DSSSB 2019: 8 September, Craft Instructor Draughtsman Civil
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following Sections; mrr ~ ~ m <fit ti&n ~ ~
No. of Page
Sections Test Components (31') i) ~~ 20 2-5 ~
Questions No.
(A) i) General Awareness 20 2-5 ii) ~~om (~IT ~
ii) General Intelligence and Oil"'''' 'lI''lOI 20 6-11
Reasoning Ability 6-11
iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
20
20 12-15
iii) ~~~~ 20 12-15 1&
(8)
iv)
v)
Hindi Language and Comprehension
English Language and Comprehension
Post Specific Subject·Related
20
20
16-17
18-19
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18 - 19
20-37
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Questions 100 20-37
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been explained at the back of this Booklet, which you should
read carefully before actually answering the questions.
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Go through instructions given in Page No. 40 (Back Cover Page)
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SECTION-A
i) General Awareness
1. Name the current Presidentof the Indian 7. Where are the sites of Harappa and
National Science Academy (INSA). Mohenio-Daro located?
(A) Thanju Bansal (A) Pakistan
(B) Anil Kakodkar
(C) C. N. R. Rao (B) India
(D) A. K. Sood (C) Afghanistan
(D) Nepal
2. In which continentis Surinamesituated?
(A) Africa
8. Which of the following Amendment
(B) South America
Act to the Constitution introduces "The
(C) Asia
Goods and Service Tax (GST)" ?
(D) Oceania
(A) 98th Amendment Act
3. The Tashkent Declaration was signed (B) 1ooth Amendment Act
between India and Pakistan after the (C) 101st Amendment Act
war of
(D) None of the above
(A) 1947 (B) 1965
(C) 1971 (D) 1999
9. Which one of the following books was
4. Which year was the International Solar written by Mahatma Gandhi?
Alliance founded? (A) Discovery of India
(A) 2017 (B) 2018 (B) Bunch of Thoughts
(C) 2015 (D) 2016 (C) Essentials of Hindutva
(D) Hind Swaraj
5. Which of the following is commonly
referred to as the conscience of the
Indian Constitution? 10. The 2020 Olympic would be held in
(A) The Preamble which country ?
(B) Fundamental Duty (A) India (B) China
(C) The Constituent Assembly (C) Japan (D) Russia
(D) Fundamental Rights and the
Directive Principles of State Policy 11. When did the Supreme Court of India
come into force?
6. The fourth Anglo-Mysore War took
(A) 26 January 1951
place in the year
(B) 28 January 1950
(A) 1757 (B) 1764
(C) 24 January 1950
(C) 1799 (D) 1802 (D) 12 January 1951
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12. Name the 2015 rescue operation carried 17. If a person has to travel by car from
out by India in Yemen. Manipur to Goa, what is the minimum
(A) Operation All Clear number of states that the person has to
(B) Operation Parakram cross?
(C) Operation Cocoon (A) 6 (B) 5
(D) Operation Raahat (C) 7 (D) 4
13. Where is the Headquarters of the New
18. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awards 2018
Development Bank located?
awarded to
(A) New Delhi
(A) Smriti Mandhana and Rohan
(B) Moscow
Bopanna
(C) Brasilia
(B) M. S. Dhoni and Neeraj Chopra
(D) Shanghai
(C) S. Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli
14. The Sarkaria Commission is related to (D) None of the above
(A) Interstate river water disputes
(B) Quotas for Reservation 19. What does the Government of India Act
(C) Police Reform of 1858 signify?
(D) Centre-State relations (A) Transferring the control of British
India from the East India Company
15. India sent the Indian Peace Keeping to the Crown
Force in 1987 to which of the following
(B) Setting up of Supreme Court in
countries?
Calcutta
(A) Maldives
(C) Removal of the position of Viceroy
(B) Bangladesh
of India
(C) Nepal
(D) None of the above
(D) Sri Lanka
16. Who was the first U.S. President to visit 20. Which Governor-general outlawed Sati
India? in India?
(A) Richard Nixon (A) Lord Wellesley
(B) Dwight D. Eisenhower (B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Barack Obama (C) Lord Linthligow
(D) Ronald Reagan (D) Lord Rippon
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ii) General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
21. In a group of five people K, Land M 25. Which of following is the same as
are ambitious, M, Nand R are honest. Wrestling, Karate, Boxing, __
L, M and N are intelligent and K, M and
(A) Swimming
Rare industrious. Among these, neither
industrious nor ambitious person would (B) Polo
include (C) Pole Vault
(A) K alone (0) Judo
(B) Land R
(C) M and N 26. Choose the number pair which is
(0) N alone different from others.
