CRPF LDCE 2025: Assistant Commandant (GD) LDCE 2024-25 for CAPFs, Paper II (SSB), Set 1
Text of page 1
Assistant Commandant (GD) LDCE-2024-25 ROLL NO.
Date of Written Examination
1
QUESTION PAPER-II Question Booklet Set
2 hrs
Time Allowed Question Booklet Code A
100
Max Marks CAPF Code
Read carefully the instructions given on this page before you open the Question- Booklet and begin to
answer the questions.
Do not open the seal of the booklet until you are told to do so
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
(Please read these instructions carefully)
1. Candidate must write his/her Roll Number in the space provided on
the top right hand side of this page.
2. Candidate should mark his/her answer only on the answer sheet
which is being provided separately.
3. It is most important that a candidate must fill up details like his/her
Name, Roll No. & put his/her signature by pen in the answer sheet. If
details are not completed by candidate, his/her answer sheet will not be
evaluated.
4. There are 23 pages in this Question Booklet, candidate on receiving
his/her Question Booklet should check the Pages of the Question
Booklet. If a candidate receives an incomplete or defective Question
Booklet, he/she can make a request to the Invigilator to change the
same within 10 minutes of start of the Examination.
5. Candidate should not put any peculiar mark or write anything
anywhere either in the Question Booklet or in the answer sheet. Any
the candidature of such candidate will be cancelled.
6. Do not detach any leaf from the Question Booklet. After the
Examination, hand over the Answer-Sheet to the Invigilator.
AC(LDCE)2024-25 1 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 2
1. Consider the following statements- 1.
Statement I: De-facto boundary is a legal I:
boundary, decided and ratified by the involved
National Government and if possible demarcated
by numbered pillars.
Statement II: De-jure boundary is the alignment on II:
the ground decided by two opposing force
commanders, delineated on maps and signed by
both as a token of acceptance.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) Only statement I is correct. A) I
B) Only statement II is correct. B) II
C) Both statements are correct.
C
D) Both statements are incorrect.
D
2. For rank other than an officer, what is the time limit 2.
to put in an appeal against the termination of
service as per SSB Rules, 2009?
A) 30 days A)
B) 45 days B)
C) 60 days C)
D) 90 days D)
3. Consider the following informations- 3.
I. Treaty of Peace and Friendship between India I.
and Nepal was signed on 31st July, 1950.
II. Treaty of Extradition between Govt. of Nepal II.
and the Govt. of India was signed on 2nd Oct,
1960. III.
III. The revised Indo-Bhutan Friendship Treaty
was signed on 8th Feb, 2007.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & III are correct. A) I III
B) II & III are correct. B) II III
C) Only II is correct. C) II
D) All of the above statements are incorrect.
D)
4. 4.
Indo-Nepal Border in hilly/ mountainous border?
A) 10 yards on either side of INB. A)
B) There is no specified width. B)
C) 10 meter on either side of INB.
C)
D) None of the above.
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 2 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 3
5. Consider the following statements- 5.
I. The Nepalese monarchy was abolished in the I.
year 2008. II.
II. Sh. K.P. Sharma Oli, PM of Nepal belongs to ( )
the Communist Party of Nepal (Maoist III.
Centre).
III. Length of INB in the state of Uttar Pradesh is
579 Km.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements? A) I
A) Only I is correct. B) II III
B) II & III are correct. C) II
C) Only II is correct. D)
D) None of the above.
6. Which of the following districts of Bhutan does not 6.
share its border with India?
A) Trashi Yangtse A)
B) Sarpang B)
C) Punakha C)
D) Zhemganj D)
7. How many Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) are 7.
earmarked on IBB & INB respectively?
A) 1, 7 A) 1, 7
B) 2, 5 B) 2, 5
C) 2, 6 C) 2, 6
D) 1, 5 D) 1, 5
8. Consider the following informations- 8.
Sl. Short Full form
No. form
1. PRAN Permanent Retirement 1.
Account Number
2. GIS Geological Information 2.
System
3. PPAN Permanent Pension Account 3.
Number 4.
4. PIMS Permanent Inventory
Management System
In how many above rows, the given information is
correctly matched? A)
A) 1 & 4 B)
B) 1 & 2 C)
C) 2 & 4
D)
D) 1 & 3
9. What is the present authorization of land for a SSB 9.
Battalion within limit of Municipal Corporations?
A) 70 Acre A)
B) 25 Acre B)
C) 20 Acre C)
D) 40 Acre
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 3 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 4
10. Section 103 of Customs Act, 1962 deals with- 10.
A) Person to be searched may require to be taken
before Gazetted Officer of Customs or A)
Magistrate.
B) Power to screen or X-ray bodies of suspected
persons for detecting secreted goods. B)
C) Power to examine persons.
D) Power to stop and search conveyances. C)
D)
11. What is the minimum number of officer required 11.
to compose a General Force Court?
A) One A)
B) Four B)
C) Three C)
D) Five D)
12. What is the time limit for entries of seizure and 12.
incident in Seizure & Incident Management
System (SIMS)?
A) Within 24 hours A)
B) Within 48 hours B)
C) Within 07 days C)
D) Within 01 month
D)
13. How many SSB Battalions have been entrusted 13.
situation? A)
A) 12 B)
B) 10 C)
C) 11
D)
D) 08
14. What is the frequency for conducting Boundary 14.
Working Group (BWG) meeting between India
and Nepal? A)
A) Half yearly B)
B) Yearly C)
C) Once in every two years.
D)
D) None of the above
15. What amount of Cocaine 15.
A) 05 gram A)
B) 02 gram B
C) 50 gram C
D) 250 gram
D
16. What is the authorization of Assault Rifle 16.
(7.62X39 mm) against 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle for a x
Battalion deployed in LWE area?
A) 50% of total authorization of rifles. A) 50%
B) 75% of total authorization of rifles. B) 75%
C) 100% of total authorization of rifles.
C) 100%
D) 33% of total authorization of rifles.
D) 33%
AC(LDCE)2024-25 4 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 5
17. What is the procurement ceiling for general goods 17. GeM
through GeM without quotations?
A) 10,00,000/- A) 10,00,000/-
B) 50,000/- B) 50,000/-
C) 25,000/- C) 25,000/-
D) 1,00,000/- D) 1,00,000/-
18. In SSB, personnel of which rank can exercise the 18.
delegated powers under NDPS Act, 1985?
A) Not below the rank of Assistant Commandant A)
B) Not below the rank of Sub Inspector B)
C) Not below the rank of Head Constable C)
D) None of the above
D)
19. As per 7th Central Pay Commission, Composite 19.
Transfer Grant is-
A) 70 % of Basic pay A) 70
B) 80 % of Basic pay B) 80
C) 90 % of Basic pay C) 90
D) 50 % of Basic pay D) 50
20. Consider the offences under following Sections of 20.
SSB Act, 2007-
I. Section - 24 I. - 24
II. Section - 22 (c) II. - 22 (c)
III. Section - 16 III. - 16
IV. Section - 49
IV. - 49
Offences under which of the above Sections can
not be dealt summarily?
A) Both II & III A) II III
B) Both III & IV B) III IV
C) Both I & IV
C) I IV
D) Only II
D) II
21. What is the full form of CRAC? 21.
A) Consignee Receipt and Acceptance A)
Certificate. B)
B) Consignee Registration and Acceptance C)
Certificate. D)
C) Consignee receipt and Agreement Certificate.
D) Consent receipt and Acceptance Certificate.
22. How many sections and rules are there in SSB Act, 22.
2007 & Rules, 2009?
A) 165 Sections and 188 Rules A)
B) 165 Sections and 178 Rules B)
C) 156 Sections and 188 Rules C)
D) 156 Sections and 178 Rules
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 5 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 6
23. Consider the following information with respect of 23.
SSB Act, 2007-
Sl. Section Offences
No.
1. 26 Ill-treating a subordinate 1. 26
2. 23 Disobedience to Superior 2. 23
Officer 3. 25
3. 25 False information on enrolment
4. 27 Certain forms of disgraceful 4. 27
conduct
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1 & 4 A)
B) 2 & 3
B)
C) 2, 3 & 4
D) All of the above
C)
D)
24. Consider the following information with respect to 24.
SSB Rules, 2009-
Sl. Rule Deals with
No.
1. 51 Record of Evidence
1. 51
2. 18 Termination of Service 2. 18
3. 28 Resignation 3. 28
4. 175 Procedure of CoI 4. 175
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 4 A)
B) 2 & 3 B)
C) 2, 3 & 4
C)
D) All of the above
D)
25. Consider the following statements- 25.
I. Authorization of ASI(GD) in an IS duty Coy. I.
is 11.
II. 03 CT(Cook) are authorized in an IS duty Coy. II.
III. Strength of TAC HQ for Ad-hoc Bn during IS
duty is 17. III.
IV. Authorization of land for a SSB BOP is 4.00
TAC HQ)
Acre.
IV.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & IV
B) I, II & III A) I IV
C) II & IV B) I, II III
D) All of the above
C) II IV
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 6 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 7
26. Powers under Section-101, 103 and 109 of 26.
Customs Act, 1962 have been conferred to the SSB
personnel having rank of
A) Head Constable to Commandant A)
B) ASI to Commandant B)
C) ASI to Assistant Commandant C)
D) Assistant Commandant to Commandant D)
27. Consider the following information- 27.
Sl. Trijunction Under the AOR of
No. Sector HQ
1. Batang-la SHQ Ranidanga 1.
2. Sherjunla SHQ Bomdilla 2.
3. Jonsang Peak SHQ Gangtok 3.
4. Lipu lekh SHQ Almora 4.
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 2, 3 & 4
C) 3 & 4
B)
D) None of the above C)
D)
28. Consider the following statements- 28.
I. An individual may take or send out of India to I.
Nepal or Bhutan notes of denomination of INR
100 with no upper limit. II.
II. An individual may carry notes of denomination
INR 2000 from India to Nepal or Bhutan upto
an upper limit of INR 25000 only.
III. An individual travelling from India to Nepal or III.
Bhutan can carry new series of denomination
25000.
Which of the following option is not correct in
respect of above statements?
A) Only II A) II
B) I & III B) I III
C) II & III C) II III
D) All of the above D)
29. In a map, Magnetic Variation (MV) is 3° (east) & 29. MV °
Angle of Convergence (AOC) is 1° (west). If (AOC) °
Magnetic Bearing (MB) of a particular place is MB ° (TB
55°, please calculate True Bearing (TB) & Grid
GB)
Bearing (GB)?
A) TB 58°; GB 59°
A) TB 58°; GB 59°
B) TB 52°; GB 58° B) TB 52°; GB 58°
C) TB 51°; GB 56° C) TB 51°; GB 56°
D) TB 57° ; GB 58° D) TB 57° ; GB 58°
AC(LDCE)2024-25 7 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 8
30. Consider the following statements- 30.
I. Angle between the true north line and the Grid I.
North line at a particular place is known as
Angle of convergence. II.
II. The angle between the true north line and the
Magnetic North line is known as Magnetic
variation.
Which of the following option is not correct in
respect of above statements? A) I
A) Only I B) II
B) Only II
C) I & II
C) I II
D) None of the above D)
31. How many Cardinal Points, Three Letter Points 31.
and Intermediate Points respectively are there in a
Compass? A)
A) 4, 4 & 8 B)
B) 8, 4 & 4 C)
C) 4, 4 & 4 D)
D) 4, 8 & 4
32. As per Article 246 of Indian Constitution, Border 32.
S
A) Central Government A)
B) State and Central Government B)
C) State Government C)
D) Indian Army and concerned CAPF D)
33. In a map, 33. (MV) °
°
bearing of a particular place is measured as 85° by ° (MB),
a compass, calculate Magnetic Bearing (MB), True
(TB) (GB)
Bearing (TB) & Grid Bearing (GB), whereas, the
Local Magnetic Attrac °
(west)?
A) A) ; ;
B) ; ; B) ; ;
C) ; ; C) ; ;
D) ; ; D) ; ;
34. What are the 08 actions of 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle 34.
in correct sequence?
A) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Load-Feed- A)
Lock- Fire
B) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Feed- Load- B)
Lock- Fire
C) Unlock- Eject- Cock- Extract- Feed-Load- C)
Lock- Fire
D) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Feed- Lock- D)
Load- Fire
35. Which rank of SSB personnel have been conferred 35.
with the powers under Section-19, 22(2), 23 and 24
of Arms Act, 1959?
A) Constable and above A)
B) Head Constable and above B)
C) Sub-Inspector and above C)
D) Not below the rank of Assistant Commandant D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 8 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 9
36. Under which section of SSB Act, 2007, Sashastra 36.
Seema Bal has been mentioned as Armed Force of
the Union?
A) Secion-9 A) -9
B) Section-5 B) -5
C) Section-4 C) -4
D) Section-15
D) -15
37. 37.
have been conferred to SSB under which section of
Passport Act, 1967?
A) Section-15 & 19 A)
B) Section-12 & 14 B)
C) Section-13 & 15 C)
D) Section-13 & 14
D)
38. As per Section-56 of SSB Act, 2007, an Assistant 38.
Commandant, commanding a company, has the
power to proceed against a person subject to SSB
Act (other than an Officer, Subordinate Officer &
Under Officer) charged with an offence may award
from the following punishments-
I. Imprisonment in force custody upto 14 days. I.
II. Extra guard or duties. II.
III. Confinement to the line upto 28 days. III.
IV. Severe Reprimand or Reprimand. IV.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & II
B) II, III & IV A) I II
C) III & IV B) II, III IV
D) All of the above C) III IV
D)
39. Consider the following informations- 39.
I. Casual leave is not a recognized form of leave. I.
II. Casual leave can be combined with joining
time. II. Joining
III. Casual leave can not be taken while on tour. Time
IV. Casual leave can be taken for half-day also.
III.
IV.
Which of the following option is correct based on
the above informations?
A) I, II & IV A) I, II, IV
B) I & III B) I III
C) I & IV
C) I IV
D) III & IV
D) III IV
AC(LDCE)2024-25 9 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 10
40. Consider the following statements- 40.
I. Transfer of SSB from Cabinet Secretariat to I.
MHA taken place on 20th Jan, 2001.
II. SSB was tasked to guard India- Bhutan Border II.
on 12th March, 2004.
III. SSB Act was enacted on the 20th Dec, 2007. III.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & III A) I III
B) II & III
C) None of the above
B) II III
D) All of the above C)
D)
41. In which of the following cases prior pemission/ 41.
sanction of the Competent Authority is not
necessary? A)
A) To join educational institutions or course of
studies for university degree. B)
B) To accept international awards. C)
C) To seek redress in Court of Law or in Central
Administrative Tribunals of grievances arising
out of employment or conditions of service.
D)
D) To accept fee for work done for any private or
public body or person.
42. Consider the following statements in respect of 42.
Children Education Allowance (CEA)-
I. CEA is also admissible for children studying I.
through correspondence or distance learning.
II. The age limit for claiming CEA for the II.
children other than disabled children is 18
years. III.
III. CEA is not admissible for the period treated as
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) I & III A) I III
B) II & III B) II III
C) Only II C) II
D) Only III D) III
43. Officer of which rank is the Central Public 43.
Information Officer (CPIO) in SSB under RTI Act,
2005?
A) Inspector General A)
B) Deputy Inspector General B)
C) Commandant C)
D) None of the above
D)
44. What is the present rate of Govt. contribution to the 44.
Govt. employees account under Tier-I of the
NPS?
A) 14% of Basic Pay A) 14%
B) 10% of (Basic Pay + DA) B) 10%
C) 14% of (Basic Pay + DA) C) 14%
D) 10% of Basic Pay
D) 10%
AC(LDCE)2024-25 10 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 11
45. When the object appears to be closer? 45. ?
I. If the light is bright and sun is behind the I.
observer. II.
II. If the object is bigger in relation to its
surroundings.
III.
III. If dead ground is there between the obsever
and the object. IV.
IV. If the observer is looking uphill.
Which of the following option is correct in respect ?
of above points? A) I, III IV
A) I, III & IV B) II, III IV
B) II, III & IV
C) III IV
C) III & IV
D) All of the above D)
46. can be 46.
changed during the entire service by the Central
Govt. Servant?
A)
A) Thrice B)
B) Once C)
C) Twice
D)
D) Four times
47. What is the minimum service required to avail the 47.
LTC facility?
A) Completion of 02 years continuous service. A)
B) Completion of 04 years continuous service. B)
C) Completion of 01 year continuous service. C)
D) After completion of probation period.
D)
48. A Central Govt. servant has an option to commute 48.
a portion of pension, not exceeding % of it,
into a lumpsum payment. %
A) 50% A) 50%
B) 40% B) 40%
C) 30% C) 30%
D) 60%
D) 60%
49. Any Central Govt. servant can apply for Voluntary 49.
R
months in advance, only after the completion of
/her qualifying service,
provided no Vigilance or Departmental Enquiry is
pending/initiated against him/her.
A) 04, 18 A)
B) 03, 20 B)
C) 03, 18 C)
D) 04, 20 D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 11 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 12
50. How many financial up-gradations are provided 50.
under MACP?
A) One A)
B) Two B)
C) Four C)
D) Three
D)
51. Financial up-gradation under MACP is granted to 51.
which grade?
A) Same grade A)
B) Higher grade B)
C) Depends on the situation C)
D) Lower grade
D)
52. Which of the following is included in the salary 52.
calculation for House Rent Allowance (HRA)
purpose?
