DSSSB 2019: 9 November, Instructor Mill Wright

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No. of Page
Sections Test Components Questions No. (31) i) ~~ 20' 2-5 ~
(A) i) General Awareness 20 2- 5 ii) ~ ~ om 'I!ZI ~
ii) General Intelligence and
Reasoning Ability 20 6-9 iii)
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20
6- 9
10-15
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iv)
v)
Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
HindiLanguageandComprehension
20
20
10 - 15
16-17 iv)
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English Language and Cor!l>rehension 20 18 - 19 I-;--:-,V)+-:::~_,\1TlfT-;:::-;::-3fn-;:::_~_.,.-:-:~
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(8) Post Specific Subject·Related (Of) ~~fc!r<f1i-.r.itft~ 100 20-37
Questions 100 20 - 37 II;
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read carefully before actually answering the questions.
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SECTION -A
i) General Awareness
1. 'Operation All Clear' is associated with 6. Recently which of the following banks
the armed forces of which country? are merged to become a India's third
(A) Nepal largest bank?
(B) Bhutan (A) Bank of Baroda, Oena Bank and
(C) Bangladesh Syndicate Bank
(0) Maldives (B) Dena Bank, Syndicate Bank and
State Bank of India
2. When did the women in U.S. get the
right to vote? (C) Bank of Baroda, Oena Bank and
(A) 1776 Vijaya Bank
(B) 1920 (0) None of the above
(C) 1802
7. In which year was the State of Nagaland
(0) 1815
formed?
3. Who is the first Chairman of the People's (A) 1963 (B) 1961
Republic of China?
(C) 1962 (0) 1960
(A) Mao Zedong
(B) Xi Jinping 8. How many people were receive the
(C) Jiang Zemin Bharat Ratna in 2019 ?
(0) Hu Jintao (A) 9 (B) 6
4. What is the line that separates North (C) 5 (0) 3
Korea from South Korea ?
9. Who was the editor of 'Young India'
(A) 39th parallel
journal?
(B) 35th parallel
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(C) 38th parallel
(B) Annie Besant
(0) 34th parallel
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
5. Name the Indian National Congress
(0) Balagangadhar Tilak
(INC) Session that led to the division
between extremists and moderates. 10. 'Dharrna Guardian - 2018', a first ever
(A) Surat, 1907 joint military exercise of India with which
(B) Lucknow, 1916 of the following country ?
(C) Nagpur, 1920 (A) Nepal (B) Bhutan
(0) Haripura, 1938 (C) Japan (0) China
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11. Parliament (Legislature of the Union), 16. Who is the Supreme Leader (Ayatollah)
consists of which of the following? of Iran?
(A) ~esident and Loksabha only (A) Ruhollah Khomeini
(B) President, Loksabha and State (B) Ali Khamenei
Legislative Assembly only (C) Hassan Rouhani
(C) President,LoksabhaandRajyasabha (D) Javed Zarif
only
(D) None of the above 17. Which neighbouring country of India is
also referred as 'Druk VuI' ?
12. CAG of India is appointed by whom? (A) Nepal (B) Myanmar
(A) President of India (C) Sri Lanka (D) Bhutan
(B) Prime Minister of India
18. The Laccadives, Minicoy and Amindivi
(C) Lok Sabha Speaker
group of Islands were renamed as
(D) None of the above
Lakshadweep in which year?
13. Whichcountryhas inauguratedSoutheast (A) 1973 (B) 1971
Asia's largest solar power farm? (C) 1970 (D) 1972
(A) Myanmar
19. Which is India's first and only tri-service
(B) Cambodia
theatre command of the Indian Armed
(C) Thailand Forces?
(D) Vietnam (A) Kochi
(B) Mumbai
14. The annual 'Aryabhatta Award' is
presented for which field? (C) Karwar
(A) Medicine (D) Andaman and Nicobar
(B) Astronautics
20. Consider the following statement about
(C) Astrology IMD world competitiveness ranking
(D) Mathematics 2019.
