DSSSB 2019: 3 November, B.A.B.T. Teacher

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MKG-XXVlllfTECHBABT/1T/02
Write here Roll Number and Answer Sheet No.
~~~~~~fmj
Roll No./3tjSfiqiCfi Answer Sheet No./~~~
Time Allowed: 2 hours OBJECTIVE TYPE TIER-ONE EXAMINATION Maximum Marks: 200
f.:rmftf ~ : 2 t:R C4~tS(S~-c:.r.r ~&n ~ 3lcf; : 200
r;:D:":"e:-;cl-:-ar:-at~io:-n-;:b:-y-;:ln:-v7:ig:;;lI-::;at:":"or::-::---------""';;:; Declaration by Candidate:
I Certify that I have checked that the Roll Number and the Answer I undertake not to employ any unfair means in this exam. I have checked the Question
Sheet Number written by the Candidate on the question paper and Booklet Number and the Answer Sheet Number and both are identical and have been
the OMR Sheet are correct and the Answer Sheet Number matches correctly entered by me wherever indicated.
the Question Booklet Number exaclly,
Sections Test Components
(A) i) General Awareness 20 2-5 ii) ~~om tr ~
ii) General Intelligence and ~~ 20 6-11
Reasoning Ability 20 6-11 iii) ~"l!.'i~~ 20 12-15 ~
iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability 20 12-15 tr
(8)
iv)
v)
Hindi Language and Comprehension
English Language and Comprehension
Post Specific SUbject-Related
20
20
16-17
18-19
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v) ~ \WIT3fu: oM
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20
20
100
16-17
18-19
20-37
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Questions 100 20 - 37
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9. Use of Calculator/Palmtop/Laptop/Other Digital Instrument! 9. ~ /"CJT1tifq / ~ / 3r.<{~~ / ~ / ~
MobilelCell Phone/Pager is not allowed. m-r ~ / ~ 'fiT ~ ~~I . it:'
10. Candidates found guUtyof misconduct/using unfair means in the 10. Wa.n-\lCRij~~~~~d8"(l:~~~~ ~
Examination Hall will be liable for appropriate penal/1egal action. 1fcRHh1~/~~~"q'Bfmrt I
11. The manner in which different questions are to be answered has
been explained at the back of this Booklet, which you should
11. fcrllrn m~
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read carefully before actually answering the questions.
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Go through instructions given in Page No. 40 (Back Cover Page)
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SECTION -A
i) General Awareness
1. India's first-ever Floating Basketball 6. Which State has become the India's
Court has opened, near which city? third State to ban certain categories of
(A) Kochi pan masala ?
(B) Assam (A) Rajasthan
(B) Bihar
(C) Mumbai (C) Maharashtra
(0) Hyderabad (0) Madhya Pradesh

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11. Which bank has signed MoU with Indian 16. What is the theme of the 2019 edition
Army for customised services? of World Space Week (WSW) ?
(A) State Bank of India (A) Exploring New Worlds in Space
(B) Bank of Baroda (8) Exploring the Black Hole
(C) Bank of India (C) The Moon: Gateway to the Stars
(D) Punjab National Bank (D) Space War
12. Where is Westphalia located? 17. Which among the following is the first
(A) Germany country to issue research licenses for
human embryonic cloning to create
(B) Sweden
stem cells?
(C) Denmark (A) United States
(D) Iceland (B) Japan
(C) China
13. The Indian National Flag was designed (D) United Kingdom
by
18. Robusta, Singapuri, Giant Governor
(A) Alluri Sitarama Raju
and Mortman are varieties of which of
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya the following ?
(C) Pingali Venkayya (A) Coffee
(B) Cotton
(D) U. Narasimha Reddy
(C) Apple
14. The name of P.C. Mahalanobis is (D) Banana
special in the Indian Economy. He was
19. Who among the following was the first
associated with Tirthankar of Jainism ?
(A) Liberalisation of Indian Economy (A) Vardhamana Mahavira
(B) Five Year Plans (B) Parshwanath
(C) Reserve Bank of India (C) Rishabhanatha
(D) Sambavanath
(D) Public Distribution System
15. 20. Who is the author of the book 'Clash of
The Bhakra Nangal Dam is built in which
river? Civilisations' ?