A)
A) Basic Pay B)
B) Basic Pay + Dearness Allowance (D.A) C)
C) Risk & Hardship Allowance(R.H.A)+D.A D)
D) Basic Pay+R.H.A+D.A
53. LTC advance can be drawn as- 53.
A) 80% of the estimated cost of journey both A) 80
ways.
B) 90% of the estimated cost of journey both B) 90
ways.
C) 50% of the estimated cost of journey both C) 50
ways.
D) 100% of the estimated cost of journey both D) 100
ways.
54. Consider the following informations in connection 54.
with 9 mm Pistol-
I. Weight of empty 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is I. ( )
910 gms.
II. Muzzle velocity of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is II. ( )
305 mtr./sec.
III. Effective range of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is III. ( )
15 yards.
IV. Length of barrel in 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is IV. ( )
4.75 inch.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements
A) I & II A) I II
B) II & III B) II III
C) III & IV C) III IV
D) All of the above
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 12 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 13
55. Consider the following statements in connection 55.
with No. 36 HE Grenade-
I. The killing range is 9 mtrs. I.
II. The dangerous area is 300 yards in all sides II.
from the point of burst.
III. Priming is required before firing. III.
IV. Igniter set with delay of 07 seconds is used for
IV.
Rifle grenade.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) I, II & IV A) I, II IV
B) II & III B) II III
C) I & III
C) I III
D) Only I
D) I
56. Consider the following information in connection 56.
with weapons of Close Quarter Battle (CQB)-
I. Tube launching Mark-I I. I
II. Bayonet
II.
III. 5.56 mm LMG
IV. 9 mm Pistol III.
IV.
Which of the above weapons is/are not categorized
under weapon of CQB?
A) I & II A) I II
B) II, III & IV B) II, III IV
C) I & III C) I III
D) All of the above
D)
57. Which of the following entry is not recorded in the 57.
service book?
A) Pay fixation A)
B) Leave Travel Concession B)
C) Pay Increment C)
D) Last Pay Slip D)
58. Under which section of Right to Information Act- 58.
2005, SSB has been exempted from providing
information (other than Corruption & Human
Rights)?
A) Section- 24
A) 24
B) Section- 25 B) 25
C) Section- 26 C) 26
D) Section- 23 D) 23
59. Under RTI Act, 2005, first appeal shall be disposed 59.
days from the date of its receipt?
A) 40 days A)
B) 50 days B)
C) 30 days C)
D) 20 days
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 13 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 14
60. What is the full form of BDCC? 60.
A) Border Dispute Co-ordination Committee A)
B) Border District Co-ordination Committee B)
C) Border District Cultural Corporation C)
D) Border Development Co-ordination Committee
D)
61. Which rule of SSB Rules, 2009 defines the task of 61.
force command and control thereto?
A) Rule-09 A)
B) Rule-11 B)
C) Rule-07 C)
D) Rule-12
D)
62. Which of the following river is related with the 62.
A) Ghaghra River A)
B) Koshi River B)
C) Gandak River C)
D) Susta River
D)
63. 63.
in the case of D.K. Basu Vs State of West Bengal
is related to which of the following?
A) Guidelines required to be followed while A)
making arrest. B)
B) Guidelines to prevent sexual harassment at C)
workplace.
C) Guidelines to protect welfare of bordering area D)
population.
D) None of the above.
64. The network of horizontal & vertical lines or the 64.
Easting and Northing lines is called-
A) Conventional line A)
B) Scale B)
C) Grid C)
D) Symbols D)
65. What is the full form of BIT? 65.
A) Border Intelligence Team A)
B) Border Information Team B)
C) Border Interaction Team C)
D) Border Investigation Team
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 14 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 15
66. Consider the following information with respect to 66.
authorization of weapons to SSB Battalion-
Sl. Weapon Authorization
No.
1 51 mm Mortar 24 1 51 mm Mortar 24
2 81 mm Mortar 03 2 81 mm Mortar 03
3 LMG INSAS 5.56 mm 126 3 LMG INSAS 5.56 mm 126
4 Pistol 9 mm 45 4 Pistol 9 mm 45
In which of the above rows, the given information
is incorrectly matched?
A) 1 & 3 A)
B) 2, 3 & 4 B)
C) 1, 2 & 4 C)
D) All of the above
D)
67. Consider the following information- 67.
Sl. Indian Town Counterpart Nepal/
No. Bhutan Town
1 Jogbani Biratnagar 1
2 Jaigaon Phuntsholing 2
3 Raxaul Bhairahwa 3
4 Naxalbari Kakrabhita 4
(Panitanki)
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A)
A) 1, 2 & 3
B)
B) 3 & 4
C) 1, 2 & 4 C)
D) 1 & 4 D)
68. Which ammunition is used in AK-47 Assault 68. AK-47
Rifle?
A) 7.62 mm X 51 mm A) 7.62 X 51
B) 7.62 mm X 54 mm B) 7.62 X 54
C) 7.62 mm X 39 mm C) 7.62 X 39
D) 7.62 mm X 45 mm D) 7.62 X 45
69. What is the currency of Bhutan? 69.
A) Ngultrum A
B) Yen B
C) Bhutanese Rupees C
D) Yangtse
D
AC(LDCE)2024-25 15 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 16
70. Consider the following statements- 70.
I. There are 26 agreed routes for mutual trade on I.
INB.
II. There are 05 agreed trade and transit routes on II.
IBB.
III. A total of 12 Indian districts shares border with III.
Bhutan.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I, II & III A) I, II III
B) II, III & IV B) II, III IV
C) II & III
C) II III
D) I & II
D) I II
71. How many Sniper Rifles are authorized in a SSB 71.
Battalion?
A) 2 A) 2
B) 3 B) 3
C) 4 C) 4
D) 7 D) 7
72. Consider the following statements in respect of 72.
Child Care Leave (CCL)-
I. CCL shall not be granted for more than three I.
spells in a calendar year, in case of single
female Govt. servant.
II. CCL may not be granted for a period less than II.
five days at a time.
III. Women employees and single male employees III.
having minor children may be granted CCL.
IV. Intervening holidays will count as CCL as in
the case of EL.
IV.
Which of the following option is incorrect based
on the above informations?
A) I, II & IV A) I, II, IV
B) II & IV
B) II IV
C) I & II
D) Only I C) I II
D) I
73. Which of the following statements related to 73.
composition of Internal Complaint Committee
(ICC) is not correct?
A) There shall be minimum 05 members in ICC. A)
B) Unit head of each unit shall ensure constitution B)
of such ICC in respect of their units.
C) It is to ensure that atleast half of the total
nominated members of ICC shall be women. C)
D) No male officer should be chairperson/PO of
ICC. D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 16 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 17
74. Consider the following statements in respect of 74.
Charter of Duties of SSB-
I. Safeguard the security of assigned borders of I.
India & promote sense of security among the
people living in border area. II.
II. Prevent trans-border trades, smuggling & other
legal activity. III.
III. Prevent authorized entry into or exit from the
territory of India. IV. (APF)
IV. To carry out friendly sports tournament with
the counterpart (APF) in the AOR.
V.
V. To perform any other duty assigned by the
concerned State Government.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) II, III & IV A) II, III IV
B) Only I B) I
C) II, III, IV & V
C) II, III, IV V
D) All of the above
D)
75. Which of the following statements related to 75.
general etiquettes of the Force is not correct?
A) A salute must be returned with smartness and A)
promptness.
B) When a senior officer is present, a junior B)
officer does not salute or get up for an officer
who is junior to the officer present.
C) Lady wives may interfere in the official
matters whenever required. C)
D) When entering in a mess lounge or dining hall
remove the head dress and hang it on the rack D)
provided for it.
76. In which Indian district, the authorized trade route 76.
-Thuth
A) Maharajganj A)
B) Siddharthnagar B)
C) Jalpaiguri C)
D) Baharaich D)
77. 77.
sanctioned in SSB?
A) 1 A)
B) 6 B)
C) 18
C)
D) 2
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 17 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 18
78. Under which section of SSB Act, 2007, there is 78.
provision of Redressal of grievances of officers in
which the officer, may complain to the DG or the
Central Government through proper channel?
A) Section-105 A
B) Section-120 B
C) Section-14 C
D) Section-15
D
79. Which of the following option is incorrect? 79.
A) A Petty Force Court (PFC) may be convened A)
by an officer having power to convene a
General Force Court (GFC) or by an officer
empowered in this behalf by warrant of any
such officer. B)
B) A PFC shall have the power to try any person
subject to SSB Act, 2007 for any offences
punishable thereunder and to pass any
sentence authorized thereby. C)
C) A PFC shall consist of not less than three
officers. D)
D) Kinds of Force Court are mentioned under
section 76 of SSB Act, 2007.
80. Which colour of ink may be used in the office by 80.
all category of staffs and officers?
A) Blue, Black or Red A
B) Blue or Black B
C) Blue only C
D) Blue, Black or Green
D
81. Consider the following full forms- 81.
I. PUC- Page Under Consideration I.
II. NSP- Note Sheet Para II.
III. APAR- Annual Performance Assessment III.
Report
IV.
IV. SPARROW- Smart Performance Appraisal
Report Recording Online Window
V.
V. DSC- Digital Signature Certificate
VI.
VI. FR & SR- Financial Rule & Statutory Rule
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above full forms?
A) II, III & IV A) II, III IV
B) I, III, IV & V
B) I, III, IV V
C) I, II & VI
C) I, II VI
D) None of the above
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 18 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 19
82. Consider the following full forms- 82.
I. DFMD- Deep Field Metal Detector I.
II. DSMD- Door Search Metal Detector II.
III. FUP- Forming Up Place III.
IV. LRP- Long Range Patrol
IV.
V. OP- Observation Place
VI. LP-Lighting Place V.
VI.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above full forms?
A) I, II, V & VI A) I, II, V VI
B) III & IV
B) III IV
C) I, II, & VI
D) III & VI C) I, II, VI
D) III VI
83. Which of the following option is incorrect in 83. (PCA)
respect of Personal Computer Advance (PCA)?
A) All Govt. servant are eligible for PCA. A)
B) The Competent Authority to sanction PCA is
B)
department of Central Govt./
Administration/Head of Department.
C) A second or subsequent advance for purchase C)
of Personal Computer can not be granted
before expiry of 05 years from the date of
drawal of earlier advance. D)
D) PCA may be allowed maximum 05 times in
entire service.
84. Which of the following options is correct regarding 84.
Children Education Allowance (CEA)?
A) CEA or Hostel Subsidy can be claimed for a A)
third child if not claimed for first or second
child.
B) CEA can be claimed for same class twice only
when the child fails in the particular class. B)
C) Re-imbursement of CEA will be made once in
a calendar year. C)
D) CEA can not be claimed if the children D)
studying through correspondence or distance
learning.
85. What is the age limit of an unmarried daughter who 85.
is wholly dependent on a Govt. servant for re-
imbursement of medical claims?
A) 25 years A)
B) 30 years B)
C) 21 years C)
D) No age limit D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 19 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 20
86. Which of the following options is incorrect about 86.
technical data of AK-47 assault rifle? ?
A) Length with open butt is 868 mm. A)
B) Cyclic rate of fire is 660 round per minute. B)
C) Weight with empty magazine is 4.622 Kg.
D) Normal rate of fire is 1 magazine in 1 minute.
C)
D)
87. After how many days of absence, Court of Inquiry 87.
is mandatory?
A) 90 days A) 90
B) 45 Days B) 45
C) 60 Days C) 60
D) 30 days D) 30
88. Which of the following are types of section 88.
formation?
A) Diamond formation, A)
Arrow head formation,
One up-two down formation &
Spear head formation
B) Pearl formation, B)
Javelin head formation,
Single file formation &
One up formation
C) Diamond formation, C)
Arrow head formation,
Spear head formation &
Extended line formation
D) Line formation, D)
Single File formation,
Hexagon formation &
Spear Head formation
89. Consider the following statements- 89.
I. Cyclic rate of fire of 9 mm CMG is 500-550 I.
Rds per minute.
II. Length of barrel of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is II. ( )
6.25 inch.
III. Effective range of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is III. ( )
15 yards.
IV. Weight of the HE No. 36 Grenade is 1 pound
IV. 10½
10½ Ounce.
Which of the option is correct based on the above
statements?
A) I, II & III A) I, II III
B) II, III & IV
B) II, III IV
C) II & III
D) I, III & IV C) II III
D) I, III IV
AC(LDCE)2024-25 20 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 21
90. How many copies of bills are required while 90.
making any purchase by the QM branch?
A) Bills in duplicate (One each for; accounts A) ;
branch & ZPAO) ZPAO
B) Bills in triplicate (One each for; QM branch, B) ;
accounts branch & ZPAO)
ZPAO
C) Five copies of bills (One each for; QM branch,
accounts branch, QM store, ZPAO & PAO) C) ;
D) Bills in Quadriplicate (One each for; QM ZPAO
branch, accounts branch, DDO & ZPAO) PAO
D) ;
ZPAO
91. Who generates contract on GeM? 91. GeM
A) Buyer A)
B) Consignee B)
C) PAO C)
D) DDO D)
92. Which of the following is the correct sequence of 92.
non-electric Chain of Detonation?
A) Flame producer- Flame carrier- Shock wave A)
producer- Shock wave carrier-Primer/booster-
Main charge B)
B) Shock wave producer- Shock wave carrier-
Flame producer- Flame carrier- Primer/
booster-Main charge C)
C) Flame carrier-Flame producer- Shock wave
carrier- Shock wave producer- Primer/booster- D)
Main charge
D) None of the above.
93. Consider the following information- 93.
I. Limited Tender Enquiry. I.
II. Two-stage Bidding. II.
III. Single Tender Enquiry. III.
IV. Electronic Reverse Auctions.
IV.
Which of the above method of bidding is not
mentioned in Rule-158 of GFR, 2017? ?
A) II & III A) II III
B) Only V B) V
C) III & V C) III V
D) None of the above D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 21 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 22
94. Which of the following option is incorrect 94.
regarding Court of Inquiry (COI)?
A) A Court of Inquiry may consist of one or more A)
members and if only one member is appointed
he shall be an officer.
B) A person not subject to SSB Act, 2007, may B)
also be appointed as additional member when
the Court is to investigate matters of such a
specialized nature as may require the
assistance of specialized person for proper
investigation.
C) A COI may be assembled by the order of an C)
officer not below the rank of Second-In-
Command.
D) No counsel, or legal practitioner shall be D)
permitted to appear before a COI.
95. Consider the following information in connection 95.
with equipments of demolition set-
I. The burning speed of safety fuse is 2 feet/per I.
minute. II.
II. Detonetor No. 27 is electric detonetor. III. 5
III. The blowing speed of 5 mm cordtex is 6400
meters per second.
IV.
IV. Detonetor no. 33 is non-electric detonator.
Which of the following option is incorrect based
on the above informations? ?
A) I & III A) I III
B) II & IV B) II IV
C) II, III & IV C) II, III IV
D) Only IV D) IV
96. Why things are seen? Find the correct option- 96.
A) Shadow, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Shape, A)
Spacing & Movement B)
B) Shadow, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Size, C)
Spacing & Movement
C) Sunlight, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Shape,
D)
Spacing & Movement
D) Shadow, Sequence, Shine, Silhouette, Shape,
Spacing & movement
97. What is the full form of GPS? 97.
A) Google Position System A)
B) Global Provisioning System B)
C) Global Positioning System C)
D) Global Positioning Satellite D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 22 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 23
98. Consider the following informations- 98.
Sl. No. Force Year of establishment
1. NIA 2009 1. 2009
2. NSG 1984 2. 1984
3. CRPF 1938 3. 1938
4. ITBP 1962 4. 1962
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 2 & 4
B)
C) 1, 2 & 4
D) Only 4 C)
D)
99. Consider the following informations- 99.
Sl. Paticulars Helpline
No. number
1. Child Protection & Welfare 1098 1. 1098
2. Women Helpline 1092 2. 1092
3. Cyber crime 1930 3. 1930
4. National Highway 1033 4. 1033
Authority of India
In how many above rows, the given information is
correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 3 & 4 B)
C) 1, 3 & 4 C)
D) All of the above D)
100. Who is authorized/ competent to serve Summon 100.
for preparing Record of Evidence (ROE)?
A) Inquiry Officer A)
B) Commanding Officer of the Accused B)
C) Dy. Judge Attorney General of respective Ftr C)
Hqrs. D)
D) None of the above
AC(LDCE)2024-25 23 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-A
Text of page 24
Assistant Commandant (GD) LDCE-2024-25 ROLL NO.
Date of Written Examination
1
QUESTION PAPER-II Question Booklet Set
2 hrs
Time Allowed Question Booklet Code B
100
Max Marks CAPF Code
Read carefully the instructions given on this page before you open the Question- Booklet and begin to
answer the questions.
Do not open the seal of the booklet until you are told to do so
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
(Please read these instructions carefully)
1. Candidate must write his/her Roll Number in the space provided on
the top right hand side of this page.
2. Candidate should mark his/her answer only on the answer sheet
which is being provided separately.
3. It is most important that a candidate must fill up details like his/her
Name, Roll No. & put his/her signature by pen in the answer sheet. If
details are not completed by candidate, his/her answer sheet will not be
evaluated.
4. There are 23 pages in this Question Booklet, candidate on receiving
his/her Question Booklet should check the Pages of the Question
Booklet. If a candidate receives an incomplete or defective Question
Booklet, he/she can make a request to the Invigilator to change the
same within 10 minutes of start of the Examination.
