DSSSB 2019: 8 September, Manager Accounts
Text of page 1
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following Sections:
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No. of Page
Sections Test Components (31) i) ~~ I
i
20 2-5
Questions No.
Ii) ~~O'4T
(A) i) GeneralAwareness 20 2-5
ii) General Intelligenceand ~~ 20 6'-9
tr
ReasoningAbility 20 6-9 iii) ~~~~ 20 10-13 ~
iii) Arrthrneticaland NumericalAbility
~ tr
20 10-13
Iv) Hindi Languageand Comprehension 20 14-15 Iv) ~ llro 3lR 'IN 20 14-15
v) EnglishLanguageand Comprehension 20 16-17 v) ~ l:fT!!l3lR'IN 20 16-17
(8) Post SpecificSUbject-Related ('Of) ~ ~ fcN<!-.r.itftm 100 18-37
~ ~
Questions
9. Use of CalculatorlPalmtop/Laptop/Other
Mobile/Cell Phone/Pager is not allowed.
100 18-37
Digital Instrument! 9. ~
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Examination Hall will be liable for appropriate penaltlegal action.
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been explained at the back of this Booklet, which you should ~~~~t, ~ 3fJt!w.iT~~~B~ ~~~ I
read carefully before actually answering the questions.
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Go through instructions given in Page No. 40 (Back Cover Page)
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MKG-XXlllfTECHMAl1 T/03 1111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111I11 111111111 IIIII 111111 ~II 1111 1111111III 11111 11I11111
SECTION-A
i) General Awareness
1. "Renminbi" is the official currency of the 6. Which State does not share border with
which of the following Nation? Pakistan?
(A) China (A) Rajasthan
(B) Indonesia (B) Punjab
(C) Japan (C) Gujarat
(0) None of the above
(0) Himachal Pradesh
2. "Sun Temple Konark" is situated at
7. Jhum cultivation, a type of slash burn
which of the following State?
agricultural practice, is most popular in
(A) Odisha
(A) Haryana
(B) Gujarat
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(0) None of the above (C) Punjab
(0) Arunachal Pradesh
3. Which country recently handed over
Apache Guardian attack helicopter to 8. The State known as the "Land of Red
India? River and Blue Hills" is
(A) USA (A) Assam
(B) Russia (B) Manipur
(C) Japan (C) Orissa
(O) None of the above (0) Jammu & Kashmir
4. Which of the following river given below
9. The book 'Gulamgiri' was written by
is the longest river in India?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(A) Ganga
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Indus
(C) Jyotiba Phule
(C) Brahmaputra
(O) None of the above (0) Pandit Ramabai
5. First woman Chief Minister of free India 10. Beej Bachao Andolan (save the seed)
is was initially started in
(A) Sarojini Naidu (A) Bihar
(B) Rukmini Oevi Arundal (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Sucheta Kriplani (C) West Bengal
(0) Vijayalakshmi Pandit (0) Uttarakhand
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11. Panna tiger r~serve is situated in 16. What is the abbreviation of Bt in
(A) Rajasthan transgenic variety Bt cotton?
(B) Madhya Pradesh (A) Bio Technology
(C) Jammu & Kashmir (B) Bacterio Thermogenesis
(C) Bacillus Thuringiensis
(D) Gujarat
(D) None of the above
12. Recentlythere was Nipahvirus breakout,
17. What is the abbreviation of UNESCO?
choose the following options, in which
(A) UnitedNationsEducational,Scientific
State it's created public tension.
and CulturalOrganization
(A) Delhi (B) Sikkim
(B) United Nation Education and
(C) Haryana (D) Kerala Sustainable Development
Co-organization
13. Which of the following app system is in (C) United Nation Environment and
use for electronic toll collection system Sustainable Development
in India, which is operated by National Co-organization
Highway Authority of India? (D) None of the above
(A) FASTag app
(B) E-toll app 18. In which of the following country,
Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project, a
(C) Aaykar app
720MW run-of-riverpower plant built with
(D) None of the above a support from Government of India?