(A) India ranks 2nd in the list, by this
15. Which of the following rulers introduced India became most competitive
"Rupiya" in India? economy in the world
(A) Akbar (B) Singapore has rankedas the world's
(B) Allauddin Khilji most competitive economy
(C) Humayun (C) Both option A and B are correct
(D) Sher Shah Suri (D) None of the above
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ii) General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
21. 186x 186 + 159 x 159-2 x 186 x 159=? 26. If 45 - [28 - {37 - (15 - *) }] = 58, then *
(A) 729 is equal to
(8) 1039 ~ (A) - 29 (8) - 19
(C) 2019 (C) 19 (0) 29
(0) 7029
27. If
111
x
"3 + 2" + = 4, then x = ?
22. 138.009+341.981-146.305= 123.6+?
5
(A) 120.085
(A) 18
(8) 120.85
6
(C) 220.085 (8) 19
(0) None of these
(C) 18
23. The value of (68.237)2 - (31.763)2 is 5
(A) 3.6474 (0) 24
(8) 36.474 11
(C) 364.74
28. Two-fifth of one-fourth of three-seventh
(0) 3647.4 of a number is 15. What is the half of
that number?
(0.6)4 - (0.5)4 .
24 . IS equal to (A) 94
(0.6)2 + (0.5)2
(8) 96
(A) 0.1 (C) 196
(0) None of these
(8) 0.11
(C) 1.1 29. Choose the number pair/group which is
different from others.
(0) 11
(A) 1(5)2 (8) 7(113)8
(C) 2(20)4 (0) 3(17)4
(36.54)2 - (3.46f = 40
25.
? 30. If a + b + c =13, a2 + b2 + c2 = 64, then
find ab + be + ca.
(A) 3.308
(A) - 50
(8) 4
(8) 50
(C) 33.08 (C) 69
(0) 330.8 (0) 75
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31. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 36. The ratio 5 : 4 expressed as a percent
25 paise makes a sum of Rs. 71. The equals
number of 25 paise coins is (A) 12.5%
(A) 120 (8) 40%
(8) 124 (C) 80%
(C) 144 (0) 125%
(0) 200 37. If P % of P is 36, then p is equal to
32. If 3a = 4b = 6c and a + b + c = 27 m (A) 15
then .Ja2 +b2 +c2 is (8) 60
(C) 600
(A) 3m
(8) 81
(0) 3600
(C) 87
38. If A = 8 = C , then A : 8 : C is
(0) None of these 345
33. The average of 2, 7, 6 and x is 5 and (A) 4: 3 : 5
the average of 18, 1, 6, x and y is 10. (8) '5: 4 : 3
What is the value of y ? (C) 3: 4: 5
(A) 5 (8) 10 (0) 20:15:2
(C) 20 (0) 30
39. The area of a right angled triangle is
34. Three-fourth of a number is 60 more 40 times its base. What is its height?
than its one-third. The number is (A) 45 cm
(A) 84 (8) 60 cm
(8) 108 (C) 80 cm
(0) None of these
(C) 144
(0) None of these 40. One side of a right angled triangle is
twice the other and the hypotenuse is
35. If 5x + 3 = (25)3x - 4, then the value of x 10 cm. The area of the triangle is
is (A) 20 cm2
11 1 2
(A) 5 (8) 5 (8) 33 cm
11 s
13 (C) 40 cm2
(C) 11 (0) 5
3 (0) 50 cm2
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MKG-XXIXfTECHIMW/1 T/OS 1IIIIIIIIIilllm ID 111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111I111111111111111111I1111
iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
41. The ratio in which tea worth Rs. 10 per 45. A seller makes an offer of selling certain
kg be mixed with tea worth Rs. 14 per articles that can be described by the
kg, so that the average price of mixture equation x = 25 - 2y where 'x' is the
may be Rs. 11 per kg is price per unit and y denotes the number
(A) 2: 1 of units. The cost price of the article is
(8) 3: 1 Rs. 10 per unit. The maximum quantity
that can be offered in a single deal to
(C) 3:2
avoid loss is
(0) 4:3
(A) 6
42. If x = ya, y = zb, z = XC then abc = (8) 8
(A) 2 (C) 7
(8) 1 (0) 9
(C) 3 46. A person borrows Rs. 5,000 for 2 years
(0) 4 at 4% per annum simple interest. He
immediately lends to another person at
43. The value of ~6+~6+.J6+ .... is 6%% p.a. for two years. His gain in the
(A) -3 transaction per year is
(8) 2 (A) Rs.112.50
(C) 3 (8) Rs. 125
(0) 4 (C) Rs.225
(0) Rs.167.50
44. A man rowing a boat at the rate of 5 km
per hour in still water takes thrice as 47. 5 bulbs of which 3 are defective are to be
much time in going 40 km up the river tried in two light points in a dark room.