5. Candidate should not put any peculiar mark or write anything
anywhere either in the Question Booklet or in the answer sheet. Any
the candidature of such candidate will be cancelled.
6. Do not detach any leaf from the Question Booklet. After the
Examination, hand over the Answer-Sheet to the Invigilator.
AC(LDCE)2024-25 1 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 25
1. Who generates contract on GeM? 1. GeM
A) Buyer A)
B) Consignee B)
C) PAO C)
D) DDO D)
2. Which of the following is the correct sequence of 2.
non-electric Chain of Detonation?
A) Flame producer- Flame carrier- Shock wave A)
producer- Shock wave carrier-Primer/booster-
Main charge B)
B) Shock wave producer- Shock wave carrier-
Flame producer- Flame carrier- Primer/
booster-Main charge C)
C) Flame carrier-Flame producer- Shock wave
carrier- Shock wave producer- D)
Primer/booster-Main charge
D) None of the above.
3. Consider the following information- 3.
I. Limited Tender Enquiry. I.
II. Two-stage Bidding. II.
III. Single Tender Enquiry. III.
IV. Electronic Reverse Auctions.
IV.
Which of the above method of bidding is not
mentioned in Rule-158 of GFR, 2017? ?
A) II & III A) II III
B) Only V B) V
C) III & V
C) III V
D) None of the above
D)
4. Which of the following option is incorrect 4.
regarding Court of Inquiry (COI)?
A) A Court of Inquiry may consist of one or more A)
members and if only one member is appointed
he shall be an officer.
B) A person not subject to SSB Act, 2007, may B)
also be appointed as additional member when
the Court is to investigate matters of such a
specialized nature as may require the
assistance of specialized person for proper
investigation.
C) A COI may be assembled by the order of an C)
officer not below the rank of Second-In-
Command.
D) No counsel, or legal practitioner shall be D)
permitted to appear before a COI.
AC(LDCE)2024-25 2 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 26
5. Consider the following information in connection 5.
with equipments of demolition set-
I. The burning speed of safety fuse is 2 feet/per I.
minute. II.
II. Detonetor No. 27 is electric detonetor. III. 5
III. The blowing speed of 5 mm cordtex is 6400
meters per second.
IV.
IV. Detonetor no. 33 is non-electric detonator.
Which of the following option is incorrect based
on the above informations? ?
A) I & III A) I III
B) II & IV B) II IV
C) II, III & IV C) II, III IV
D) Only IV D) IV
6. Why things are seen? Find the correct option- 6.
A) Shadow, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Shape, A)
Spacing & Movement B)
B) Shadow, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Size, C)
Spacing & Movement
C) Sunlight, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Shape,
D)
Spacing & Movement
D) Shadow, Sequence, Shine, Silhouette, Shape,
Spacing & movement
7. What is the full form of GPS? 7.
A) Google Position System A)
B) Global Provisioning System B)
C) Global Positioning System C)
D) Global Positioning Satellite D)
8. Consider the following informations- 8.
Sl. No. Force Year of establishment
1. NIA 2009 1. 2009
2. NSG 1984 2. 1984
3. CRPF 1938 3. 1938
4. ITBP 1962 4. 1962
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 2 & 4
B)
C) 1, 2 & 4
D) Only 4 C)
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 3 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 27
9. Consider the following informations- 9.
Sl. Paticulars Helpline
No. number
1. Child Protection & Welfare 1098 1. 1098
2. Women Helpline 1092 2. 1092
3. Cyber crime 1930 3. 1930
4. National Highway 1033 4. 1033
Authority of India
In how many above rows, the given information is
correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 3 & 4 B)
C) 1, 3 & 4 C)
D) All of the above D)
10. Who is authorized/ competent to serve Summon 10.
for preparing Record of Evidence (ROE)?
A) Inquiry Officer A)
B) Commanding Officer of the Accused B)
C) Dy. Judge Attorney General of respective Ftr C)
Hqrs. D)
D) None of the above
11. Consider the following statements- 11.
Statement I: De-facto boundary is a legal I:
boundary, decided and ratified by the involved
National Government and if possible demarcated
by numbered pillars.
Statement II: De-jure boundary is the alignment on II:
the ground decided by two opposing force
commanders, delineated on maps and signed by
both as a token of acceptance.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) Only statement I is correct. A) I
B) Only statement II is correct. B) II
C) Both statements are correct.
C
D) Both statements are incorrect.
D
12. For rank other than an officer, what is the time 12.
limit to put in an appeal against the termination of
service as per SSB Rules, 2009?
A) 30 days A)
B) 45 days B)
C) 60 days C)
D) 90 days D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 4 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 28
13. Consider the following informations- 13.
I. Treaty of Peace and Friendship between India I.
and Nepal was signed on 31st July, 1950.
II. Treaty of Extradition between Govt. of Nepal II.
and the Govt. of India was signed on 2nd Oct,
1960. III.
III. The revised Indo-Bhutan Friendship Treaty
was signed on 8th Feb, 2007.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & III are correct. A) I III
B) II & III are correct. B) II III
C) Only II is correct. C) II
D) All of the above statements are incorrect.
D)
14. 14.
Indo-Nepal Border in hilly/ mountainous border?
A) 10 yards on either side of INB. A)
B) There is no specified width. B)
C) 10 meter on either side of INB.
C)
D) None of the above.
D)
15. Consider the following statements- 15.
I. The Nepalese monarchy was abolished in the I.
year 2008. II.
II. Sh. K.P. Sharma Oli, PM of Nepal belongs to ( )
the Communist Party of Nepal (Maoist III.
Centre).
III. Length of INB in the state of Uttar Pradesh is
579 Km.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements? A) I
A) Only I is correct. B) II III
B) II & III are correct. C) II
C) Only II is correct. D)
D) None of the above.
16. Which of the following districts of Bhutan does 16.
not share its border with India?
A) Trashi Yangtse A)
B) Sarpang B)
C) Punakha C)
D) Zhemganj D)
17. How many Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) are 17.
earmarked on IBB & INB respectively?
A) 1, 7 A) 1, 7
B) 2, 5 B) 2, 5
C) 2, 6 C) 2, 6
D) 1, 5 D) 1, 5
AC(LDCE)2024-25 5 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 29
18. Consider the following informations- 18.
Sl. Short Full form
No. form
1. PRAN Permanent Retirement 1.
Account Number
2. GIS Geological Information 2.
System
3. PPAN Permanent Pension Account 3.
Number
4. PIMS Permanent Inventory 4.
Management System
In how many above rows, the given information is
correctly matched?
A) 1 & 4 A)
B) 1 & 2 B)
C) 2 & 4 C)
D) 1 & 3 D)
19. What is the present authorization of land for a SSB 19.
Battalion within limit of Municipal Corporations?
A) 70 Acre A)
B) 25 Acre B)
C) 20 Acre C)
D) 40 Acre
D)
20. Section 103 of Customs Act, 1962 deals with- 20.
A) Person to be searched may require to be taken
before Gazetted Officer of Customs or A)
Magistrate.
B) Power to screen or X-ray bodies of suspected
persons for detecting secreted goods. B)
C) Power to examine persons.
D) Power to stop and search conveyances. C)
D)
21. Consider the following full forms- 21.
I. PUC- Page Under Consideration I.
II. NSP- Note Sheet Para II.
III. APAR- Annual Performance Assessment III.
Report
IV.
IV. SPARROW- Smart Performance Appraisal
Report Recording Online Window
V. DSC- Digital Signature Certificate
V.
VI. FR & SR- Financial Rule & Statutory Rule VI.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above full forms?
A) II, III & IV A) II, III IV
B) I, III, IV & V
C) I, II & VI
B) I, III, IV V
D) None of the above C) I, II VI
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 6 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 30
22. Consider the following full forms- 22.
I. DFMD- Deep Field Metal Detector I.
II. DSMD- Door Search Metal Detector II.
III. FUP- Forming Up Place III.
IV. LRP- Long Range Patrol
IV.
V. OP- Observation Place
VI. LP-Lighting Place V.
VI.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above full forms?
A) I, II, V & VI A) I, II, V VI
B) III & IV
B) III IV
C) I, II, & VI
D) III & VI C) I, II, VI
D) III VI
23. Which of the following option is incorrect in 23. (PCA)
respect of Personal Computer Advance (PCA)?
A) All Govt. servant are eligible for PCA. A)
B) The Competent Authority to sanction PCA is
B)
department of Central Govt./
Administration/Head of Department.
C) A second or subsequent advance for purchase C)
of Personal Computer can not be granted
before expiry of 05 years from the date of
drawal of earlier advance. D)
D) PCA may be allowed maximum 05 times in
entire service.
24. Which of the following options is correct 24.
regarding Children Education Allowance (CEA)?
A) CEA or Hostel Subsidy can be claimed for a A)
third child if not claimed for first or second
child.
B) CEA can be claimed for same class twice only
when the child fails in the particular class. B)
C) Re-imbursement of CEA will be made once in
a calendar year. C)
D) CEA can not be claimed if the children D)
studying through correspondence or distance
learning.
25. What is the age limit of an unmarried daughter 25.
who is wholly dependent on a Govt. servant for re-
imbursement of medical claims?
A) 25 years A)
B) 30 years B)
C) 21 years C)
D) No age limit D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 7 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 31
26. Which of the following options is incorrect about 26.
technical data of AK-47 assault rifle? ?
A) Length with open butt is 868 mm. A)
B) Cyclic rate of fire is 660 round per minute. B)
C) Weight with empty magazine is 4.622 Kg.
D) Normal rate of fire is 1 magazine in 1 minute.
C)
D)
27. After how many days of absence, Court of Inquiry 27.
is mandatory?
A) 90 days A) 90
B) 45 Days B) 45
C) 60 Days C) 60
D) 30 days D) 30
28. Which of the following are types of section 28.
formation?
A) Diamond formation, A)
Arrow head formation,
One up-two down formation &
Spear head formation
B) Pearl formation, B)
Javelin head formation,
Single file formation &
One up formation
C) Diamond formation, C)
Arrow head formation,
Spear head formation &
Extended line formation
D) Line formation, D)
Single File formation,
Hexagon formation &
Spear Head formation
29. Consider the following statements- 29.
I. Cyclic rate of fire of 9 mm CMG is 500-550 I.
Rds per minute.
II. Length of barrel of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is II. ( )
6.25 inch.
III. Effective range of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is III. ( )
15 yards.
IV. Weight of the HE No. 36 Grenade is 1 pound
IV. 10½
10½ Ounce.
Which of the option is correct based on the above
statements?
A) I, II & III A) I, II III
B) II, III & IV
B) II, III IV
C) II & III
D) I, III & IV C) II III
D) I, III IV
AC(LDCE)2024-25 8 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 32
30. How many copies of bills are required while 30.
making any purchase by the QM branch?
A) ;
A) Bills in duplicate (One each for; accounts ZPAO
branch & ZPAO). B) ;
B) Bills in triplicate (One each for; QM branch,
ZPAO
accounts branch & ZPAO).
C) Five copies of bills (One each for; QM C) ;
branch, accounts branch, QM store, ZPAO & ZPAO
PAO). PAO
D) Bills in Quadriplicate (One each for; QM D) ;
branch, accounts branch, DDO & ZPAO). ZPAO
31. What is the minimum number of officer required 31.
to compose a General Force Court?
A) One A)
B) Four B)
C) Three C)
D) Five D)
32. What is the time limit for entries of seizure and 32.
incident in Seizure & Incident Management
System (SIMS)?
A) Within 24 hours A)
B) Within 48 hours B)
C) Within 07 days C)
D) Within 01 month D)
33. How many SSB Battalions have been entrusted 33.
situation? A)
A) 12 B)
B) 10 C)
C) 11
D)
D) 08
34. What is the frequency for conducting Boundary 34.
Working Group (BWG) meeting between India
and Nepal? A)
A) Half yearly B)
B) Yearly C)
C) Once in every two years.
D)
D) None of the above
35. 35.
A) 05 gram A)
B) 02 gram B
C) 50 gram C
D) 250 gram
D
36. What is the authorization of Assault Rifle 36.
(7.62X39 mm) against 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle for x
a Battalion deployed in LWE area?
A) 50% of total authorization of rifles. A) 50%
B) 75% of total authorization of rifles. B) 75%
C) 100% of total authorization of rifles.
C) 100%
D) 33% of total authorization of rifles.
D) 33%
AC(LDCE)2024-25 9 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 33
37. What is the procurement ceiling for general goods 37. GeM
through GeM without quotations?
A) 10,00,000/- A) 10,00,000/-
B) 50,000/- B) 50,000/-
C) 25,000/- C) 25,000/-
D) 1,00,000/- D) 1,00,000/-
38. In SSB, personnel of which rank can exercise the 38.
delegated powers under NDPS Act, 1985?
A) Not below the rank of Assistant Commandant A)
B) Not below the rank of Sub Inspector B)
C) Not below the rank of Head Constable C)
D) None of the above
D)
39. As per 7th Central Pay Commission, Composite 39.
Transfer Grant is-
A) 70 % of Basic pay A) 70
B) 80 % of Basic pay B) 80
C) 90 % of Basic pay C) 90
D) 50 % of Basic pay D) 50
40. Consider the offences under following Sections of 40.
SSB Act, 2007-
I. Section - 24 I. - 24
II. Section - 22 (c) II. - 22 (c)
III. Section - 16 III. - 16
IV. Section - 49
IV. - 49
Offences under which of the above Sections can
not be dealt summarily?
A) Both II & III A) II III
B) Both III & IV B) III IV
C) Both I & IV
C) I IV
D) Only II
D) II
41. How many Sniper Rifles are authorized in a SSB 41.
Battalion?
A) 2 A) 2
B) 3 B) 3
C) 4 C) 4
D) 7 D) 7
AC(LDCE)2024-25 10 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 34
42. Consider the following statements in respect of 42.
Child Care Leave (CCL)-
I. CCL shall not be granted for more than three I.
spells in a calendar year, in case of single
female Govt. servant.
II. CCL may not be granted for a period less than II.
five days at a time.
III. Women employees and single male employees III.
having minor children may be granted CCL.
IV. Intervening holidays will count as CCL as in
the case of EL.
IV.
Which of the following option is incorrect based
on the above informations?
A) I, II & IV A) I, II, IV
B) II & IV
B) II IV
C) I & II
D) Only I
C) I II
D) I
43. Which of the following statements related to 43.
composition of Internal Complaint Committee
(ICC) is not correct?
A) There shall be minimum 05 members in ICC. A)
B) Unit head of each unit shall ensure constitution B)
of such ICC in respect of their units.
C) It is to ensure that atleast half of the total
nominated members of ICC shall be women. C)
D) No male officer should be chairperson/PO of
ICC. D)
44. Consider the following statements in respect of 44.
Charter of Duties of SSB-
I. Safeguard the security of assigned borders of I.
India & promote sense of security among the
people living in border area. II.
II. Prevent trans-border trades, smuggling &
other legal activity. III.
III. Prevent authorized entry into or exit from the
territory of India. IV. (APF)
IV. To carry out friendly sports tournament with
the counterpart (APF) in the AOR.
V. To perform any other duty assigned by the
V.
concerned State Government.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) II, III & IV A) II, III IV
B) Only I B) I
C) II, III, IV & V
D) All of the above
C) II, III, IV V
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 11 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 35
45. Which of the following statements related to 45.
general etiquettes of the Force is not correct?
A) A salute must be returned with smartness and A)
promptness.
B) When a senior officer is present, a junior B)
officer does not salute or get up for an officer
who is junior to the officer present.
C) Lady wives may interfere in the official
matters whenever required. C)
D) When entering in a mess lounge or dining hall
remove the head dress and hang it on the rack D)
provided for it.
46. In which Indian district, the authorized trade route 46.
-
A)
A) Maharajganj B)
B) Siddharthnagar C)
C) Jalpaiguri D)
D) Baharaich
47. 47.
sanctioned in SSB?
A) 1 A)
B) 6 B)
C) 18
D) 2 C)
D)
48. Under which section of SSB Act, 2007, there is 48.
provision of Redressal of grievances of officers in
which the officer, may complain to the DG or the
Central Government through proper channel?
A) Section-105 A
B) Section-120 B
C) Section-14 C
D) Section-15
D
49. Which of the following option is incorrect? 49.
A) A Petty Force Court (PFC) may be convened A)
by an officer having power to convene a
General Force Court (GFC) or by an officer
empowered in this behalf by warrant of any
such officer. B)
B) A PFC shall have the power to try any person
subject to SSB Act, 2007 for any offences
punishable thereunder and to pass any
sentence authorized thereby. C)
C) A PFC shall consist of not less than three
officers. D)
D) Kinds of Force Court are mentioned under
section 76 of SSB Act, 2007.
AC(LDCE)2024-25 12 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 36
50. Which colour of ink may be used in the office by 50.
all category of staffs and officers?
A) Blue, Black or Red A
B) Blue or Black B
C) Blue only C
D) Blue, Black or Green
D
51. What is the full form of CRAC? 51.
A) Consignee Receipt and Acceptance Certificate. A)
B) Consignee Registration and Acceptance B)
Certificate. C)
C) Consignee receipt and Agreement Certificate. D)
D) Consent receipt and Acceptance Certificate.
52. How many sections and rules are there in SSB Act, 52.
2007 & Rules, 2009?
A) 165 Sections and 188 Rules A)
B) 165 Sections and 178 Rules B)
C) 156 Sections and 188 Rules C)
D) 156 Sections and 178 Rules
D)
53. Consider the following information with respect of 53.
SSB Act, 2007-
Sl. Section Offences
No.