(A) Myanmar
14. Which of the following country recently
(B) Afghanistan
started the "Web-wonder Women
(C) Bhutan
Campaign", which aims to celebrate the
(D) None of the above
exceptional achievements of women all
over the world, who have been driving 19. Every year 11th November is celebrated
positive agenda of social change via as National Education Day to mark the
social media ? birth anniversary of
(A) India (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Australia (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
. (C) USA (C) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
15. Which of the following country 20. The Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary
which is also a RAMASAR site recently
given below is not a member of Gulf
in news, is located in which of the
Cooperation Council ?
following State?
(A) UAE (A) Kerala
(8) Iran (B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Bahrain (C) Rajasthan
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
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MKG-XXIIIITECHMAl1 T/03 1~lllIllllm 111111111111111111111111111111110
IIIIIIIII~IIIII~IIII ~IIIIIIIII m II~IIIII ~II
, ii) General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
21. Choose the missing term out of the 26. AB, DEF, HIJK,?, STUVWX
given alternatives.
GH, JL, NQ, SW, YD, ? (A) LMNO
(A) EJ (B) FJ (B) LMNOP
(C) EL (D) FL (C) MNOPQ
(D) QRSTU
2G6
8
22.
27. Find the next term in the alpha-numeric
6
series:
(A) 42 (B) 46
Z1A,X2D,V6G,T21J,R88M,P445P,?
(C) 48 (D) 50
(A) N2676S
23. Which fraction comes next in the (B) N2676T
sequence?
(C) T2670N
1 3 5 7
-,-,-,- , ? (D) T2676N
2 4 8 16
(A) 9 (B) 10 28. Pulp: Paper: : Hemp: ?
32 17
(A) Basket
11
(D) 12 (B) Yarn
(C) 34
35
(C) Rope
24. In the series 7, 14, 28, .... what will be
the 10th term ? (D) Cotton
(A) 1792 (B) 2456
(C) 3584 (D) 4096 29. If REQUEST is written as S2R52TU,
25. Find the next term in the series: then how will ACID be written?
BMO, EOQ, HQS, ?
(A) 1394
(A) KSU
(B) IC94
(B) LMN
(C) BDJE
(C) SOV
(D) SOW (D) None of these
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30. If the animalswhich can walk are called 34. Find the missing character.
'swimmers', animals who crawl are
called 'flying', those living in water are 2 5 10
called 'snakes' and those which fly in
17 ? 37
the sky are called 'hunters', then what
will a lizard be called? 50 65 82
(A) Swimmers
(8) Snakes (A) 20 (8) 26
(C) Flying (C) 27 (D) 32
(D) Hunters
35. Find the missing term.
31. The age of a father is twice that of the 1,4,27,16, ?,36,343
elder son. Ten years hence the age of (A) 25 (8) 87
the father will be three times that of the
(C) 120 (D) 125
younger son. If the difference of ages
of the two sons is 15 years, the age of 36. C 4 X, F 9 U, 116 R, ?
the father is
(A) K 25 P (8) L25 P
(A) 50 years (8) 55 years
(C) L 250 (D) L27 P
(C) 60 years (D) 70 years
37. Moon : Satellite : : Earth: ?
32. Find the missing character.
(A) Sun
5
(8) Planet
4
(C) Solar system
64,-~~-8 (D) Asteroid
? 2
38. 6:18::4:?