as in going 40 km down. The rate at In how many ways the room shall be
which the river flows is lighted?
(A) 2.5 km/hr (A) 7
(8) 10 km/hr (8) 10
(C) 1.2 km/hr (C) 3
(0) none of these (0) none of these
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48. The sum of all natural numbers between 51. If a train of length 400 m travelling at
100 and 1,000 which are multiplesof 5 is a speed of 45 km per hour can cross
(A) 98,450 a platform in 40 seconds, the length of
(8) 96,450 the platform should be
(C) 97,450 (A) 120 m
(0) 95,450 (8) 150 m
49. In a group of 70 people, 45 speak (C) 50m
Spanish, 33 speak English and (0) 100m
10 speak neither Spanish nor English.
The number of people who can speak 52. The ratio of the speeds of x, y and z is
in both Spanish and English is 3 : 4 : 6. The ratio of the time that they
(A) 13 take to travel a certain distance is
(8) 19 (A) 4:3:2
(C) 18 (8) 3:4:6
(0) 28 (C) 6:4:3
50. If a sum of money doubles itself in (0) 2:3:4
1o yearsat a certain rateof simple interest;
53. In a kilometer race, A beats 8 by 250 m.
the number of years it would becomes
The ratio of speeds of A and 8 is
5 times itself is
(A) 3:4
(A) 50 years
(8) 40 years (8) 4:3
(C) 45 years (C) 5:4
(0) none of these (0) 4:5
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54. 10 boys or 20 girls can complete a job in
57. If JX2 -2x-3 +Jx2 +5x-24 =
10 days. The number of days in which
10 boys and 20 girls complete the same JX2 + 7x-30, then x =
work is (A) 2
(A) 4 days (8) 3
(8) 5 days (C) 4
(0) none of these
(C) 6 days
(0) 7 days 58. The common root of x2 + 10x + 24 = 0 and
x2 + 14x +48 = 0 is
55. Two men undertake a job for Rs. 960. (A) -6
They can complete it in 16 days and (8) 6
24 days. They work along with a third (C) -8
man and take 8 days to complete it. (0) -4
Find the share that the third man should
get (in rupees). 59. If ( X2 + x~ ) - 4 ( x +~)+ 23 =0
x 4 '
(A) 200
1
(8) 150 what can be the value of x+- ?
x
(C) 160
-3
(0) none of these (A) - (8) 2
2
56. The area of a play ground is 153 m2.
If the length of the play ground is
(C) ~ (0) %
decreased by 4 m and the breadth If 42x + 1 + 4x + 1 = 80, then the value of
60.
is increased by 4 m, the playground xis
becomes a square. The length of side
(A) 1
of the square field is
(8) -1
(A) 11 m
1
(8) 12 m (C) -
2
(C) 13 m
(0) 2
(0) 14 m
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RIIIIII
v) English Language and Comprehension
~~~~
Read the following sentences and identify the 87. In today's competitive world/even small
grammatical errors, if any. Select the letter (A) (8)
corresponding to the erroneous part as your businesseslhad better advertised on T.v. in'
answer. (C)
order to be able to compete effectively.
81. The teacher said / that either of these/
(A) (8) (0)
methods are applicable /to solve this
88. The prices of /basic commodities raised!
(C) (0)
problem. (A) (8)
considerably/ due to inflation.
82. Meera did not / take driving / (C) (0)
(A) (8)
lessons; she/ taught her own.