1. 26 Ill-treating a subordinate 1. 26
2. 23 Disobedience to Superior 2. 23
Officer 3. 25
3. 25 False information on enrolment
4. 27 Certain forms of disgraceful 4. 27
conduct
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1 & 4 A)
B) 2 & 3 B)
C) 2, 3 & 4 C)
D) All of the above
D)
54. Consider the following information with respect to 54.
SSB Rules, 2009-
Sl. Rule Deals with
No.
1. 51 Record of Evidence 1. 51
2. 18 Termination of Service 2. 18
3. 28 Resignation 3. 28
4. 175 Procedure of CoI 4. 175
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 4 A)
B) 2 & 3
B)
C) 2, 3 & 4
D) All of the above C)
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 13 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 37
55. Consider the following statements- 55.
I. Authorization of ASI(GD) in an IS duty Coy. I.
is 11.
II. 03 CT(Cook) are authorized in an IS duty Coy. II.
III. Strength of TAC HQ for Ad-hoc Bn during IS
duty is 17.
III.
IV. Authorization of land for a SSB BOP is 4.00 TAC HQ)
Acre.
IV.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & IV
B) I, II & III
A) I IV
C) II & IV
D) All of the above B) I, II III
C) II IV
D)
56. Powers under Section-101, 103 and 109 of 56.
Customs Act, 1962 have been conferred to the
SSB personnel having rank of
A) Head Constable to Commandant A)
B) ASI to Commandant B)
C) ASI to Assistant Commandant C)
D) Assistant Commandant to Commandant D)
57. Consider the following information- 57.
Sl. Trijunction Under the AOR of
No. Sector HQ
1. Batang-la SHQ Ranidanga 1.
2. Sherjunla SHQ Bomdilla 2.
3. Jonsang Peak SHQ Gangtok 3.
4. Lipu lekh SHQ Almora 4.
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 2, 3 & 4
B)
C) 3 & 4
C)
D) None of the above
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 14 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 38
58. Consider the following statements- 58.
I. An individual may take or send out of India to I.
Nepal or Bhutan notes of denomination of INR
100 with no upper limit. II.
II. An individual may carry notes of
denomination INR 2000 from India to Nepal
or Bhutan upto an upper limit of INR 25000
only. III.
III. An individual travelling from India to Nepal or
Bhutan can carry new series of denomination
INR 200 and/or 500 upto an upper limit
25000.
Which of the following option is not correct in
respect of above statements?
A) Only II A) II
B) I & III B) I III
C) II & III C) II III
D) All of the above D)
59. In a map, Magnetic Variation (MV) is 3° (east) & 59. MV °
Angle of Convergence (AOC) is 1° (west). If (AOC) °
Magnetic Bearing (MB) of a particular place is MB ° (TB
55°, please calculate True Bearing (TB) & Grid
GB)
Bearing (GB)?
A) TB 58°; GB 59°
A) TB 58°; GB 59°
B) TB 52°; GB 58° B) TB 52°; GB 58°
C) TB 51°; GB 56° C) TB 51°; GB 56°
D) TB 57° ; GB 58° D) TB 57° ; GB 58°
60. Consider the following statements- 60.
I. Angle between the true north line and the Grid I.
North line at a particular place is known as
Angle of convergence. II.
II. The angle between the true north line and the
Magnetic North line is known as Magnetic
variation.
Which of the following option is not correct in
respect of above statements?
A) Only I A) I
B) Only II B) II
C) I & II
D) None of the above
C) I II
D)
61. Which rule of SSB Rules, 2009 defines the task of 61.
force command and control thereto?
A) Rule-09 A)
B) Rule-11 B)
C) Rule-07 C)
D) Rule-12
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 15 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 39
62. Which of the following river is related with the 62.
A) Ghaghra River A)
B) Koshi River B)
C) Gandak River C)
D) Susta River
D)
63. 63.
in the case of D.K. Basu Vs State of West Bengal
is related to which of the following?
A) Guidelines required to be followed while A)
making arrest. B)
B) Guidelines to prevent sexual harassment at C)
workplace.
C) Guidelines to protect welfare of bordering area D)
population.
D) None of the above.
64. The network of horizontal & vertical lines or the 64.
Easting and Northing lines is called-
A) Conventional line A)
B) Scale B)
C) Grid C)
D) Symbols D)
65. What is the full form of BIT? 65.
A) Border Intelligence Team A)
B) Border Information Team B)
C) Border Interaction Team C)
D) Border Investigation Team
D)
66. Consider the following information with respect to 66.
authorization of weapons to SSB Battalion-
Sl. Weapon Authorization
No.
1 51 mm Mortar 24 1 51 mm Mortar 24
2 81 mm Mortar 03 2 81 mm Mortar 03
3 LMG INSAS 5.56 mm 126 3 LMG INSAS 5.56 mm 126
4 Pistol 9 mm 45 4 Pistol 9 mm 45
In which of the above rows, the given information
is incorrectly matched?
A) 1 & 3 A)
B) 2, 3 & 4 B)
C) 1, 2 & 4 C)
D) All of the above
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 16 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 40
67. Consider the following information- 67.
Sl. Indian Town Counterpart Nepal/
No. Bhutan Town
1 Jogbani Biratnagar 1
2 Jaigaon Phuntsholing 2
3 Raxaul Bhairahwa 3
4 Naxalbari Kakrabhita 4
(Panitanki)
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3
A)
B) 3 & 4
C) 1, 2 & 4
B)
D) 1 & 4 C)
D)
68. Which ammunition is used in AK-47 Assault 68. AK-47
Rifle?
A) 7.62 mm X 51 mm A) 7.62 X 51
B) 7.62 mm X 54 mm B) 7.62 X 54
C) 7.62 mm X 39 mm C) 7.62 X 39
D) 7.62 mm X 45 mm D) 7.62 X 45
69. What is the currency of Bhutan? 69.
A) Ngultrum A
B) Yen B
C) Bhutanese Rupees C
D) Yangtse
D
70. Consider the following statements- 70.
I. There are 26 agreed routes for mutual trade on I.
INB.
II. There are 05 agreed trade and transit routes on II.
IBB.
III. A total of 12 Indian districts shares border with III.
Bhutan.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I, II & III A) I, II III
B) II, III & IV B) II, III IV
C) II & III
C) II III
D) I & II
D) I II
71. How many Cardinal Points, Three Letter Points 71.
and Intermediate Points respectively are there in a
Compass? A)
A) 4, 4 & 8 B)
B) 8, 4 & 4 C)
C) 4, 4 & 4 D)
D) 4, 8 & 4
AC(LDCE)2024-25 17 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 41
72. As per Article 246 of Indian Constitution, Border 72.
A) Central Government A)
B) State and Central Government B)
C) State Government C)
D) Indian Army and concerned CAPF D)
73. In a 73. (MV) °
°
bearing of a particular place is measured as 85° by ° (MB),
a compass, calculate Magnetic Bearing (MB),
(TB) (GB)
True Bearing (TB) & Grid Bearing (GB),
whereas, the Local Magnetic Attraction of that °
A) A)
B) B)
C) C)
D) D)
74. What are the 08 actions of 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle 74.
in correct sequence?
A) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Load-Feed- A)
Lock- Fire
B) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Feed- Load- B)
Lock- Fire
C) Unlock- Eject- Cock- Extract- Feed-Load- C)
Lock- Fire
D) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Feed- Lock-
D)
Load- Fire
75. Which rank of SSB personnel have been conferred 75.
with the powers under Section-19, 22(2), 23 and
24 of Arms Act, 1959?
A) Constable and above A)
B) Head Constable and above B)
C) Sub-Inspector and above C)
D) Not below the rank of Assistant Commandant D)
76. Under which section of SSB Act, 2007, Sashastra 76.
Seema Bal has been mentioned as Armed Force of
the Union?
A) Section-9 A) -9
B) Section-5 B) -5
C) Section-4 C) -4
D) Section-15
D) -15
77. 77.
have been conferred to SSB under which section
of Passport Act, 1967?
A) Section-15 & 19 A)
B) Section-12 & 14 B)
C) Section-13 & 15 C)
D) Section-13 & 14 D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 18 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 42
78. As per Section-56 of SSB Act, 2007, an Assistant 78.
Commandant, commanding a company, has the
power to proceed against a person subject to SSB
Act (other than an Officer, Subordinate Officer &
Under Officer) charged with an offence may
award from the following punishments-
I. Imprisonment in force custody upto 14 days. I.
II. Extra guard or duties. II.
III. Confinement to the line upto 28 days. III.
IV. Severe Reprimand or Reprimand. IV.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & II
B) II, III & IV A) I II
C) III & IV B) II, III IV
D) All of the above C) III IV
D)
79. Consider the following informations- 79.
I. Casual leave is not a recognized form of leave. I.
II. Casual leave can be combined with joining
time. II. Joining
III. Casual leave can not be taken while on tour. Time
IV. Casual leave can be taken for half-day also.
III.
IV.
Which of the following option is correct based on
the above informations?
A) I, II & IV
B) I & III A) I, II, IV
C) I & IV B) I III
D) III & IV
C) I IV
D) III IV
80. Consider the following statements- 80.
I. Transfer of SSB from Cabinet Secretariat to I.
MHA taken place on 20th Jan, 2001.
II. SSB was tasked to guard India- Bhutan Border II.
on 12th March, 2004.
III. SSB Act was enacted on the 20th Dec, 2007. III.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & III A) I III
B) II & III
C) None of the above
B) II III
D) All of the above C)
D)
81. Financial up-gradation under MACP is granted to 81.
which grade?
A) Same grade A)
B) Higher grade B)
C) Depends on the situation C)
D) Lower grade
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 19 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 43
82. Which of the following is included in the salary 82.
calculation for House Rent Allowance (HRA)
purpose? A)
A) Basic Pay B)
B) Basic Pay + Dearness Allowance (D.A) C)
C) Risk & Hardship Allowance(R.H.A)+D.A
D)
D) Basic Pay+R.H.A+D.A
83. LTC advance can be drawn as- 83.
A) 80% of the estimated cost of journey both A) 80
ways.
B) 90% of the estimated cost of journey both B) 90
ways.
C) 50% of the estimated cost of journey both C) 50
ways.
D) 100% of the estimated cost of journey both D) 100
ways.
84. Consider the following informations in connection 84.
with 9 mm Pistol-
I. Weight of empty 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is I. ( )
910 gms.
II. Muzzle velocity of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) II. ( )
is 305 mtr./sec.
III. Effective range of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is III. ( )
15 yards.
IV. Length of barrel in 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is IV. ( )
4.75 inch.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements
A) I & II A) I II
B) II & III B) II III
C) III & IV C) III IV
D) All of the above
D)
85. Consider the following statements in connection 85.
with No. 36 HE Grenade-
I. The killing range is 9 mtrs. I.
II. The dangerous area is 300 yards in all sides II.
from the point of burst.
III. Priming is required before firing. III.
IV. Igniter set with delay of 07 seconds is used for
IV.
Rifle grenade.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) I, II & IV A) I, II IV
B) II & III B) II III
C) I & III C) I III
D) Only I
D) I
AC(LDCE)2024-25 20 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 44
86. Consider the following information in connection 86.
with weapons of Close Quarter Battle (CQB)-
I. I
I. Tube launching Mark-I
II.
II. Bayonet
III. 5.56 mm LMG III.
IV. 9 mm Pistol IV.
Which of the above weapons is/are not categorized
under weapon of CQB?
A) I & II A) I II
B) II, III & IV B) II, III IV
C) I & III C) I III
D) All of the above
D)
87. Which of the following entry is not recorded in the 87.
service book?
A) Pay fixation A)
B) Leave Travel Concession B)
C) Pay Increment C)
D) Last Pay Slip D)
88. Under which section of Right to Information Act- 88.
2005, SSB has been exempted from providing
information (other than Corruption & Human
Rights)?
A) Section- 24 A) 24
B) Section- 25 B) 25
C) Section- 26 C) 26
D) Section- 23 D) 23
89. Under RTI Act, 2005, first appeal shall be 89.
disposed off by the first Appellate Authority
A) 40 days A)
B) 50 days B)
C) 30 days C)
D) 20 days
D)
90. What is the full form of BDCC? 90.
A) Border Dispute Co-ordination Committee A)
B) Border District Co-ordination Committee B)
C) Border District Cultural Corporation C)
D) Border Development Co-ordination
D)
Committee
AC(LDCE)2024-25 21 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 45
91. In which of the following cases prior pemission/ 91.
sanction of the Competent Authority is not
necessary? A)
A) To join educational institutions or course of
studies for university degree. B)
B) To accept international awards. C)
C) To seek redress in Court of Law or in Central
Administrative Tribunals of grievances arising
out of employment or conditions of service.
D)
D) To accept fee for work done for any private or
public body or person.
92. Consider the following statements in respect of 92.
Children Education Allowance (CEA)-
I. CEA is also admissible for children studying I.
through correspondence or distance learning.
II. The age limit for claiming CEA for the II.
children other than disabled children is 18
years.
III. CEA is not admissible for the period treated as III.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) I & III A) I III
B) II & III
C) Only II
B) II III
D) Only III C) II
D) III
93. Officer of which rank is the Central Public 93.
Information Officer (CPIO) in SSB under RTI Act,
2005?
A) Inspector General A)
B) Deputy Inspector General B)
C) Commandant C)
D) None of the above
D)
94. What is the present rate of Govt. contribution to 94.
Tier-
I of the NPS?
A) 14% of Basic Pay A) 14%
B) 10% of (Basic Pay + DA) B) 10%
C) 14% of (Basic Pay + DA) C) 14%
D) 10% of Basic Pay
D) 10%
AC(LDCE)2024-25 22 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 46
95. When the object appears to be closer? 95. ?
I. If the light is bright and sun is behind the I.
observer. II.
II. If the object is bigger in relation to its
III.
surroundings.
III. If dead ground is there between the obsever
and the object. IV.
IV. If the observer is looking uphill.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above points? ?
A) I, III & IV A) I, III IV
B) II, III & IV B) II, III IV
C) III & IV C) III IV
D) All of the above
D)
96. 96.
changed during the entire service by the Central
Govt. Servant? A)
A) Thrice B)
B) Once C)
C) Twice
D)
D) Four times
97. What is the minimum service required to avail the 97.
LTC facility?
A) Completion of 02 years continuous service. A)
B) Completion of 04 years continuous service. B)
C) Completion of 01 year continuous service. C)
D) After completion of probation period.
D)
98. A Central Govt. servant has an option to commute 98.
into a lumpsum payment. %
A) 50% A) 50%
B) 40% B) 40%
C) 30% C) 30%
D) 60%
D) 60%
99. Any Central Govt. servant can apply for Voluntary 99.
Retirement by
months in advance, only after the completion of
provided no Vigilance or Departmental Enquiry is
pending/initiated against him/her.
A) 04, 18 A)
B) 03, 20 B)
C) 03, 18 C)
D) 04, 20 D)
100. How many financial up-gradations are provided 100.
under MACP?
A) One A)
B) Two B)
C) Four C)
D) Three
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 23 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-B
Text of page 47
Assistant Commandant (GD) LDCE-2024-25 ROLL NO.
Date of Written Examination
1
QUESTION PAPER-II Question Booklet Set
2 hrs
Time Allowed Question Booklet Code C
100
Max Marks CAPF Code
Read carefully the instructions given on this page before you open the Question- Booklet and begin to
answer the questions.
Do not open the seal of the booklet until you are told to do so
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
(Please read these instructions carefully)
1. Candidate must write his/her Roll Number in the space provided on
the top right hand side of this page.
2. Candidate should mark his/her answer only on the answer sheet
which is being provided separately.
3. It is most important that a candidate must fill up details like his/her
Name, Roll No. & put his/her signature by pen in the answer sheet. If
details are not completed by candidate, his/her answer sheet will not be
evaluated.
4. There are 23 pages in this Question Booklet, candidate on receiving
his/her Question Booklet should check the Pages of the Question
Booklet. If a candidate receives an incomplete or defective Question
Booklet, he/she can make a request to the Invigilator to change the
same within 10 minutes of start of the Examination.
5. Candidate should not put any peculiar mark or write anything
anywhere either in the Question Booklet or in the answer sheet. Any
the candidature of such candidate will be cancelled.
6. Do not detach any leaf from the Question Booklet. After the
Examination, hand over the Answer-Sheet to the Invigilator.
AC(LDCE)2024-25 1 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 48
1. In which of the following cases prior pemission/ 1.
sanction of the Competent Authority is not
necessary? A)
A) To join educational institutions or course of
studies for university degree. B)
B) To accept international awards. C)
C) To seek redress in Court of Law or in Central
Administrative Tribunals of grievances arising
out of employment or conditions of service.
D)
D) To accept fee for work done for any private or
public body or person.
2. Consider the following statements in respect of 2.
Children Education Allowance (CEA)-
I. CEA is also admissible for children studying I.
through correspondence or distance learning.
II. The age limit for claiming CEA for the II.
children other than disabled children is 18
years. III.
III. CEA is not admissible for the period treated as
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) I & III A) I III
B) II & III B) II III
C) Only II C) II
D) Only III D) III
3. Officer of which rank is the Central Public 3.
Information Officer (CPIO) in SSB under RTI Act,
2005?
A) Inspector General A)
B) Deputy Inspector General B)
C) Commandant C)
D) None of the above
D)
4. What is the present rate of Govt. contribution to the 4.
-I of the
NPS?