(A) Beas (A) Francis Fukuyama
(8) Sutlej (B) Samuel P. Huntington
(C) Ravi (C) Tarek Fatah
(D) Jhelum (D) Amartya Sen
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ii) General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
21. Seven persons Paul, Queen, Rax, 24. A man said to a lady, "Your mother's
Sam, Tom, Unif and Vali are sitting in a husband's sister is my aunt". How is the
row facing us. Rax and Sam sit next to lady related to the man?
each other. There must be exactly four
(A) Daughter
persons between Queen and Vall. Sam
sits to the immediate right of Queen. If (B) Granddaughter
Paul and Tom are separated exactly (C) Mother
by two persons, then who sits to the
(D) Sister
immediate left of Vali ?
(A) Paul 25. Mr. Pawar travels 10 km towards West
(B) Tom and turns right to travel 4 km. Now he
(C) Unif turns right and travels 7 km. In which
(D) Rax direction is he now with respect to the
starting position?
22. A person travels a distance of 7 km
(A) South - East
towards East from his house, then
travels 7 km towards North and then a (B) South - West
distance of 7 km towards East and then (C) North - East
a distance of 7 km towards North. What (D) North - West
is the vertical distance travelled by him? .
(A) 28 26. Which of the given conclusions definitely
(B) 21 follows from the given statements?
(C) 14 Statements :
(D) 7 All footballers are short.
23. P, Q, R, Sand T sit around a table. Sonu is short.
P sits two seats to the left of Rand Q Conclusions:
sits two seats to the right of R. If S sits
I. Sonu is a footballer.
in between Q and R, who sits to the
I\, Sonu is not footballer.
immediate right of P ?
(A) T (A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) S (B) Only conclusion \I follows
(C) Q (C) Either I or II follows
(D) R (D) Both I and \I follows
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27. A + B means A is the son of B. 30. P, 0, R, Sand T are five speakers who
A - B means A is the daughter of B. have to speak on a particular day, not
A x B means A is the father of B. necessarily in the same order. R is
neither the first nor the last speaker.
, A -;-B means A is the mother of B.
There are three speakers after Sand
If M x N + 0 - P -;-0, then how is M three speakers ahead of T. If P speaks
related to 0 ? after 0, then who is the last speaker to
(A) Husband speak?
(B) Cousin (A) S (B) T
(C) Brother-in-law (C) P (0) 0
(0) Uncle
31. Robin says, "If Jai gives me ~ 40, he will
28. Statements: have half as much as Atul, but if Atul
S<T~O=R gives me ~ 40, then the three of us will
all have the same amount." What is the
T<V
total amount of money that Robin, Jai
Conclusions:
and Atul have between them ?
I. R ~ S
(A) ~ 240 (B) ~ 320
II. T ~ R (C) ~ 360 (0) ~ 420
(A) Either conclusion I or II is true
32. If in a code language, PAINT is written
(B) Only conclusion I is true as 74128 and EXCEL is written as
(C) Only conclusion II is true 93596, then how will ACCEPT be
written in that language?
(0) Both conclusion I and II are true
(A) 455978
29. Starting from his house, Sachin walks (8) 544978
a distance of 8 m towards North, then (C) 554978
he turns left and walks 6 m, then walks (0) 733961
3 m towards South and finally travels
33. In a row of 40 boys facing the North,
6 m towards West to reach his office. Amar is 6th to the right of Sandeep and
What is the distance between his house? Sandeep is 11th to the left of Vijay. If
(A) S'rn Amar is 28th from the right end of the
(B) 13 m row, what is the position of Vijay from'
the left end of the row ?
(C) 7 m
(A) 17th (B) 21st
(0) 23 m (C) 20th (0) 18th
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34. A's father's mother in law's only 37. Amit is ranked 12thfrom the top and Ravi
daughter's son is 8. How is A related is ranked 15thfrom the bottom in a class of
to 8?
35 students. How many students are there
(A) 8rother
between Amit and Ravi ?
(8) Sister
(A) 8
(C) Niece
(8) 9
(0) Cannot be determined
(C) 6
35. Which of the given conclusions definitely (0) 7
follows from the given statements?
38. The number 729 is the square of which
Statement:
of the following numbers?
Morning walks are good for health.
(A) 20
Conclusions:
(8) 22
I. All healthy people go for morning
(C) 25
walks.