25
(A) 2 (8) 6
(A) 1 (8) 2
(C) 8 (D) 16
(C) 3 (D) 4
39. A8CD : NPRT : : FGHI : ?
33. Find the missing character. (A) KLMN (8) OQRT
(C) RTUW (D) SUWY
'~'~?~ 40. Cyclone is related to anticyclone in the
12 15
4
same way as Flood is related to
(A) 2 (8) 6 (A) Devastation (8) Havoc
(C) 8 (D) 64
(C) River (D) Drought
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MKG-XXlllrrECHMAl1 T/03 IIIIIIUI11m 1m 11111011111111 nlll~IIIIIIIIIIIII~U 111111111111IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIImllili UII
iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
41 . If
sinS+cosS
. S
%
S = 3 then the value of
46. In a group of students, 100 students
know Hindi, 50 know English and
sin -cas
. 25 know both. Each student knows
7tanS+2
either Hindi or English. The number of
2tanS+ 7 is
1 students in the group is
(A) 1 (8) 3 (A) 100 (8) 175
(C) 125 (0) none of these
1
(C) 2 (0) ·2
47. The longest side of a triangle is
42. In an examination, there are 3 multiple 3 times the shortest side and third side
choice questions and each question is 2 ern shorter than the longest side. If
has 4 choices. Number of ways in which the perimeter of the triangle is atleast
a student can fail to get all answers
correct is 61 ern, then the minimum length of the
(A) 11 (8) 12 shortest side will be
(C) 27 (0) 63 (A) 10 cm (8) 9 cm
43. A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. (C) 3 cm (0) none of these
The probability of getting a king or a
heart or a red card is 48. Walking at 4 kmph a student reaches his
school 5 minutes late and if he walks
1
(8) 4 1
at 5 kmph he reaches 22" minutes
(0) none of these early. The distance between his school
and house is
1 1 1
44. Value of 32 x 34 x 38 x ..... up to infinity (A) 2 km (8) 2.5 km
is (C) 3 km (0) none of these
(A) 1 (8) 3
(C) 2 (0) 9 49. A solid in which a cone is standing on
a hemisphere with both their radii being
45. The income of a person is Rs. 3,00,000
equal to 1 cm and the height of the cone
in the first year and he receives an
increase of Rs. 10,000 to his income is equal to its radius. The volume of the
per year for the next 19 years. The total solid in terms of rt is
amount, he received in 20 years is
21t
(A) Rs. 80,00,000 (A) 1tcm3 (8) -cm3
3
(8) Rs. 79,00,000
(C) Rs. 82,00,000 41t 1t
(C) -cm3 (0) -cm3
(0) None of these 3 3
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MKG-XXmrrECHMAl1 T/03 I 111111111m 11II1I111111111111111I1111I1111II1111111g~ 11111111111~IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII~IIIIIIIII
50. A kite is flying'at a height of 60 m above 55. . If 4x = 5Y = 20z then z =
the ground. The string attached to the x +Y
(A) xy (8)
kite is temporarily tied to a point on the xy
ground. The inclination of the string with
the ground is 60°. The length. of the 1 xy
string, assuming-that there is no slack (C) xy (D) x +y
in the string, is
Tt
(A) 60 m 56. The value of J sin x cos" x dx =
3
-Tt
(8) 40.[3 m
(A) 7th
(C) 30.[3 m
(D) none of these (C) 0 (D) none of these
51. Two consecutive positive integers, sum 57. Mr. 8ean spends twice as much in
December as in each of the other
of whose squares is 365 are,
months. What part of his entire years
(A) 13, 14 (8) 12, 13 spendings does he spend in December?
