DSSSB 2019: 14 July, Craft Instructor Machinist Grinder

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MKG-XVIIiITECHCIMGIIT/02 I POSTCODE/~<Hs:
113114
Write here Roll Number and Answer Sheet No. ••••
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Time Allowed: 2 hours OBJECTIVE TYPE TIER-ONE EXAMINATION Maximum Marks: 200 :I: 0
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Declaration by Invlgilator : Declaration by Candidate:
I Certify that I have checked that the Roll Numberand the Answer I undertakenot to employ any unfair means in this exam. I have checked the Question
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Sheet Numberwritten by the Candidateon the questionpaper and Booklet Number and the Answer Sheet Number and both are identical and have been
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the OMR Sheetare correctand theAnswerSheetNumbermatches correctly entered by me wherever indicated.
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the Question Booklet Numberexactly.
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Signature of the Invigilator with Name Signature of the Candidate with Name
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Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions. z::!
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES q') I{"\'{ ., ~.~ O::J
1. If the Roll No. is a 8 digit No., the candidate needs to circle as
"00" as the first 2 digits in the first 2 columns oj the Roll No.
2. OMR Answer Sheet is enclosed in this Booklet. You must
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start answering the questions, failing which your Answer Sheet
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3. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer ";fCfiB~lR'rn~<til~cm QUESTION BOOKL ETNO
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machine shail reject such OMR answer sheet and hence
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such OMR answer sheet shall not be evaluated.
4. Please check all the pages of the Booklet carefully. In case of 4.
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any defect, please ask the Invigilator for replacement of the <R I~~~~;m~ ~~ I
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The Answer Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator 1fIT 1.-'1<R~~~~~1 113/1 4
before you leave the Examination Hall. f.JtT8J"i<> i!>~ 'f;\ ~ I
6. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 6. "@fi w.f~ ~~ ~ <m<f\ 3t<f; tLI- - - - - - - -
7. The paper carries negative markings. For each wrong 7. ~tr:{if~~~ I ~lR'rn~ifi~ 0.25 3tc6CfilGf
answer 0.25 mark will be deducted. ~I ,
8. This Booklet contains 200 questions in all comprising the 8. ~ ~ ~ ¥'I 200 m t ~ Rl<lrlilf{g(j \Wl ~ t : ~
following Sections:
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No. of Page
l
Sections Test Components (31) i) <!Tl1R~ 20 2-5
Questions No.
(A) i) GeneralAwareness ii) <!Tl1R ~ (1m
20 2-5
ii) General Intelligenceand ~~ 20 6-11
IT
ReasoningAbility 20 6·11 ~
iii) ~1!,<i~~ 20 12-15
iii) Arithmetical and NumericalAbility 20 12·15
Iv) Hindi Language and Comprehension 20 16-17 iv) ~ \WIT 3fu <i\t! 20 16-17 ~
IT
v) EnglishLanguageand Comprehension 20 18·19 v) 3W;;ft \WIT 3fu oITq 20 18-19
(8) Post Specific Subject-Related ("ill) tffi:G~h-~~m 20-45
~ ~
100
Questions
9. Use of Calculator/Palmtop/Laptop/Other
Mobile/Cell Phone/Pager is not allowed.
100
Digital Instrumentl
20·45
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10. Candidates found guilty of misconductlusing unfair means in the 10. '1tT~-~ ~ ~~ ~<fiT<f'<t~~~~ ~
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Examination Hall will be liable for appropriate penaViegal action. ~ ~/~mf.ti.f; ~ ~ I
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11. The manner in which different questions are to be answered has
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been explained at the back of this Booklet, which you should
read carefully before actually answering the questions. ~~~~t ~3lN~'<t~~~~~~~ I
12. No Rough Work is to be done on the Answer Sheet. 12. ~wt'filli~~tR~~t I
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Go through instructions given in Page No. 48 (Back Cover Page)
-1-
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MKG·XVIIIITECHCIMGIIT 102
~
SECTION-A
i) General Awareness
1. In which Session of the Indian National 6. "Nomadic Elephant" a joint military
Congress our National anthem Jana- exercise was held between which of the
gana-mana was first sung? following countries?
.(A) Calcutta Session, 1911 (A) India and Vietnam
(B) Madras Session, 1908 (B) India and Mangolia
(C) Belgaum Session, 1924 (C) India and North Korea
(0) None of the above (D) India and South Korea
2. 7. Every year "InternationalDay of Yoga" is
Who was served as the first Lok Sabha
speaker of free India? observedon which of the followingdate?
(A) June, 21st
(A) K.S.Hegde
(B) May, 1st
(B) Sardar Hukam Singh
(C) June, 5th
(C) Sumitra Mahajan
(D) None of the above
(D) G. V. Mavalankar
8. The national calendar of India based on
3. Iron Magic-19 a military exercise held which of the following calendar system?
betweenwhich of the follOwingcountries? (A) Julian calendar system
(A) USA and Japan (B) Saka Era calendar system
(B) India and Germany (C) Gregorian calendar system
(C) USA and UAE (D) None of the above
~}J ~
(D) None of the above
..'" 9. Which of the following nations severely
4. Internationalday of nonviolenceobserved affected by the tropical cyclone Idai ?
every year on (A) Mozambique, Zimbabwe and
(A) October 2 Malawi
(B) October 23 (B) Bangladesh and Sri Lanka
(C) Australia and New Zealand
(C) September 22
(D) None of the above
(0) None of the above
5. 10. Which of the following organization
What is the minimum age to contest for
Lok Sabha election? releases the "Human Development
(A) Not less than 30 years Index" report (HDI) every year?