II. Evening walks are harmful. (0) 27
(A) Only conclusion I follows 39. How many sets of two letters have
(8) Only conclusion II follows as many letters between them as in
(C) Either I or II follows the alphabetical order in the word
(0) Neither I nor II follows ARISTOCRAT?
(A) 1
36. Which of the given conclusions definitely
follows from the given statements? (8) 2
Statements : (C) 3
Some pens are cows. (0) 4
All dogs are pens. 40. A printer numbers the pages of a book
Conclusions: starting with 1 and uses 3189 digits in
I. Some dogs are cows. all. How many pages does the book
II. Some cows are dogs. have?
(A) Only I follows (A) 1000
(8) Only conclusion II follows (8) 1074
(C) Either I or II follows (C) 1075
(0) Neither I nor II follows (0) 1080
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iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
41. If sino + sinp + siny = 3, then the value 45. An integer exceeds its reciprocal by
of cot%+cot%+cot~is 143 , then the integer is
12
(A) 0 (8) 1 (A) 6 (8) -12
(C) 2 (0) 3 (C) 12 (0) -6
42. 10 years ago, the average age of the 46. 3 consecutive natural numbers are such
family of 4 members was 24 years. Two that the square of the middle number
children have been born. The average exceeds the difference of the squares
of other two by 96. The 3 numbers are
age of the family is same today. The
present age of two children assuming (A) 12,13,14 (8) 11,12,13
that children's age differ by 2 years (C) 10, 11, 12 (0) 25,26,27
are
47. The maximum value of 3 - I 2x - 1 I is
(A) 2 years and 4 years
(A) 00 (8) 3
(8) 3 years and 5 years
(C) 3 years and 1 year (C) -3 (0) 0
(0) none of these 48. In a polygon, the sum of the interior
angle is 1980°. The number of sides of
43. The longest side of a triangle is 3 times
the polygon is
the shortest side and the third side is
(A) 12 (8) 13
2 cm shorter than the longest side. If
the perimeter of the triangle is atleast (C) 14 (0) 10
61 ern, then the minimum length of the
49. The recurring decimal 0.2313131 ......
shortest side is
can be written in the rational fraction
(A) 10cm (8) 8cm form as
(C) 9 cm (0) 7cm 231 2313
(A) - (8) --
100 1000
44. The sum of n terms of an arithmetic
progression is 5n2 + 2n. Then the nth 229 231
(C) - (0)
term of the series is 990 900
(A) 10n +5 50. The least number which when divided'
by 12,18 and 33 leaves a remainder of
(8) 10n -3 5 in each case is
(C) 5n -1 (A) 394 (8) 396
(0) 5n-2 (C) 391 (0) 401
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(10.23)3 -(4.77)3 56. A man buys an article for Rs. p and sells
51. Valueo f 2' 2
(10.23) +(4.77) +(10.23)(4.77) it for Rs. 21 at loss of p%. The value of
is pis
(A) 15 (A) Rs. 10 or Rs. 80
(8) 5.46
(8) Rs. 30 or Rs. 70
(C) 10.23
(C) Rs. 50 or Rs. 60
(0) none of these
(0) None of these
52. A ladder is placed against a wall of
57. The circum radius of an equilateral
height 18 m. If the top of the ladder
triangle whose side is 9 cm is
makes an angle of 60° with the wall,
then the length of the ladder is
(A) 3J3 cm
(A) 36 m (8) 12J3 m
(C) 18J3 m (0) 48 m (8) 3J3 cm
2
53. How many kilograms of pure groundnut (C) J3 cm
oil should be added to 20 kgs of 80%
pure groundnut oil, so that the resulting (0) 3J3cm
mixture contain 95% pure groundnut oil ? 4
(A) 80 kg
58. A person gets Rs. 1,216 more when
(8) 66 kg selling a product at a profit of 15%
(C) 60 kg instead of a loss of 4%. What would be
the percentage profit/loss if it is sold for
(0) none of these
Rs. 7,552 ?
54. If x + 4, 6x - 2 and 9x - 4 are three (A) 22
consecutive terms of an. arithmetic (8) 19
progression, then x = (C) 18
(0) none of these
(A) 2 (8) 4
(C) 6 (0) 8 59. Find the odd number out.
