DSSSB 2019: 4 August, Laboratory technician
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MKG-XXITECHL T/1T/01 POSTCODE/~m :
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8. This Booklet contains 200 questions in all comprising the 8. ~ ~ It ~ 200 ~ m-q f.lktR1f&d \fIT! ~ t i :
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(A)
following Sections:
Sections
i)
Test Components
General Awareness
No. of
Questions
20
Page
No.
2-7
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(31) i)
ii)
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20
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2-7 i ~
ii) General Intelligence and ~~ 20 8-11 tt' ~
iii)
Reasoning Ability 20 8-11 iii) ~1l:'i~~ 20 12-15 16 j;
Arithmetical and Numerical Ability 20 12·15
iv) Hindi Language and ComprehenSion 20 16-17 iv) ~ ~ 311ni1~ 20 16-17 It tt'
v) English Language and Comprehension 20 18·19 v) ~ ~ 3fu:~ 20 18-19 ~ ~
(B) Post Specific Subject-Related ('Of) ~~~-~>Iv-l 100 20-37
Questions 100 20·37
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ExaminationHall will be liablefor appropriatepenal/legalaction. 1fiRll:illil ~/~ m~ I ~ ~
11. The manner in whichdifferentquestionsare to be answeredhas 11. ~ m ~T\R ~ <fit fcrltI ~ ~ ~ W Wt ~ ~
been explained at the back of this Booklet, which you should ~ "" ~ .,.,.;~..rt ~ 4- ++ ' '.=:nr.k ~
read carefully before actually answering the questions. '1 " <" .''< 31Jll )1'("'11 q, ~ ,,"1 ~ ~
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12. No Rough Work is to be done on the Answer Sheet. 12. ~~-...rd~~-q(~tbVIT~ I tt
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Go through instructions given in Page No. 40 (Back Cover Page)
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SECTION-A
i) General Awareness
1. Which of the following rivers are east 5. How many members to be nominated
flowing rivers of peninsular India?
by the President for Rajyasabha, which
(A) Godavari and Mahanadi
is envisaged in the Indian Constitution?
(8) Narmada and Tapi
(A) 10 members
(C) Netravathi and Sharavathi
(D) None of the above (8) 12 members
2. Which type of climate prevails in India? (C) 15 members
(A) Tropical monsoon type
(D) None of the above
(8) Mediterranean type
(C) Subtropical Humid type 6. What is the maximum strength of the
(D) None of the above Loksabha, which is envisaged in the
3. Montreal protocol is the multilateral Indian Constitution?
environmental agreement that regulates
(A) 545
which of the following?
(A) Substances that causes the green (8) 543
house effect
(8) Substances that causes the acid (C) 552
rain
(D) None of the above
(C) Substances that deplete the ozone
layer
7. Who presides over the Chairman of the
(D) None of the above
Interstate Council?
4. Every year "World Wetland Day" is
celebrated on (A) Prime Minister
(A) 2nd February
(8) President
(8) 2nd March
(C) Loksabha Speaker
(C) 220d April
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
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14. National song Vande Mataram was 17. When was National Consumers Day .
composed by observed every year?
(A) December, 24th
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(8) November, 3rd
(8) Bankimchandra Chatterji
(C) September, 22nd
(C) Muhammad Iqbal (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
18. What is theme of UNO (United Nations
Organization) for the year 2019 ?
15. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Aushadhi Yojana (A) International year of pulses
is a flagship programme of Central (8) International year of millets
Government, comes under (C) International year of indigenous
languages
(A) Ministry of Health and Family
(D) None of the above
Welfare
19. "Vajra Prahar" a [oint military exercise
(8) Ministry of Finance
between which of the following countries?
(C) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
(A) India and USA
(D) None of the above (8) India and UK
(C) India and Japan
16. "World Economic Outlook" report (D) None of the above
released by 20. Druzhba III a military exercise held
between which of the following
(A) WTO
countries?
(8) IMF (A) India and Russia
(8) Russia and USA
(C) FAO
(C) Russia and Pakistan
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
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ii) General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
Direction for the Q. No. 21 and 22. 25. PETAL: FLOWER: :
5 people A, B, C, 0 and E have 5 different (A) SALT: PEPPER
brands of colour TV's Mi, BPL, Samsung,
LG and Koriyo and play 5 instruments Flute, (B) TIRE: BICYCLE
Piano, Drums, Guitar, Trumpet. Following (C) BASE: BALL
conditions are to be followed. (D) SANDALS: SHOES
1. B does not have Mi or Samsung and plays
Piano.