(B) Not less than 18 years (A) UNDP
(C) Not less than 25 years (B) UNESCO
i i
L (C) WHO
(0) None of the above
(0) FAO
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Text of page 4
= 11. Cyclonic Storm Ockhi was a strong
tropical cyclone that devastated parts
of Sri Lanka and India. It was the
16.
MKG-XVIlIITECHCIMG/IT/02
Which of the following convention
to conserve the migratory species
aims
of
wild animals?
tropical cyclone of which of the tollowinq
sea/ocean? (A) Ramsar convention
(A) Arabian Sea (B) Bonn convention
(B) Bay of Bengal (C) UNFCC
(C) Pacific Ocean
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
12. 17. Western Ghat and Eastern Ghat meets
"Satyameva Jayate" - Truth only
Triumphs written in which script? in which of the following hills?
(A) Brahmi script (A) Cardamom hills
(B) Thai script
(B) Palani hills
(C) Devanagari script
(C) Nilgiri hills
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
13. Which of the following rivers is not a
tributary of Brahmaputra? 18. Which of the following ministry have
(A) Subansiri (B) Pagladiya launched O-SMART Scheme?
(C) Dhansiri (D) Gandak (A) Ministry of Skill Development and
14. Nobel award-2018 in physics, awarded Entrepreneurship
to the scientists for their contribution in (B) Ministry of Earth Science
the field of (C) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(A) Acoustics
(D) None of the above
(B) Nuclear physics
(C) Laser physics
19. The headquarters of SAARC is located at
(D) Astrophysics
(A) New DelhlIndia
15. Which of the following statement/s (B) Kathmandu, Nepal
is/are true about National Green Tribunal
(C) Kabul, Afghanistan
(NGT) ?
(D) Dhaka, Bangladesh
(A) NGT set up in 2010 under the NGT
Act
20. How many railway zones are there in
(B) It is a specialized body equipped
India?
with the necessary expertise to
handle environmental disputes (A) 12
(C) Both the options (A) and (B) are (B) 17
correct (C) 15
(D) None of the above (0) None of the above
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Text of page 6
MKG-XVIlIn-ECHCIMG/IT/02
ii) General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
21. Fact 1 : All hats have brims. 24. A is B's sister. C is B's mother. 0 is C's
Fact 2 : There are black hats and blue
father. E is D's mother. Then how is A
hats.
related to 0 ?
Fact 3 : Baseball caps are hats.
If the first three statements are facts, (A) Grandmother
which of the following statements must (B) Grandfather
also be a fact ?
(C) Daughter
I. All caps have brims
II. Some baseball caps are blue (D) Granddaughter
III. Baseball caps have no brims
25. Find the missing number.
(A) I only
(B) II only 5,2,7,9,16,25,41, ?
(C) I, II and III (A) 65
(D) None (B) 66
(C) 67
22. During the past year, Josh saw more
movies than Stephen. (D) 68
Stephen saw fewer movies than Darren.
For questions 26 and 27 refer to the data
Darren saw more movies than Josh. below:
If the first two statements are true, the
A+ B means Ax B
third statement is
(A) True A + B means A - B
(B) False A x B means A + B
(C) Uncertain
(D) None A - B means A + B
26. Find the value of 28 - 4 x 3 + 10.
23. Here are some words translated from
(A) 1
an artificial language
(8) 0
granamelke means big tree (C) 2
pinimelke means little tree (D) 3
melkehoon means tree house
Which word could mean 'big house' ? 27. Findthe value of 5 x 5 + 1 x 5 + 2 x 5 + 3.
(A) granahoon (A) 15
(B) pinishur (B) 20
(C) pinihoon (C) 25
(D) melkegrana (D) 35
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MKG-XVlllfTECHCIMGIIT/02 ·7·

Text of page 8
.~ MKG-XVlllffECHCIMG/IT/02
28. The total cost curve of the number of 31. 5 friends P, Q, R, Sand T are sitting in
copies of a particular photograph is a row facing North. Here, S is between
T and Q, Q is to the immediate left of R.
linear. The total cost of 5 and 8 copies
P is to the immediate left of T. Who is
of a photograph are ~ 80 and ~ 116 in the middle?
(A) S
respectively. The total cost for 10 copies
(B) T
of the photograph will be (C) Q
(D) R
(A) ~ 100
(B) ~ 120
32. Find the wrong terms of the series
(C) ~ 110 9,29,65,126,217,344.
(0) ~ 140 (A) 65
(B) 126
(C) 9
29. A, B, C, D, E and F belong to a family
(D) 29
that has two married couples. No one
Direction for Q. No. 33 and 34 :
from the third generation is married.
5 cars are owned by 5 diiierent men and each
C is F's mother-in-law. D, E and Bare of them play one of five different games.
A's teenaged older sister, father and Cars ~ Brown, Orange, Red, Green, Yellow
Men ~C, D, E, F, H
grandfather respectively. Who is D's
Game ~ Basketball, Volleyball, Cricket, Table
father? tennis and Football
(A) A 1. D likes to play Basketball .