(A) 3 (8) 9
55. The HCF of 2 numbers is equal their LCM,
(C) 15 (0) 17
then the numbers must be
(A) prime 60. If x2 - 9x - 36 is negative, then range
(8) co-prime of x is
(C) equal (A) (- 3, 12) (8) [- 3, 12]
(0) none of these (C) (- 12, 3) (0) [-12,3]
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v) English Language and Comprehension
~ 'TI'fU 3ffi~
Choose the wrongly spelt word from the 86. The strengths and of the new
following choices and mark its corresponding education system was listed out by the
letter as your answer. students.
81. (A) DETERIORATION (A) weakness
(8) UNNECESARY (8) weaknesses
(C) ANNOUNCE (C) failures
(D) PREOCCUPATION (D) persuasiveness
82. (A) QUESTIONAIRE 87. Though , he taught like an
(8) REVENGE experienced teacher.
(C) ACHIEVEMENT
(A) unexperienced
(D) DISTINGUISHED
(8) veteraned
Add suitable question tags to the following (C) versed
statements from among the choices given (D) inexperienced
below them.
Fill in the blanks in the following sentences
83. Tufty won't stop eating millet, ?
using the appropriate forms of the words
(A) won't he (8) will he
given in brackets from among the choices
(C) isn't he (D) had he given below them.
84. Rioters shouldn't disturb commuters, 88. We should know the __ (important)
----?
of a well balanced diet.
(A) hadn't they
(A) important
(8) will they
(8) importantly
(C) shall they
(C) importance
(D) should they
(D) importness
Fill in the blanks in the following sentences
using the appropriate antonyms of the words 89. They were involved in a heated _
underlined. (argue).
85. He challenged that he would make the (A) argue
___ achievement possible. (8) argument
(A) unpossible (8) potential (C) argumentative
(C) impossible (D) viable (D) argufy
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Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions Choose one word substitute for the following
from among the choices given below them. from among the choices given below them.
90. I have known Neina years.
96. Confirming the receipt of something
(A) since (B) of
(A) inspiration
(C) for (0) from
(B) embarrassment
91. Rest the ladder the wall before (C) destination
you step on the rung. (0) acknowledgement
(A) beneath (B) on
97. An intense or strong desire
(C) ahead (0) against
(A) craving
92. You will have to go the bend (8) toxic
to see the new house. (C) mitigate
(A) towards (0) paranoia
(B) until
(C) round In each of the foJlowing sentences a word is
(0) of underlined. Choose the right synonym of the
Fill in the blanks with suitable articles from word underlined from the alternatives given
among the choices given below them. below the sentence.
93. He lives in second apartment 98. The hermit unfastened the man.
from here. (A) tied
(A) an (8) untied
(B) the (C) caught
(C) a (0) arrested
(0) none of these
99. His family had gathered to wish him a
94. Zen owns BMW. safe voyage.
(A) a (A) return (8) landing
(B) an (C) journey (0) stay
(C) the
100. His mental disturbance was similar to
(0) no article required paranoia.
95. He spoke like (A) sanity
enlightened
man. (B) insanity
(A) a (B) that of (C) restlessness
(C) an (0) the (0) depression
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SECTION - B
Post Specific Subject - Related Questions
101. An unpleasant feeling of fear that 106. Choose the limitation of essay type
something bad is about to happen is item.
termed as (A) Encouraging rote memory
(A) Anxiety (B) Phobia (B) Reducing the chance of spot
(C) Compulsion (0) Obsession copying
(C) Promoting originality and creative
102. Sensorimotor developmental stage is thinking
between the age
(0) Elimination of the possibility of
(A) Birth - 2 years guess work
(B) 2 - 7 years
107. Which one of the following is the
(C) 7 - 11 years
characteristic of summative
(0) 11 -15 years assessment ?
(A) It doesn't tend to stress the effects
103. At which stage, the orientation should
(B) It is a descriptive analysis
be towards art as a medium of self
expression ? (C) It is non descriptive analysis
(A) Pre-primary stage (0) All of the above
(B) Primary stage 108. The Greek word "Psyche" means
(C) Upper primary stage (A) Mind (B) Science
(0) Secondary stage (C) Body (0) Soul
104. The primary pu rpose of formative 109. Strategies to ensure quality in early
assessmentis to childhood care and education
(A) Focuson teaching (A) Advocacy
(B) Improvelearning (B) Quality workforce
(C) Identifyinterest (C) Setting up norms and standards
(0) Assesscapacities (0) All of the above
110. John Watson is the founder of _
105. Wundt described psychology as the
school.
study of
(A) Conscious experience (A) Humanism
(B) Unconscious experience (B) Structuralism
(C) Humanistic experience (C) Gestalt school
(0) None of the above (0) Behaviourism
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111. Theimportantmethodusedinpsychology 116. __ learningisthe mentalprocessof
are acquiringknowledgeand understanding
(A) Thematic method through thought, experience and the
senses.