26. Here are some words translated from
2. A has BPL and plays Drums.
an artificial language.
3. 0 has either Koriyo or LG.
daftafoni means advisement
4. The one who plays Trumpet has LG.
5. C has either Samsung or Koriyo and E imodafta means misadvise
plays either Piano or Flute. imolokti means misconduct
21. Who has Koriyo ? Which word could mean 'statement' ?
(A) A (B) B (A) kratafoni (B) kratadafta
(C)C (D)0 (C) loktifoni (D) daftaimo
22. D plays and owns
(A) Trumpet and LG 27. All the tulips in Zoe's garden are white.
(B) Piano and LG All the pansies ~n Zoe's garden are
(C) Trumpet and Koriyo yellow.
(D) Data inadequate
All the flowers in Zoe's garden are either
For questions 23 and 24 refer to the data white or yellow.
below: Ifthe first two statements are true, the third
• statement is
A@B=A+~ A#B=A+~-B
AB' A (A) true (B) false
(C) uncertain (D) all A, B, C
A&B = AB -B A I\B = A-~+B
A' A
28. Fact 1 : All drink mixes are beverages.
23. (A J\ B) + (A # B) =
Fact 2 : All beverages are drinkable.
(A) 21(A # B) (B) A & ~@B Fact 3 : Some beverages are red.
A
Which of the following statements must
(C) 2A (D) A # B
also be a fact ?
24. If A = 3, B = 6, then A@B, A#B, I. Some drink mixes are red.
A&B are
II. All beverages are drink mixes.
(A) multiples of 3
III. All red drink mixes are drinkable.
,
(B) negative values
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) positive values
(C) I and '" (D) none
(D) real values
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29. Find the missing number. 35. A firm produces 50 units of a product
1,2,6,7,21,22,66,?,201 for ~ 320 and 80 units for ~ 380.
(A) 69 (B) 68 Considering the cost curve to be a
(C) 67 (D) 79 straight line the cost of producing 110
units to be estimated as
30. If PALAM could be given the code 43. (A) 400 (B) 420
What code number can be given to (C) 440 (D) none
SANTACRUZ?
(A) 123 (B) 85 36. In a family 'R' is married to 'M'. 'M' is
(C) 120 (D) 125 a brother of 'K' who is 'Z's mother. 'R'
has 3 children, 1 son and 2 daughter
31. A is B's brother. C is A's mother. D is
with one daughter married. 'B' is the
C's father. F is A's son. How is F related
sister-in-law to 'D'. 'A' is brother of 'C'.
to D ?
How is 'A' related to 'Z' ?
(A) Son
(B) Grandson (A) cousin brother (B) cousin sister
(C) Grand-grandson (C) aunty (D) uncle
(D) Grand-daughter
37. A walks Southwards then turns right
32. BANK: CBOL:: GROVE: again and then left and again left. In
(A) SPOMP (B) HSPWF which direction is he from the starting
(C) . EVORG (D) PSWFH point?
(A) South West (B) South East
33. 6 children A, B, C, D, E and Fare (C) North West (D) North East
standing in a row. B is between F and
D. E is between A and C, A does not 38. If RAMAN is written as 12325 and
stand next to right F or D. C does not DINESH as 675489, how HAMAM is
stand next to D. F is between which of written?
the following pairs of children?
(A) 92323 (B) 92233
(A) B & E (B) B & C
(C) 93233 (D) 93292
(C) B & D (D) B & A
39. 1,9,25,49,81,121,?
34. The sum of the digits in a three digit
number is 12. If the digits are reversed (A) 225 (B) 289
the number is increased by 495 but (C) 169 (D) 144
reversing only of the ten's and unit
digits increases the number by 36. The 40. Find odd number out 1, 5, 14, 30, 51,
number is
55,91.