2. The one with the Green car plays
(B) B
Football
(C) C 3. D has a Red car and H does not like
(D) E Volleyball
4. E plays Cricket and has Orange car
30. RATES: ENGRF:: DWELT: 5. .F plays Table tennis and does not
have a Brown or Red car
(A) PRSTA
33. Who plays Volleyball ?
(B) RYJYM (A) C
(C) QJRYG (B) D
(C) H
(D) RJMKN
(D) F
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Text of page 12
MKG-XVIlIITECHCIMGIIT/02
iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
41. The 13th term of an A.P., in which the 46. The angle of elevation of the top of a
6th term is -2 and the 9th term is -5 is tower from a point on the ground which
(A) 8 (8) 9 is 30 m away from the foot of the tower,
(C) -9 (0) -8 is 30°, then the height of the tower is
(A) 30 m (8) 10../3m
42. If the sum and product of zeroes of a 10
(C) 30../3 m (0)../3 m
polynomial are -3 and 2 respectively,
then the quadratic polynomial is
47. Sum of the areas of two squares is
(A) X2 - 3x + 2
468 m-. If the difference of their
(8) X2 - 3x - 2 perimeters is 24 m, the sides of two
(C) X2 + 3x + 2 squares are (in metres)
(0) none of these (A) 23,12 (8) 18,12
(C) 16,18 (0) 14,16
43. A quadratic equation whose roots are
3
--an d -- 1. IS 48. 8y selling a pen at Rs. 250, the profit
5 10 made is Rs. 50, then the cost price of
the pen is
(A) X2 + 35x + 3 = 0 (A) RS.300
(8) RS'.225
(8) 50x2 + 35x + 3 = 0
(C) Rs.200
(C) 50x2 - 3 = 0 (0) None of these
(0) 10x2 + 35x + 3 = 0
49. Some students planned a picnic. The
2tan30° budget for food was Rs. 500, but 5 of
44 . V a Iue af 2 ° = them failed to go and the cost of food
1+ tan 30
(A) sin 60° (8) cas 60° for each member increased by Rs. 5,
(C) tan 60° (0) sin 30° then the number of students who went
to picnic is
5 1 6 3 (A) 20 (8) 25
45. If-+--=2,----=1 (C) 30 (0) 15
x-1 y-2 x-1 y-2
then (x, y) = 50. If the sum of 3 consecutive numbers is
(A) (4,5) 183, then the numbers are
(8) (5, 4) (A) 59,60,61
(8) 60,61,62
(C) (~,~)
(C) 60,62,64
(0) (-4, 5) (0) 58,60,62
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Text of page 14
MKG-XVIlIITECHCIMGIIT/02
51. A line intersecting a circle in two points
56. A man had to walk a certain distance.
is called a
He walked half the distance at a speed
(A) tangent
(8) radius of 6 kmlhr and the remaining half at a
(C) secant speed of 5 km/hr. If the total time taken
(0) none of these was 11 hours, the distance he walked
was
52. A metallic sphere of radius 4.2 cm is
(A) 50 km (8) 75 km
melted and recast into the shape of a
cylinder of radius 6 cm. The height of (C) 60 km (0) 70 km
cylinder thus formed is
343 57. The length of the minute hand of a clock
(A) 125 cm is 14 cm, then the area swept by the
(8) 2 cm minute hand in 5 minutes is
(C) 3 cm 154 2
(A) -cm
(0) 175cm 3
17 (8) 51 ern"
53. The radii of two circles are 19 cm and (C) 35 cm2
9 cm respectively. The radius of the 157 2
(0) -cm
circle which has the circumference 3
equal to the sum of the circumferences
of the two given circles is 58. The product of two numbers is 19200
(A) 21 cm (8) 10 cm and their HCF is 40, then their LCM is
(C) 28 cm (0) 27 cm (A) 48 (8) 480
(C) 240 (0) 120
r 54. If the average age of A and 8 is
59. In a mixture of 35 litres of milk, the
s;- 18 years, that of 8 and C is 17 years
ratio of pure milk and water is 4 : 1. If
and that of C and A is 20 years, then
another 7 litres of water is mixed to the
the age of A is
mixture, the ratio of milk and water in
(A) 20 years
the resulting mixture becomes
(8) 18 years
(A) 2: 3 (8) 3: 2
(C) 19 years (C) 1: 2 (0) 2: 1
(0) 21 years
60. If the interest on Rs. 800 be more than
55. Among J2, ~, 0.01, - 8, one which is not the interest on Rs. 400 by Rs. 40 in
4
a rational number is 2 years, then the rate of simple interest
3 per annum (in %) is
(A) J2 (8) 4
(A) 5% (8) 6%
(C) 0.01 (0) -8 (C) 5.5% (0) 4%
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Text of page 18
MKG-XVlllrrECHCIMGIIT/02
v) English Language and Comprehension
~'qNf3tR~
Choose the sentence which is grammatically Choose the correct passive form for the
wrong. following sentence.
81. (A) The scenery of Kerala is very 85. "Someone pulled the bell".
beautiful (A) The bell pulled by someone
(8) The guests left their luggage in the (8) The bell was pulled by someone
hotel
(C) The bell has pulled by someone
(C) The cattles are grazing in the
(0) The bell has been pulled by
field
someone
(0) This is a two year old boy
86. 'Your books have given me wisdom'.