(8) Subjective observation
(A) Cognitive (8) Affective
(C) Experimental method
(C) Psychosocial (D) Psychomotor
(D) None of the above
117. conditioning occurs when a
112. Which of these doesn't include the
response to a stimulus is reinforced.
cognitive development?
(A) Social (8) Operant
(A) Intellectual growth
(C) Observational (D) Classical
(8) Development of language
(C) Development of emotions 118. Children's psychological needs of
imagination and free expression is met
(D) Development of concepts
in which activity ?
113. ___ is the developmental period (A) Singing (8) Drama
extending from birth to 18 or 24 (C) Dance (D) Play
months.
119. The holds information for
(A) Prenatal period 15 - 25 seconds.
(8) Infancy (A) Sensory memory
(C) Early childhood (8) Short term memory
(D) Adolescence (C) Long term memory
(D) Storage memory
114. Teachers observe, listen and intervene
where necessaryis an exampleof 120. Mathematics should be visualised as
(A) Collaborativelearning the vehicle to train a child to and
(8) Co-operativelearning to articulate logically.
(C) Cognitivelearning (A) Think
(8) Reason
(D) All of the above
(C) Analyse
115. According to view, the aim (D) All of the above
of education should be self-realisation
or unfolding of what is potential within 121. isthe abilityto combineresponses
the child. or ideas in novel ways.
(A) Pragmatic (A) Memory (8) Attitude
(8) Naturalistic
(C) Attention (D) Creativity
(C) Idealistic (D) Universalism
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122. Inclusive Education is important for both 128. Specific learning disorder with
children with and without disabilities impairment in reading processes such
(A) All children learn effectively as word recognition, decoding skills and
(B) It is cost effective comprehension is called
(C) It contributes to inclusive societies (A) Dyscalculia (B) Dysgraphia
(D) All of the above (C) Dyslexia (D) Autism
123. The inability to read small print is a
129. A child who finds difficulty to keep pace
limitation of the ability of the individual.
It is termed as with the normal school work is termed
as
(A) Visual disability
(A) Physically challenged
(B) Visual handicap
(C) Visual impairment (B) Differently abled
(D) None of the above (C) Slow learner
(D) Intellectually challenged
124. The success of non-formal models lies
on 130. is the assessment of overt and
(A) The initialinterestlevel and motivation covert dispositions of an individual.
of students
(A) Personality test
(B) The quality of educational materials
capable of upholding a high student (B) Aptitude test
motivation level (C) Intelligence test
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Achievement test
(D) Interest level of teacher
131. Gestalt therapy was developed by
125. is nothing but our likes and
dislikes towards certain stimulus. (A) Aaron Beck
(A) Motivation (B) Interest (8) Carl Rogers
(C) Perception (D) Thinking (C) Sigmund Freud
126. Which one of the following factors (D) Frederich Perls
cannot produce temporary changes in
behaviour? 132. tests are also called as cognitive
(A) fatigue (B) illness tests.
(C) drugs (D) entertainment (A) Accuracy (B) Fluency
(C) Ability (D) Validity
-127. A longitudinal record of pupils'
educational history where progress
of the development pattern of each 133. The main means of effective illustration
student is recorded is termed as (A) Story
(A) Evaluation record (B) Analogy
(B) Cumulative record (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Appraisal record
(D) None of the above
(D) Assessment record
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134. Which of the following test is considered 140. To manage the classroom climate one
as psychological test? should
(A) Achievement test (A) Establish ground rules
(8) Aptitude test (8) Use icebreakers and collaborative
learning
(C) Intelligence test
(C) Make efforts to connect with
(D) All of the above students
(D) All of the above
135. The term amnesia means
(A) loss of memory 141. One of the following is not a qualitative
(8) loss of confidence data collection method.