(A) 327 (B) 372 (A) 30 (B) 55
(C) 237 (D) 273 (C) 51 (D) 91
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iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
41. A can do a job in 6 hours, 8 can do the 46. After revaluation a student's marks was
same job in 8 hours. Then the number changed from 80 to 92, the percentage
of hours A and 8 take if they complete
increase in marks is
the work together, is equal to
(A) 12% (8) 13%
24
(A), 4 hrs (8) -hrs
7 (C) 15% (0) 18%
(C) 24 hrs (0) none of these
5 47. If angles of a triangle are in A.P. with
42. The present ages of two brothers is in the greatest being 84°, the other angles
the ratio 3 : 4. If 4 years ago their ages in the triangle are
were in the ratio 2 : 3, their present ages
are (A) 30°,66° (8) 36°,60°
(A) 30 and 40 (8) 15 and 20 (C) 40°,56° (0) none of these
(C) 12 and 16 (D) none of these
48. The average age of 10 students is 6 years.
43. If ex and p are the roots of the equation
2x2 - 10x + =
5 0 then the value of
The sum of the ages of 9 of them is
%+%= 52 years. The age of 10th student is
(A) 10 yrs (8) 9 yrs
(A) 8 (8) 6 (C) 7 yrs (0) 8 yrs
1
(C) - (0) -8
8
49. The cost price of an article which is sold
44. If 6x + =
3y 6xy, 2x + =
4y 5xy then for Rs. 220 at a loss of 12%, is
(x, y) =
(A) Rs.280 (8) Rs.250
(A) (1,2) (8) (2, 1) (C) Rs.200 (0) Rs.225
(C)
(1'~) (0) (~,1) 50. The duration of time in which a sum of
money triples itself at 8% p.a. simple
45. Sin2A = 2SinA is true when A =
interest is
(A) 0° (8) 30°
(A) 12.5 yrs (8) 13 yrs
(C) 45° (0) 60°
(C) 12 yrs (0) 25 yrs
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51. The radii of two circles are 8 cm and 6 cm 56. A toy in the form of a cone of radius
respectively. The radius of the circle 3.5 cm is mounted on a hemisphere of
having area equal to the sum of the same radius. If the total height of the toy
areas of two circles is is 15.5 cm then the total surface area of
the toy is
(A) 14 cm (8) 2cm
(A) 214.5 cm2 (8) 216 cm2
(C) 12 cm (0) 10cm
(C) 225 cm2 (0) 361 cm2
52. The quotient obtained when
x3 - 3x2 + 5x - 3 is divided x2 - 2 is
57. The least number when divided by 18,
(A) 7x - 9 (8) x - 3
(C) - x + 3 (0) -7x + 9 24, 56 leaves no remainder is
(A) 405 (8) 504
1
53. If a fraction becomes .3 when 1 is (C) 360 (0) None of these
subtracted from the numerator and it
1
becomes 4 when 8 is added to its
58. The two numbers whose sum is 27 and
denominator, then the fraction is product is 182 are .
5 7
(A) 24,3
(A) - (8) - (8) 13,14
12 13
(C) 15,12 (0) 11, 16
6 6
(C) - (0) -
20 15
59. The value/s of k in the quadratic equation
54.
7
If cote = 8 then cosec- e= 2x2 + kx + 3 = 0 if the roots of the equation
are equal is/are
111 113
(A) - (8) -
(A) ±.J6 (8) .fi
64 64
64 15 (C) ± 2.J6 (0) 3.J6
(C) - (0) -
113 64
55. One card is drawn from a well shuffled 60. If the 3rd and 9th terms of an AP
pack of 52 playing cards. The probability (Arithmetic Progression) are 4 and - 8
.that card will not be an ace is respectively, then the term of AP which
12 1 is zero is
(A) - (8) -
13 13
(A) 4 (8) 5
1 3
(C) - (0) - (C) 6 (0) 3
4 4
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v) English Language and Comprehension
~ ifI'U ~iftu
Identify wrongly spelt word. Identify the odd word out.
81. (A) REVERIE 86. (A) Pond
(8) SPARKLE (8) Tank
(C) RHYTHEM (C) Lake
(D) FASCINATE (D) Book
82. (A) ARIAL
87. (A) Cube
,(B) INDULGE
(B) Square
(C) QUAINT
(C) Foot
(D) WHIMS
(D) Prism
Fill in the blanks with appropriate' article if
necessary. Add suitable question tag.
83. She has failed in English. 88. She can swim well, ?
(A) a (A) can she
(B) the (B) can't she
(C) an
(C) does she
(D) not needed
(0) don't she
84. He is best player in the
89. He works hard, ?
team.
(A) is he
(A) a
(8) an (8) does he
(C) the (C) doesn't he
(0) not needed (0) did he
85. We need half pound of sugar. 90. They don't need anything, ?
(A) a (A) can they
(8) an (B) don't they
(C) the (C) did they
(D) not needed (0) do they
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Identify the tense in the following sentences. 96. He lives in the house the river.
