DSSSB 2019: 6 October, Craft Instructor Tool & Die Maker
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6. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 6. ~ m~ t (!tIT m lImR m tLI- - - - - - - - - -
7. The paper carries negative markings. For each wrong 7. ~lf:ifif~3i<f;;r'Pn 1~1R"RI~~~O.25ar.nq;m
answer 0.25 mark will be deducted. ~ I ~
8. This Booklet contains 200 questions in all comprising the 8. ~ #~ 200 m to ~ f.l""l~fuld 'TPT~ t:
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following Sections:
Sections Test Components
No. of
Questions
Page
No.
'TPT
(3l) i) W!R~
ii) lI11'!R ~
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20 i Rcn
2-7
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(A) i) General Awareness 20 2-7
ii) GenerallntelHgence and
Reasoning Ability 20 8-11
iii) =I~~~ :
iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability 20 12-15
Iv) Hindi Language and Comprehension 20 16-17 iv) iR\ \"fIIfI 3ft"n~ 20 16- 17 It:
v) English Language and Comprehension 20 18- 19 v) ~'Il1If[Jftt~ 20 18-19 ~ ~
(B) Post SpecifIC Subject-Related
(if) ~~~-lliitfim 100 20-37 ~
Questions 100 20-37
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Examination Hall will be liable for appropriate penalo1egaIaction. ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ -qa ~ I
11. The manner in which different questions are to be answered has 11. ~ m ~~ ~......::t
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Go through instructions given In Page No. 40 (Back Cover Page)
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'. SECTION-A
i) ~eneral Awareness
1. Consider the following statements about 3. Consider the following statements about
Border Security Force (BSF).
Ozone layer.
1. The Border Security Force (BSF) is
1. Ozone is a Blue colour gas found
a Border Guarding Force of India.
2 . It is a paramilitary force charged on Earth's atmosphere.
.with guarding India's land border 2. The ozone layer only makes up
during war time and preventing
0.00006% of earth's atmosphere.
transnational crime.
3. It is a Union Government Agency Although it protects the earth from
under. the administrative control of harmful rays.
Ministry of Defence. "
(A) Only the statement 1 is true
4. It currently stands as the world's
largest border guarding force. (B) Only the statement 2 is true
(A) Only the statement 1 is true (C) Both the statements 1 and 2 are
(B) The statements 1 and 4 are true true
(C) The statements 1, 3 and 4 are true
(D) None of the above
(D) All the statements 1,2,3 and 4 are
true 4. What is KG stands for in "KG Basin",
which is known for the biggest natural
2. What is the main aim of the Fit India gas reserves in India?
Campaign recently launched. by the (A) Krishna-Godavari
Central Government?
(B) Kaveri-Ghataprabha
(A) To select best athletes from all
(C) Ken-Ganga
over the country to train for next
(D) None of the above
Olympics game
(B) Encourage 'people to inculcate 5. Who won the 19th Grand Slam title in the
physical activity and sports in their US Open Tennis Championship Trophy-
everyday lives 2019 in the men's singles category ?
(C) Provide nutritious food for (A) Rafael Nadal
adolescent girl child in the rural (B) Daniil Medvedev
areas of the country (C) Roger Federer
.(0) None of the above (D) None of the above
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6. Consider the following statements about 10. Which political leader was honoured
"AADHAAR". with an 'Global Goalkeeper Award' by
1) Aadhaar is a 14 digit unique identity Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation for
number: Swachch Bharat Abhiyaan ?
2) Enrolmentinvolvesthe useof certain
(A) Piyush Goyal
basic demographic information
combined with ten finger prints, (B) Narendra Modi
both irisers and photograph. (C) Rajnath Singh
Choose the right option given below. (D) None of the above
(A) Only option 2 is true
(B) Both option 1 and 2 are false 11. Which of the following place won the
(C) Only option 1 is true "Most Swachch Iconic Place" Award
(D) Both option 1 and 2 are true . in Swachch Bharat Mission Awards
released by the Ministry of Jal Shakti,
7. Which of the following web portal Department of Drinking Water and
launched for Sarva Shiksha Abhiyaan Sanitation?
by Central Government?
(A) Vaishno Devi shrine
(A) ShaGun
(B) Puri Jagannath shrine
(B) Arpana
(C) Umang (C) Kanyakumari shrine
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
8. What isthe name of all women protection 12. Garuda is a bilateralair exercise between
squad launched to assist women railway which of the following countries?
commuters?