82. (A) Some ill people refuse to take
(A) Wisdom has been given by your
medicine
books
(8) I answered her as casually as
(8) Wisdom have been given by your
possible
books
(C) I will be readyto leave by 5 0' clock
(C) Wisdom WBS gi\l9n by yQUr books
(0) Which was a better story of the
(0) Wisdom had been given by your
two?
books
Choose suitable linker to fill in the blanks.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate article.
83. She behaves she were a 87. Ganga is a holy river.
queen. (A) A
-,
(A) if (8) The
(8) as if (C) An
(C) though (0) Not needed
(0) but
88. Mount Everest is the highest
84. He worked hard, peak in the world.
he couldnot
get a rank. (A) The
(A) still (8) A
(8) yet
(C) An
(C) so
(0) for (0) Not needed
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Text of page 19
MKG-XVIlIITECHCIMGIIT/02
Find the word that is most nearly the same in Fill in the blanks with suitable preposition.
meaning as the words in capitals.
95. I have not met him yesterday.
89. INNATE
(A) from (B) since
(A) Natural
(B) Extraneous (C) for (0) in
(C) Adventitious 96. 00 not expect any help from them
(0) Extrinsic June.
90. VICIOUS (A) at
(A) Light (B) Moderate (B) to
(C) Furious (0) Soft (C) till
Use suitable question tag. (0) none of the above
91. She sings songs, ?
Identify the underlined words in the following
(A) is she (B) isn't she
sentences.
(C) does she (0) doesn't she
97. It was the ghastly apparition of an old
92. Aparna came here last Sunday, __ ?
man.
(A) was she (A) adverb
(B) wasn't she (B) pronoun
(C) didn't she (C) adjective
(0) doesn't she (0) preposition
Pick out the word that is nearly opposite in 98. The directors ruined themselves.
meaning to the words in capitals. (A) pronoun
(B) adjective
93. BURY (C) conjunction
(A) Conceal (0) noun
(B) Embed 99. He signed the letter.
(C) Dig in (A) noun (B) pronoun
(0) Exhume (C) verb (0) adverb
94. SANGUINE 100. This is the desk which he invariably
(A) Optimistic wrote at.
(B) Genuine (A) verb
(B) helping verb
(C) Pessimistic
(C) linker
(0) Altruistic
(0) preposition
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Text of page 20
MKG-XVlllfTECHCIMGIIT 102
SECTION-B
Post Specific Subject - Related Questions
101. Which Section of the Factory Act deals 104. Match the parts A and B regarding
with cleanliness? various heat treatment processes:
A B
(A) Section 11 1. Heating to beyond a. Stress
critical temperature, relieving
(B) Section 18 maintaining this
temperature for a
(C) Section 21
definite period to
allow complete
(D) Section 23
transformation into
austenite and then
cool slowly in the
102. Which one is a workshop safety? furnace
2. Heating to below the b. Spheroidising
(A) Stop the machine before changing critical temperature
the speed and then cooling
in fumace
(B) Keep shop floor clean and fie9 3. Heating beyond c. Nitriding
from grease oil or other slippery critical temperature
and cooling in
materials still air
4. Martensite is d. Full
(C) Don't use cracked or chipped
reheated to just annealing
tools below the lower
critical temperature
(D) Don't try to stop a running machine 5. Heating beyond the e. Flame
with hand critical temperature hardening
in a sealed container
filled with ammonia
6. Oxyacetyline flame is f. Normalizing
103. What does Hot lines mean?
moved over the
(A) Below 440 volts specimen followed
by a quenching spray
(B) 440 volts over (A) 1-a, '2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e, 6-f
(C) 240 to 440 volts (B) 1-f, 2-e, 3-d, 4-c, 5-b, 6-a
(C) 1-d, 2-a, 3-f, 4-b, 5-c, 6-e
(D) None of the above
(D) 1-b, 2-e, 3-a, 4-d, 5-f, 6-c
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Text of page 22
MKG-XVlllfTECHCIMGIIT/02
105. The instruments used to mark parallel 111. Drill chuck are held on the machine
lines, parallel to the true edge or datum spindle by means of
edge is
(A) Drift
(A) Divider
(B) Shank
(B) Outside caliper
(C) Draw in bar
(C) Inside caliper
(D) Chuck nut
(D) Jenny caliper
112. Different speeds are obtai ned in a
106. Lower critical temperature of high
sensitive or bench drilling machine by
carbon steel while hardening is
(A) Rack and pinion mechanism
(A) 960°C (B) 900°C
(C) 723°C (D) 560°C (B) Hydraulic mechanism
(C) V-Belt pulley mechanism
107. Gun metal is alloy of
(D) Cam and follower mechanism
(A) Copper, tin, zinc
(B) Copper, lead, zinc 113. For filling corners and the groves with
an angle more than 60° less than 90° is
(C) Aluminium, zinc, nickel
(A) Knife edge
(D) Copper, lead, nickel
(6) Square file
108. The tapping drill size for M1 0 (max) is
(C) Round file
(A) 8.2 (B) 8.5
(D) Flat file
(C) 8.3 (D) 8.4
114. Match the files with depending upon
109. A nut is to be made for a screw of M1 Ox1
the pitch of the teeth:
(max). What should be the size of drilled
hole? File Pitch of the teeth
1. Round a. 10 teeth per cm
(A) 8.8 mm
2. Middle or b. 40 or more teeth
(B) 9.0 mm Coarse per cm
(C) 9.5 mm 3. Bastard c. 16 teeth per ern
(D) 10.0 mm 4. Second cut d. 20 to 24 teeth
percm
110. What coolant is recommended for 5. Smooth e. 12 teeth per cm
tapping Aluminium? 6. Dead smooth f. 8 teeth per cm
(A) Lard oil (A) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-e, 5-a, 6-f
(B) Soda water (B) 1-f, 2-e, 3-d, 4-c, 5-b, 6-a
(C) Kerosene base oils (C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e, 6-f
(D) Dry air (D) 1-f, 2-a, 3-e, 4-c, 5-d, 6-b
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Text of page 24
MKG-XVlllfTECHCIMGIIT/02
115. The live centre is fixed to 117. At what r.p.m. should a lathe be run
(A) Head stock to give a cutting speed of 25 m/min.,
(8) Tail stock
when a turning a rod of diameter 32 mm
(C) Tool post
diameter?