A) 14% of Basic Pay A) 14%
B) 10% of (Basic Pay + DA) B) 10%
C) 14% of (Basic Pay + DA) C) 14%
D) 10% of Basic Pay
D) 10%
AC(LDCE)2024-25 2 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 49
5. When the object appears to be closer? 5. ?
I. If the light is bright and sun is behind the I.
observer. II.
II. If the object is bigger in relation to its
III.
surroundings.
III. If dead ground is there between the obsever
and the object. IV.
IV. If the observer is looking uphill.
Which of the following option is correct in respect ?
of above points? A) I, III IV
A) I, III & IV B) II, III IV
B) II, III & IV
C) III IV
C) III & IV
D) All of the above
D)
6. 6.
changed during the entire service by the Central
Govt. Servant? A)
A) Thrice B)
B) Once C)
C) Twice
D)
D) Four times
7. What is the minimum service required to avail the 7.
LTC facility?
A) Completion of 02 years continuous service. A)
B) Completion of 04 years continuous service. B)
C) Completion of 01 year continuous service. C)
D) After completion of probation period.
D)
8. A Central Govt. servant has an option to commute 8.
into a lumpsum payment. %
A) 50% A) 50%
B) 40% B) 40%
C) 30% C) 30%
D) 60%
D) 60%
9. Any Central Govt. servant can apply for Voluntary 9.
months in advance, only after the completion of
provided no Vigilance or Departmental Enquiry is
pending/initiated against him/her.
A) 04, 18
A)
B) 03, 20 B)
C) 03, 18 C)
D) 04, 20 D)
10. How many financial up-gradations are provided 10.
under MACP?
A) One A)
B) Two B)
C) Four C)
D) Three
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 3 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 50
11. Financial up-gradation under MACP is granted to 11.
which grade?
A) Same grade A)
B) Higher grade B)
C) Depends on the situation C)
D) Lower grade
D)
12. Which of the following is included in the salary 12.
calculation for House Rent Allowance (HRA)
purpose? A)
A) Basic Pay B)
B) Basic Pay + Dearness Allowance (D.A) C)
C) Risk & Hardship Allowance(R.H.A)+D.A
D)
D) Basic Pay+R.H.A+D.A
13. LTC advance can be drawn as- 13.
A) 80% of the estimated cost of journey both A) 80
ways.
B) 90% of the estimated cost of journey both B) 90
ways.
C) 50% of the estimated cost of journey both C) 50
ways.
D) 100% of the estimated cost of journey both D) 100
ways.
14. Consider the following informations in connection 14.
with 9 mm Pistol-
I. Weight of empty 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is I. ( )
910 gms.
II. Muzzle velocity of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is II. ( )
305 mtr./sec.
III. Effective range of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is III. ( )
15 yards.
IV. Length of barrel in 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is IV. ( )
4.75 inch.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements
A) I & II A) I II
B) II & III B) II III
C) III & IV
C) III IV
D) All of the above
D)
15. Consider the following statements in connection 15.
with No. 36 HE Grenade-
I. The killing range is 9 mtrs. I.
II. The dangerous area is 300 yards in all sides II.
from the point of burst.
III. Priming is required before firing. III.
IV. Igniter set with delay of 07 seconds is used for
IV.
Rifle grenade.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) I, II & IV A) I, II IV
B) II & III B) II III
C) I & III C) I III
D) Only I
D) I
AC(LDCE)2024-25 4 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 51
16. Consider the following information in connection 16.
with weapons of Close Quarter Battle (CQB)-
I. Tube launching Mark-I I. I
II. Bayonet
II.
III. 5.56 mm LMG
IV. 9 mm Pistol III.
IV.
Which of the above weapons is/are not categorized
under weapon of CQB?
A) I & II A) I II
B) II, III & IV B) II, III IV
C) I & III C) I III
D) All of the above
D)
17. Which of the following entry is not recorded in the 17.
service book?
A) Pay fixation A)
B) Leave Travel Concession B)
C) Pay Increment C)
D) Last Pay Slip D)
18. Under which section of Right to Information Act- 18.
2005, SSB has been exempted from providing
information (other than Corruption & Human
Rights)?
A) 24
A) Section- 24
B) Section- 25 B) 25
C) Section- 26 C) 26
D) Section- 23 D) 23
19. Under RTI Act, 2005, first appeal shall be disposed 19.
days from the date of its receipt?
A) 40 days A)
B) 50 days B)
C) 30 days C)
D) 20 days D)
20. What is the full form of BDCC? 20.
A) Border Dispute Co-ordination Committee A)
B) Border District Co-ordination Committee B)
C) Border District Cultural Corporation C)
D) Border Development Co-ordination Committe
D)
21. How many Cardinal Points, Three Letter Points 21.
and Intermediate Points respectively are there in a
Compass? A)
A) 4, 4 & 8 B)
B) 8, 4 & 4 C)
C) 4, 4 & 4 D)
D) 4, 8 & 4
AC(LDCE)2024-25 5 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 52
22. As per Article 246 of Indian Constitution, Border 22.
A) Central Government A)
B) State and Central Government B)
C) State Government C)
D) Indian Army and concerned CAPF D)
23. 23. (MV) °
(West). If °
bearing of a particular place is measured as 85° by ° (MB),
a compass, calculate Magnetic Bearing (MB), True
(TB) (GB)
Bearing (TB) & Grid Bearing (GB), whereas, the
°
(west)?
A) A)
B) B)
C) C)
D) D)
24. What are the 08 actions of 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle 24.
in correct sequence?
A) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Load-Feed- A)
Lock- Fire
B) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Feed- Load- B)
Lock- Fire
C) Unlock- Eject- Cock- Extract- Feed-Load- C)
Lock- Fire
D) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Feed- Lock- D)
Load- Fire
25. Which rank of SSB personnel have been conferred 25.
with the powers under Section-19, 22(2), 23 and 24
of Arms Act, 1959?
A)
A) Constable and above B)
B) Head Constable and above C)
C) Sub-Inspector and above D)
D) Not below the rank of Assistant Commandant
26. Under which section of SSB Act, 2007, Sashastra 26.
Seema Bal has been mentioned as Armed Force of
the Union?
A) Secion-9 A) -9
B) Section-5 B) -5
C) Section-4 C) -4
D) Section-15
D) -15
27. 27.
have been conferred to SSB under which section of
Passport Act, 1967?
A) Section-15 & 19 A)
B) Section-12 & 14 B)
C) Section-13 & 15 C)
D) Section-13 & 14
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 6 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 53
28. As per Section-56 of SSB Act, 2007, an Assistant 28.
Commandant, commanding a company, has the
power to proceed against a person subject to SSB
Act (other than an Officer, Subordinate Officer &
Under Officer) charged with an offence may award
from the following punishments-
I. Imprisonment in force custody upto 14 days. I.
II. Extra guard or duties. II.
III. Confinement to the line upto 28 days. III.
IV. Severe Reprimand or Reprimand. IV.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & II
B) II, III & IV A) I II
C) III & IV B) II, III IV
D) All of the above C) III IV
D)
29. Consider the following informations- 29.
I. Casual leave is not a recognized form of leave. I.
II. Casual leave can be combined with joining
time. II.
III. Casual leave can not be taken while on tour. Joining Time
IV. Casual leave can be taken for half-day also. III.
IV.
Which of the following option is correct based on
the above informations?
A) I, II & IV
B) I & III A) I, II, IV
C) I & IV B) I III
D) III & IV C) I IV
D) III IV
30. Consider the following statements- 30.
I. Transfer of SSB from Cabinet Secretariat to I.
MHA taken place on 20th Jan, 2001.
II. SSB was tasked to guard India- Bhutan Border II.
on 12th March, 2004.
III. SSB Act was enacted on the 20th Dec, 2007. III.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & III A) I III
B) II & III
C) None of the above
B) II III
D) All of the above C)
D)
31. Which rule of SSB Rules, 2009 defines the task of 31.
force command and control thereto?
A) Rule-09 A)
B) Rule-11 B)
C) Rule-07 C)
D) Rule-12
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 7 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 54
32. Which of the following river is related with the 32.
A) Ghaghra River A)
B) Koshi River B)
C) Gandak River C)
D) Susta River D)
33. 33.
in the case of D.K. Basu Vs State of West Bengal
is related to which of the following?
A)
A) Guidelines required to be followed while B)
making arrest.
B) Guidelines to prevent sexual harassment at C)
workplace.
C) Guidelines to protect welfare of bordering area D)
population.
D) None of the above.
34. The network of horizontal & vertical lines or the 34.
Easting and Northing lines is called-
A) Conventional line A)
B) Scale B)
C) Grid C)
D) Symbols D)
35. What is the full form of BIT? 35.
A)
A) Border Intelligence Team B)
B) Border Information Team C)
C) Border Interaction Team
D)
D) Border Investigation Team
36. Consider the following information with respect to 36.
authorization of weapons to SSB Battalion-
Sl. Weapon Authorization
No.
1 51 mm Mortar 24 1 51 mm Mortar 24
2 81 mm Mortar 03 2 81 mm Mortar 03
3 LMG INSAS 5.56 mm 126 3 LMG INSAS 5.56 mm 126
4 Pistol 9 mm 45 4 Pistol 9 mm 45
In which of the above rows, the given information
is incorrectly matched?
A) 1 & 3 A)
B) 2, 3 & 4 B)
C) 1, 2 & 4 C)
D) All of the above
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 8 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 55
37. Consider the following information- 37.
Sl. Indian Town Counterpart Nepal/
No. Bhutan Town
1 Jogbani Biratnagar 1
2 Jaigaon Phuntsholing 2
3 Raxaul Bhairahwa 3
4 Naxalbari Kakrabhita 4
(Panitanki)
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A)
A) 1, 2 & 3
B) 3 & 4
B)
C) 1, 2 & 4 C)
D) 1 & 4 D)
38. Which ammunition is used in AK-47 Assault 38. AK-47
Rifle?
A) 7.62 mm X 51 mm A) 7.62 X 51
B) 7.62 mm X 54 mm B) 7.62 X 54
C) 7.62 mm X 39 mm C) 7.62 X 39
D) 7.62 mm X 45 mm D) 7.62 X 45
39. What is the currency of Bhutan? 39.
A) Ngultrum A
B) Yen B
C) Bhutanese Rupees C
D) Yangtse
D
40. Consider the following statements- 40.
I. There are 26 agreed routes for mutual trade on I.
INB.
II. There are 05 agreed trade and transit routes on II.
IBB.
III. A total of 12 Indian districts shares border with III.
Bhutan.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I, II & III A) I, II III
B) II, III & IV B) II, III IV
C) II & III
C) II III
D) I & II
D) I II
41. What is the full form of CRAC? 41.
A) Consignee Receipt and Acceptance A)
Certificate. B)
B) Consignee Registration and Acceptance C)
Certificate. D)
C) Consignee receipt and Agreement Certificate.
D) Consent receipt and Acceptance Certificate.
AC(LDCE)2024-25 9 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 56
42. How many sections and rules are there in SSB Act, 42.
2007 & Rules, 2009?
A) 165 Sections and 188 Rules A)
B) 165 Sections and 178 Rules B)
C) 156 Sections and 188 Rules C)
D) 156 Sections and 178 Rules
D)
43. Consider the following information with respect of 43.
SSB Act, 2007-
Sl. Section Offences
No.
1. 26 Ill-treating a subordinate 1. 26
2. 23 Disobedience to Superior 2. 23
Officer 3. 25
3. 25 False information on enrolment
4. 27 Certain forms of disgraceful 4. 27
conduct
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1 & 4 A)
B) 2 & 3 B)
C) 2, 3 & 4 C)
D) All of the above D)
44. Consider the following information with respect to 44.
SSB Rules, 2009-
Sl. Rule Deals with
No.
1. 51 Record of Evidence
1. 51
2. 18 Termination of Service 2. 18
3. 28 Resignation 3. 28
4. 175 Procedure of CoI 4. 175
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 4 A)
B) 2 & 3 B)
C) 2, 3 & 4
C)
D) All of the above
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 10 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 57
45. Consider the following statements- 45.
I. Authorization of ASI(GD) in an IS duty Coy. I.
is 11.
II. 03 CT(Cook) are authorized in an IS duty Coy. II.
III. Strength of TAC HQ for Ad-hoc Bn during IS
duty is 17. III.
IV. Authorization of land for a SSB BOP is 4.00 TAC HQ)
Acre.
IV.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & IV
B) I, II & III A) I IV
C) II & IV B) I, II III
D) All of the above
C) II IV
D)
46. Powers under Section-101, 103 and 109 of 46.
Customs Act, 1962 have been conferred to the SSB
personnel having rank of
A) Head Constable to Commandant A)
B) ASI to Commandant B)
C) ASI to Assistant Commandant C)
D) Assistant Commandant to Commandant D)
47. Consider the following information- 47.
Sl. Trijunction Under the AOR of
No. Sector HQ
1. Batang-la SHQ Ranidanga 1.
2. Sherjunla SHQ Bomdilla 2.
3. Jonsang Peak SHQ Gangtok 3.
4. Lipu lekh SHQ Almora
4.
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3
A)
B) 2, 3 & 4
C) 3 & 4
B)
D) None of the above C)
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 11 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 58
48. Consider the following statements- 48.
I. An individual may take or send out of India to I.
Nepal or Bhutan notes of denomination of INR
100 with no upper limit. II.
II. An individual may carry notes of denomination
INR 2000 from India to Nepal or Bhutan upto
an upper limit of INR 25000 only.
III. An individual travelling from India to Nepal or III.
Bhutan can carry new series of denomination
INR 200 and/or 500 upto an upper limit
25000.
Which of the following option is not correct in
respect of above statements?
A) Only II A) II
B) I & III B) I III
C) II & III C) II III
D) All of the above D)
49. In a map, Magnetic Variation (MV) is 3° (east) & 49. MV °
Angle of Convergence (AOC) is 1° (west). If (AOC) °
Magnetic Bearing (MB) of a particular place is MB ° (TB
55°, please calculate True Bearing (TB) & Grid
GB)
Bearing (GB)?
A) TB 58°; GB 59°
A) TB 58°; GB 59°
B) TB 52°; GB 58° B) TB 52°; GB 58°
C) TB 51°; GB 56° C) TB 51°; GB 56°
D) TB 57° ; GB 58° D) TB 57° ; GB 58°
50. Consider the following statements- 50.
I. Angle between the true north line and the Grid I.
North line at a particular place is known as
Angle of convergence. II.
II. The angle between the true north line and the
Magnetic North line is known as Magnetic
variation.
Which of the following option is not correct in
respect of above statements? A) I
A) Only I
B) II
B) Only II
C) I II
C) I & II
D) None of the above
D)
51. How many Sniper Rifles are authorized in a SSB 51.
Battalion?
A) 2 A) 2
B) 3 B) 3
C) 4 C) 4
D) 7 D) 7
AC(LDCE)2024-25 12 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 59
52. Consider the following statements in respect of 52.
Child Care Leave (CCL)-
I. CCL shall not be granted for more than three I.
spells in a calendar year, in case of single
female Govt. servant.
II. CCL may not be granted for a period less than II.
five days at a time.
III. Women employees and single male employees III.
having minor children may be granted CCL.
IV. Intervening holidays will count as CCL as in
the case of EL.
IV.
Which of the following option is incorrect based
on the above informations?
A) I, II & IV A) I, II, IV
B) II & IV
B) II IV
C) I & II
D) Only I
C) I II
D) I
53. Which of the following statements related to 53.
composition of Internal Complaint Committee
(ICC) is not correct?
A) There shall be minimum 05 members in ICC. A)
B) Unit head of each unit shall ensure constitution B)
of such ICC in respect of their units.
C) It is to ensure that atleast half of the total
nominated members of ICC shall be women. C)
D) No male officer should be chairperson/PO of
ICC. D)
54. Consider the following statements in respect of 54.
Charter of Duties of SSB-
I. Safeguard the security of assigned borders of I.
India & promote sense of security among the
people living in border area. II.
II. Prevent trans-border trades, smuggling & other
legal activity. III.
III. Prevent authorized entry into or exit from the
territory of India. IV. (APF)
IV. To carry out friendly sports tournament with
the counterpart (APF) in the AOR.
V. To perform any other duty assigned by the
V.
concerned State Government.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) II, III & IV A) II, III IV
B) Only I B) I
C) II, III, IV & V C) II, III, IV V
D) All of the above D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 13 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 60
55. Which of the following statements related to 55.
general etiquettes of the Force is not correct?
A) A salute must be returned with smartness and A)
promptness.
B) When a senior officer is present, a junior B)
officer does not salute or get up for an officer
who is junior to the officer present.
C) Lady wives may interfere in the official
matters whenever required. C)
D) When entering in a mess lounge or dining hall
remove the head dress and hang it on the rack D)
provided for it.
56. In which Indian district, the authorized trade route 56.
-
A) Maharajganj A)
B) Siddharthnagar B)
C) Jalpaiguri C)
D) Baharaich D)
57. 57.
sanctioned in SSB?
A) 1 A)
B) 6 B)
C) 18 C)
D) 2
D)
58. Under which section of SSB Act, 2007, there is 58.
provision of Redressal of grievances of officers in
which the officer, may complain to the DG or the
Central Government through proper channel?