(A) 16 - 64
22. A, B, C, 0, E, F and G are members of (B) 9 - 36
a family consisting of four adults and
(C) 36 - 216
three children, two of whom, F and G
are girls. A and 0 are brothers and (0) 49 - 343
A is a doctor. E is an engineer married
to one of the brothers and has two 27. If in a certain code, BAT = 23 and
children. B is married to 0 and G is their CAT = 24, then how will you code BALL ?
child. Who is C ? (A) 27 (B) 28
(A) G's brother (C) 32 (0) 120
(B) F's father
(C) E's daughter 28. 0.5, 0.55, 0.65, 0.8, ?
(0) A's son (A) 1
(B) 0.82
23. Find the wrong number in the series.
(C) 0.9
3,8,15,24,34,48,63
(A) 15 (B) 24 (0) 0.95
(C) 34 (0) 48
29. Find out the wrong term in the given
24. Complete the analogous pair. series.
Newspaper: Press: : Cloth : ? 8,13,21,32,47,63,83
(A) Tailor (A) 32
(B) Textile (B) 21
(C) Fibre (C) 13
(0) Mill (0) 47
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30. Garima is taller than Sarita but not taller 33. Study the diagram below and identify
than Reena. Reena and Tanya are of the region representing youth who are
the same height. Garima is shorter than employed but not educated.
Anu. Amongst all the girls, who is the
shortest?
YDuth~Educated
(A) Anu 4 6 .
(B) Reena and Tanya 7
Employed
(C) Garima
(D) Sarita
(A) 4 only
31. There are five parents P, Q, R, Sand T. (B) 5,6
One is football player. P and S are
unmarried ladies and do not participate I (C) 1,4,7
in any game. None of the ladies plays I
(D) 4, 7
chess or football. There is a married
couple in which T is the husband. Q is
the brother of R and is neither a chess ·34. Number of letters skipped in reverse
player nor a hockey player. Who is the order in between adjacent letters in the
football player?
series is constant
(A) P
(B) Q I (A) SPMJG
(C) R
(B) SPNLJ
(D) S
I (C) SQOLJ
32. Kashish goes 30 metres North, then
turns right and walks 40 metres, then I (D) WUTRQ
again turns right and walks 20 metres,
then again turns right and walks I 35.
Calendar: Date : : Dictionary: ?
40 metres. How many metres is he from
his original position? (A) Words
(A) 0 (B) Language
(B) 10
I (C) Vocabulary
(C) 20
(D) 40 I (D) Book
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36. Nitin ranks eighteenth in a class of 39. Choose the conclusion which logically
49 students. What is his rank from the
follows from the given statement.
last?
(A) 18 Statement : Many creative persons
(8) 19 become artists.
(C) 31
Conclusions:
(D) 32
(A) A creative person will certainly
37. A bus for Delhi leaves every thirty become an artist.
minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry
(8) It is not possible to become an artist
clerk told a passenger that the bus
had already left ten minutes ago and without creativity.
the next bus will leave at 9.35 a.m. At (C) A high level of creativity is needed
what time did the enquiry clerk give this
to become an artist.
information to the passenger?
(D) Some artists are creative persons.
(A) 9.10 a.m.
(8) 8.55 a.m.
(C) 9.08 a.m.
(D) 9.15 a.m. 40. What will come in place of "?'in the given
series?
38. If every 2 out of 3 readymade shirts need
alterations in the sleeves and every 1, 4, 2, 3, 2, ?
4 out of 5 need it in the body, how many
(A) 2
alterationswi!! be requiredfor 60 shirts?
(A) 214 (8) 5
(8) 123 (C) 3
(C) 133
(D) 4
(D) 143
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iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
41 . If 2 sinS - 1 = 0 then secS + tana = 46. The least integer which when increased
by 3 is exactly divisible by the numbers
(A) 1 (8) J3 21, 45, 63, 81 and 210 is
2
(C) 2 (D) 0 (A) 1887 (8) 1001
(C) 5670 (0) 5667
42. In an examination, a student has to
47. A certain 2 digits number is 2 times the
answer 4 questions out of 5 questions;
sum of the digits and if 63 is added to
questions 1 and 2 are compulsory.
the number, the digits get interchanged.