(A) India and France
(A) Joymati Bahini
(B) India and Japan
(B) Nari Shakthi
(C) India and England
(C) Mahila Shakthi
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
13. Which of the following area/s given
9. Which of the following animal given below is/are biodiversity hotspot in
below is declared as the National India?
Heritage Animal of India?
(A) Western Ghats
(A) Tiger
(B) Nicobar group of islands
(B) Lion
(C) Elephant (C) Entire Indian Himalayan region
(D) None of the above (D) All the above
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14. Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2019 a joint 17. The book 'Marx, Gandhi and Socialism'
military began recently between which was written by
of the fo"ow~ng countries?
(A) L.K. Advani
(A) India and Japan
(8) India and USA (8) Jayaprakash Narayan
(C) India and England (C) Ram Manohar Lohia
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
15. Who was the chief guest of 70th 18. Jim Corbett National Park is situated in
Republic Day celebration for India on the State of
26th January 2019 ? (A) Uttarakhand
(A) Cyril Ramaphosa (8) Uttara Pradesh
(8) Jigme Khesar Namgyel (C) Madhya Pradesh
Wangchuck
(D) None of the above
(C) 8arack Obama
(D) None of the above 19. The book 'Annihilation of Caste' was
written by
16. What isthe main objectiveof Govemment (A) Mahatma Gandhi
of India Blue Revolution Scheme? (8) Lal 8ahadur Shastri
(A) Overall development of fisheries (C) 8.R. Ambedkar
sector, including enhancement
(D) None of the above
of production and productivity,
improving the livelihood of the 20. What is TRAI stands for?
fishers and welfare of fishermen
(A) Telecast Regulatory Authority of
(8) Development of all water sources in India
the country by increasingcatchment
(8) Telecom Regulatory Authority of
area by construction of dams etc.
India
(C) Development of Inland water ways
(C) Telecom Regional Authority of
in the country by interconnecting
India
rivers
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
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MKG-XXVrrECHCITOM/1T/01 IIIIIIIII.IIIII~ 111111191
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ill ~II
ii) General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
21 . Find the missing letters that will complete 25. Complete the analogy, Cow: Calf: :
the series ..
(A) Dog: Puppy
ppqq - - pq - pp - - q -
(B) Cat: Cub
(A) ppqpqp
(B) pqqppq (C) Lion: Kitten
(C) pqpqqp (D) Duck: Chicken
(D) ppqppq
26. P and Q are brothers. Sand Tare
22. Select the words which are least like others sisters. P's son is T's brother. How is
words in the group. Q related to S ?
(A) Physics (B) Chemistry (A) Uncle
(C) Mathematics (D) Civics
(B) Grandfather
(C) Father
23. Find the missing number.
(D) Brother
3 4 7
5 3 ?
2 4 5 27. In a dictionary, which of the following
30 48 70 words will appear third?
(A) Puncture
(A) 3 (B) 2
(B) Punctual
(C) 4 (D) 5
(C) Punctuation
24. French, Portuguese, Tamil can be (D) Punctuality
represented by
(A)
em 28. 6: 222 : : 7 : ?
(A) 343
(C) 210
(B) 350
(D) 336
(B)
000 29. Find the missing letter.
A F
@ 0
K
(C) C H M
? Q V
(D) (@) (A) M
(C) L
(B)
(D) E
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MKG-XXVrrECHCITDM/1T/01 1~IRIII.lllml~aftl~1111111111 011 I 11111 m~ImIIIDIIII W1111111IIBI~IIIIII
30. There are five books X, Y, Z, W, V. The 35. Select the group of letters which is
book Z lies above V. The book X lies different from others.
below Y, V is above Y, W is below X. (A) ZYX (8) NML
Which is at the bottom? (C) IGH (0) OPO
(A) V (B) Y
36. Chennai is to Tamil Nadu as ? is to
(C) W (0) Z Bihar
31. Find the correct alternative for Jupiter, (A) Bhopal
Uranus, Saturn. (B) Patna
(A) Stars (C) Ranchi
(B) Planets (0) Bandipur
(C) Satellite
37. Sandesh went 25 meters to the East,
(0) Asteroid
he turned left and walked 20 meters. He
32. Select the pair in which the numbers are turned again right and went 40 meters.
similarly related as in the pair 9 : 81. He again turned right and walked
(A) 2: 6 (8) 3: 27 20 meters. How far is he from starting
point?