(A) Unstructured Interviews
(C) loss of conscious
(8) Focus Groups
(D) all of the above
(C) Observation
136. Any loss or abnormality in an anatomical (D) Structured Questionnaire
structure or a physiOlogical or
142. The study of the relationship between
psychological function is called the physical aspects of stimuli and our
(A) Handicap (8) Disability psychological experiences of them
(C) Impairment (D) Disease (A) Perception
(8) Psychophysics
137. In depth study of a child or individual (C) Sensation
over a limited period of time is called (D) Metaphysics
(A) Counselling (8) Case study
143. is the memory for events that
(C) Case history (D) Case series
occur in a particular time, place or
context.
138. A painful emotional state, which results
(A) Episodic memory
from a tension between opposed and
contradictory wishes is (8) Declarative memory
(C) Procedural memory
(A) Conflict
(D) Semantic memory
(8) Stress
(C) Anxiety 144. Intense, irrational fears of specific objects
or situations is called
(0) None of the above
(A) Phobia (8) Anxiety
139. The National Policy of Education in the (C) Panic (0) Obsession
year emphasized that education
145. How do people approach and solve
play a positive role in correcting social
problems?
imbalance and in securing rightful place
(A) Preparation
for the disadvantaged .
(8) Production of solutions
(A) 1984 (8) 1985
(C) Both (A) and (8)
(C) 1986 (D) 1987 (D) Counselling
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146. The ability to come up with a variety of 153. The initial, momentary storage of
ideas or solutions or techniques information, lasting only an instant is
(A) Sensitivity (8) Flexibility (A) sensory memory
(C) Originality (D) Fluency
(8) short term memory
147. The Scheme of Integrated Education (C) long term memory
for the Disabled Children (IEDC) was (D) storage memory
started in the year
(A) 1971 (8) 1972 154. The central concept of operant
(C) 1973 (D) 1974 conditioning is
(A) Rethinking (8) Reassociating
148. is the transition period from
childhood to adulthood. (C) Recalling (D) Reinforcement
(A) Early childhood
155. conditioning describes learning
(8) Late childhood that occurs as a result of reinforcement.
(C) Adolescence
(A) Trial and error
(D) None of the above
(8) Operant
149. It is defined as the element that appears (C) Observational
most frequently in a given set of (D) Classical
elements
(A) Mean (8) Mode 156. The skills of listening and reading are
(C) Median (D) Range called
(A) Speaking skills
150. The visual and performing art forms
should be taught in a fully integrated (8) Writing skills
manner at stage. (C) Comprehension skills
(A) Pre-primary (D) Expression skills
(8) Primary
(C) Upper primary 157. Art education should be aimed at
(D) Secondary promoting self expression, creativity
and sense of freedom thus achieving
151. is the scientific study of (A) Psychological health
behaviour.
(8) Social health
(A) Psychology (8) Sociology
(C) Anthropology (D) Zoology (C) Physical health
(D) None of the above
152. The theory which is applied extensively
to the understanding of aggression and 158. The limitation of Essay Type items
psychological disorders
(A) Minimum validity
(A) Cognitive learning
(8) Social learning (8) Lack of reliability
(C) Motivation learning (C) No objectivity
(D) Cognitive social learning (D) All of the above
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159. One of the following is the merit of a 164. is the moral component of the
bilingual method personality .
(A) Students are passive listeners (A) Id
(8) It requires special trained teachers (B) Ego
(C) The method suits both rural and (C) Super ego
urban schools (D) All of the above
(D) It does not emphasis on speech
practice 165. involves words as stimuli in
eliciting information about behaviour.
160. One of the following is not a type of (A) Verbal test
illustration (8) Physical test
(A) Pictorial illustration (C) Diagnostic test
(8) Concrete illustration (D) None of the above
(C) Verbal illustration·
166. The founder of Psychoanalysis school
(D) Non verbal illustration
is
161. One of the most effective way to teach (A) J.B. Watson
an occupational skill (B) Clifford T. Morgan
(A) Synthetic method (C) Sigmund Freud
(8) Demonstration method (D) Kurt Lewin
(C) Lecture method
167. A perception that doesn't agree with the
(D) Analytical method fact is called
(A) Insight
162. According to Piaget's model on
development stages, the formal (B) Intelligence
operations begin at ages (C) Illusion
(A) 3 - 7 years (D) None of the above
(B) 7 - 11 years
168. A sudden flash of solution to the problem
(C) 11 -15 years is termed as
(D) 15 years and above (A) Introspection (B) Insight
(C) Interview (D) Recapturing
163. More or less permanent change in
behaviour because of practice or 169. Which one of these is the theory of
exercise is termed as Guilford?