The number of ways student can make
choices is The number is
(A) 15 (8) 30 (A) 21 (8) 12
(C) 3 (0) None of these (C) 18 (0) 81
48. If the simple interest on a certain sum
43. 6 boys and 6 girls sit in a row at random.
of money for 2 years is one fifth of the
The probability that all the girls sit
sum. The rate of interest will be (in
together is
percentage)
1 12
(A) 432 (8) 431 (A) 9% (8) 8.5%
1 (C) 20% (0) 10%
(C) 132 (0) None of these
49. A train overtakes 2 persons who are
walking at 2 kmph and 4 kmph speed
44. A person has 2 parents, 4 grandparents,
respectively and passes them in 9 sec.
8 great grandparents and so on.
The number of ancestors during the and 10 sec. respectively. The length of
10 generations preceding his own is the train will be
(A) 2046 (8) 2048 (A) 50 m (8) 88 m
(C) 1023 (0) None of these 55
(C) -m (0) None of these
9
45. Integrating factor of the differential 50. A book seller bought 228 books at an
average price of Rs. 8.50 per book of
equation (x + 3y2) dy = y, Y > 0 is
dx which 80 books he bought at Rs. 7.50 each
1 and 84 books at Rs. 10.50 each. The price
(A) Y (8) Y of the remaining books per unit is
(A) Rs. 7.125 (8) Rs. 7
(C) log Y (0) -y
(C) RS.7.5 (0) None of these
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56. In a group of 20 children, 8 drink tea but
not coffee and 13 like tea. The number
of children drinking coffee but not tea is
(A) 6 (8) 7
(A) 0 (8) 5
3 (C) 1 (0) None of these
7 c
52.
(C) 3 (0) None of these
Which of the following is not a group?
57. In the figure /I?!)B where 0 is the
(A) (IR, +) (8) (Z, +) centre of the circle, find IAC8
(C) (Q, +) (A) 60° (8) 30°
(0) (N,+)
(C) 90° (0) 120°
53. The diagonal of a rectangle is 5 cm and
one of its side is 4 cm. Its area is 58. A boy, 1.6 m tall is 20 m away from
a tower and observes the angle of
(A) 20 sq. cm. (8) 12 sq. cm.
elevation of the top of the tower to be
(C) 10 sq. cm. (0) None of these 45°. Then the height of tower is
(A) 21.6 metre (8) 20 metre
1 (C) 19.4 metre (0) None of these
54. The value of 4+--- -:- -- is
1
4+--- -
1
4+---
4+ ... 00 59. In an election, the winning candidate got
48000 votes which is 60% of his total
(A) 1±.J2 (8) 2 +.J5 votes. The total number of votes he got
was
(C) 2±.J5 (0) None of these
(A) 80000 (8) 60000
(C) 100000 (0) None of these
55. P, Q, R are three cities. The ratio of
average temperature between P and 60. If the product of 2 numbers is 216 and
Q is 11 : 12 and that between P and R their LCM is 36, then their HCF is
is 9 : 8. The ratio between the average (A) 5
temperature of Q and R is
(8) 6
(A) 22: 27 (8) 27: 22
(C) 9
(C) 32: 33 (0) None of these (0) None of these
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v) English Language and Comprehension
~~3tR~
Choose appropriate idiom to fill and complete Select suitable question tag for the following
the sentences : sentences :
85. They are working overtime, __
81. Your remarks during the discussion
(A) are they? (8) aren't they?
added ,
(C) do they? (D) don't they?
(A) Salt and pepper
(8) All and sundry 86. The train arrived on time, __
(A) do it ? (8) don't it ?
(C) Fuel to the fire
(C) did it ? (D) didn't it ?
(D) Spick and span
Fill in the blanks with suitable words in the
82. There was a great in the
following passage using appropriate words
office at the announcement of salary from the option.
deduction. 'One day a (87) fellow was sitting
(A) leaps and bounds (88) a walnut tree, and his eyes
(8) hue and cry fell on a (89) pumpkin growing
nearby.
(C) null and void
(D) hit the nail on the head 87. (A) satisfied (8) dissatisfied
(C) cheerful (D) happy
Change the voice of the following sentences :
88. (A) under (8) above
83. . 'They believe there will be a war soon'. (C) across (D) beyond
(A) It is believed that there will be a war (A) small (8) dry
89.
soon (C) huge (D) broken
(8) War is believed to be soon
(C) It was believed that there would be Identifythe grammatically wrong sentence and
war soon mark that option as answer.