(A) by
91. I have been working here for ten year.
(8) on
(A) present perfect
(C) at
(8) present continuous
(D) of
(C) present perfect continuous
(D) pa~continuous Fill in the blanks with suitable verb form.
92. In my youth I took exercise everyday. 97. They have been since morning.
(A) present tense (A) working
(8) past indefinite (8) worked
(C) past perfect (C) works
(D) future tense (D) work
93. She has applied for leave. 98. Last Sunday we there.
(A) present continuous (A) play
(8) simple present (8) have played
(C) present perfect (C) were playing
(D) simple past (D) had played
Fill in the blanks with appropriate preposition.
Pick out the word that is nearly opposite in
94. The picture hangs ___ my bed. meaning to the words in capitals.
(A) on 99. DISTRESS
(8) up (A) safety
(C) above (8) travail
(D) at (C) agony
(D) torment
95. You should not go ___ the football
ground. 100. GALLANT
(A) in (A) bold
(8) into (8) stalwart
(C) on (C) coward
(D) to
(D) stout
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SECTION - B
,
Post Specific Subject-Related Questions
101. Arrangement of cocci in chains 106. Which of the following bacteria produces
known as coagulase?
(A) Streptococci (A) Staphylococcus
(B) Staphylococci (B) Streptococcus
(C) Pneumococci (C) Salmonella
(D) Diplococci (D) Pneumococcus
102. Stain used for the detection of 107. Which of the following bacteria are flame
mycobacterium species shaped?
(A) Grams stain (A) Pneumococcus
(B) Alberts stain (B) Staphylococcus ~
(C) Ziehl-Neelsen stain (C) Gonococcus
(D) Capsule stain (D) Meningococcus
103. What is the suitable timing for sterilization 108. Example for capsulated bacteria
by using autoclave? (A) Staph.aureus
(A) 1 hour at 90°C
(B) Strep.pneumonias (Pneumococci)
(B) 1 hour at 160°C
(C) Streptococcus
(C) 30 minutes at 80°C (D) E.coli
(D) 121°C at 151bs
109. Which of the following bacteria causing
104. Example for enriched media gas gangrene?
(A) Nutrient broth (A) Clostridium perfringens
(B) Nutrient agar (B) Clostridium tetani
(C) Blood agar (C) Clostridium septicum
(D) Peptone water (D) Clostridium novyi
105. Identification of bacteria can be 110. Which of the following bacteria shows
done by
Chinese letter arrangement?
(A) Staining reactions
(A) C. diphtheriae
(B) Cultural characteristics
(B) N. meningitiS
(C) Biochemical properties
(C) E.coli
(D) All of the above
(D) Salmonella
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123. Causative agent of elephantiasis 129. Example for DNA virus
(A) Plasmodium (A) Retroviruses
(B) Wuchereria bancrofti
(B) Rhabdoviruses
(C) Leishmania
(C) Paramyxoviruses
(D) Trypanosoma
(D) Poxviruses
124. Example for floatation method in stool
examination 130. Mode of transmission of Trichomonas
(A) Iodine wetmount vaginalis
(B) Saline wetmount (A) Inhalation
(C) Saturated salt floatation
(B) Sexual contact
(D) Iodine floatation
(C) Ingestion
125. Following is an example for tissue (D) None of the above
nematode, except
(A) Wuchereria bancrofti 131. Carbohydrates composed of 2-10
(B) Brugiamalayi monosaccharide units are known as
(C) Loa loa (A) Monosaccharides
(0) Enterobius vermicularis
(8) Oligosaccharides
126. Smallest infectious organisms that (C) Polysaccharides
contain either DNA or RNA
(D) Homopolysaccharides
(A) Bacteria
(B) Virus 132. Which of the following are ketone
(C) Protozoa bodies?
(D) Fungus (A) Acetone
127. Transfer of an individual's own tissue (B) Beta hydroxybutyrate
(A) Allograft (C) Acetoacetate
(B) Autograft (D) All of the above
(C) Xenograft
(D) Syngeneic graft 133. Phospholipid which is involved in blood
clotting
128. Complete infective virus particle
(A) Lecithin
(A) Virion
(B) Capsomers (B) Cephalin
(C) Glycoprotein spikes (C) Cardiolipin
(0) Nucleocapsid (D) Plasmalogen
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134. Migration of charged particles in an 140. Urea is the final product of
electrical field is called as metabolism.