(0) None of the above
(A) 250 r.p.m.
116. Match the parts A and B in connection
(8) 180 r.p.m.
with lathe operation:
A B (C) 232 r.p.m.
1. Machining operation a. Threading
(0) 112 r.p.m.
performed to clean the
irregularity offaces of 118. The total length of a part is 14 cm. It has
work pieces to obtain tapered portion 5.5 cm long. If the larger
smooth and flat surfaces diameter of taper is to be 3.25 cm and
square with axis the smaller diameter is 1.875 cm, to what
2. Operation of separating b. Scrolling angle should the guide bar of the taper
the work piece at the
attachment be set?
desired point after it has
been machined (A) 6°4'
3. Process of forming c. Parting (8) 7°7'
horizontal or diamond
(C) 5°6'
shaped serrations on
the circumference of (0) 10°4'
the work
4. Operation of making d. Knurling 119. Calculate suitable gear trains for cutting
ridge of uniform cross 10 mm pitch, 3 start on a lathe with a lead
section in the form of screw having 6.25 mm pitch.
helix formed on the (A) (60/25) x ( 80/40)
inside or outside of
a cylinder of a cone (8) (50/25) x (75/40)
5. Process of producing e. Facing (C) (85/30) x (90/50)
a groove at a specified
(0) None of the above
location
6. Operation of producing f. Under 120. The included angle of the ISO metric
rectangular spiral cutting thread is
grooves on the face
of a work piece (A) 27Y2°
(A) 1-e, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a, 5-f, 6-b (8) 30°
(8) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e, 6-f
(C) 1-f, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c, 5-d, 6-e (C) 55°
(0) None of above (0) 60°
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Text of page 26
MKG-XVlllfTECHCIMG/IT/02
121. In pedestal grinder, polishing can be 126. What is the feed rate in Diamond
done by replacing grinding wheel by machining?
(A) Coarse wheel (A) 0.01 mm to 0.04 mm/rev.
(B) Polishing wheel (B) 0.001 mm to 0.01 mm Irev.
(C) Fine and Fine type wheel (C) 0.05 to 0.01 mm/rev.
(D) None of the above (D) 0.025 to 0.03 mmlrev.
122. What is wheel truing ? 127. Which one of the following represent
(A) Act of restoring the cutting face of the medium grade of the wheels?
a grinding wheel by removing the (A) T to Z (B) L to 0
abrasive material from the cutting
(C) A to G (D) Q to T
face and sides of the wheel
(B) Act of improving the cutting 128. The soft material particle get clogged in
action the grinding wheel while grinding. This is
called
(C) Act of hardening wheel in order to
reduce wear (A) Loading (8) Glazing
(D) None of the above (C) Truing (D) Dressing
123. What does symbol 'E' represent under 129. The face of grinding wheel becomes
Nature of Bond? shiny and smooth after some use. The
reason is
(A) Magnesia
(B) Shellac (A) Grain size is too coarse
(C) Rubber (B) Abrasive of wheel is not suitable for
the purpose
(D) Vitrified
(C) Grade of wheel is too hard
124. Accuracy or least count of a metric (D) Structure of the wheel is open
outside micrometer is
(A) 0.1 mm 130. To clamp the work piece against the face
(B) 0.01 mm
of the angle plate are used.
(C) 0.001 mm (D) 0.02 mm
(A) C clamp (8) Chuck
125. Dial test indicator is used for checking (C) Spindle (D) Vice
(A) Flatness of surfaces, parallelism of
bars and rods 131. In a standard marking system of a
grinding wheel the nature of bond is
(B) Depths of blind holes, slots groves
indicated in
and height of shoulder
(C) Outside dimensions of jobs (A) position 2 (8) position 4
(D) None of the above (C) position 3 (D) position 5
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MKG-XVlllrrECHCIMGIIT/02
132. A grinding wheel carrying the markings 135. Surface grinding machine grinds _
250X 25x 32W A 46 L 4 V 17. What does type of surfaces.