(D) None of the above
90. (A) Each man and each woman have a
vote
84. 'Do not insult the poor'.
(8) Either Prathap or Pradeep has
(A) The poor are not be insulted done this mischief
(8) Let the poor not be insulted (C) Every officer and every soldier has
to be ready to sacrifice his/her life
(C) Let the poor must not be insulted
for the country
(D) None of the above (D) None of these
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91. (A) No sooner did the tiger appear than Choose the synonym of the word in capital.
he shot it down
96. VAGRANT
(8) Scarcely I had reached the station
when the train steamed out (A) brave (8) vagabond
(C) healthy (0) conquer
(C) He is not so bad as you say
(0) He is both scholarly and cultured
Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.
Select a word or phrase from the given options
to complete the sentence. 97. Louis was charge of a
park of animals.
92. The victorious army through (A) in (8) by
the conquered city. (C) on (0) through
(A) loitered (8) marched
Select the appropriate option for the underlined
(C) strayed (0) pulled word in the question from the given options.
Add suitable question tag for the following. 98. She waved her hands in a lively
fashion.
93. The Goddess stood before me __ ? (A) pronoun (8) adjective
(C) verb (0) adverb
(A) do she? (8) didn't she?
(C) did she? (0) had she?
Fill in the blank with appropriate word from
the options.
Select indirect object from the following
sentence. 99. He has great for his
younger brother.
94. He made coffee for all of us. (A) affection (8) effation
(A) he made (8) for (C) effection (0) affectation
(C) coffee (0) all of us
Choose correct verb which agrees with the
Select the wrongly spelt word. subject.
95. (A) noxious 100. Krishnamurthy or Narayan will
___ the food.
(8) neutral
(A) serve (8) served
(C) nebulos
(C) serves (0) serving
(0) natural
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SECTION - B
Post Specific Subject-Related Questions
101. The combined footing that covers the 105. The portion of a brick cut in such a
entire area beneath a structure and manner that its one long face remains
supports all the walls and columns is uncut is called
called (A) Quion (B) Stretcher
(A) Raft foundation (C) Header (0) Closer
(B) Grillage foundation
(C) Strap footing 106. The horizontal member of stone, brick
(0) Pile foundation used to support the masonry above an
opening is called
102. piles are used to compact (A) Sill (B) Lintel
loose granular soils to increase their (C) Jamb (0) Plinth
bearing capacity.
(A) End bearing pile 107. In masonry, the joint is used in cornices
(B) Friction pile and other weathered surfaces, to divert
(C) Combined end-bearing and friction the water moving on the weathered
pile surfaces away from the joint is called
(D) Compaction pile (A) Rusticated joint
(B) Doweled joint
103. is one of the circumstance (C) Saddled joint
under which a combined footing is (D) Cramped joint
provided.
(A) Bearing capacity of soil is high 108. An arch transmits the super imposed
(B) End column is near a property load to the abutment through cohesion
line of mortar and friction between the
(C) Column to column distance is (A) Edge of Intradose
high (B) Side of Extradose
(D) All of these (C) Surfaces of Voussoirs
(D) Surfaces of Crown
104. is a temporary enclosure
built round a working area for the 109. Arch consists of a semi-circular arch
purpose of excluding water during with two vertical portion at the springing
construction in river. is called
(A) Box caissons (A) Stilted arch
(B) Well foundation (B) Relieving arch
(C) Coffer dam (C) Segmental arch
(0) Pneumatic caisson (D) Pointed arch
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110. stairs are those which 115. The main advantage of rapid hardening
do neither have any landing nor any cement is
intermediate newel post. (A) Curing not required
(B) Zero density cement
(A) Bifurcated stairs
(C) Shuttering may be removed much
(B) Spiral earlier
(C) Dog legged stairs (D) None of these
(D) Open newel
116. sand wiched between
asphaltic or bituminous felts can be a
111. A type of roof formed by 4 sloping
effectively used as D.P.C.
surfaces in the 4 direction is called
(A) Sponge
(A) Deck roof (B) Hip roof (B) Plywood
(C) Gable roof (D) Gambrel roof (C) Chicken mesh
(D) Lead foil
112. is a vertical window provided
on the sloping roof to provide the 117. For R.C.C. work the maximum size of
ventilation to enclosed space below the aggregate is limited to
roof. (A) 4.75 to Bmm (B) 20 to 25mm
(C) 30 to 35mm (D) 40 to 60mm
(A) Gable window
(B) Lantern window 11B. Useof undergovolume change
(C) Bay window after the concrete has hardened.