(A) Electrophoresis (A) Amino acid
(B) Colorimetry (B) Triglycerides
(C) Photometry (C) Cholesterol
(D) Turbidometry
(D) Polysaccharide
135. Which of the Vitamin deficiency causes
141. Blood gas measurement includes the
night blindness?
parameters
(A) Vitamin A
.(A) p02 and pC02
(8) Vitamin D
(8) pH
(C) Vitamin E
(C) Bicarbonate
(D) Vitamin K
(D) All of the above
136. Test to detect Bile salts
142. All of the factors affect the enzyme
(A) Fouchet's test
activity, except
(8) Ehrlich's test
(A) pH
(C) Hay's test
(D) Benedict's test (8) Temperature
(C) Concentration of substrate
137. Test to assess glomerular function
(D) Concentration of water
test
(A) Creatinine clearance test 143. Serum alpha amylase level is a
(B) Urea clearance test diagnostic test for
(C) Inulin clearance test (A) Hepatitis
(D) All of the above (B) Diabetes
(C) Acute pancreatitis
138. The serum levels of one of the following
enzymes are elevated in obstructive (D) Stroke
jaundice
144. FIGLU (Formiminoglutamate) is excreted
(A) ALT (8) AST from urine in the deficiency of Vitamin
(C) ALP (D) GGT
(A) Vitamin A
139. For GTT in adult the dose' of glucose is (B) Folic acid
(A) .30 gm (B) 50 gm (C) Vitamin B6
(C) 75 gm (D) 100 gm (D) Parthoneic acid
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145. Test to assess the renal function test, 150. Serum markers helpful in the diagnosis
except
of myocardial infarction, except
(A) Prothrombin time
(A) Creatine Phosphokinase (CPK)
(B) Glomerular function test
(B) Troponin
(C) Analysis of blood/serum
(C) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)
(D) Tubular function test
(D) Glucose-6-phosphate
146. Following are the clinical complications dehydrogenase
of the IDDM, except
151. The mobility of HbA and HbS during
(A) Retinopathy
electrophoresis will be
(B) Neuropathy
(A) Both have same mobility
(C) Gammapathy
(B) HbS moves faster than HbA
(D) Nephropathy
(C) HbS moves slower than HbA
147. C reactive protein increases in (D) HbS doesn't move at all
(A) Inflammation
152. Following are the functions of calcium,
(B) Renal disease
except
(C) Hematuria
(A) Required for blood coagulation
(D) All of the above
(B) Adsorption of ions
148. The regulation of the fluid balance is by
(C) Required for contraction of heart
(A) ADH
and muscle
(B) TSH
(D) Controls the permeability of cell
(C) Insulin
(D) Oxytocin 153. Which among the following
immunoglobulin appears first after
149. Following biochemical parameter onset of infection ?
indices of liver function, except
(A) IgG
(A) Bilirubin
(B) IgM
(B) Cholesterol
(C) IgD
(C) Albumin
(D) IgE
(D) Creatinine
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154. Hyponatremia means 159. Fixative used to preserve intracellular
(A) Low concentration of K+ in the structu res known as
blood (A) Histochemical fixative
(B) High concentration of Na+ in the (B) Cytological fixative
blood (C) Micro-anatomical fixative
(C) High concentration of K+ in the (D) None of the above
blood
(O) Low concentration of Na+ in the 160. Which is the most commonly used
blood fixative in clinical practice?
(A) 10% formalin
155. Examples of semi-auto analysers (B) Zenker's fluid
(A) RA 50 (C) Bouin's fluid
(8) ERBA Chem (0) Carnoy's fluid
(C) Stat Fax
(0) All of the above 161. The process by which water content in
the tissue is removed
156. Following are the anterior pituitary (A) Dehydration (B) Fixation
hormones, except (C) Clearing (0) Impregnation
(A) LH
(B) FSH 162. The section cutting machine is known as
(A) Histomat
(C) TSH
(B) Histocut
(D) Oxytocin
(C) Microtome
157. The measure of closeness of the (0) Histoform
estimated value to the true value is
(A) Precision 163. is used to cut tissue
sections of very large blocks.