this terms represents with respect to
grinding wheel in general? (A) Flat or plain
(A) Diameter, thickness, bore diameter, (8) Cylindrical
grade, structure, bond, bond type,
(C) Conical
prefix to abrasive, abrasive, grain
size (D) All of the above
(B) Diameter, thickness, bore diameter,
prefix to abrasive, abrasive, grain 136. Which one of the following is the most
size, grade, structure, bond, bond commonly used precision grinding
type machine or special purpose grinding
(C) Bore diameter, grade, structure, machine?
bond, bond type, prefix to abrasive, (A) Surface grinders
abrasive, grain diameter, thickness
size (8) Tool-grinders
(D) None of the above (C) Cylindrical grinders
133. For grinding wheels with size higher than (D) All of the above
90 cm, which one of the following
moulding process or bond is preferred? 137. Grinding with a balanced grinding wheel
will aim at
(A) Vitrified
(B) Silicate process (A) Pattern of lapsable to achieve the
required accuracy
(C) Shellac process
(8) Position tolerance surface finish
(D) Rubber process
only
134. Calculate the grinding force in a surface (C) Dimensional accuracy with surface
grinding operation using grinding wheel of
finish
250 mm diameter, rotating at 2500 rpm.
The work piece is of mild steel having (D) None of the above
width of 20 mm, depth of cut = 0.05 mm
and feed velocity of table = 2 mmlsec .: 138. Which one of the following factors
Assume the number of grits/mm3= 3. are not considered for the selection
Take value of specific energy for mild of grinding wheel?
steel = 1.4 J/mm3•
(A) Material to be ground
(A) 2.8 N
(B) 3.5 N (8) Stock removal and surface finish
(C) 4.2 N (C) The grinding process wet or dry
(D) 5.6 N (D) Feed per revolution
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MKG-XVlllfTECHCIMGIIT/02
139. Recessed on both side of grinding 143. The grinding machines with Resinoid
wheel Bond type wheel operates at their highest
efficiency and economy. This wheel
(A) Change breaking operates at a speed of approximately
(B) Grind flat surface (A) Between 3000 to 5000 mlmin
(B) Above 5000 m/min
(C) Provide clearance for both flange
and seat for wheel blotter (C) Up to 2000 mlmin
(0) Between 2000 to 3000 mlmin
(0) None of the above
144. Which one is a wrong statement related
140. Ratchet stop in micrometer helps to with material removal wrt to grinding?
(A) control the pressure (A) Fine grits and softer grade is used
to grind hard materials
(B) lock the spindle
(B) High finish and low stock removal
(C) adjust the zero error uses fine grits
(C) Rapid stock removal, ordinary
(0) hold the work piece
finish use fines grits
141. is a type of chuck where all the (D) Soft material, uses coarses grits
and softer grade
jaws are adjusted independently.
(A) Four jaw chuck 145. Fixture is a production device which
holds
(B) Three jaw chuck (A) Holds the workpiece
(C) Magnetic chuck (B) Holds and locate the successive
work pieces
(0) None of the above
(C) Chats the work piece
142. Which one of the following is used (D) Neither holds not locates the
work piece
to hold the work piece for machining
diameter concentric to its hole/bore? 146. Which one among the following jigs
is used for drilling holes in hollow
(A) Mandrel
cylindrical components ?
(B) Three jaw chuck (A) Plate jig
(C) Face plate (8) Solid jig
(C) Pot jig
(0) Four jaw chuck
(0) Box jig
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MKG-XVlllffECHCIMG/IT/02
147. The slot are provided on angle plate for 151. Defective work piece are produced
(A) Accommodating bolts occasionally by surface grinding
(B) Hanging hooks machine, what may be causes?
(C) Reducing weight (A) Incorrect dressing
(D) Aligning the work (B) Coolant filter punctured
148. V Block supports the shaft or round bars (C) Too much of grinding heat
for milling (D) None of the above
(A) Keyways
152. Wheel wear can be reduced in
(B) Holes
grinding by
(C) Threads
(A) Increasing the speed
(D) Teeths
(B) Decreasing the speed
149. In British Standard System (8IS) of
(C) Using softer wheel
limits and fits, the grade of tolerance
are represented by number, symbols (D) None of the above
and there are
(A) 14 grades of tolerance 153. Chatter marks are on the work piece by
grinding due to
(B) i6 grades of tolerance
(A) Insufficient cooling
(C) 18 grades of tolerance
(D) 20 grades of tolerance (B) Too much of friction between the
work surface and the wheel of the
150. The maximum clearance required face
between shaft of 200 mm, with limits
199.720 and a hole of nominal dia (C) Vibration on wheel spindle
199.605 (D) The act of restoring the cutting faces
200 m with limit 200.000
of a wheel
25.072
(ft:) Shaft 199.720 mm dia. and hole 154. Agrindingwheelismarked51A46L5V-B3,
200.00 mm dia. what does 5 indicate?
(B) Shaft 199.605 mm dia. and hole (A) kind of bond
200. 25.072 mm dia.