(D) Dormer window (A) Plaster of paris
(B) Less durable aggregates
113. In type of scaffolding the (C) Unsound cement
working platform is suspended from roof (D) Brick Surkhi
by means of wire rope or chain.
(A) Trestle scaffolding 119. The test used to measure the workability
of concrete is
(B) Suspended scaffolding
(A) Specific gravity test
(C) Cantilever scaffolding
(B) Vee-Bee test
(D) Masons scaffolding
(C) Normal consistency
(D) Le Chatelier's test
114. is the process of covering
the rough surfaces of wall, column etc.
120. Characteristic strength of concrete is
with thin coat of mortar. defined as the strength of the material
(A) Pointing which is not more than of
(B) Painting the test results are expected to fall.
(C) Lime washing (A) 1% (B) 5%
(D) Plastering (C) 10% (D) 15%
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121. is a temporary ancillary 127. The instrument used to set out a right
construction used as a mould for the angle to the chain line is
structure in which concrete is placed, (A) Line ranger (B) Site square
hardens and matures.
(C) Dumpy level (0) Plasters lath
(A) Shoring (B) Centring
(C) Scaffolding (D) Form work 128. Pond is considered to be obstacles to
(A) Chaining but not ranging
122. used for the exploring mineral
(B) Ranging
wealth.
(C) Both chaining and ranging
(A) Mine survey
(D) None of these
(B) Geological survey
(C) Archaeological survey
129. In compass surveying, if fore bearing of
(D) City survey
line AB is 120 24' then its back bearing is
123. The ratio of map distance to the (A) 12 24' 0
(8) 192 24' 0
corresponding ground distance is (C) 1820 24' (0) 16]0 36'
independent of unit of measurement is
called
130. is a term used to denote
(A) Alternative fraction
any influence which prevents the needle
(B) Corresponding fraction
from pointing to the magnetic north in a
(C) Unit fraction given locality.
(D) Representative fraction (A) Global attraction
(B) Diurnal variation
124. Length of a Gunter's chain is
(C) Secular variation
(A) 100 ft. (B) 66 ft.
(D) Local attraction
(C) 33 ft. (D) 20 ft.
131. If the magnetic meridian is to the right
125. The length of a line measured with a
side of the true meridian, declination is
20 m chain was found to be 250 m. If
said to be
the chain was 10 cm too long, then the
true length of the line is (A) Eastern (B) Northern
(A) 250.25 m (B) 270 m (C) Western (0) Southern
(C) 230 m (D) 251.25 m
132. in theodoiite, the process of turning
126. If the tape is stretched out of the line, the telescope in vertical plane through
measured distance will always be more 180 degree about the trunnion axis is
and the correction will be called
(A) Positive (B) Zero (A) Swinging (B) Centring
(C) Negative (D) None of these (C) Levelling (D) Transiting
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133. In levelling, a point on which both fore 139. isthe processof determining
sight and back sight is taken on a line the differences of elevations of stations
of direct level is from the observed vertical angle and
(A) Turning point known distances.
(B) Station (A) Tacheometric levelling
(C) Benchmark (B) Hypsometric levelling
(D) Intermediate station (C) Trigonometric levelling
134. will be the correction for (D) Barometric levelling
curvature for a distance of 1200m.
(A) 0.612 m (B) 0.835 m 140. In photo theodolite, is the
(C) 0.002 m (D) 0.113 m . perpendicular distance from the centre
of the camera lens to either the picture
135. A chord between two successive regular plane or the camera plate.
station on a curve called (A) Principle plane
(A) Normal chord (B) Sub chord (B) Camera length
(C) Main chord (D) Mid chord (C) Nodal distance
136. If the deflection angle and the radius of (D) Focallength
curvature are both small, the curves can
be set out by 141. is an aerial photograph
(A) intersection of tangents taken with the camera axis directed
(B) Bisection of tangents intentionally between horizontal and the
(C) Offsets from the tangents vertical.