89. Apologizing for / your misconduct' is the
(C) (0)
(A) (8)
83. The children/have been playing/since/
(A) (8) (C) only way/ to escaping punishment.
two hours. (C) (0)
(0)
90. If I / am you! I would stop/ talking to her
84. He was not only insincere/ in his duties!
(A) (8) (A) (8) (C) (0)
so also/ highly incompetent.
(C) (0) 91. The counsellor /asked me if/I would/
(A) (8) (C)
85. I like / the way Ramesh/ makes his son/
(A) (8) (C) mind to wait.
to do his homework neatly. (0)
(0)
92. I think/you should/let your hair/to grow.
86. I was /displeased/at your/coming late.
(A) (8) (C) (0)
(A) (8) (C) (0)
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1IIIIUlllllllm 1 1111111111111111IIRIIII 1111IRII 1111111111IIUII 11 Imll 111111 m 1111111111111 MKG-XXIXlTECH IMW/1 T/05
Add suitable relative clauses for the following Select the grammatically erroneous sentence
questions from among the choice given below from among the choices given below each
them. question.
97. (A) I have been crying since morning.
93. Sheila couldn't come to the party,
(B) I am thinking of buying a new
was a pity.
cellular phone.
(A) that (B) it (C) Where can I find the principal?
(C) what (0) which (0) We visited Taj Mahal the previous
year.
94. Some of the people to the party
can't come. 98. (A) Beside cooking food, the volunteers
fed the children.
(A) inviting
(B) Can I find a University student in
(B) invited this group?
(C) who invited (C) The new bridge is under
(0) they were invited construction.
(0) I want a sheet of paper to draw
Fill in the blanks with suitable passive form on.
of the verb from the alternatives given below
Which of the phrases given below should
them. replace the phrase underlined in the following
95. There's somebody walking behind us. sentences to make it meaningful and
grammatically correct ?
Ithink _
99. She is the person who teach me
(A) we are following
French.
(B) we are being followed (A) teached
(C) we are followed (B) taught
(0) we are being following (C) were teaching
(0) had teached
96. We by a loud noise during
the night. 100. Why you went out in that heavy rain
(A) woke up without an umbrella or a raincoat?
(A) do you went
(B) are woken up
(B) did you went
(C) were woken up (C) did you go
(0) were waking up (0) you gone
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SECTION - B
Post Specific Subject - Related Questions
101. Slow increase in strain of metals under 106. High carbon steel contains
a constant stress is known as (A) 0.15 % of carbon
(A) creep (B) 0.15 to 0.3% of carbon
(B) fatigue (C) 0.3 to 0.8% of carbon
(C) endurance (0) 0.8 to 1.5% of carbon
(0) none of the above
107. Cyaniding is the process of
(A) dipping steel in cyanide bath
102. In Rockwell hardness test major load on
(B) reacting steel surface with cyanide
scale B is
salts
(A) 100 (B) 60 (C) adding carbon and nitrogen by heat
treatment of steel to increase its
(C) 120 (0) 150
surface hardness
103. Oelta(8) iron occurs at temperature of (0) making corrosion resistance steel
(A) room temperature 108. Process of austempering results in
___ from Austenite.
(B) above melting point
(A) formation of bainite structure
(C) between 1404°C and 1539°C
(B) carburized structure
(0) between 900°C and 1400°C (C) marten site structure
(0) none of the above
104. The metallic structure of iron is
109. The crystal structure of copper is
(A) body centered cubic
(A) F.C.C.
(B) face centered cubic
(B) B.C.C.
(C) hexagonal close packed (C) H.C.P.