(B) structure
(C) Shaft 199.605 mm dia. and hole
200.000 dia. (C) kind of abrasive
(D) None of the above (D) grain size
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MKG-XVlllfTECHCIMGIIT/02
155. In roller grinders face of the wet type 160. A mechanical comparator for its
grinder is crowned slightly to minimize working depends on
the amount of contact between the wheel
and work. This reduces the possibility of (A) Accurately calibrated scale
(A) Uneven thickness of metal sheet (B) Comparison with standard such as
slip gauge
(B) Wear of the metal sheet
(C) Accurate micrometer gauge
(C) Heat generation
(0) Optical device
(0) None of the above
161. A sine bar with a length of L = 200 mm
156. What causes the wheel g~azing?
is used to check accurately the angle of
(A) Grade of the wheel is too coarse a work piece. The angle to be check is
(B) Grade of wheel is too open 25°. Calculate the height'H of the slip
(C) Too fast speed of wheel gauge.
(0) None of the above (A) 84.5 mm
(B) 83.52 mm
157. Pedestal grinder is also known as
(A) Bench grinder (C) 81.81 mm
(B) Tool grinder (0) 85.52 mm
(C) Portable grinder 162. Stock removal on diameter in the super
(D) None of the above finishing process is from
158. A grinding wheel marked with "C" is (A) 0.05 mm to 0.075 mm
made with the abrasive (B) 0.002 to 0.02 mm
(A) Aluminium oxide
(C) 0.02 to 0.025 mm
(B) Silicon carbide
(D) 0.002 to 0.05 mm
(C) Diamond
(D) Corundum 163. For rough grinding, which one of the
following grade and wheel speed
159. At what standard temperature, slip combinations are used?
gauges are kept in labs?
(A) Soft grade and high wheel speed
(A) 100°C
(B) High grade and low wheel speed
(B) 20°C
(C) Soft grade and low wheel speed
(C) 100°F
(D) High grade and high wheel speed
(0) 20°F
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M KG-XVII IITECHCIMGIIT/02
164. Grinding wheel is flooded with coolant 168. A product is said to have the quality
in order to when
(A) Remove chips (A) Its shape and dimensions are not
within the limit
(B) Remove heat
(8) It is fit to use
(C) Clean the wheel
(C) It appears to be very good
(D) Clean the machine (D) The choice of material is right
165. The rim of grinder .isdressed with __ 169. A grinding wheel is marked as
dresser. 250 x 25 x 32 W A 46 L 4 V 17.
What does 'L' represent?
(A) Diamond
(A) Type of abrasive grit
(B) Steel (B) Grade
(C) Abrasive (C) Grain size
(D) Natural abrasive (D) Structure
166. Cast iron, Brass, Aluminium uses which 170. Which one of the following types of
wheels will machine freely soft
type of Abrasives?
material?
(A) SiC (A) Close structured
(B) AI203 (8) Open structured
(C) Diamond wheel (C) Cross structured
(D) None of the above (D) All of these
171. A milling cutter should have three main
167. Preventive maintenance is
properties. Which one of the following is
(A) The maintenance which involves correct?
the use of sensitive instruments (A) Hardness, toughness and
resistance to wear
(B) The maintenance generally
performed by operator himself (8) Hardness, brittleness and
resistance to wear
(C) The work carried only when
(C) Hardness, softness and
machine breakdown resistance to wear
(D) Plan to minimize the unforeseen (D) Hardness, flexible and resistance
breakdown to wear
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Text of page 38
MKG-XVlllrrECHCIMGIIT/02
172. In milling, slitting saw or slitting cutter is 177. What is the maximum pressure applied
used for on the slip gauge during wringing?
(A) Parting off a solid
(A) More than 50 Kg/cm2
(8) Cutting keyway
(C) Producing teeth (8) Less than 30 Kg/cm2
(0) None of the above (C) 50 Kg/cm2
173. Grinding wheels should be dressed (0) 45 Kg/cm2
and trued regularly to work
production. 178. What is the standard dimensions of
(A) Improve angle gauge?
(8) Reduce (A) 75 mm long x 16 mm wide
(C) Loss
(8) 87 mm long x 20 mm wide
(0) Avoid
(C) 72 mm long x 14 mm wide
174. The symbol conventionally used for
(0) None of the above
resinoid bond is
(A) V 179. GO and NO GO size of 25, mm limit
(8) R snap gauge should be
(C) 8 (A) 24.977 mm GO and 25.002 mm
(0) E NOGO
175. Which type of slip gauges are used in (8) 25.002 mm GO and 24.977 mm
workshops or manufacturing shops? NOGO
(A) Reference type and calibration
type (C) 24.998 mm GO and 25.023 mm
NOGO
(8) Inspection type and workshop
type (0) None of the above
(C) All of the above
180. Mechanical comparators have a
(0) None of the above
magnification factor greater than
176. Grinding is a
(A) 10: 1
(A) single point cutting tool
(8) 100: 1
(8) multipoint cutting tool
(C) form tool (C) 1000: 1
(0) None of the above (0) 10000: 1
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Text of page 40
MKG-XVIlIITECHCIMG/IT/02
181. Low resolution devices for 186. Aluminium oxide (AI203) is manufactured
measurement of length have a by fusing
resolution of the order of
(A) Silica sand, common salt,
(A) 25 x 10-6 mm
petroleum coke, saw dust
(8) 0.25 mm
(8) A1203, Si203, titanium oxide
(C) 2.5 x 10-6 mm
(C) All of the above
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
182. The groves are provided on the lapping
plate for 187. Interchange ability is normally applied
(A) Preventing distortion of the plate for
(8) Retaining lapping paste
(A) Repairing the parts
(C) Reducing friction
(8) Mass production
(D) Collects the metal chip
(C) Single piece production
183. In honing process, the movement of
the Hone is (D) All of these
(A) Rotating and reciprocating
188. The three classes of fits as per 81S
(8) Reciprocating
system are
(C) Vertical
(D) Horizontal and reciprocating (A) Clearance fit, Interference fit,
Transition fit
184. The accuracy of common bevel
protractor is degree. (8) Medium fit, Push fit and Tight fit
(A) one
(C) Flat fit, Round fit, Square fit
(8) three
(C) two (D) Sliding fit, Loose fit, Shrinkage fit
(D) four
189. Which type of grinding wheel is used to
185. When the faces of the anvil and the
spindle touch each other if the zero of sharpen the milling cutter?