(D) Offsets from the chord produced (A) Vertical photograph
(B) Oblique photograph
; 37. The cant provided in railway where (C) Tilted photograph
more weight will be carried by the outer
wheels, the outer springs will be more (D) Perspective projection
highly compressed than the inner and
passenger will tend to lean outward. 142. In photogrammetric surveying, the angle
Such condition is called formed between the flight line and the
edges of the photograph in the direction
(A) Equilibrium cant
of flight is
(B) Cant deficiency
(A) Crab (B) Drift
(C) Kerb cant
(C) Tilt (D) Strip
(D) Easy cant
143. will take care of recording,
138. required to have the
reading and the necessary computation
curve transitional throughout having no
intermediate circular curve. in total station.
(A) Spiral (A) Reflector
(B) Parabolic (B) Capacitor
(C) Cuboid (C) Microprocessor
(D) Bernoulli's lemniscate (D) Digitizer
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144. The science and art of collecting 150. In the external focusing
information about objects, area from anallactic type of telescope is used in
distance without being in physical stadia surveying. '
contact with them is called (A) Stadia theodolite
(A) Total station (B) Tacheometer
(B) EDM (C) Dumpy level
(C) Photogrammetric surveying (D) Transit theodolite
(D) Remote sensing
151. Which of these is not true for a
145. Contour is an imaginary line on the tacheometers ?
ground joining the points of (A) The multiplying constant value
(A) Different elevation is 100
(B) Equal elevation (B) The axial horizontal line can be
(C) Zero elevation anywhere between the other two
(D) Highest and lowest elevation line
(C) The telescope to be truly anallactic
146. The process of putting the plane table (D) The telescope should be powerful
into some fixed direction so that the having a magnification of 20 to 30
line representing the certain direction diameter
in the plan parallel to that direction on
the ground is called 152. The within the district serving
(A) Orientation (B) Levelling areas of production and markets and
(C) Centring (D) All of these connecting those with each other or with
the main highway of the district.
147. is the process of (A) Major District Road
determining the plotted positions of the (B) Other District Road
station occupied by the plane table by
means of sights taken towards known (C) State Highway
points. (D) Village Road
(A) Intersection (B) Bisection
153. A class of highway with superior facility
(C) Traversing (D) Resection and design standard are meant as
through routes having very high volume
148. Planimeter constant (M) is equal to the
of traffic is known
number of units of area per revolution
of the (A) National Highway
(A) Pen (B) Anchor (B) State Highway
(C) Roller (D) Disc (C) Major District Road
(D) Expressways
149. Instrumentusedfor settingout gradientsis
(A) Ceylon ghat tracer 154. occurs when a wheel
revolves more than the corresponding
(B) Pentagraph longitudinal movement along the road.
(C) Box sextant (A) Speed (B) Slip
(D) Inclinometer (C) Grind (D) Traction
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155. According to PIEV theory, the total 160. yard in which wagons are
reaction time of the driver is split into sorted and new trains are formed.
_____ parts. (A) Goods (B) Marshallinq
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Braking (D) Station
(C) Four (D) Five
161. Load per unit length of the rail required
156. The distance travelled by the vehicle to produce a unit depression is called
during the total reaction time known as (A) Traction
(A) Braking distance (B) Track tolerance
(B) Lag distance (C) Track rigidity
(C) Stopping distance (D) Track modulus
(D) Sight distance
162. Sharp changes of gradient are eased
157. is intended to study the off by introducing the curves in vertical
resistance of aggregates to weathering plane are called
action by conducting accelerated (A) Horizontal curve
weathering test cycle. (B) Compound curve
(A) Aggregate crushing test (C) Vertical curve
(B) Soundness test (D) Reverse curve
(C) Impact test
(D) Abrasion test 163. Which is not a cause for formation of
kinks in rails?
158. When surface depression is formed (A) Tight Packinq edge joints
locally in small patches such as near or (B) Defect in gauge and alignment
under rail joint, the work of correcting it, (C) Defect in cross level at joint
called (D) Uneven wear of rail heads
(A) Sand hump
(B) Shunting 164. Number of sleepers per rail length in
(C) Scissor packing meters represent
(D) Slack pickinq (A) Rail density
(B) Sleeper crib
159. Rails provided over bridges to prevent (C) Train density
damage and danger incase of derailment (D) Sleeper density
occurring on the bridges is called
(A) Guard rail 165. For holding the rails to the wooden
(B) Bull headed rail sleepers is used.
(C) Check rail (A) Fish plate (B) Spikes
(D) Lead rail (C) Bolts (D) Chairs
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166. The ballast filling around the sleeper is 172. When there is obstruction in a pipe
called the loss of energy takes place due to
reduction of at the place
(A) Packing (B) Ballast crib
where obstruction is present.