(0) cubic structure (0) None of the above
105. The percentage of carbon in grey cast 110. Babbit metal contains
(A) 85% tin, 10% antimony and
iron usually varies between
5% copper
(A) 0.1 - 0.5% (B) 75% tin, 10% antimony and
(B) 1 - 2% 15% copper
(C) 65% tin, 20% antimony and
(C) 0.3% - 0.9%
15% copper
(0) 5 -7% (0) none of the above
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111. Case hardening is the only method 116. Forces are concurrent when there lines
suitable for hardening of action met in
(A) One point
(A) high alloy steel
(8) Two point
(8) high carbon steel
(C) Plane
(C) low carbon steel (D) Different planes
(D) high speed steel
117. The weight of the body is due to
112. The effect of alloying tin and copper is to (A) Centripetal force of earth
(8) Gravitational pull exerted by the
(A) raise hardness
earth
(8) to impart free machining properties (C) Force of attraction experienced by
(C) to improve corrosion resistance particle
(D) Force of attraction towards the
(D) to increase strength and ductility
centre of earth
113. Normalizing operation of component is 118. D' Alemberts principle is used for
cooled in (A) reducing the problem of system of
(A) Furnace (8) Air forces to equivalent statics problem
(8) determining stresses in the truss
(C) Water (D) Oil
(C) stability of floating bodies
114. High speed steel belongs to category of (D) designing safe structure
(A) low carbon steel 119. Two non collinear parallel equal forces
(8) medium carbon steel acting in opposite direction
(A) balance each other
(C) high carbon steel
(8) constitute a moment
(D) alloy steel
(C) constitute a couple
115. White metal contains of (D) constitute a moment of couple
(A) nickel and copper 120. Moment of inertia of a circular area
about an axis perpendicular to the area
(8) lead, copper and antimony
is
(C) tin, lead, chromium (A) 11" d4/32 (8) 11" d4/64
(D) malleable cast iron and silver (C) 11" d4/16 (D) 11" d4/68
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MKG-XXIXlTECHIMW/1 T/05 IIIII III 111111I11111 1111111III Inllll 1nl 11111~ 1I11I1111UIIIII~m 11111 11IIln nil 1111
121. The velocity of a body on reaching the 126. An isosceles triangular section ABC
ground from a height h, is given by has base width 8 cm and height 6 cm.
Determine the moment of inertia of the
(A) v = 2gh
section about c.g. of the section.
(B) v = 2gh2 - u2
(A) 48 ern" (B) 54 ern"
(C) V = ~u2 -2gh (C) 25 cm4 (D) 37 crrr'
(D) v = (h2 - u2 )/2g 127. The range of projectile is maximum
when the angle of projection is
122. Total time (t) of the flight of a projectile
(A) 45° (B) 30°
on a horizontal plane is equal to
(C) 60° (D) 22.5°
u = velocity of projection, a = angle of
projection 128. Dynamic friction is the
(A) = (2u sin a) Ig
t (A) tangent of angle between normal
reaction and the resultant of normal
(B) t = (2u cos a) Ig
reaction and the limiting force
(C) t = (2u tan a) Ig (B) ratio of limiting friction and normal
(D) t = (2u cot a) Ig reaction
(C) the friction force acting when the
123. A body of weight W on inclined plane of body is in motion
a being pulled a horizontal force p will (D) the friction force acting when the
be on the point of motion up the plane body is about to move
when p is equal to
129. According to parallel axis theorem for
(A) W cot (a + <1» a plane area 'a', moment of inertia
(B) W tan (a + <1» about the axes AB and YY separated
by distance h
(C) W sin (a+ <1»
(D) W cos (a + <1»
(A) lAB = IG + ah2
(B) IG + lAB = ah2
124. The c.g. of a trapezium of base b height h (C) IG/IAB = ah2
and upper side a is given by (D) lAB = IG I ah2
(A) h/3(2a+b/a+b)
130. The c.g. of hemisphere lies on the
(B) h/3(a+b/2a+b) central radius