(B) Accuracy
(A) Rotary microtome
(C) Internal quality
(B) Sledge microtome
(D) External quality
(C) Sliding microtome
158. Microscopic study of the normal tissues (0) Rocking microtome
of the body is known as
164. Examples of clearing agents
(A) Histology
(A) Absolute alcohol
(B) Cytology
(B) Cedar wood oil
(C) Mycology
(C) Gelatin
(0) Histopathology
(D) Acetone
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165. The stain which is used for lipids 171. Hemosiderin is demonstrated by
(A) Sudan dye (A) Sudan dyes
(B) Congo red (B) Papnicolou stain
(C) Van-gieson stain (C) PAS stain
(D) Giemsa stain (D) Perl's Prussian blue
166. Example for embedding media 172. Von Kossa method is used to
(A) Xylene demonstrate
(A) Calcium
(B) Paraffin wax
(B) Fibrin
(C) Acetone
(C) Collagen fibres
(D) Formalin
(D) Bacteria
167. Bouin's fluid has been recommended
for 173. Bone marrow can be fixed by
(A) Testicular biopsies (A) Zenker formal
(B) Renal biopsies (B) Chloroform
(C) Skin biopsies (C) Picric acid
(D) Muscle biopsies (D) Osmium tetroxide
168.: Example for chelating agent
174. Melting point of paraffin wax
(A) Gelatin
(A) 58°C - 60°C
(B) Starch
(B) 45°C - 50°C
(C) Glycerin
(C) 30°C - 50°C
(D) EDTA
(D) 70°C - 100°C
169. is a refrigerated cabinet
in which a modified microtome is 175. Celloidin act as a embedding medium
housed. for
(A) Floating out bath (A) Soft tissues
(B) Microwave (B) Hard tissues
(C) Cryostat (C) Chromosomes
(D) All of the above (D) Mitochondria
170. Natural oxidation of haematoxylin
176. Dehydration step is carried out using
(A) Metachromasia
(A) Increasing grades of alcohol
(B) Ripening
(B) Increasing grades of HCI
(C) Retraction
(0) Hydration (C) Decreasing grades of alcohol
,.
(D) Decreasing grades of Hel
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177. Example of cytological smear fixatives 183. Variation in the shape of the red blood -
(A) Alcohol ether fixative cell is known as
(B) Schaudinn's fluid (A) Poikilocytosis
(C) Carnoy's fluid (B) Anisocytosis
(0) All of the above
(C) Ovalocyte
178. The process of detecting antigens in (0) Acanthocytes
cells of a tissue section by using the
principle of antigen-antibody reactions 184. The molecular weight of hemoglobin is
(A) Tissue preparation (A) 44400 (B) 54500
(B) Embedding (C) 64500 (0) 74500
(C) Immunohistochemistry
185. Reagent used in Cyanmethemoglobin
(0) Tissue processing
method is
179. are usually obtained to (A) Orabkin's reagent
diagnose or rule out malignancy. (B) Formalin
(A) Brush smears (C) RBC diluting fluid
(B) FNAC
(0) WBC diluting fluid
(C) Serum blocks
(O) None of the above 186. Sahli's method is based on conversion
of hemogiobin to
180. The method widely used for mounting
(A) Acid hematin
of specimen
(A) Kaiserling (B) Acid hematoxylin
(B) Frozen technique (C) Hematoxylin
(C) Lysing (0) Alkali hematin
(0) Wade-Fite technique
187. Normal leukocyte count in adult is
181. RBC count must be performed from (A) 4,000 - 1Q,OOO/cumm
(A) Citrated blood (B) 6,000 - 18,000/cu mm
(B) Heparinized blood (C) 6,000 - 15,000/cu mm
(C) EOTA blood (0) 10,000 - 25,000/cu mm
(0) Clotted blood
188. The erythrocyte indices are calculated
182. Normal erythrocyte shape is described as from
(A) Spherocyte (A) Hemoglobin concentration
(B) Biconcave disc (B) PCV
(C) Reticulocyte (C) Total erythrocyte count
(0) Sickle shaped (0) All of the above
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189. Increased WBC count is termed as 195. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is seen in
(A) leucopenia (A) CMl (B) AMl
(B) Thrombocytosis (C) All (D) cu,
(C) Thrombocyte
196. Pancytopenia is the presence of
(D) leukocytosis
(A) Anemia and leucopenia
190. Reduction in oxygen transporting (B) leucopenia and
capacity of blood thrombocytopenia
(A) Anemia (C) Anemia and thrombocytopenia