(C) Boxing (D) Ramming
(A) Length of the pipe
(8) Thickness of pipe
167. The ratio between the weight of a fluid (C) Cross section area of the pipe
to its volume is called (0) Bend in pipe
(A) Specific weight
(B) Mass density 173. The flow in open channel is said to be
(C) Flowability , if the Reynolds number
O.
(0) Viscosity
(A) Steady flow (8) Turbulent flow
(C) Critical flow (D) Laminar flow
168. in which shear stress is
directly proportional to shear strain. 174. is a channel which carries
(A) Newtonian fluid water away from the turbines after the
(8) Non - Newtonian fluid water has worked on the turbine.
(C) Ideal plastic fluid (A) Right bank channel
(B) Tail race
(D) Ideal fluid
(C) Water way
(D) Left bank channel
169. The specific weight of water is
(A) 98.1kN/m3 (B) 9.81 N/m3 175. To stop a runner in a short time, a small
(C) 981 N/m3 (D) 9.81kN/m3 nozzle is provided which directs the
jet of water on the back of the vanes
170. Device used for measuring rate of flow called
of a fluid flowing through pipe is (A) Stopping jet (B) Pausing jet
(C) Breaking jet (D) Restoring jet
(A) Venturimeter (B) Orifice
(C) Mouth piece (D) All of these
176. Due to bleeding a layer of water will
emerge at the surface of concrete often
171. The ratio of the area of the jet at bringing some quantity of cement with
venacontracta to the area of the orifice it, the formation of this layer of cement
is known as particle is called
(A) Coefficient of velocity (A) Cement membrane
(B) Laitance
(B) Coefficient of contraction
(C) Top coat
(C) Coefficient of discharge
(0) Grout
(D) All of these
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177. The quantity of heat required to raise the 183. is a type of non-automatic
temperature of a unit mass of material rain gauge.
by 1 degree centigrade is known as (A) Symon's rain gauge
(A) Thermal diffusivity (B) Weighing bucket rain gauge
(B) Heat density (C) Tipping bucket rain gauge
(C) Conductivity (D) Float type rain gauge
(D) Specific heat
184. Temporary hardness causes due to
178. Which of these method is not used for presence of
measuringair content of fresh concrete? (A) Magnesium Chloride
(A) Gravimetric method (B) Magnesium Nitrate
(B) Volumetric method (C) Magnesium Sulphate
(C) Pressure method (D) Magnesium Bicarbonate
(D) Vee Bee consistometer method
185. a stage in the nitrogen
179. Method of curing concrete which is cycle occurs in water as an intermediate
applicable mostly to very cold climatic in an oxidation or reduction process.
regions is the use of (A) Nitrate
(A) Solar heat (B) Hot water (B) Albuminoid nitrogen
(C) Ice (D) Electricity .(C) Nitrite
(D) Ammoniacal nitrogen
180. Poisson ratio is the ratio between
186. Permanent hardness can be removed
(A) Longitudinal strain to the lateral
by process.
strain
(A) Ozonation (B) Zeolite
(B) Lateral strain to the longitudinal
strain (C) Chlorination (D) Boiling
(C) Linear stress to linear strain 187. Difference between the amount of
(D) Shear stress to shear strain chlorine added to water and the quantity
of free available chlorine remaining at
181. A simple method for establishing the the end of the specified contact period
extent of carbonation is to treat the is called
freshly broken surface of concrete with (A) Chlorine demand
a solution of (B) Residual chlorine
(A) Benzene (C) Chlorine added
(B) Methyl orange (D) Free chlorine
(C) Phenolphthalein
(D) Methyl red 188. effect is produced when
the velocity of water in the pipe is
182. Pulse velocity technique is used for the checked suddenly by sudden closure
measurement and detection of of a valve.