(C) h/2(2a+b/a+b) (A) at distance 3r/2 from the plane
base
(D) h/3(a+2b/a+b)
(B) at distance 3r/4 from the plane
base
125. Centripetal force is given by if mass
(C) at distance 3r/8 from the plane
m = wig base
(A) 1/r (mv2) (B) Y2 m( v2/r) (D) at distance r/2 from the plane
(C) mv2/r (D) mv/r base
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MKG-XXlxrrECHIMW/1 T/05 IIIIIOIIIUIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII ~~MIIIIIIIIIII~I UIIIUPIIIII~~llglglllllln 11111111
131. If n = number of members and j = 137. A tapered bar of length I has diameters
number of joints, then for a perfect D and d at ends. If it is subjected to axial
frame, n = load F, then the elongation produced
(A) j - 2 (8) 2j-1 will be
(C) 2j-3 (D) 3j - 2 (A) 4 plhrEDd (8) pl/E1I"d
(C) 1I"Epi/Dd (D) 1611"E
pi/Dd
132. The value of modulus of elasticity for
mild steel is the order of 138. Section modulus Z is expressed as
(A) 2 x 105 N/mm2 (A) I/ymax (8) E/I
(8) 3.8 x 105 N/mm2 (C) El (D) M/I
(C) 1.1 x 105 N/mm2
139. According to Lame's equation, Hoop
(D) 0.9 x 105 N/mm2 stress (c) for a thick cylinder at any point
at a radius r from centre is equal to
133. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the
ratio of (A) (b/r2) + a (8) (b/r2) - a
(A) longitudinal stress and longitudinal (C) (b/r) + a (D) (b/r) - a
strain
140. If a shaft of radius r and polar moment
(8) volumetric stress and lateral
of inertia J be subjected to bending
strain
moment M and torque T, then maximum
(C) shear stress and shear strain
shear is
(D) none of the above
(A) 28 / 1td3~M2 + T2
134. The value of Poisson's ratio for metal
varies between (8) 16/ 1td3~M2 + T2
(A) 0.01 to 0.1 (8) 0.23 to 0.27
(C) 0.25 to 0.33 (D) 0.4 to 0.6 (C) 1/ 1td3~M2 + T2
(D) none of the above
135. The ability of material to absorb energy
before fracture is known as
(A) fatigue strength 141. Find the modulus of elasticity for a rod
which tapers uniformly from 30 mm to
(8) hardness
15 mm diameter with length of 350 mm.
(C) toughness
The rod is subjected to an axial pull of
(D) tensile strength 5.5 kN and possible extension of the rod
is 0.025 mm
136. ___ is defined as the resistance of
the material to penetration or permanent (A) 2.178 x 105 N/mm2
deformation. (8) 3.78 x 105 N/mm2
(A) Strength (8) Hardness (C) 1.56 x 105 N/mm2
(C) Toughness (D) Resilience (D) 1.78x105N/mm2
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MKG-XXlxrrECHIMW/1 T/OS 1111111111~lllm
m 1llllllgllllllllIll~llllllmllllllllllllllllllllmlllllllll1111111111111111
142. What is a isotropic material? 147. The point of contraflexure is a point
(A) elastic properties remain equal in where
only one direction (A) shear force is zero
(B) elastic properties remain equal in (B) bending moment is zero after
2 direction changing its sign
(C) elastic properties remain equal in (C) shear forces changes its sign
all direction
(0) bending moment is maximum
(0) none of the above
148. An overhang beam is
143. Maximum deflection in a beam supported
(A) same as cantilever
freely at both ends due to a central load
W at middle is (B) not same as cantilever
(A) - WL 3/48EI (B) - WL 3/96EI (C) one which extends beyond its
(C) - WL 3/32EI (0) - WL 3/64EI support at either end
(0) none of the above
144. Bending moment in the centre of a beam
of length L firmly supported at both ends 149. The volumetric strain in case of
and having a central load of W is thin spherical shell of diameter d
(A) WL (B) WU2 and thickness t subjected to internal
(C) WU4 (0) WU8 pressure p, having elasticity E and
Poisson's ratio !l
145. Slenderness ratio of a column is the
pd
ratio of its (A) ~~ (2 -1-1) (B) 2tE (2 -1-1)