the sleeve scale coincides with zero of
(A) Universal type grinder
the thimble scale, then it is said to be
(A) negative error (8) Roller grinder
(8) positive error (C) Diamond grinder
(C) no error
(D) None of the above
(0) zero error
-40-

Text of page 42
!
, I
I I I' J ~
! .. MKG-XVlllffeCHCIMGIIT/02
190. The surface joining the crest and the root 194. NC machining centers do not include
of a thread is known as operations like
(A) Flank (A) Milling
(B) Shank (B) Boring
(C) Pitch surface (C) Welding
(D) All of the above (D) Tapping
,
191. Length standards in the form of blocks 195. Which of the following is not the
or bars, with two faces or ends which are advantages of NC machines?
defined distance apart are called
(A) Higher flexibility
(A) End standards
(B) Improved quality
(B) Line standards
(C) Reduced scrap rate
(C) Comparators
(D) Improved strength of the
(D) Gauges
component (material properties)
192. The function of feed rod in the lathe is
196. In how many ways, NC motion control
(A) To convert. the rotary motion into system can be classified ?
linear motion of the tool
(A) 2 (B) 3
(B) To convert the rotary motion into
(C) 4 (D) 5
circular motion of tool
(C) To convert the rotary motion into 197. Point-to-point system is used for
circular motion of the tail stock
(A) Drilling
(D) None of the above
(B) Parting
193. What is the purpose of using (C) Grooving
recirculatinq ball screw nut mechanism
(D) Facing
in CNC machine?
(A) To reduce the setup time 198. In part programming, interpolation is
used for obtaining trajectory.
(B) For higher surface finish
(C) For carrying out up milling (A) Helical (B) Pentagonal
(D) To remove backlash (C) Triangular (D) Zigzag .
-42-

Text of page 44
MKG-XVlllffECHCIMGIIT/02
~
199. Match the following CNC Auxiliary 200. Match the NC Module type with Automatic
functions, implemented by a programmable programming of machining cycles.
logic controller in the MCU.
A 8
A 8
1. Coolant a. Discrete numerical 1. Profile milling a. Generates tool
control data (possible path for a series
values limited to no. of threading
of parts than can cuts
be produced 2. Pocket b. Generates tool
in a given time milling path to engrave
period, such as a
alphanumeric
shift)
characters
2. Tool changer b. On/Off output
3. Lettering c. Generates tool
and tool from MCU to
path for a series
storage unit pump
of facing cuts
3. Fixture c. Discrete
4. Contour d. Generates
clamping numerical data
tuming the tool path
device (possible values
limited to capacity to machine a
of tool storage cavity
unit) 5. Facing e. Generates tool
4. Emergency d. Interlock to (tuming) path for a series
warning sequence or stop of turning cuts
loading and to provide a
unloading defined contour
operation 6. Threading f. Generates
5. Robot for e. On/Off input cutter path
part loading! to MCU from around the
unloading sensor periphery of a
6. Counters f. On/Off output part
from MCU to (A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e, 6-f
clamp actuator
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e, 6-f
(8) 1-b, 2-f, 3-d, 4-e, 5-a, 6-c
(8) 1-d, 2-e, 3-a, 4-b, 5-c, 6-f (C) 1-f, 2-d, 3-b, 4-e, 5-c, 6-a
(C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-f, 4-e, 5-d, 6-a
(D) 1-f, 2-e, 3-d, 4-c, 5-b, 6-a
(D) 1-f, 2-e, 3-d, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c
-44-

Text of page 46
MKG·XVlllfTECHCIMG/IT/02
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
'{tf)~~~~
-46-
Text of page 47
MKG-XVlllrrECHCIMGIIT/02
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
"{'Cfi~~~~
-47-
Text of page 48
MKG-XVlllffECHCIMG/IT/02
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3ufl((cUii ~ ~ q~fC4'fli ~
13. This booklet contains 48 pages. 13. ~ ~ ~ 48 ~ tI
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statement is followed by four alternative -:q[\ ~ 31~ ~ ~ ~ ~ t I~ ~
suggested answers or completions. In each ~ ~ ~ ~ cnTTJ.r.IT t ~ ~ CfiT"Btt ~
case, you are required to select the one that -3 ' "
correctly answers the question or completes the ~ ~ ~ cnTW ~ 3l1\ ~ ~ ~ ~
statement and blacken (e) appropriate circle ~ lCh,"1ICflI{~ A, B, C <n DcnT-;fTffi<n~
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I The Candidate must mark his/her response
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Source: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board. Question paper published by Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board.