A) Section-105 A
B) Section-120 B
C) Section-14 C
D) Section-15
D
59. Which of the following option is incorrect? 59.
A) A Petty Force Court (PFC) may be convened A)
by an officer having power to convene a
General Force Court (GFC) or by an officer
empowered in this behalf by warrant of any
such officer. B)
B) A PFC shall have the power to try any person
subject to SSB Act, 2007 for any offences
punishable thereunder and to pass any
sentence authorized thereby. C)
C) A PFC shall consist of not less than three
officers. D)
D) Kinds of Force Court are mentioned under
section 76 of SSB Act, 2007.
60. Which colour of ink may be used in the office by 60.
all category of staffs and officers?
A) Blue, Black or Red A
B) Blue or Black B
C) Blue only C
D) Blue, Black or Green
D
AC(LDCE)2024-25 14 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 61
61. What is the minimum number of officer required 61.
to compose a General Force Court?
A) One A)
B) Four B)
C) Three C)
D) Five D)
62. What is the time limit for entries of seizure and 62.
incident in Seizure & Incident Management
System (SIMS)?
A) Within 24 hours A)
B) Within 48 hours B)
C) Within 07 days C)
D) Within 01 month
D)
63. How many SSB Battalions have been entrusted 63.
situation? A)
A) 12 B)
B) 10 C)
C) 11
D)
D) 08
64. What is the frequency for conducting Boundary 64.
Working Group (BWG) meeting between India
and Nepal? A)
A) Half yearly B)
B) Yearly C)
C) Once in every two years.
D)
D) None of the above
65. What amount of Cocaine is 65.
A) 05 gram A)
B) 02 gram B
C) 50 gram C
D) 250 gram D
66. What is the authorization of Assault Rifle 66.
(7.62X39 mm) against 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle for a x
Battalion deployed in LWE area?
A) 50% of total authorization of rifles. A) 50%
B) 75% of total authorization of rifles. B) 75%
C) 100% of total authorization of rifles.
C) 100%
D) 33% of total authorization of rifles.
D) 33%
67. What is the procurement ceiling for general goods 67. GeM
through GeM without quotations?
A) 10,00,000/- A) 10,00,000/-
B) 50,000/- B) 50,000/-
C) 25,000/- C) 25,000/-
D) 1,00,000/- D) 1,00,000/-
AC(LDCE)2024-25 15 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 62
68. In SSB, personnel of which rank can exercise the 68.
delegated powers under NDPS Act, 1985?
A) Not below the rank of Assistant Commandant A)
B) Not below the rank of Sub Inspector B)
C) Not below the rank of Head Constable C)
D) None of the above
D)
69. As per 7th Central Pay Commission, Composite 69.
Transfer Grant is-
A) 70 % of Basic pay A) 70
B) 80 % of Basic pay B) 80
C) 90 % of Basic pay C) 90
D) 50 % of Basic pay D) 50
70. Consider the offences under following Sections of 70.
SSB Act, 2007-
I. Section - 24 I. - 24
II. Section - 22 (c) II. - 22 (c)
III. Section - 16 III. - 16
IV. Section - 49
IV. - 49
Offences under which of the above Sections can
not be dealt summarily?
A) Both II & III
B) Both III & IV A) II III
C) Both I & IV B) III IV
D) Only II
C) I IV
D) II
71. Consider the following full forms- 71.
I. PUC- Page Under Consideration I.
II. NSP- Note Sheet Para II.
III. APAR- Annual Performance Assessment III.
Report IV.
IV. SPARROW- Smart Performance Appraisal
Report Recording Online Window
V.
V. DSC- Digital Signature Certificate
VI. FR & SR- Financial Rule & Statutory Rule
VI.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above full forms?
A) II, III & IV A) II, III IV
B) I, III, IV & V
B) I, III, IV V
C) I, II & VI
C) I, II VI
D) None of the above
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 16 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 63
72. Consider the following full forms- 72.
I. DFMD- Deep Field Metal Detector I.
II. DSMD- Door Search Metal Detector II.
III. FUP- Forming Up Place III.
IV. LRP- Long Range Patrol
IV.
V. OP- Observation Place
VI. LP-Lighting Place V.
VI.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above full forms?
A) I, II, V & VI A) I, II, V VI
B) III & IV
B) III IV
C) I, II, & VI
D) III & VI C) I, II, VI
D) III VI
73. Which of the following option is incorrect in 73. (PCA)
respect of Personal Computer Advance (PCA)?
A) All Govt. servant are eligible for PCA. A)
B) The Competent Authority to sanction PCA is
B)
department of Central Govt./
Administration/Head of Department.
C) A second or subsequent advance for purchase C)
of Personal Computer can not be granted
before expiry of 05 years from the date of
drawal of earlier advance. D)
D) PCA may be allowed maximum 05 times in
entire service.
74. Which of the following options is correct regarding 74.
Children Education Allowance (CEA)?
A) CEA or Hostel Subsidy can be claimed for a A)
third child if not claimed for first or second
child.
B) CEA can be claimed for same class twice only
when the child fails in the particular class. B)
C) Re-imbursement of CEA will be made once in
a calendar year. C)
D) CEA can not be claimed if the children D)
studying through correspondence or distance
learning.
75. What is the age limit of an unmarried daughter who 75.
is wholly dependent on a Govt. servant for re-
imbursement of medical claims?
A) 25 years A)
B) 30 years B)
C) 21 years C)
D) No age limit D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 17 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 64
76. Which of the following options is incorrect about 76.
technical data of AK-47 assault rifle? ?
A) Length with open butt is 868 mm. A)
B) Cyclic rate of fire is 660 round per minute. B)
C) Weight with empty magazine is 4.622 Kg.
D) Normal rate of fire is 1 magazine in 1 minute.
C)
D)
77. After how many days of absence, Court of Inquiry 77.
is mandatory?
A) 90 days A) 90
B) 45 Days B) 45
C) 60 Days C) 60
D) 30 days D) 30
78. Which of the following are types of section 78.
formation?
A) Diamond formation, A)
Arrow head formation,
One up-two down formation &
Spear head formation
B) Pearl formation, B)
Javelin head formation,
Single file formation &
One up formation
C) Diamond formation, C)
Arrow head formation,
Spear head formation &
Extended line formation
D) Line formation, D)
Single File formation,
Hexagon formation &
Spear Head formation
79. Consider the following statements- 79.
I. Cyclic rate of fire of 9 mm CMG is 500-550 I.
Rds per minute.
II. Length of barrel of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is II. ( )
6.25 inch.
III. Effective range of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is III. ( )
15 yards.
IV. Weight of the HE No. 36 Grenade is 1 pound
IV. 10½
10½ Ounce.
Which of the option is correct based on the above
statements?
A) I, II & III A) I, II III
B) II, III & IV
B) II, III IV
C) II & III
D) I, III & IV C) II III
D) I, III IV
AC(LDCE)2024-25 18 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 65
80. How many copies of bills are required while 80.
making any purchase by the QM branch?
A) ;
A) Bills in duplicate (One each for; accounts ZPAO
branch & ZPAO) B) ;
B) Bills in triplicate (One each for; QM branch,
ZPAO
accounts branch & ZPAO)
C) Five copies of bills (One each for; QM branch, C) ;
accounts branch, QM store, ZPAO & PAO) ZPAO
D) Bills in Quadriplicate (One each for; QM PAO
branch, accounts branch, DDO & ZPAO) D) ;
ZPAO
81. Consider the following statements- 81.
Statement I: De-facto boundary is a legal I:
boundary, decided and ratified by the involved
National Government and if possible demarcated
by numbered pillars.
Statement II: De-jure boundary is the alignment on II:
the ground decided by two opposing force
commanders, delineated on maps and signed by
both as a token of acceptance.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I
A) Only statement I is correct. B) II
B) Only statement II is correct.
C
C) Both statements are correct.
D) Both statements are incorrect. D
82. For rank other than an officer, what is the time limit 82.
to put in an appeal against the termination of
service as per SSB Rules, 2009?
A) 30 days A)
B) 45 days B)
C) 60 days C)
D) 90 days D)
83. Consider the following informations- 83.
I. Treaty of Peace and Friendship between India I.
and Nepal was signed on 31st July, 1950.
II. Treaty of Extradition between Govt. of Nepal II.
and the Govt. of India was signed on 2nd Oct,
1960. III.
III. The revised Indo-Bhutan Friendship Treaty
was signed on 8th Feb, 2007.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & III are correct. A) I III
B) II & III are correct. B) II III
C) Only II is correct. C) II
D) All of the above statements are incorrect.
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 19 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 66
84. 84.
Indo-Nepal Border in hilly/ mountainous border?
A) 10 yards on either side of INB. A)
B) There is no specified width. B)
C) 10 meter on either side of INB.
C)
D) None of the above.
D)
85. Consider the following statements- 85.
I. The Nepalese monarchy was abolished in the I.
year 2008. II.
II. Sh. K.P. Sharma Oli, PM of Nepal belongs to ( )
the Communist Party of Nepal (Maoist III.
Centre).
III. Length of INB in the state of Uttar Pradesh is
579 Km.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements? A) I
A) Only I is correct. B) II III
B) II & III are correct. C) II
C) Only II is correct. D)
D) None of the above.
86. Which of the following districts of Bhutan does not 86.
share its border with India?
A) Trashi Yangtse A)
B) Sarpang B)
C) Punakha C)
D) Zhemganj D)
87. How many Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) are 87.
earmarked on IBB & INB respectively?
A) 1, 7 A) 1, 7
B) 2, 5 B) 2, 5
C) 2, 6 C) 2, 6
D) 1, 5 D) 1, 5
88. Consider the following informations- 88.
Sl. Short Full form
No. form
1. PRAN Permanent Retirement 1.
Account Number
2. GIS Geological Information 2.
System
3. PPAN Permanent Pension Account 3.
Number 4.
4. PIMS Permanent Inventory
Management System
In how many above rows, the given information is
correctly matched?
A) 1 & 4 A)
B) 1 & 2 B)
C) 2 & 4 C)
D) 1 & 3
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 20 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 67
89. What is the present authorization of land for a SSB 89.
Battalion within limit of Municipal Corporations?
A) 70 Acre A)
B) 25 Acre B)
C) 20 Acre C)
D) 40 Acre
D)
90. Section 103 of Customs Act, 1962 deals with- 90.
A) Person to be searched may require to be taken
before Gazetted Officer of Customs or A)
Magistrate.
B) Power to screen or X-ray bodies of suspected
persons for detecting secreted goods. B)
C) Power to examine persons.
D) Power to stop and search conveyances. C)
D)
91. Who generates contract on GeM? 91. GeM
A) Buyer A)
B) Consignee B)
C) PAO C)
D) DDO D)
92. Which of the following is the correct sequence of 92.
non-electric Chain of Detonation?
A) Flame producer- Flame carrier- Shock wave A)
producer- Shock wave carrier-Primer/booster-
Main charge B)
B) Shock wave producer- Shock wave carrier-
Flame producer- Flame carrier- Primer/
booster-Main charge C)
C) Flame carrier-Flame producer- Shock wave
carrier- Shock wave producer- Primer/booster- D)
Main charge
D) None of the above.
93. Consider the following information- 93.
I. Limited Tender Enquiry. I.
II. Two-stage Bidding. II.
III. Single Tender Enquiry. III.
IV. Electronic Reverse Auctions.
IV.
Which of the above method of bidding is not
mentioned in Rule-158 of GFR, 2017? ?
A) II & III A) II III
B) Only V
B) V
C) III & V
D) None of the above C) III V
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 21 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 68
94. Which of the following option is incorrect 94.
regarding Court of Inquiry (COI)?
A) A Court of Inquiry may consist of one or more A)
members and if only one member is appointed
he shall be an officer.
B) A person not subject to SSB Act, 2007, may B)
also be appointed as additional member when
the Court is to investigate matters of such a
specialized nature as may require the
assistance of specialized person for proper
investigation.
C) A COI may be assembled by the order of an C)
officer not below the rank of Second-In-
Command.
D) No counsel, or legal practitioner shall be D)
permitted to appear before a COI.
95. Consider the following information in connection 95.
with equipments of demolition set-
I. The burning speed of safety fuse is 2 feet/per I.
minute. II.
II. Detonetor No. 27 is electric detonetor. III. 5
III. The blowing speed of 5 mm cordtex is 6400
meters per second.
IV.
IV. Detonetor no. 33 is non-electric detonator.
Which of the following option is incorrect based
?
on the above informations?
A) I III
A) I & III B) II IV
B) II & IV
C) II, III IV
C) II, III & IV
D) Only IV D) IV
96. Why things are seen? Find the correct option- 96.
A) Shadow, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Shape, A)
Spacing & Movement B)
B) Shadow, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Size, C)
Spacing & Movement
C) Sunlight, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Shape, D)
Spacing & Movement
D) Shadow, Sequence, Shine, Silhouette, Shape,
Spacing & movement
97. What is the full form of GPS? 97.
A) Google Position System A)
B) Global Provisioning System B)
C) Global Positioning System C)
D) Global Positioning Satellite D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 22 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 69
98. Consider the following informations- 98.
Sl. No. Force Year of establishment
1. NIA 2009 1. 2009
2. NSG 1984 2. 1984
3. CRPF 1938 3. 1938
4. ITBP 1962 4. 1962
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 2 & 4
B)
C) 1, 2 & 4
D) Only 4 C)
D)
99. Consider the following informations- 99.
Sl. Paticulars Helpline
No. number
1. Child Protection & Welfare 1098 1. 1098
2. Women Helpline 1092 2. 1092
3. Cyber crime 1930 3. 1930
4. National Highway 1033 4. 1033
Authority of India
In how many above rows, the given information is
correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 3 & 4 B)
C) 1, 3 & 4 C)
D) All of the above D)
100. Who is authorized/ competent to serve Summon 100.
for preparing Record of Evidence (ROE)?
A) Inquiry Officer A)
B) Commanding Officer of the Accused B)
C) Dy. Judge Attorney General of respective Ftr C)
Hqrs. D)
D) None of the above
AC(LDCE)2024-25 23 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-C
Text of page 70
Assistant Commandant (GD) LDCE-2024-25 ROLL NO.
Date of Written Examination
1
QUESTION PAPER-II Question Booklet Set
2 hrs
Time Allowed Question Booklet Code D
100
Max Marks CAPF Code
Read carefully the instructions given on this page before you open the Question- Booklet and begin to
answer the questions.
Do not open the seal of the booklet until you are told to do so
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
(Please read these instructions carefully)
1. Candidate must write his/her Roll Number in the space provided on
the top right hand side of this page.
2. Candidate should mark his/her answer only on the answer sheet
which is being provided separately.
3. It is most important that a candidate must fill up details like his/her
Name, Roll No. & put his/her signature by pen in the answer sheet. If
details are not completed by candidate, his/her answer sheet will not be
evaluated.
4. There are 23 pages in this Question Booklet, candidate on receiving
his/her Question Booklet should check the Pages of the Question
Booklet. If a candidate receives an incomplete or defective Question
Booklet, he/she can make a request to the Invigilator to change the
same within 10 minutes of start of the Examination.
5. Candidate should not put any peculiar mark or write anything
anywhere either in the Question Booklet or in the answer sheet. Any
the candidature of such candidate will be cancelled.
6. Do not detach any leaf from the Question Booklet. After the
Examination, hand over the Answer-Sheet to the Invigilator.
AC(LDCE)2024-25 1 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 71
1. How many Cardinal Points, Three Letter Points 1.
and Intermediate Points respectively are there in a
Compass? A)
A) 4, 4 & 8 B)
B) 8, 4 & 4 C)
C) 4, 4 & 4 D)
D) 4, 8 & 4
2. As per Article 246 of Indian Constitution, Border 2.
A) Central Government A)
B) State and Central Government B)
C) State Government C)
D) Indian Army and concerned CAPF D)
3. 3. (MV) °
°
bearing of a particular place is measured as 85° by ° (MB),
a compass, calculate Magnetic Bearing (MB),
(TB) (GB)
True Bearing (TB) & Grid Bearing (GB),
whereas, the Local Magnetic Attraction of that °
A) A)
B) B)
C) C)
D) D)
4. What are the 08 actions of 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle 4.
in correct sequence?
A) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Load-Feed- A)
Lock- Fire
B) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Feed- Load- B)
Lock- Fire
C) Unlock- Eject- Cock- Extract- Feed-Load- C)
Lock- Fire
D) Unlock- Extract- Cock- Eject- Feed- Lock-
D)
Load- Fire
5. Which rank of SSB personnel have been conferred 5.
with the powers under Section-19, 22(2), 23 and
24 of Arms Act, 1959?
A) Constable and above A)
B) Head Constable and above B)
C) Sub-Inspector and above C)
D) Not below the rank of Assistant Commandant D)
6. Under which section of SSB Act, 2007, Sashastra 6.
Seema Bal has been mentioned as Armed Force of
the Union?
A) Secion-9 A) -9
B) Section-5 B) -5
C) Section-4 C) -4
D) Section-15 D) -15
AC(LDCE)2024-25 2 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 72
7. 7.
have been conferred to SSB under which section
of Passport Act, 1967?
A) Section-15 & 19 A)
B) Section-12 & 14 B)
C) Section-13 & 15 C)
D) Section-13 & 14
D)
8. As per Section-56 of SSB Act, 2007, an Assistant 8.
Commandant, commanding a company, has the
power to proceed against a person subject to SSB
Act (other than an Officer, Subordinate Officer &
Under Officer) charged with an offence may
award from the following punishments-
I. Imprisonment in force custody upto 14 days. I.
II. Extra guard or duties. II.
III. Confinement to the line upto 28 days. III.
IV. Severe Reprimand or Reprimand. IV.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & II
B) II, III & IV A) I II
C) III & IV B) II, III IV
D) All of the above C) III IV
D)
9. Consider the following informations- 9.
I. Casual leave is not a recognized form of leave. I.
II. Casual leave can be combined with joining
time. II. Joining
III. Casual leave can not be taken while on tour. Time
IV. Casual leave can be taken for half-day also.
III.