(A) length of least lateral dimensions
(B) length to radius of gyration (C)
pd (1-1-1)
3tE (0) !~~ (1-1-1)
(C) lateral dimensions to radius of
gyration 150. Ratio of thickness to diameter for thin
(0) none of the above cylinder is
(A) 1/5 to 1/10 (B) 1/10 to 1/12
146. Principal plane is one which carries
(C) 1/15 to 1/20 (0) 1/20 to 1/30
(A) no shear stress
(B) no normal stress 151. A simple mechanisms has
(C) maximum resultant of stresses (A) 1 link (B) 21inks
(0) no resultant of stresses (C) 31inks (0) 41inks
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MKG-XXIXfTECHIMW/1 T/OS 111I111111~lllmI~ 11111111111111111111~llllllllIllllllllllllllllIlllm.lgm 11I11111111I1111
152. A slider crank mechanisms is a special 158. For Hartnell Governor with equal arms
case of lift of the sleeve is given by as
(A) 3 - bar mechanisms (A) h1 = x/y( r1+ r)
(8) h1 = x/y(rc r)
(8) 4 - bar mechanisms
(C) h1=x(r1+r)/2y
(C) 2 - bar mechanisms
(0) h, = x(r1- r) /2y
(0) 6 - bar mechanisms
159. Sensitiveness of Governor is defined
153. Kinematic pairs are those which have as
two elements that (A) range of speed/mean speed
(A) have line contact (8) mean speed /range of speed
(8) have surface contact (C) mean speed x range of speed
(C) permit relative motion (0) range of speed /2 x mean speed
(0) have dynamic forces 160. The path of contact in involute gears is
(A) a straight line
154. Relationship between the number of
(8) involute path
links (L) and number of pairs (P) is
(C) curved line
(A) = 2P - 4
L (8) L = 2P + 4 (0) circle
(C) L = P - 4 (0) L = 2P - 2
161. Rankine theory (maximum principal
155. Hookes joint consist of stress theory) of failure is applicable for
(A) two forks (8) one fork the following type of material.
(A) brittle (8) ductile
(C) three forks (0) four forks
(C) elastic (0) tough
156. A flywheel connected to a punching
162. The equation for combined stress due
machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm
to Eccentric axial loading is given by
while running at a mean angular speed
(A) PIA ± Pey/I (8) AlP ± Pey/I
of 20radls. If the total fluctuation of speed
is not to exceed ± 2%. Find the mass (C) AlP (0) Pey/I
moment of inertia in Kg - m2.
163. If a load W is applied instantaneously
(A) 34 (8) 19 on a bar of cross section A then the
(C) 25 (0) 43 stress induced in the bar in worst case
will be
157. The height(h) of Watt Governor is (A) W/A
expressed as (8) W/2A
(A) w2/g (8) gw2 (C) 2(W/A)
(C) gw (0) g/w2 (0) None of the above
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MKG-XXIXlTECHIMW/1 T/OS 11111111I1~1111II1.IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIRIIIIIIIIIIIIIHllllllllnlllIlm~ IWRI m1811HII1111
164. Stress concentration is caused due to 171. is the surface of which contains
(A) variation of load the pitch lines of all teeth in bevel gear.
(B) abrupt changes of the cross (A) Pitch cone
section (B) Back cone
(C) different environment condition (C) Crown cone
(0) none of the above (0) Mitre cone
165. Maximum principal shear stress theory 172. Virtual number of teeth for helical gear
is applicable for is given by
(A) ductile materials (A) z/cos2 'I'
(B) brittle materials
(B) z/cos3 'I'
(C) elastic materials
(C) z/cos 'I'
(0) none of the above
(0) none of the above
166. The efficiency of self locking screw is
173. Which of the gear is used for
(A) 60% (B) 90%
non-intersecting shaft ?
(C) 50% (0) 45%
(A) helical gears
167. When two springs of stiffness (K1 and ~) (B) worm gears
are in parallel, the equivalent stiffness(K) (C) hypoid gears
will be
(0) herringbone gears
(A) (K1 + K2)
(B) (K1 K2) I( K1 + K2) 174. An involute14.5°gear should have
(C) (K1- K2) minimum of teeth.