(C) 4: 16 (0) 5: 125
(A) 50 meters (B) 56 meters
33. If + means -, - means +, x means -:-, (C) 65 meters (0) 60 meters
means x then value of
38. Select the number which is different
20 x 1a + 15 - 20 -:-3 ?
from rest three.
(A) 21 (A) 75 (B) 105
(B) 47 (C) 165 (0) 205
(C) 15
39. Complete the series: 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, ?
(0) a (A) 30 (B) 35
34. In a certain language if 'POLISH' (C) 50 (0) 55
is coded as 'HSILOP' then how is
40. In the series 4 2 2 3 6 3 1 7 5 4 3 2 1
. 'TUMBLER' coded?
1 23 1 7 5 4 2 1 1 how many pairs of
(A) RE8LMUT successive numbers have a difference
(B) RELBMUT of 2 each?
(C) RELMBTU (A) 5 (B) 4
(0) REL8UMT (C) 6 (0) 7
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51. The value of k if the points A (2, 3), 56. The area of a sector of a circle with
8 (4, k) and C (6, - 3) are collinear is radius 6 cm if the angle in the sector is
60°, is (n = 2217)
(A) - 3 (8) 3
142 2
(C) 0 (0) None of these (A) - cm
7
52. The sum of the reciprocals of Mr. Ram's 132 2
(8) - cm
ages (in years) 3 years ago and 5 years 7
1
from now is "3. His present age is (C) 14 cm2
(A) 7 (8) 4 130 2
(0) 7 cm
(C) 6 (0) None of these
53. Sides of two similar triangles are in the 57. The value of k, if x - 1 is a factor of
ratio 4 : 9. Areas of these triangles are p(x) = kx2 -J2x+1 is
in the ratio
(A) J2
(A) 2: 3
(8) 4: 9
(8) J2 + 1
(C) 81: 16
(C) J2-1
(0) 16: 81 (0) None of these
54. Value of sinA x cosecA x co sA x 3secA 58. The area bounded by xy = 1, x = 0, y = 1
is and y = 2 is
1
(A) 3 (8) 1 (A) log 2 (8) 2
(C) 2 log 2 (0) log J2
(C) 3 (0) None of these
59. If the angles of a quadrilateral are in the
55. Ms. Priya saved Rs. 5 in the first week ratio 3 : 5 : 9 : 13. The smallest angle in
of a year and then increased her weekly quadrilateral is
savings by Rs. 1.75. If in the nthweek her (A) 60°
savings become Rs. 20.75, then n is (C) 18°
(A) 5 60. Value of 9 sec2A - 9 tan2A =
(8) 20 (A) 1 (8) 9
(C) 10 (C)8 (0)0
(0) None of these
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MKG-XXV rrECHCITDM/1 T/01 11111111111111
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v) English Language and Comprehension
~~3ftt~
Read each sentence to find out whether there 86. What time did they the hotel?
is any error in it. The error, if any will be one (A) arrive to (8) arrive at
part of the sentence, the number of that part (C) arrive in (D) get in
of the answer.
87. Have you read any books _
81. Despite of / taking plenty of / fluids he
Agatha Christie?
(A) (8)
(A) of
felt exhausted / tired and dehydrated.
(C) (D) (8) from
(C) by
82. I have a lot / of work to complete and / (D) none of these
(A) (8)
so don't get worried / when I am late. Select the word that is opposite in meaning
(C) (D) (antonym) to the word given in the
question.
Select the word that is most similar in meaning
(synonym) to word given in the question. 88. Sedentary
(A) slack
83. Transient
(8) active
(A) concise
(C) inhabit
(8) hasty
(D) attentive
(C) persistent
(D) impermanent 89. Novice
(A) learned
84. Demography (8) expert
(A) People's leader (C) able
(8) Language of the people (D) gifted
(C) Study of population
Add suitable question tags to the following
(D) None of these
statements from among the choices given
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions below them.
from among the choices given below them.
90. I can help you ?
85. I'll be at home Friday morning. (A) can I
You can phone me then. (8) can't I
(A) at (8) on (C) couldn't I
(C) in (D) for (D) wi.lll
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91. It was a fatal accident, ? Choose the correct form of the verb from
(A) ain't we among the choices given below them and fill
(8) aren't we in the blanks.
