss Electrical engineering, (3) Electro
magnetism, (4) Transformer, (5) Theory of
in Machines, (6) Fluid Mechanics and
JA Ho 101-15O Hydraulics
(C) : A
9 Ho 101-150 SECOND PART (B) : Electrical
Q. Nos. 101-150
(C) :
Mechanical
Q. Nos. 101-150
First Part is compulsory. Choose any
one from Second
Part (B) and (C).
Each question carries 1
questions are compulsory. mark. All
2. Indicate your answers
Answer-Sheet provided. On the
OMR
3. mark will be deducted
answer. for each wrong
4. Use of any type
of calculator or log table
and mobile phone
is prohibited.
5. While using
OMR
should be talken soAnswer-Sheet, Cae
Sheet does that the Answer
not get
folds and wrinkles.torn or spoiled due to
8201/ NE-JEM/RCE-M/13-D
Page 1 of 62
Source: Chhattisgarh Professional Examination Board. Question paper published by Chhattisgarh Professional Examination Board.