(C) 10, 35 (D) none of these
(A) Ye (8) 71'4
52_ The number of 3 digit numbers divisible
by 7 is (C) 5<3 (D) none of these
(A) 100 (8) 200 58. The number of revolutions a toy wheel of
(C) 70 (D) 128 28 cms in diameter makes in travelling a
53. An electronic device beeps after every
distance of 880 cms is (use 7t = 2:)
60 seconds. Another device beeps
after every 62 seconds. They beeped (A) 100 (8) 88
together at 10.31 a.m. The time when (C) 50 (D) 10
they beep together at the earliest is
59. If 80 is divided into 2 parts such that
(A) 11.02 a.m. (8) 10.52 a.m. their product is maximum then the
2 parts are
(C) 11.31 a.m. (D) none of these (A) 25,55 (8) 35,45
(C) 40,40 (D) 15,65
54. The recurring decimal 0.2111 ..... can be
expressed in the rational form as 60. If a sum of money doubles itself in 8 yrs
at a certain rate of simple interest then
21 19 the number of years required to triple
(A) 100 (8) 90 itself is
211 19 (A) 24 years (8) 16 years
(C) 1000 (D) 99 (C) 12 years (D) none of these
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M KG-XXIIIITECH MAl1 T/03 11111111111111111111111111
~IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII~ IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII~IIIIIIIII
v) English Language and Comprehension
~cqm3iR~
Identify the tense of the given sentences. Punctuate the sentence.
81. They are going to Pune tomorrow. 86. Ketan said to his mother what weather
(A) Simple present this heat has really exhausted me.
(A) Ketan said to his mother, what
(8) Present continuous
weather this heat has really
(C) Present perfect continuous exhausted me.
(0) Past tense (8) Ketan said to his mother, "what
weather, this heat has really
82. The gates had closed before he exhausted me
reached.
(C) Ketan said to his mother, 'What
(A) Simple past weather! This heat has really
(8) Present perfect exhausted me.'
(C) Past perfect (0) None of the above
(0) Simple future
87. 'I am sorry I forgot the parcel,
83. The seminar begins tomorrow. (A) 'I am sorry i forgot the parcel
(A) Simple present (8) 'I am sorry, I forgot the parcel.'
(8) Simple past (C) 'I am sorry I forgot the parcel'
(C) Present perfect (0) 'I am sorry i forgot the parcel'
(0) Past perfect Select a compound sentence from the
following.
Change the voice of the following sentences.
88. (A) You must take special classes or
84. "Farmers grow wheat". you'll not learn French.
(A) Wheat is being grown by farmers. (8) He is respected for his honesty.
(8) Wheat has been grown by farmers. (C) It is too hot to play outside.
(C) Wheat is grown by farmers. (0) Rita is the girl who is an excellent
(0) None of the above swimmer.
85. 'We were alarmed at the news". 89. (A) I can prove that he is a liar.
(A) The news alarmed us. (8) He got the money he wanted.
(8) The news alarm us. (C) He is a liar and I can prove it.
(C) The news is alarmed us. (0) She has lost the book she borrowed
(0) The news was alarmed us. yesterday.
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Text of page 17
Imlm WI~~II nalmum lUll 111m IR I~1111 ~llln1IIImi00III MKG-XXIlIITECHMAl1T/03
90. Select the sentence which is in positive 95. Lata when she saw everyone
degree. laughing at her.
(A) He does not love you as much as I. (A) broke down
(8) He is the richest man. (8) broke off
(C) She is a better singer than me. (C) broke into
(D) It is easier to speak than to act. (D) broke up
Use appropriate articles. 96. It was past midnight when he finally
91. milk in this pot is meant (A) turned out
for children.
(8) turned up
(A) A
(C) turned on
(8) An
(D) turned off
(C) The
(D) Not needed Select the synonym of the words in capital.
92 . I am gOI'ngto ------- hospital to VI'SI't 97. DETRACT
a friend. (A) Derogate
(A) a (8) Desert
(8) an (C) Deceive
(C) the (D) Desperate
(D) not needed
98. FILCH
Choose the mostappropriateword from the set
of words given undereach sentenceto fill inthe (A) frugal
blank. (8) ruin
93. It was difficult to see through the __ (C) steal
of the headlights.
(D) diminish
(A) shine (8) glare
(C) dazzle (D) strode Select the antonym of the words in capital.