(C) wasn't it
96. Cows grass.
(0) were we
(A) eat (8) eating
Select one word substitute for the following. (C) had ate (D) have ate
92. 'A place where horses are kept' 97. The Swamiji ___ very eloquently
(A) Shed (8) Stable yesterday.
(C) Kennel (0) Pen (A) spoke
(8) had spoken
Fill up the blanks with appropriate articles
(C) speaking
from among the options given below them.
(0) speaks
93. He said he would have
98. Take care that you _____ not
orange.
cheated.
(A) a
(A) will not be
(8) an
(8) are
(C) on
(C) won't
(0) none of these
(0) shall not be
94. The educated should teach _
illiterate. Each of these questions presents a word
that may have been spelt incorrectly. From
(A) the
the choices provided pick the correct spelling
(8) an
and mark that option of the right choice as
(C) a the answer.
(0) none of these
99. Fluktuation
95. Pacific Ocean is the deepest (A) fluctuasion (8) fluctuation
of earth's oceanic divisions.
(C) flektuation (0) fluctution
(A) A
(8) An 100. Ricieve
(C) The (A) recieve (8) receive
(0) No article required (C) riceeve (0) riceave
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SECTION - B
Post Specific Subject - Related Questions
101. Gamma iron exits at following 107. Whichofthefollowingisacasehardening
temperature process?
(A) room temperature (A) Spherodising
(8) between 1400°C and 1539°C (8) Tempering
(C) between 910°C and 1400°C (C) Sheradising
(0) none of the above (0) Carburisation
102. Pearlite contains following percentage 108. The basic ingredient of cemented
of carbon carbide is
(A) 0.02% (8) 0.3% (A) aluminium oxide
(C) 0.63% (0) 0.8% (8) vanadium
(C) ceramics
103. Soft solder is an alloy of consisting of
(0) tungsten
(A) tin and lead
(8) lead and zinc 109. The imperfections in the crystal structure
(C) tin, antimony, copper or lattice spacing of metal is called
(0) lead and copper (A) dislocation (8) slip
(C) fracture (0) impurity
104. Melting point of pure iron is
(A) 1539°C (8) 1601°C 110. Austenite is a combination of
(C) 1712°C (0) 1131°C (A) ferrite and cementite
(8) ferrite and austenite
105. Aluminium bronze alloy (C) cementite and gamma iron
(A) 94% aluminium, 4% copper and (0) pearlite and ferrite
0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
(8) 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2 % 111. The size of vice is specified by
Nickel and 1.5% Mg (A) length of movable jaw
(C) 10% aluminium and 90% copper (8) width of the jaws
(0) none of the above (C) height of the jaws
(0) maximum opening of the jaws
106. is produced by slow cooling
of Hypereutectoid steel. 112. Scribers are made of
(A) Pearlite alone (A) bronze
(8) Spheroidite (8) steel
(C) Cementite (C) brass
(0) Sorbite (0) cast iron
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MKG-XXVrrECHCITDM/1 T/01
113. Files are made up of 119. Reamers are used for
(A) high carbon steel (A) produclnq threads
(B) cast steel
(B) enlarging only onside of the hole
(C) mild steel
(C) finishing the hole
(D) none of the above
(D) none of the above
114. Accuracyorleastcountofametricoutside 120. The function of knife edge file is to
micrometer is
(A) file narrow and intricate sharp
(A) 0.01 mm (B) 0.001 mm
corners
(C) 0-1 mm (D) 0.02 mm
(B) to file circular edge
115. The is used to measure height (C) file smooth surface
in vernier height gauge.
(D) none of the above
(A) clamping screw
(B) scribing jaw 121. In TIG welding, the minimum thickness
(C) sliding jaw of the foil that can be welded is
(D) none of the above (A) 0.5 mm (B) 0.01 mm
(C) 0.2 mm (D) 0.;25 mm
116. Which of the file has more than 40 teeths
per cm ? 122. In which type of welding a pool of molten
(A) Bastard file metal slag is used?