IV.
Which of the following option is correct based on
the above informations?
A) I, II & IV
B) I & III A) I, II, IV
C) I & IV B) I III
D) III & IV
C) I IV
D) III IV
10. Consider the following statements- 10.
I. Transfer of SSB from Cabinet Secretariat to I.
MHA taken place on 20th Jan, 2001.
II. SSB was tasked to guard India- Bhutan Border II.
on 12th March, 2004.
III. SSB Act was enacted on the 20th Dec, 2007. III.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & III
A) I III
B) II & III
C) None of the above
B) II III
D) All of the above C)
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 3 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 73
11. Which rule of SSB Rules, 2009 defines the task of 11.
force command and control thereto?
A) Rule-09 A)
B) Rule-11 B)
C) Rule-07 C)
D) Rule-12
D)
12. Which of the following river is related with the 12.
A) Ghaghra River A)
B) Koshi River B)
C) Gandak River C)
D) Susta River
D)
13. Directives of the 13.
in the case of D.K. Basu Vs State of West Bengal
is related to which of the following?
A) Guidelines required to be followed while A)
making arrest. B)
B) Guidelines to prevent sexual harassment at
workplace. C)
C) Guidelines to protect welfare of bordering area
population. D)
D) None of the above.
14. The network of horizontal & vertical lines or the 14.
Easting and Northing lines is called-
A) Conventional line A)
B) Scale B)
C) Grid C)
D) Symbols D)
15. What is the full form of BIT? 15.
A) Border Intelligence Team A)
B) Border Information Team B)
C) Border Interaction Team C)
D) Border Investigation Team
D)
16. Consider the following information with respect to 16.
authorization of weapons to SSB Battalion-
Sl. Weapon Authorization
No.
1 51 mm Mortar 24 1 51 mm Mortar 24
2 81 mm Mortar 03 2 81 mm Mortar 03
3 LMG INSAS 5.56 mm 126 3 LMG INSAS 5.56 mm 126
4 Pistol 9 mm 45 4 Pistol 9 mm 45
In which of the above rows, the given information
is incorrectly matched?
A) 1 & 3 A)
B) 2, 3 & 4 B)
C) 1, 2 & 4 C)
D) All of the above
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 4 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 74
17. Consider the following information- 17.
Sl. Indian Town Counterpart Nepal/
No. Bhutan Town
1 Jogbani Biratnagar 1
2 Jaigaon Phuntsholing 2
3 Raxaul Bhairahwa 3
4 Naxalbari Kakrabhita 4
(Panitanki)
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A)
A) 1, 2 & 3
B) 3 & 4
B)
C) 1, 2 & 4 C)
D) 1 & 4 D)
18. Which ammunition is used in AK-47 Assault 18. AK-47
Rifle?
A) 7.62 mm X 51 mm A) 7.62 X 51
B) 7.62 mm X 54 mm B) 7.62 X 54
C) 7.62 mm X 39 mm C) 7.62 X 39
D) 7.62 mm X 45 mm D) 7.62 X 45
19. What is the currency of Bhutan? 19.
A) Ngultrum A
B) Yen B
C) Bhutanese Rupees C
D) Yangtse
D
20. Consider the following statements- 20.
I. There are 26 agreed routes for mutual trade on I.
INB.
II. There are 05 agreed trade and transit routes on II.
IBB.
III. A total of 12 Indian districts shares border with III.
Bhutan.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I, II & III A) I, II III
B) II, III & IV B) II, III IV
C) II & III
C) II III
D) I & II
D) I II
21. What is the full form of CRAC? 21.
A) Consignee Receipt and Acceptance A)
Certificate. B)
B) Consignee Registration and Acceptance C)
Certificate. D)
C) Consignee receipt and Agreement Certificate.
D) Consent receipt and Acceptance Certificate.
22. How many sections and rules are there in SSB Act, 22.
2007 & Rules, 2009?
A) 165 Sections and 188 Rules A)
B) 165 Sections and 178 Rules B)
C) 156 Sections and 188 Rules C)
D) 156 Sections and 178 Rules
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 5 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 75
23. Consider the following information with respect of 23.
SSB Act, 2007-
Sl. Section Offences
No.
1. 26 Ill-treating a subordinate 1. 26
2. 23 Disobedience to Superior 2. 23
Officer 3. 25
3. 25 False information on enrolment
4. 27 Certain forms of disgraceful 4. 27
conduct
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1 & 4 A)
B) 2 & 3
B)
C) 2, 3 & 4
D) All of the above
C)
D)
24. Consider the following information with respect to 24.
SSB Rules, 2009-
Sl. Rule Deals with
No.
1. 51 Record of Evidence
1. 51
2. 18 Termination of Service 2. 18
3. 28 Resignation 3. 28
4. 175 Procedure of CoI 4. 175
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 4 A)
B) 2 & 3 B)
C) 2, 3 & 4
C)
D) All of the above
D)
25. Consider the following statements- 25.
I. Authorization of ASI(GD) in an IS duty Coy. I.
is 11.
II. 03 CT(Cook) are authorized in an IS duty Coy. II.
III. Strength of TAC HQ for Ad-hoc Bn during IS
duty is 17. III.
IV. Authorization of land for a SSB BOP is 4.00
TAC HQ)
Acre.
IV.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & IV
B) I, II & III A) I IV
C) II & IV B) I, II III
D) All of the above
C) II IV
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 6 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 76
26. Powers under Section-101, 103 and 109 of 26.
Customs Act, 1962 have been conferred to the
SSB personnel having rank of
A) Head Constable to Commandant A)
B) ASI to Commandant B)
C) ASI to Assistant Commandant C)
D) Assistant Commandant to Commandant D)
27. Consider the following information- 27.
Sl. Trijunction Under the AOR of
No. Sector HQ
1. Batang-la SHQ Ranidanga 1.
2. Sherjunla SHQ Bomdilla 2.
3. Jonsang Peak SHQ Gangtok 3.
4. Lipu lekh SHQ Almora 4.
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 2, 3 & 4
C) 3 & 4
B)
D) None of the above C)
D)
28. Consider the following statements- 28.
I. An individual may take or send out of India to I.
Nepal or Bhutan notes of denomination of INR
100 with no upper limit. II.
II. An individual may carry notes of
denomination INR 2000 from India to Nepal
or Bhutan upto an upper limit of INR 25000
only. III.
III. An individual travelling from India to Nepal or
Bhutan can carry new series of denomination
INR 200 and/or 500 upto an upper limit
25000.
Which of the following option is not correct in
respect of above statements? A) II
A) Only II B) I III
B) I & III C) II III
C) II & III D)
D) All of the above
29. In a map, Magnetic Variation (MV) is 3° (east) & 29. MV °
Angle of Convergence (AOC) is 1° (west). If (AOC) °
Magnetic Bearing (MB) of a particular place is MB ° (TB
55°, please calculate True Bearing (TB) & Grid
GB)
Bearing (GB)?
A) TB 58°; GB 59°
A) TB 58°; GB 59°
B) TB 52°; GB 58° B) TB 52°; GB 58°
C) TB 51°; GB 56° C) TB 51°; GB 56°
D) TB 57° ; GB 58° D) TB 57° ; GB 58°
AC(LDCE)2024-25 7 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 77
30. Consider the following statements- 30.
I. Angle between the true north line and the Grid I.
North line at a particular place is known as
Angle of convergence. II.
II. The angle between the true north line and the
Magnetic North line is known as Magnetic
variation.
Which of the following option is not correct in
respect of above statements? A) I
A) Only I B) II
B) Only II
C) I & II
C) I II
D) None of the above D)
31. How many Sniper Rifles are authorized in a SSB 31.
Battalion?
A) 2 A) 2
B) 3 B) 3
C) 4 C) 4
D) 7 D) 7
32. Consider the following statements in respect of 32.
Child Care Leave (CCL)-
I. CCL shall not be granted for more than three I.
spells in a calendar year, in case of single
female Govt. servant.
II. CCL may not be granted for a period less than II.
five days at a time.
III. Women employees and single male employees III.
having minor children may be granted CCL.
IV. Intervening holidays will count as CCL as in
the case of EL.
IV.
Which of the following option is incorrect based
on the above informations?
A) I, II & IV A) I, II, IV
B) II & IV
B) II IV
C) I & II
D) Only I C) I II
D) I
33. Which of the following statements related to 33.
composition of Internal Complaint Committee
(ICC) is not correct?
A) There shall be minimum 05 members in ICC. A)
B) Unit head of each unit shall ensure constitution B)
of such ICC in respect of their units.
C) It is to ensure that atleast half of the total
nominated members of ICC shall be women.
C)
D) No male officer should be chairperson/PO of
ICC. D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 8 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 78
34. Consider the following statements in respect of 34.
Charter of Duties of SSB-
I. Safeguard the security of assigned borders of I.
India & promote sense of security among the
people living in border area. II.
II. Prevent trans-border trades, smuggling &
other legal activity. III.
III. Prevent authorized entry into or exit from the
territory of India. IV. (APF)
IV. To carry out friendly sports tournament with
the counterpart (APF) in the AOR.
V.
V. To perform any other duty assigned by the
concerned State Government.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) II, III & IV A) II, III IV
B) Only I B) I
C) II, III, IV & V
C) II, III, IV V
D) All of the above
D)
35. Which of the following statements related to 35.
general etiquettes of the Force is not correct?
A) A salute must be returned with smartness and A)
promptness.
B) When a senior officer is present, a junior B)
officer does not salute or get up for an officer
who is junior to the officer present.
C) Lady wives may interfere in the official
matters whenever required. C)
D) When entering in a mess lounge or dining hall
remove the head dress and hang it on the rack D)
provided for it.
36. In which Indian district, the authorized trade route 36.
-
A)
A) Maharajganj B)
B) Siddharthnagar C)
C) Jalpaiguri D)
D) Baharaich
37. 37.
sanctioned in SSB?
A) 1 A)
B) 6 B)
C) 18
D) 2 C)
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 9 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 79
38. Under which section of SSB Act, 2007, there is 38.
provision of Redressal of grievances of officers in
which the officer, may complain to the DG or the
Central Government through proper channel?
A) Section-105 A
B) Section-120 B
C) Section-14 C
D) Section-15
D
39. Which of the following option is incorrect? 39.
A) A Petty Force Court (PFC) may be convened A)
by an officer having power to convene a
General Force Court (GFC) or by an officer
empowered in this behalf by warrant of any
such officer. B)
B) A PFC shall have the power to try any person
subject to SSB Act, 2007 for any offences
punishable thereunder and to pass any
sentence authorized thereby. C)
C) A PFC shall consist of not less than three
officers. D)
D) Kinds of Force Court are mentioned under
section 76 of SSB Act, 2007.
40. Which colour of ink may be used in the office by 40.
all category of staffs and officers?
A) Blue, Black or Red A
B) Blue or Black B
C) Blue only C
D) Blue, Black or Green
D
41. What is the minimum number of officer required 41.
to compose a General Force Court?
A) One A)
B) Four B)
C) Three C)
D) Five D)
42. What is the time limit for entries of seizure and 42.
incident in Seizure & Incident Management
System (SIMS)?
A) Within 24 hours A)
B) Within 48 hours B)
C) Within 07 days C)
D) Within 01 month
D)
43. How many SSB Battalions have been entrusted 43.
during hot war
situation? A)
A) 12 B)
B) 10 C)
C) 11
D)
D) 08
AC(LDCE)2024-25 10 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 80
44. What is the frequency for conducting Boundary 44.
Working Group (BWG) meeting between India
and Nepal? A)
A) Half yearly B)
B) Yearly C)
C) Once in every two years. D)
D) None of the above
45. 45.
A) 05 gram A)
B) 02 gram B
C) 50 gram C
D) 250 gram
D
46. What is the authorization of Assault Rifle 46.
(7.62X39 mm) against 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle for x
a Battalion deployed in LWE area?
A) 50% of total authorization of rifles. A) 50%
B) 75% of total authorization of rifles. B) 75%
C) 100% of total authorization of rifles.
C) 100%
D) 33% of total authorization of rifles.
D) 33%
47. What is the procurement ceiling for general goods 47. GeM
through GeM without quotations?
A) 10,00,000/- A) 10,00,000/-
B) 50,000/- B) 50,000/-
C) 25,000/- C) 25,000/-
D) 1,00,000/- D) 1,00,000/-
48. In SSB, personnel of which rank can exercise the 48.
delegated powers under NDPS Act, 1985?
A) Not below the rank of Assistant Commandant
B) Not below the rank of Sub Inspector A)
C) Not below the rank of Head Constable B)
D) None of the above C)
D)
49. As per 7th Central Pay Commission, Composite 49.
Transfer Grant is-
A) 70
A) 70 % of Basic pay
B) 80
B) 80 % of Basic pay
C) 90
C) 90 % of Basic pay
D) 50
D) 50 % of Basic pay
AC(LDCE)2024-25 11 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 81
50. Consider the offences under following Sections of 50.
SSB Act, 2007-
I. Section - 24 I. - 24
II. Section - 22 (c) II. - 22 (c)
III. Section - 16 III. - 16
IV. Section - 49
IV. - 49
Offences under which of the above Sections can
not be dealt summarily?
A) Both II & III A) II III
B) Both III & IV B) III IV
C) Both I & IV
C) I IV
D) Only II
D) II
51. Who generates contract on GeM? 51. GeM
A) Buyer A)
B) Consignee B)
C) PAO C)
D) DDO D)
52. Which of the following is the correct sequence of 52.
non-electric Chain of Detonation?
A) Flame producer- Flame carrier- Shock wave A)
producer- Shock wave carrier-Primer/booster-
Main charge B)
B) Shock wave producer- Shock wave carrier-
Flame producer- Flame carrier- Primer/
booster-Main charge C)
C) Flame carrier-Flame producer- Shock wave
carrier- Shock wave producer- D)
Primer/booster-Main charge
D) None of the above.
53. Consider the following information- 53.
I. Limited Tender Enquiry. I.
II. Two-stage Bidding. II.
III. Single Tender Enquiry. III.
IV. Electronic Reverse Auctions. IV.
Which of the above method of bidding is not
mentioned in Rule-158 of GFR, 2017? ?
A) II & III A) II III
B) Only V
B) V
C) III & V
C) III V
D) None of the above
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 12 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 82
54. Which of the following option is incorrect 54.
regarding Court of Inquiry (COI)?
A) A Court of Inquiry may consist of one or more A)
members and if only one member is appointed
he shall be an officer.
B) A person not subject to SSB Act, 2007, may B)
also be appointed as additional member when
the Court is to investigate matters of such a
specialized nature as may require the
assistance of specialized person for proper
investigation.
C) A COI may be assembled by the order of an C)
officer not below the rank of Second-In-
Command.
D) No counsel, or legal practitioner shall be D)
permitted to appear before a COI.
55. Consider the following information in connection 55.
with equipments of demolition set-
I. The burning speed of safety fuse is 2 feet/per I.
minute. II.
II. Detonetor No. 27 is electric detonetor. III. 5
III. The blowing speed of 5 mm cordtex is 6400
meters per second.
IV.
IV. Detonetor no. 33 is non-electric detonator.
Which of the following option is incorrect based
on the above informations? ?
A) I & III A) I III
B) II & IV B) II IV
C) II, III & IV C) II, III IV
D) Only IV D) IV
56. Why things are seen? Find the correct option- 56.
A) Shadow, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Shape, A)
Spacing & Movement B)
B) Shadow, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Size, C)
Spacing & Movement
C) Sunlight, Surface, Shine, Silhouette, Shape,
D)
Spacing & Movement
D) Shadow, Sequence, Shine, Silhouette, Shape,
Spacing & movement
57. What is the full form of GPS? 57.
A) Google Position System A)
B) Global Provisioning System B)
C) Global Positioning System C)
D) Global Positioning Satellite D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 13 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 83
58. Consider the following informations- 58.
Sl. No. Force Year of establishment
1. NIA 2009 1. 2009
2. NSG 1984 2. 1984
3. CRPF 1938 3. 1938
4. ITBP 1962 4. 1962
In which of the above rows, the given information
is correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 2 & 4
B)
C) 1, 2 & 4
D) Only 4 C)
D)
59. Consider the following informations- 59.
Sl. Paticulars Helpline
No. number
1. Child Protection & Welfare 1098 1. 1098
2. Women Helpline 1092 2. 1092
3. Cyber crime 1930 3. 1930
4. National Highway 1033 4. 1033
Authority of India
In how many above rows, the given information is
correctly matched?
A) 1, 2 & 3 A)
B) 3 & 4 B)
C) 1, 3 & 4 C)
D) All of the above D)
60. Who is authorized/ competent to serve Summon 60.
for preparing Record of Evidence (ROE)?
A) Inquiry Officer A)
B) Commanding Officer of the Accused B)
C) Dy. Judge Attorney General of respective Ftr C)
Hqrs. D)
D) None of the above
61. Financial up-gradation under MACP is granted to 61.
which grade?