(A) Learning (A) Structure of intellect
(B) Behavioural change (B) Single factor
(C) Modification (C) Group factor
(D) Stability (D) Multifactor
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170. Which one of these is considered as a 176. What needs to be done to make
group test? inclusive education a reality?
(A) Henmon-Nelsontest (A) Introducing inclusive testing and
(8) Cognitive Abilities test assessment
(C) California test of Mental Maturity (8) Providing teacher training for
(D) All of the above inclusive education
(C) Providing early childhood care and
171. The subject is tested for his/her ability education
to grasp, understand and react to a (D) All of the above
given situation
(A) Memory test 177. The ability to focus on a task is called
(8) Vocabulary test (A) attention (8) association
(C) Comprehension test (C) attitude (D) aptitude
(D) Reasoning test 178. Children at this stage have a lot
of inquisitiveness and energy need
172. is required to manage
avenues to release their energy, by
relationships with many people in the
involvinq in creative activities
desired direction.
(A) Pre-primary stage
(A) Social skill
(8) Higher primary stage
(8) Self awareness
(C) Secondary stage
(C) Self regulation
. (D) Higher secondary stage
(D) Empathy
179. Any restriction or lack (resulting from
173. is a task in which some item an impairment) of ability to perform an
must be produced from memory. activityin the manneror within the range
(A) Revising (8) Recalling considered normal for a human being
(C) Rewriting (D) Reading (A) Handicap (8) Disability
(C) Disease (D) Impairment
174. A systematicinquiryaimedatthediscovery
of new knowledgeis called 180. It refers to a functional limitation of the
(A) Retrieval (8) Retrospect eye(s) or visual systemdue to a disorder
(C) Research (D) Reflect or disease that can result in.a disability
or handicap
175. Which one of the following is not the (A) Visual disability
internal factor of attention? (8) Visual handicap
(A) Interest (8) Mood (C) Visual impairment
(C) Repetition (D) Habit (D) None of the above
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181. The term self-determination includes 187. education is a key lever for
based on an understanding of sustainable development.
one's abilities and related needs.
(A) Special
(A) Personal decision-making
(8) Distance
(8) Self-advocacy
(C) Assertiveness (C) Quality
(D) All of the above (D) None of the above
182. Impartial analysis and evaluation 188. Knowledge of the nature of the pupil's
conducted according to established intellect is of considerable value in the
criteria to determine the acceptability, guidance and the diagnosis of
merit or worth of an item
(A) Handicap
(A) Evaluation (8) Appraisal
(8) Disability
(C) Measurement (D) Test
(C) Impairment
183. It implies that results of the research
(D) None of the above
study can be applicable to similar
situations or individuals
189. One of the following is not a principle of
(A) Reliability (8) Velidity education.
(C) Relevance (D) Transferability
(A) Free education
184. "The widest road leading to the solution (8) Craft centeredness
of all our problems is education." This (C) Compulsory education
quote is by
(D) Judgement
(A) Vivekananda (8) Tagore
(C) Gandhiji (D) Sri Aurabindo 190. The most common source of quantitative
data includes
185. is the disability in the area of
mathematics. (A) Surveys
(A) Dyscalculia (8) Indepth interviews
(8) Dysgraphia (C) Participant observation
(C) Dyslexia (0) Free listing
(D) None of the above
191. Observations during in class activities
186. The core value of early childhood is an example of
education lies in
(A) Summative Assessment
(A) Child development
(8) Child centredness (8) Formative Assessment
(C) Child learning (C) Diagnostic Assessment
(D) Child environment (D) Comprehensive Assessment
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192. The Convention of Rights of Persons 196. are designed to test a person's
with Disabilities, 2006 reflect a shift preferences.