(B) Smooth file (A) Electroslag
(C) Rough file (B) Submerged Arc
(D) Dead smooth file (C) MIG
117. The instrument used to mark parallel (D) TIG
lines to the datum edge is
123. In resistance welding, voltage used for
(A) divider
heating is
(B) outside caliper
(A) 0.5 - 1 V (B) 4 - 12 V
(C) jenny caliper
(C) 250 - 500 V (D) 50 - 100 V
(D) inside caliper
124. Which of the following welding process
118. Which of the following is used to operate
uses consumable electrode?
thread by hand?
(A) tap (A) Laser welding
(B) threading tool (8) MIG welding
(C) threading chaser (C) TIG welding
(D) tipped tool (D) Plasma welding
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125. In thermit welding, the iron oxide and 130. Oxygen to acetylene ratio in case of
aluminium oxide are mixed in the neutral flame is
proportion of
(A) 0.8: 1.0 (B) 1:1
(A) 1:1
(C) 1.2:1 (D) 2:1
(B) 3:1
(C) 1:3 131. Which of the following is not a casting
(D) none of the above defect?
(A) hot tear
126. Weld spatter is
(B) blow hole
(A) flux
(C) Scab
(B) welding defect
(D) Decarbu rization
(C) welding test
(D) electrode coating 132. The draft allowance on the pattern is
provided in order to
127. In reverse polarity welding
(A) provide good draft of air in the sand
(A) electrode is connected to the moulding
negative and work to positive
(B) provide distortion that might take
(B) work is positive and holder is
place
earthed
(C) remove pattern easily
(C) work is negative and holder is
(D) push the pattern easily into the
earthed
moulding
(D) electrode holder is connected to the
positive and work to negative 133. Loose-piece patterns are
128. The type flame used to weld lead is (A) a sort of split pattern
(A) oxidizing (B) used where the pattern can be
(B) carburizing drawn from the mould
(C) neutral (C) similar to core prints
(D) none of the above (D) none of the above
129. Arc welding uses following electric 134. Mouiding sand used in foundry work
supply comprises of
(A) A.C. only (A) Alumina, silica and clay
(B) Spiral waveform (8) Silica and binder
(C) Both A.C. and D.C. (C) Silica and alumina
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
·24·
Text of page 26
MKG-XXVITECHCITDM/1T/01 IIII~IIIRillIIII".IIIIIIEI~IIIIgg ~IIIIWllmllllllllll" mU.1~IIDI~IInil
135. casting is employed for non- 141. In lathe, the carriage and tailstock are
ferrous metals and alloys. guided on
(A) die casting (A) same guideways
(8) centrifugal casting
(8) different guideways
(C) investment casting
(C) not guided on guideways
(0) continuous casting
(0) none of these
136. Slick in a foundry shop is used for
142. Lathe bed is usually made of
(A) Make and repair corners in a
mould (A) stainless steel
(8) Thoroughly mix up moulding sand (8) cast iron gauge
(C) Prepare gates (C) structural steel
(0) Make venting holes in the mould (0) mild steel
137. Sprue pin in casting refers to 143. The back rake and side rake when no
(A) gate slope is provide and the tool lies in the
(8) runner same plane as the top surface of the
(C) riser shank
(0) none of the above (A) +5° to +100 (8) -50 to 100
(C) zero (0) +100to+150
138. Sweep pattern is used for molding parts
having
144. Tail stock centers which do not revolve
(A) rectangular shape with work piece are known as
(8) elliptical shape
(A) non revolving center
(C) large symmetrical shape
(8) dead centre
(0) none of the above
(C) live centre
139. Investment casting is used for (0) magnetic centre
(A) shapes which are easy
(8) mass production 145. The included angle between lathe
centres is
(C) shapes which are very complex
(A) 15° (8) 30°
(0) stainless steel parts
(C) 45° (0) 60°
140. Shovel is a
(A) a round sieve 146. The type of the chip is produced when
(8) iron pan fitted with an wooden cutting cast iron
handle (A) continuous
(C) used to scoop sand deep in the (8) with built up edge