A) Same grade A)
B) Higher grade B)
C) Depends on the situation C)
D) Lower grade
D)
62. Which of the following is included in the salary 62.
calculation for House Rent Allowance (HRA)
purpose?
A)
A) Basic Pay B)
B) Basic Pay + Dearness Allowance (D.A) C)
C) Risk & Hardship Allowance(R.H.A)+D.A
D)
D) Basic Pay+R.H.A+D.A
AC(LDCE)2024-25 14 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 84
63. LTC advance can be drawn as- 63.
A) 80% of the estimated cost of journey both A) 80
ways.
B) 90% of the estimated cost of journey both B) 90
ways.
C) 50% of the estimated cost of journey both C) 50
ways.
D) 100% of the estimated cost of journey both D) 100
ways.
64. Consider the following informations in connection 64.
with 9 mm Pistol-
I. Weight of empty 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is I. ( )
910 gms.
II. Muzzle velocity of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) II. ( )
is 305 mtr./sec.
III. Effective range of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is III. ( )
15 yards.
IV. Length of barrel in 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is IV. ( )
4.75 inch.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements
A) I & II A) I II
B) II & III B) II III
C) III & IV C) III IV
D) All of the above
D)
65. Consider the following statements in connection 65.
with No. 36 HE Grenade-
I. The killing range is 9 mtrs. I.
II. The dangerous area is 300 yards in all sides II.
from the point of burst.
III. Priming is required before firing. III.
IV. Igniter set with delay of 07 seconds is used for
IV.
Rifle grenade.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) I, II & IV A) I, II IV
B) II & III B) II III
C) I & III C) I III
D) Only I
D) I
66. Consider the following information in connection 66.
with weapons of Close Quarter Battle (CQB)-
I. Tube launching Mark-I I. I
II. Bayonet
II.
III. 5.56 mm LMG
IV. 9 mm Pistol III.
IV.
Which of the above weapons is/are not categorized
under weapon of CQB?
A) I & II A) I II
B) II, III & IV B) II, III IV
C) I & III C) I III
D) All of the above
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 15 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 85
67. Which of the following entry is not recorded in the 67.
service book?
A) Pay fixation A)
B) Leave Travel Concession B)
C) Pay Increment C)
D) Last Pay Slip D)
68. Under which section of Right to Information Act- 68.
2005, SSB has been exempted from providing
information (other than Corruption & Human
Rights)?
A) 24
A) Section- 24
B) Section- 25 B) 25
C) Section- 26 C) 26
D) Section- 23 D) 23
69. Under RTI Act, 2005, first appeal shall be 69.
disposed off by the first Appellate Authority
A) 40 days A)
B) 50 days B)
C) 30 days C)
D) 20 days
D)
70. What is the full form of BDCC? 70.
A) Border Dispute Co-ordination Committee A)
B) Border District Co-ordination Committee B)
C) Border District Cultural Corporation C)
D) Border Development Co-ordination
D)
Committee
71. Consider the following statements- 71.
Statement I: De-facto boundary is a legal I:
boundary, decided and ratified by the involved
National Government and if possible demarcated
by numbered pillars.
Statement II: De-jure boundary is the alignment on II:
the ground decided by two opposing force
commanders, delineated on maps and signed by
both as a token of acceptance.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) Only statement I is correct. A) I
B) Only statement II is correct. B) II
C) Both statements are correct.
C
D) Both statements are incorrect.
D
AC(LDCE)2024-25 16 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 86
72. For rank other than an officer, what is the time 72.
limit to put in an appeal against the termination of
service as per SSB Rules, 2009?
A) 30 days A)
B) 45 days B)
C) 60 days C)
D) 90 days D)
73. Consider the following informations- 73.
I. Treaty of Peace and Friendship between India I.
and Nepal was signed on 31st July, 1950.
II. Treaty of Extradition between Govt. of Nepal II.
and the Govt. of India was signed on 2nd Oct,
1960. III.
III. The revised Indo-Bhutan Friendship Treaty
was signed on 8th Feb, 2007.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) I & III are correct. A) I III
B) II & III are correct. B) II III
C) Only II is correct. C) II
D) All of the above statements are incorrect.
D)
74. 74.
Indo-Nepal Border in hilly/ mountainous border?
A) 10 yards on either side of INB. A)
B) There is no specified width. B)
C) 10 meter on either side of INB.
C)
D) None of the above.
D)
75. Consider the following statements- 75.
I. The Nepalese monarchy was abolished in the I.
year 2008. II.
II. Sh. K.P. Sharma Oli, PM of Nepal belongs to ( )
the Communist Party of Nepal (Maoist
III.
Centre).
III. Length of INB in the state of Uttar Pradesh is
579 Km.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above statements?
A) Only I is correct.
A) I
B) II & III are correct.
B) II III
C) Only II is correct.
D) None of the above. C) II
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 17 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 87
76. Which of the following districts of Bhutan does 76.
not share its border with India?
A) Trashi Yangtse A)
B) Sarpang B)
C) Punakha C)
D) Zhemganj D)
77. How many Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) are 77.
earmarked on IBB & INB respectively?
A) 1, 7 A) 1, 7
B) 2, 5 B) 2, 5
C) 2, 6 C) 2, 6
D) 1, 5 D) 1, 5
78. Consider the following informations- 78.
Sl. Short Full form
No. form
1. PRAN Permanent Retirement 1.
Account Number
2. GIS Geological Information 2.
System
3. PPAN Permanent Pension Account 3.
Number
4. PIMS Permanent Inventory 4.
Management System
In how many above rows, the given information is
correctly matched?
A) 1 & 4 A)
B) 1 & 2 B)
C) 2 & 4 C)
D) 1 & 3 D)
79. What is the present authorization of land for a SSB 79.
Battalion within limit of Municipal Corporations?
A) 70 Acre A)
B) 25 Acre B)
C) 20 Acre C)
D) 40 Acre
D)
80. Section 103 of Customs Act, 1962 deals with- 80.
A) Person to be searched may require to be taken
before Gazetted Officer of Customs or A)
Magistrate.
B) Power to screen or X-ray bodies of suspected
persons for detecting secreted goods. B)
C) Power to examine persons.
D) Power to stop and search conveyances. C)
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 18 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 88
81. In which of the following cases prior pemission/ 81.
sanction of the Competent Authority is not
necessary?
A)
A) To join educational institutions or course of
studies for university degree. B)
B) To accept international awards. C)
C) To seek redress in Court of Law or in Central
Administrative Tribunals of grievances arising
out of employment or conditions of service. D)
D) To accept fee for work done for any private or
public body or person.
82. Consider the following statements in respect of 82.
Children Education Allowance (CEA)-
I. CEA is also admissible for children studying I.
through correspondence or distance learning.
II. The age limit for claiming CEA for the II.
children other than disabled children is 18
years.
III. CEA is not admissible for the period treated as III.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above statements?
A) I & III A) I III
B) II & III B) II III
C) Only II C) II
D) Only III D) III
83. Officer of which rank is the Central Public 83.
Information Officer (CPIO) in SSB under RTI Act,
2005?
A) Inspector General A)
B) Deputy Inspector General B)
C) Commandant C)
D) None of the above
D)
84. What is the present rate of Govt. contribution to 84.
-I of
the NPS?
A) 14% of Basic Pay A) 14%
B) 10% of (Basic Pay + DA) B) 10%
C) 14% of (Basic Pay + DA) C) 14%
D) 10% of Basic Pay
D) 10%
AC(LDCE)2024-25 19 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 89
85. When the object appears to be closer? 85. ?
I. If the light is bright and sun is behind the I.
observer. II.
II. If the object is bigger in relation to its
III.
surroundings.
III. If dead ground is there between the obsever
and the object. IV.
IV. If the observer is looking uphill.
Which of the following option is correct in respect
of above points? ?
A) I, III & IV A) I, III IV
B) II, III & IV B) II, III IV
C) III & IV C) III IV
D) All of the above
D)
86. 86.
changed during the entire service by the Central
Govt. Servant? A)
A) Thrice B)
B) Once C)
C) Twice
D)
D) Four times
87. What is the minimum service required to avail the 87.
LTC facility?
A) Completion of 02 years continuous service. A)
B) Completion of 04 years continuous service. B)
C) Completion of 01 year continuous service. C)
D) After completion of probation period.
D)
88. A Central Govt. servant has an option to commute 88.
into a lumpsum payment. %
A) 50% A) 50%
B) 40% B) 40%
C) 30% C) 30%
D) 60%
D) 60%
89. Any Central Govt. servant can apply for Voluntary 89.
Retirement by
months in advance, only after the completion of
provided no Vigilance or Departmental Enquiry is
pending/initiated against him/her.
A)
A) 04, 18 B)
B) 03, 20 C)
C) 03, 18 D)
D) 04, 20
90. How many financial up-gradations are provided 90.
under MACP?
A) One A)
B) Two B)
C) Four C)
D) Three
D)
AC(LDCE)2024-25 20 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 90
91. Consider the following full forms- 91.
I. PUC- Page Under Consideration I.
II. NSP- Note Sheet Para II.
III. APAR- Annual Performance Assessment III.
Report
IV.
IV. SPARROW- Smart Performance Appraisal
Report Recording Online Window
V. DSC- Digital Signature Certificate V.
VI. FR & SR- Financial Rule & Statutory Rule VI.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above full forms?
A) II, III & IV
A) II, III IV
B) I, III, IV & V
C) I, II & VI
B) I, III, IV V
D) None of the above C) I, II VI
D)
92. Consider the following full forms- 92.
I. DFMD- Deep Field Metal Detector I.
II. DSMD- Door Search Metal Detector II.
III. FUP- Forming Up Place III.
IV. LRP- Long Range Patrol
IV.
V. OP- Observation Place
VI. LP-Lighting Place V.
VI.
Which of the following option is incorrect in
respect of above full forms?
A) I, II, V & VI A) I, II, V VI
B) III & IV
B) III IV
C) I, II, & VI
D) III & VI C) I, II, VI
D) III VI
93. Which of the following option is incorrect in 93. (PCA)
respect of Personal Computer Advance (PCA)?
A) All Govt. servant are eligible for PCA. A)
B) The Competent Authority to sanction PCA is
B)
department of Central Govt./
Administration/Head of Department.
C)
C) A second or subsequent advance for purchase
of Personal Computer can not be granted
before expiry of 05 years from the date of
drawal of earlier advance. D)
D) PCA may be allowed maximum 05 times in
entire service.
AC(LDCE)2024-25 21 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 91
94. Which of the following options is correct 94.
regarding Children Education Allowance (CEA)?
A) CEA or Hostel Subsidy can be claimed for a A)
third child if not claimed for first or second
child.
B) CEA can be claimed for same class twice only
when the child fails in the particular class. B)
C) Re-imbursement of CEA will be made once in
a calendar year. C)
D) CEA can not be claimed if the children D)
studying through correspondence or distance
learning.
95. What is the age limit of an unmarried daughter 95.
who is wholly dependent on a Govt. servant for re-
imbursement of medical claims?
A) 25 years A)
B) 30 years B)
C) 21 years C)
D) No age limit D)
96. Which of the following options is incorrect about 96.
technical data of AK-47 assault rifle? ?
A) Length with open butt is 868 mm. A)
B) Cyclic rate of fire is 660 round per minute. B)
C) Weight with empty magazine is 4.622 Kg.
C)
D) Normal rate of fire is 1 magazine in 1 minute.
D)
97. After how many days of absence, Court of Inquiry 97.
is mandatory?
A) 90 days A) 90
B) 45 Days B) 45
C) 60 Days C) 60
D) 30 days D) 30
98. Which of the following are types of section 98.
formation?
A) Diamond formation, A)
Arrow head formation,
One up-two down formation &
Spear head formation
B) Pearl formation, B)
Javelin head formation,
Single file formation &
One up formation
C) Diamond formation, C)
Arrow head formation,
Spear head formation &
Extended line formation
D) Line formation, D)
Single File formation,
Hexagon formation &
Spear Head formation
AC(LDCE)2024-25 22 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 92
99. Consider the following statements- 99.
I. Cyclic rate of fire of 9 mm CMG is 500-550 I.
Rds per minute.
II. Length of barrel of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is II. ( )
6.25 inch.
III. Effective range of 9 mm Pistol (Browning) is III. ( )
15 yards.
IV. Weight of the HE No. 36 Grenade is 1 pound
IV. 10½
10½ Ounce.
Which of the option is correct based on the above
statements?
A) I, II & III A) I, II III
B) II, III & IV
B) II, III IV
C) II & III
D) I, III & IV C) II III
D) I, III IV
100. How many copies of bills are required while 100.
making any purchase by the QM branch?
A) ;
A) Bills in duplicate (One each for; accounts ZPAO
branch & ZPAO) B) ;
B) Bills in triplicate (One each for; QM branch,
ZPAO
accounts branch & ZPAO)
C) Five copies of bills (One each for; QM C) ;
branch, accounts branch, QM store, ZPAO & ZPAO
PAO) PAO
D) Bills in Quadriplicate (One each for; QM D) ;
branch, accounts branch, DDO & ZPAO) ZPAO
AC(LDCE)2024-25 23 PAPER-II SET 1 BOOKLET CODE-D
Text of page 1
ANSWER KEY OF PAPER-II, SET-1
SERIES-A
Q A Q A
1. D 51. B
2. D 52. A
3. A 53. B
4. B 54. D
5. A 55. D
6. C 56. C
7. A 57. D
8. D 58. A
9. C 59. C
10. B 60. B
11. D 61. A
12. B 62. C
13. A 63. A
14. B 64. C
15. B 65. C
16. C 66. C
17. B 67. C
18. C 68. C
19. B 69. A
20. B 70. D
21. A 71. A
22. C 72. D
23. C 73. A
24. D 74. C
25. C 75. C
26. D 76. A
27. B 77. A
28. A 78. D
29. A 79. B
30. D 80. B
31. D 81. C
32. A 82. A
33. C 83. C
34. B 84. B
35. C 85. D
36. C 86. B
37. D 87. D
38. A 88. C
39. C 89. D
40. B 90. B
41. C 91. A
42. C 92. A
43. B 93. D
44. C 94. C
45. D 95. B
46. B 96. A
47. C 97. C
48. B 98. D
49. B 99. C
50. D 100. B
Text of page 2
ANSWER KEY OF PAPER-II, SET-1
SERIES-B
Q A Q A
1. A 51. A
2. A 52. C
3. D 53. C
4. C 54. D
5. B 55. C
6. A 56. D
7. C 57. B
8. D 58. A
9. C 59. A
10. B 60. D
11. D 61. A
12. D 62. C
13. A 63. A
14. B 64. C
15. A 65. C
16. C 66. C
17. A 67. C
18. D 68. C
19. C 69. A
20. B 70. D
21. C 71. D
22. A 72. A
23. C 73. C
24. B 74. B
25. D 75. C
26. B 76. C
27. D 77. D
28. C 78. A
29. D 79. C
30. B 80. B
31. D 81. B
32. B 82. A
33. A 83. B
34. B 84. D
35. B 85. D
36. C 86. C
37. B 87. D
38. C 88. A
39. B 89. C
40. B 90. B
41. A 91. C
42. D 92. C
43. A 93. B
44. C 94. C
45. C 95. D
46. A 96. B
47. A 97. C
48. D 98. B
49. B 99. B
50. B 100. D
Text of page 3
ANSWER KEY OF PAPER-II, SET-1
SERIES-C
Q A Q A
1. C 51. A
2. C 52. D
3. B 53. A
4. C 54. C
5. D 55. C
6. B 56. A
7. C 57. A
8. B 58. D
9. B 59. B
10. D 60. B
11. B 61. D
12. A 62. B
13. B 63. A
14. D 64. B
15. D 65. B
16. C 66. C
17. D 67. B
18. A 68. C
19. C 69. B
20. B 70. B
21. D 71. C
22. A 72. A
23. C 73. C
24. B 74. B
25. C 75. D
26. C 76. B
27. D 77. D
28. A 78. C
29. C 79. D
30. B 80. B
31. A 81. D
32. C 82. D
33. A 83. A
34. C 84. B
35. C 85. A
36. C 86. C
37. C 87. A
38. C 88. D
39. A 89. C
40. D 90. B
41. A 91. A
42. C 92. A
43. C 93. D
44. D 94. C
45. C 95. B
46. D 96. A
47. B 97. C
48. A 98. D
49. A 99. C
50. D 100. B
Text of page 4
ANSWER KEY OF PAPER-II, SET-1
SERIES-D
Q A Q A
1. D 51. A
2. A 52. A
3. C 53. D
4. B 54. C
5. C 55. B
6. C 56. A
7. D 57. C
8. A 58. D
9. C 59. C
10. B 60. B
11. A 61. B
12. C 62. A
13. A 63. B
14. C 64. D
15. C 65. D
16. C 66. C
17. C 67. D
18. C 68. A
19. A 69. C
20. D 70. B
21. A 71. D
22. C 72. D
23. C 73. A
24. D 74. B
25. C 75. A
26. D 76. C
27. B 77. A
28. A 78. D
29. A 79. C
30. D 80. B
31. A 81. C
32. D 82. C
33. A 83. B
34. C 84. C
35. C 85. D
36. A 86. B
37. A 87. C
38. D 88. B
39. B 89. B
40. B 90. D
41. D 91. C
42. B 92. A
43. A 93. C
44. B 94. B
45. B 95. D
46. C 96. B
47. B 97. D
48. C 98. C
49. B 99. D
50. B 100. BPage 1 of 92
Source: Central Reserve Police Force. Question paper published by Central Reserve Police Force.