(A) Strength (A) Stresses at bend
(B) Soundness (B) Water hammer
(C) Thermal conductivity (C) Pressure difference
(D) Cracks (D) Null effect
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mlIIIlIIIDlIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII~1111111I1
189. As per IS 456, the final deflection due 195. Slender columns are those in which the
to load, temperature and shrinkage of ratio of effective length to its least lateral
horizontal structural member should not dimension exceeds
exceed the value of (A) 2 (B) 10
(A) Span/500 (B) Spann50 (C) 12 (0) 18
(C) Span/250 (0) Span/150
196. _____ is the vertical distance
190. Reinforced concrete slabs supported between the adjacent treads.
only on columns without beams are (A) Tread (B) Landing
categorised as (C) Nosing (0) Riser
(A) Shell structure
(B) Grid slab 197. ______ type of staircase
(C) Raft slab comprises only the horizontal tread
slab projecting from a wall or inclined
(0) Flat slab
beam serving as a fixed end with open
191. Reinforced concrete slab supported on risers.
all the four edges with ratio of long to (A) Oog legged
short span not exceeding _ (B) Isolated cantilever
are referred as two way slabs. (C) Tread-riser
(A) One (B) Two (0) Open well
(C) Three (0) Four
198. In the design of one-way slab as per
192. Chajjas and balconies projecting from lintel IS 456, distribution reinforcement
beams or floor slab are designed as is percent of gross
(A) Two-way slab (B) Flat slab cross-sectional area.
(C) One-way slab (0) Grid slab (A) 0.05 (B) 0.1
(C) 0.12 (0) 0.87
193. Column in a building frame are not
subjected to
199. In cantilever slab, minimum distribution
(A) Oead load of floor and beam reinforcement is provided in the
(B) Oead load of column _____ direction.
(C) Live load on the floor (A) Vertical (B) Longitudinal
(0) Oead load of footing (C) Inclined (0) Transverse
194. The design ultimate load on the 200. Basic span/depth ratio for beams
column is computed by the equation, and slabs of type of support being
p u= 0.4 fck Ac+ Asc' continuous is
(A) 0.5fy (B) 0.67fy (A) 7 (B) 20
(C) 0.7fy (0) 0.87fy (C) 26 (0) none of these
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
w;~~~~
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
~~~~~
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
3Utj~qlij~~q~~'fli~
13. This booklet contains 40 pages. 13. ~ ~ ~ 40 ~ ~I
14. f.$r :~~~~~~~~
14. Directions : Each question or incomplete
statement is followed by four alternative 'qR"3"ffi:~~~p~~ I~~
suggested answers or completions. In each ~ 3Wfcit M ~ en) ~ ~ it .~ ~ Btt "3"ffi:
case, you are required to select the one that ~ ~ ~ en) ~ ~ 3ttt 3Wfcit "3"ffi:~ ~
. correctly answers the question or completes the
~ In <.1IChI{ "&f.t A, B, C <.IT
D en)-;fRn <.IT
"CfiR1T
statement and blacken (e) appropriate circle
A, B, C or D by Blue / Black Ball-Point Pen ~ -~ tr.1 ~ Cfifffi (e) Cf)GT t I (<foliiufiffi
against the question concerned in the Answer ,:H:mGcml ~ ~ "fflTO lTl"RTCfi'R imtrcn iTU
Sheet. (For V.H. candidates corresponding
CfiTFfTfcfi<;rr~)
circle will be blackened by the scribe)
15. ~ >w.1 ~ 00 ~ ~ CfiT R!~iC&l Cfifcf;3N-TI
15. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate
circle against. each question. The circle
~~ l~c@N.n~~~Rl~ifcM~ I
should be shaded completely without leaving Rl~ifCFiaCfif.rCfiT ~ cRlCfiT ~ ~ ll<.rr t I
any space. The correct method of shading is
----., given below.
I ~~~~
I ~~~~
I The Candidate must mark his/her response ~ en) 3TCRT"3"ffi:UlIOi\cfCh ~ ~ ~ ~
I after careful consideration. '~Cf)GT~1
I
I 16. There is only one correct answer to each 16. ~~~~~ttBtt~t 13Wfcit
I question. You should blacken (e) the circle of ~~ ~A, B, C<.ITD~ In<.1IChI(~
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you blacken (e) more than one circle against
anyone question, the answer will be treated ~ ~ ~ In<.1IChI{ ~ en) ~ (e) ol 31TqCfi[
as wrong. ~ 1Jffif m;rr ~ I
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English and Hindi versions of any question, 3lcRtol~~en)ttBtt~~ I
the English version will be treated as final!
authentic.
18. Use the space for rough work given in the 18. ~Cfi1<f~~~~~-q~~~~
Question Booklet only and not on the Answer >r<frT ~ I~ ~ 11\ ~ Cfi1<f;r ~ I
Sheet.
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in this Booklet. All answers must be indicated ~~~~-ij~~1
in the Answer Sheet only.
Go through instructions given in Page No.1 (Facing Page)
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Source: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board. Question paper published by Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board.