mould (C) discontinuous
(0) used to repair corners in a mould
(0) none of the above
-26-
Text of page 28
MKG-XXV rrECHCITDM/1 T 101 IIIIIIIIIIIIIII~ III BillYWfl~l~ II~11I1~lllml 1mmn IIHII~ ~II
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147. Size of the milling machine is specified 152. Relief angle of a single point tool is the
by angle
(A) size of table (A) by which the face of the tool is
(8) spindle size inclined sideways
(8) by which the face of the tool is
(C) arbor size
inclined towards back
(0) horse power
(C) between the surface of the flank
148. The cutting tool in a milling machine is immediately below the point and
a line perpendicular to the base of
mounted on
the tool
(A) tool holder
(0) none of the above
(8) arbor
(C) spindle 153. Small sized cylindrical jobs on engine
lathe are held in
(0) column
(A) three jaw chuck
149. The chip space between the back of one (8) four jaw chuck
tooth and the face of the next tooth in a (C) lathe dog
milling cutter is called (0) collet
(A) fillet
(8) land 154. A work on the milling machine can be
indexed by
(C) tooth space
(A) universal milling attachment
(0) gash
(8) chasing dial
150. Counter-boring is the operation (C) dividing head attachment
(A) enlarging the limited portion of a (0) rotary tables
hole cylindrically
155. A grinding wheel gets glazed (shining
(8) cone shaped enlargement of the cutting edge) due to
end of a hole (A) wear of abrasive grains
(C) smoothing and squaring the surface (8) breaking up of abrasive grains
around a hole
(C) wear of bond
(0) sizing the finishing hole (0) cracks of grinding wheel
151. Feed rate in milling operation is 156. In grinding operation, for grinding softer
expressed as materials
(A) mm/min (A) coarser grain size is used
(8) rpm (8) fine grain size is used
(C) meters Iminute (C) medium grain size is used
(0) none of the above (0) none of the above
-28-
Text of page 30
MKG-XXV fTECHCITDM/1 T/01 Iumm 1mmilU 1111111II16 10 IIIIID II Ufli II IIH RIIIIII mum m IU
157. Which of the following abrasive will be 164. The purpose of spot facing is
used for grinding HSS tool? (A) for squaring and finishing the
(A) AI203 (8) SiC surface around at the end of a
(C) diamond (0) boron carbide hole
158. The process of improving cutting action (8) to enlarge the diameter of the
of grinding wheel is called as hole
(A) dressing operation
(C) to improve the finish of the hole
(8) turning operation
(C) cutting operation
(0) to achieve correct diameter
(0) none of the above
165. In down milling cutter teeth and workpiece
159. Crack is developed in grinding wheel . move in
due to (A) same direction
(A) generation of heat
(8) opposite direction
(8) high speed
(C) slower speed (C) perpendicular direction
(0) hard work (0) work move down and tool moves up
160. Twist drills are preferred because 166. This method of indexing is employed
(A) its cuts holes efficiently when the number of divisions required
(8) it is a light weight tool
is outside the range of simple indexing
(C) cutting lip is supports rigidly
(A) plain indexing
(0) chips moves out automatically
(8) simple indexing
161. The usual value of Helix angle of a drill is (C) compound indexing
(A) 10° -15° (8) 20° - 30° (0) differential indexing
(C) 35° - 40° (0) 60° - 80°
167. In centreless grinding, the workpiece
162. Kerosene is a good cutting fluid to used
rests on
for
(A) cast iron (8) aluminium (A) Face plate
(C) brass (0) bronze (8) Work rest
(C) Centre of chuck
163. Calculate the angle to which the
compound rest should be swivelled in (0) None of the above
order to turn the taper on a job which the
finished sizes will be, larger diameter 168. Pressure applied on harder workpiece
is 1 inch, smaller diameter is 0.75 inch, in case of lapping is
tapered length =1.5 inch.