(B) leukemia (D) Anemia, leucopenia and
thrombocytopenia
(C) Thalassemia
(D) Thrombocytopenia 197. Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition in
which
191. The red cell antigen involved in
(A) Mother is Rh-ve, foetus Rh-ve
hemagglutination is referred as
(B) Mother is Rh-ve, foetus Hh-ve
(A) Agglutinogen
(C) Mother is Rh+ve, foetus Rh-ve
(B) Agglutinin (D) All of the above
(C) Both Agglutinogen and Agglutinin
198. Needle like red-purple cytoplasmic
(D) None of the above
inclusions
192. Which of the following blood group is (A) Smudge cells
considered a universal donor ? (B) Vacuoles
(A) A (B) B (C) Auer rods
(C) AB (D) 0 (D) Dohle bodies
193. Natural antibodies are generally of 199. Blood containing neither antigen A nor
_____ type. B belongs to blood group
(A) B (B) A
(A) IgM (B) IgG
(C) AB (D) 0
(C) IgD (D) IgE
200. The major cross match consists of a
194. Massive blood transfusion is defined as
mixture of
(A) Whole blood volume in 24 hours
(A) Donor's cells with patient's serum
(B) Half blood volume in 24 hours
(B) Patient's cells with donor's serum
(C) 40% blood volume in 24 hours
(C) Donor's serum with donor's cells
(D) 60% blood volume in 24 hours
(D) None of the above
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
~~~~~
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Text of page 40
M KG -XXfTE C H L T11T101 1111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
3Aft~qlii~~ q~+q~i ~
13. This booklet contains 40 pages. 13. ~ ~ if 40 ~ ~I
14. Directions : Each question or incomplete 14. f.$T :~m3l~~~~ifi~
statement is followed by four alternative 'qRT\R~~~~~~ I~c;m
suggested answers or completions. In each
case, you are required to select the one that
if ~ M~ CfiT·~ ~ \ill m <liT~ T\R
correctly answers the question or completes the ~~ ~ CfiT~ <.fit 3fn: ~ T\R ~ if
statement and blacken (e) appropriate circle ~ If\<?1I<:fl1{"&H A, B, c=n DCfiT-;fu;n<n~
A, B, C or 0 by Blue / Black Ball-Point Pen ~ -~ iR "B .~ (e) CI1Bl ~ I (<!N!auRro
against the question concerned in the Answer
Sheet. (For V.H. candidates corresponding 3¥04l~qtn <ii ~ ~1ffi m~H ~fQCfi ~
circle will be blackened by the scribe) ~~~)
15. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate 15. ~>R1if;~~~q;( Rt~'ICf>'"l~~
circle against each question. The circle
should be shaded completely without leaving
~ m I <ff <fiT w.n ~ ~ ~ Rt~ifCM~ I
any space. The correct method of shading is Rt~ifCM~q;(~~~~'Pn~ I
given below.
---,
I Wrong Method Wrong Method Wrong Method Correct Method
~~~~
I O~OO 0000 O@OO oeoo ~~~~
I The Candidate must mark his/her response ~ en) ::wHTT\R 'Ul H'"lcf<:fl m:cr ~ ifi ~
I after careful consideration.
I ~CI1Bl~1
I 16. There is only one correct answer to each 16. ~m<liT~~~~T\R~ I ~
I question. You should blacken (e) the circle of
~~ 3l~A, B, C <n 0 ~ If\<?1I<:flI{"&H
I the appropriate column, viz., A, B, CorD. If
_.J
you blacken (e) more than one circle against en) ~ (e) CI1Bl ~ I ~ Mm
311T.f ifi ~
anyone question, the answer will be treated ~"B ~ If\<?1I<:flI< "&H CfiT~ (e) m 31NcfiT
as wrong. '3ffi: lJffif ~ ~ I
17. In case of any discrepancy between the 17. ~ Mm ~ ~ wn ~ ~ it ~
English and Hindi versions of any question,
~~<it~~CfiT~~WiW~ I
the English version will be treated as final!
authentic.
18. Use the space for rough work given in the 18. ~~ifi~~mtf5rit~~~<liT
Question Booklet only and not on the Answer
Sheet.
m <it I T\R ~ If< ~ q:;Ff ~ <it I
19. You are NOT required to mark your answers 19. ~9)MCfiI~~~~~~~~ I
in this Booklet. All answers must be indicated ~~~~-ijtt~1
in the Answer Sheet only.
Go through instructions given in Page No.1 (Facing Page)
-40-Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 40
Source: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board. Question paper published by Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board.