from a medical to model of (A) Motivation test
disability. (8) Attitude test
(A) Psycho-social (C) Personality test
(8) Social (D) Interest test
(C) Comprehensive
(D) None of the above 197. Some of the potential risks found among
visually impaired children include
193. The double-edged instrument which can (A) Hard to achieve friendships
eliminate the effects of socio-economic (8) Hard to read
inequalities but it can also introduce a
(C) Personal life may be less
new kind of inequality is
empathic
(A) Knowledge (8) Education (D) All of the above
(C) Power (D) Authority
198. The guiding principles of the Early
194. The Scheme of Integrated Education for Childhood Care Education curriculum
the Disabled Children (IEDC) was started are
with the objective of (A) Playas the basis of learning
(A) Provide educational opportunities to (8) Art as the basis of education
all children with disabilities under the
(C) Recognition of the special features
general school system
of children's thinking
(8) Integrate children with disabilities
(D) All of the above
in the general education system
to enable them to become equally 199. The key element required to nurture
contributing members of society balanced development of children
(C) Eliminate disparities and equalize (A) Knowledge (8) Skills
educational opportunities (C) Attitude (D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
200. The apex body for curriculum related
195. In an younger child is the inability to matters for school education in India is
find a toy on a patterned carpet but (A) The National Institute of Open
the ability to find it on a plain one is an Schooling
example of (B) The Council of Indian Schools
(A) Cortically visually impaired (C) The National Council of Educational
(8) Leucoma Research and Training (NCERT)
(C) Retinitis (D) Central Board for Secondary
(D) Low vision Education
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
~~~~~
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
~~~~~
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
3i4j~cuO~~q~tq'i?i~
13. This booklet contains 40 pages. 13. ~ 3~Cfl( it 40 ~ ~ I
14. Directions : Each question or incomplete 14.~:~~~~~~~~
statement is followed by four alternative
'Cffi~~~~~~~ I~~
suggested answers or completions. In each
case, you are required to select the one that
it ~ fcflm ~ <it '¥TI ~ \ill ~ <.fiT~ ~
correctly answers the question or completes the ~ ~~<it~cfit 3fR ~~~it
statement and blacken (e) appropriate circle ~ Jn~ (CflR "&f.t A, B, C en D <it -;ftffi en CfiTffi
A, B, C or D by Blue / Black Ball-Point Pen ~-~ if.:; ~ CfiTffi (e) Cfi8T ~ I (<lfilatlftffi
against the question concerned in the Answer
,:Jl:q'}j(~cu~l~ ~ lfTTO 11l~'R ff1fqCfi ~
Sheet. (For V.H. candidates corresponding
circle will be blackened by the scribe) ~~~)
15. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate 15. ~ ~ ~ mJf.r ~ ~ CfiT~'f!iCfl'1 ~ 3i1HT
circle against each question. The circle
should be shaded completely without leaving
~m I~Cfirm~~~~'f!iFcM~ I
any space. The correct method of shading is ~'f!iFcM CfiG CfiT~ <rtlCflr ~ Wn TTCfT ~ I
given below.
---.,
I Wrong Method Wrong Method Wrong Method Correct Methoc
~~~~
I O~OO 0000 O@OO oeoo ~~~~
I
The Candidate must mark his/her response ~ <it ~ ~ t4("l,{cfCfl"ffiq ~ ~"31RRl
I after careful consideration.
I ~Cfi8T~ I
I 16. There is only one correct answer to each 16. ~~<.fiT~~~~~~ I ~
I question. You should blacken (e) the circle of ~ ~ ~ A, B, C en D ~ Jn~ICflR "&f.t
___
I the appropriate column, viz., A, B, Cor D. If
...1
<it CfiTffi (e) Cfi8T ~ I ~ 31111fcflm ~ ~ ~
you blacken (e) more than one circle against
anyone question, the answer will be treated ~ ~ ~ Jn~ICflR "&f.t <it ~ (e) it ~
as wrong. "3W lJffif lffi1 ~ I
17. In case of any discrepancy between the 17. ~ fcflm ~ ~ W<fr <1m ~ ~ it ~
English and Hindi versions of any question, ~~m~~<it~~~\iIlWn I
the English version will be treated as final/
authentic.
18. Use the space for rough work given in the 18. ~"Cfll'4 ~ ~ ~ ~ -q?f it~ ~ ~ <.fiT
Question Booklet only and not on the Answer >i<WT cfit I ~ 3~CflI "tR ~ "Cfll'4 -;r~ I
Sheet.
19. You are NOT required to mark your answers 19. ~~CfiI~~~~~~~~1
in this Booklet All answers must be indicated ~~~~-q~~1
in the Answer Sheet only.
Go through instructions given in Page No.1 (Facing Page)
-40-Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 40
Source: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board. Question paper published by Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board.