(A) 0.01 kg/cm2 (8) 0.7 kg/cm2
(A) 5° 60' (8) 4° 46'
(C) 3° 34' (0) 2° 46' (C) 0.5 kg/cm2 (0) 1.0 kg/cm2
-30-
Text of page 32
MKG-XXV fTECHCITDM/1 T101 Iglllill millIii III ~mlmmIIII~I ~g IIIIII~191mil ~III~I mllil mlImlllII1191~IIfill
169. A portable drilling machine is specified
by
175. Expressinga dimensionsas 25 ::gg~ is
the case of
(A) the size of the job it can hold
(A) unilateral hole basis
(8) maximum diameter of the drill it can
(8) bilateral hole basis
hold
(C) limiting dimensions
(C) spindle speed and feeds
(0) none of the above
(0) size of the hole
176. Sensitivity of measurement equipment is
170. The last element in the tool signature is
(A) the closeness with a measurement
(A) back rake angle can be read directly from a
(8) side rake angle measuring instrument
(C) nose radius (8) a measure of how close the reading
(0) end cutting edge angle is to the true size
(C) the smallest change can be
171. A feeler gauge is used to check measure that can be measured
(A) radius (0) the capability to indicate the same
(8) screw pitch reading again and again for a given
measure
(C) surtaceroughness
(0) thickness of clearance 177. Circular scale of the inside micrometer
is marked on
172. Optical flats are made of
(A) timble (8) ratchet
(A) quartz
(C) barrel (0) spindle
(8) glass
(C) plastic 178. A hacksaw is specified by
(0) steel (A) length
(8) blade pitch
173. Surtace irregularities can be checked by (C) width
(A) sine bar (0) number of teeth
(8) bench micrometer
(C) profilometer 179. Repeatability of measuring equipment is
(0) optical projector (A) the closeness with a measurement
can be read directly from a
174. In measuring equipment is which are measuring instrument
undesirable static characteristics? (8) a measure of how close the reading
(A) sensitivity and accuracy is to the true size
(C) the smallest Change can be
(8) drift, static error and dead zone
measure that can be measured
(C) reproducibility, non linearity
(0) the capability to indicate the same
(0) drift, static error, dead zone and reading again and again for a given
non linearity measure
-32-
Text of page 34
MKG-XXV rrECHCITDM/1 T/01 IWlllllim
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180. The two slip gauges in precision 186. According to Taylors principle, NO GO
measurement are joined by gauge check
(A) assembling
(A) only one feature at a time
(8) adhesion
(8) only important dimensions at a
(C) wringing
time
(0) slipping
(C) all dimensions at a time
181. A sine bar is specified by (0) as many dimensions as possible at
(A) its total length a time
(8) centre distance between the two
rollers 187. A device for determining the value or
(C) the size of the rollers. magnitude of a quantity or variable
(0) weight of sine bar (A) sensor
182. The mechanical comparators have a (8) transducer
magnification factor greater than (C) gauge
(A) 100:1 (8) 1000:1 (0) instrument
(C) 10:1 (0) 10000:1
188. Ring balance manometer is used for
183. In a wheatstone bridge if R1, R2, R3 and
measurement of
R4 are the resistance then for balanced
bridge the ratio should be (A) absolute pressure
(A) R1/R2=R3/R4 (8) vacuum
(8) RiR1=RiR4 (C) differential pressure
(C) RiR2=RiR1 (0) temperature
(0) RiR2=R1/R4
189. Which gauge can be used to measure
184. Auto-collimator is used to measure
pressure between 10-3 to 1Ox10-9 torr?
(A) small angular deviations
(A) dead weight tester
(8) surface irregularities
(8) pirani guage
(C) thread angle
(0) bigger angular deviations (C) Mcleod gauge
(0) ionization gauge
185. What do you mean by reference
standards? 190. The sum of square of standard deviation
(A) calibrating other standards is also called
(8) standards used by inspectors in
(A) skewness
inspection work
(C) purpose of checking deviations in (8) variance
accuracies (C) medium
(0) for actual measurements (0) mode
-34-
Text of page 36
MKG-XXVrrECHCITDM/1T/01 1~ml~IIIII~IIIIIIIII~1~1II1~~~II~IIIIII mil IWIII ~II~~IU~I~110191
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191. The function of a transducer is 196. A 3-phase, 4-pole, 400 V, 50 Hz
(A) to amplify the input signal induction motor runs with a speed of
(8) to modify the input signal 1440 rpm. Calculate its slip.
(C) to convert the mechanical signal (A) 3% (8) 7%
into a more useful quantity usually (C) 4% (0) 12%
an electrical impulse
197. In a single-phase transformer the
(0) to decodify the input signal
thickness of lamination for a frequency
192. The phenomenon of magnetism and 25 Hz is
electromagnetism depend upon a (A) 0.35 mm
particular feature of the medium called (8) 0.2 mm
as (C) 2 mm
(A) magentomotive force (0) 1.5 mm
(8) reluctance
198. A 200KVA 1000V/400V,50Hz
(C) permeability
single-phase transformer has 100 turns
(0) flux
on the secondary. Calculate primary
193. A current of 4A passes through a 10 Ohm and secondary currents.
resistor calculate power developed (A) 20 A, 500 A
(A) 160W (8) 210W (8) 15 A, 450 A
(C) 110 W (0) 67 W (C) 12 A, 300 A
(0) 19 A , 275 A
194. The difference between the synchronous
speed Ns and the actual speed N of the 199. In 3-phase 4-wire system, voltage
rotor is called usually is
(A) rotor current (A) 3 V
(8) magnetic field (8) 1.5 V
(C) slip (C) 1.7320 V
(0) none of the above (0) 1.25 V
195. Frequency of generated emf in 200. What is the resistivity of zinc fuse
synchronous generator is given material in ~ ohm-m ?