(0) K1/K2 (A) 12 (B) 8
(C) 16 (0) 32
168. If P = bearing pressure, Jl =
absolute
=
viscosity, N speed of journal, then the 175. The Wahl stress factor K for springs of
bearing characteristic number is given spring index is C is given by
by
(A) Jl NIP (B) PI Jl N (A) 4C -1 + 0.615
(C) Jl PIN (0) NI Jl P 4C-2 C
169. A pair of worm gears is specified and C-4 C
designated by four quantities as (B) 4C-4 + 0.615
(A) z1/z~q/m (B) z~z1/m/q
(C) m/z~z1/q (0) q/m/z1/z2 4C -1 0.615
(C) 4C-4 +-C-
170. Width of key is usually taken as
(A) d/10 (B) d/6 4C-1 0.615
(0) --+--
(C) d/2 (0) d/4 C-4 C
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Text of page 36
MKG-XXIXlTECHIMW/1 T/05 1 11111111 Imll Im m 1111111111111111111111111111111111111111111101111111I111111III m Illm 111I1111
189. The machining which makes a cone 195. In gang milling
shaped recess at the top of a drilled (A) severaljobs can be performedin one
hole for a set up
(B) one job is completed on several
(A) counter boring
milling machine together
(B) die sinking (C) two or more cutters are mounted on
(C) counter sinking the arbor
(0) taper drilling (0) none of the above
196. In the tool designation, nose radius is
190. The operation of recovering the lost indicated
shape of grinding wheel is called (A) in the beginning
(A) trueing (B) dressing (B) at the end
(C) aligning (0) balancing (C) in the middle
(0) not indicated
191. Burnishing is an operation of
197. The first symbol in designation grinding
(A) heat treatment wheel is
(B) deep boring (A) Bond type
(C) mirror finishing (B) Abrasive type
(C) Grain size
(0) producing gears (0) Structure
192. Tool signature comprises of 198. The most commonly used material for
according to British system. twist drills is
(A) 4 elements (B) 5 elements (A) low alloy carbon steel
(B) high speed steel
(C) 6 elements (0) 7 elements
(C) carbon steel
193. The unit of a lathe which houses the (0) ceramic
lathe spindle and control lever for speed
199. The optimum point angle of twist drill
selection is called as for the work material is
(A) head stock (B) tail stock (A) 1080 (B) 1180
(C) feed box (0) carriage (C) 1200 (0) 1810
200. Type of chuck used on surface grinders
194. A reamer is used to correct the
are
(A) size and position of drilled hole
(A) 3 jaw chuck
(B) smoothness and roundness of hole (B) magnetic chuck
(C) finish and size of a drilled hole (C) pneumatic chuck
(0) finish and depth of a drilled hole (0) hydraulic chuck
-36-


Text of page 39
IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII.III~~IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII111110111111111111111111111111111111111 MKG-XXIXlTECHIMW/1 T/OS
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
"{tf)~~~~
-39-
Text of page 40
MKG-XXIXlTECHIMW/1 T/OS 11111nllllllllllllllllllllllllllllllll~IIIIIIIIIIIIUIIIIII1II111111~1111I11I1I~IIIIIIIIIIIIII
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
3uf\Geu{f~~q~~'fJi~
13. This booklet contains 40 pages. 13. ~ ~ ~ 40 ~ ~I
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statement is followed by four alternative 'C.fR ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ I~ ~
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case, you are required to select the one that ~ ~ ~
<fiT~t?1 ~ ~
correctly answers the question or completes the ~~ ~ Cbl ~ "Cfit3ft\ ~ ~ ~ ~
statement and blacken (e) appropriate circle ~ lih.'1ICflI{~ A, B, C <ITD Cbl-;ftffi <ITqm;n
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against the question concerned in the Answer 3¥OifIGc:tHl ~ ~ ~1fO llTMlCFin ~ ;7T7T
Sheet. (For V.H. candidates corresponding I~~ ~".
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15. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate 15. ~ ~ ~ mtH ~ <ff CfjfRl~iCfl'i ~ 3mT
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any space. The correct method of shading is Rl~ifcha q:;f.r Cfjf~ otrcnr ~ ~ TJ"lIT ~ I
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Go through instructions given in Page No. 1 (Facing Page)
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Source: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board. Question paper published by Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board.