(A) = np/120 (A) 11.3 x 10-2
(8) = p/120 (8) 1.72 x 10-2
(C) = np/100 (C) 6.1 x 10-2
(0) none of the above (0) 2.86 x 10-2
-36-
Text of page 40
M KG-XXV ITECHCITDM/1 T101 IRIUmlmDillilmlll~llllgnllll~lIIIllIIllIIIllalmw.IBIII~I.ti
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
3uih~qlij~~ q~f€4l!?i ~
13. This booklet contains 40 pages. 13. ~ ~ ~ 40 iNr ~I
14. Directions : Each question or incomplete 14. ~ :~ >lv.1 ~ ~ ~ <P.R ~ ~
statement is followed by four alternative ~ '3m ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ I~ ~
suggested answers or completions. In each ~ ~ fcf;Bt -q:q:; en)~ ~ \ill >lv.1 Cf)T "Btt '3m
case, you are required to select the one that 3' "
correctly answers the question or completes the ~~ Cfi'(H en)~ qit 3fu: ~ ~ ~ ~
statement and blacken (e) appropriate circle ~ li)~Iq;f(~ A, B, C <:ITDen);fR;n <:IT"<hTffi
A, S, C or D by Blue / Black Ball-Point Pen ~-"CI'tR ~ ~ "<hTffi (e) ~ ~ I (<iRiltlfmI
against the question concerned in the Answer
Sheet.(For V.H. candidates corresponding :aAflGcml ~ ~ ll1Tff 11l~'R ~ iRT
circle will be blackened by the scribe) Cf)TFfl~~)
15. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate 15. ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ Cff CfiT RI'1:!i<&l~ 3lq;{f
circle against each question. The circle
should be shaded completely without leaving
~ m I ~ cR fiAT ~ ~ ~ RI~ifCl:;a ~ I
any space. The correct method of shading is RI'1:!iRRtq;;8 CfiT~ 000 ~ ~ TT<n ~ I
given below .
. _---,
I I
WrongMethod Wrong Method Wrong Method Correct M;;;;j ~~~~
I O~OO 0000 O@OO oeoo
~~~~
I ~ en)3{tf.IT ~ t41'1'{cfq; ~ ~ ~ ~
I The Candidate must mark his/her response
I after careful consideration. ~~~I
I 16. There is only one correct answer to each 16. ~ >lv.1 Cf)T m -q:q:; ~ "Btt '3m ~ I ~
I question. You should blacken (e) the circle of ~~ ~A, B, c er D~ In~Iq;Rl9H
I the appropriate column, viz., A, B, C or D. If
• ...1 en)"<hTffi (e) ~ ~ I~ 3iN fcf;Bt >lv.1~ 00
you blacken (e) more than one circle against
anyone question, the answer will be treated -q:q:; ~ ~ ln~Iq;f( 19Hen) ~ (e) it ~
as wrong. ~ 1Jffif lfRT ~ I
17. In case of any discrepancy between the 17. ~fcf;Bt>lv.1~~~ ~ ~~~
English and Hindi versions of any question, 3io\~m~~en)~"Btt~~ I
the English version will be treated as finaV
authentic.
18. Use the space for rough work given in the 18. ~ q;Rf ~ ~ m >lv.1l:(3;~ ~ ~ ~ Cf)T
Question Booklet only and not on the Answer m~ I ~~'Cf{~CfiP.f;rqit I
Sheet.
19. You are NOT required to mark your answers 19. ~~~~~~am:rgf~~1
in this Booklet All answers must be indicated ~~~~.qtT~1
in the Answer Sheet only.
Go through instructions given in Page No.1 (Facing Page)
-40-Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 40
Source: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board. Question paper published by Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board.