Use appropriate phrasal verb to fill in the 99. IMPERIOUS
blanks. (A) commanding
94. The thief broke into the bank and (8) autocratic
_______ with the cash. (C) dominant
(A) made up (D) modest
(8) made away 100. PIQUANT
(C) made on (A) pert (8) salty
(D) made into (C) bland (D) zingy
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Text of page 18
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SECTION - B
Post Specific Subject - Related Questions
101. Which of the following principledescribes 106. Machinery account debited for an
"Anticipate no profits, provide for all amount of repair Charges is referred
possible losses"? as
(A) Accrual (A) Errors of principle
(8) Matching (8) Compensating error
(C) Conservatism (C) Errors of omission
(0) Consistency (0) Errors of commission
102. Which one of the following statements 107. Not making adequate provisions for
is true? expenses and potential losses would
(A) Costs are matched with result in
revenues. (A) Accurate accounts
(8) Revenues are matched with (8) Cost concept
Costs.
(C) Window dressing
(C) Costs are matched with costs. (0) Window provisions
(0) None of the above
108. Profit and Loss Account is prepared on
103. Sources of funds = Uses of funds, this (A) Cash basis
formula is indicated by
(8) Accrual basis
(A) Fund Flow Statement
(C) Revenue basis
(B) Balance Sheet
(0) Cost basis
(C) Profit and Loss Statement
(0) Cash Flow Statement 109. Techniques and process of determining
cost of a product manufactured or
104. Cash book is a record of service rendered is known as
(A) All receipts of cash (A) Cost Accounting
(8) Cash and credit transactions (8) Management Accounts
(C) All receipts and payments of cash (C) Cost
(0) All payments of cash (0) Costing
105. Sales book is a subsidiary book used 110. Which one of the following is not a
to record all sale of goods on technique of costing?
(A) Cash (A) Standard costing
(8) Credit (8) Absorption costing
(C) Cash and Credit (C) Process costing
(0) None of these (0) Uniform costing
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Text of page 20
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111. Cost of prim~ry packing materials is 116. The percentage analysis of increases
(A) Direct material cost and decreases in corresponding items
(B) Direct expenses in comparative financial statements is
known as
(C) Overheads
(A) Vertical analysis
(D) Factory overhead
(B) Horizontal analysis
112. Cost of selecting one course of action (C) Trend analysis
in terms of the opportunities which are
(D) Ratio analysis
given up to carry out that course of
action 117. Adjusting entry is required in case of
(A) Sunk cost (A) Goods sold for cash
(B) Relevant cost
(B) Paid cash to debtors
(C) Opportunity cost
(C) Purchased assets
(D) Differential cost
(D) Depreciation on assets
113. Which one of the following is not a use
118. Linking of revenues and expenses of an
of working capital ?
accounting period to the timing of cash
(A) Declaration of cash dividend flow is known as
(B) Purchase of non-current assets
(A) Accrual basis
(C) Repayment of long term debt
(B) Cash basis
(D) Issue of equity shares
(C) Realisation concept
114. Which of the following transactions (D) Matching concept
affect current account and do not result
in flow of fund?
119. One of the following is a deferred
revenue expenditure
(A) Bills receivable collected
(A) Cost of developing mines
(B) Goods purchased for cash
(B) Cost of purchase of machinery
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Cost of manufacturing a product
(D) None of these
(D) Cost of goods sold
115. Redeemable preference shares
redeemed 120. A Balance Sheet reveals
(A) Decrease the working capital (A) Resource structure of a business
(B) Increase the working capital (B) Financial structure of a business
(C) No effect on working capital (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Change the working capital (D) None of these
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MKG-XXIIIITECHMAl1 T/03 IIIIIM1m1m 111~llmIUIIIl~IIDIII ~~D~111M Ii un !IIII WI~II
121. The scope of audit is governed by 127. Inquiry into facts behind the books of
(A) Terms of engagement accounts, into the technical, financial
(8) Relevant statutory provisions and economic position of the business
(C) Institute pronouncements is known as
(D) All of these (A) Investigation
(8) Performance Audit
122. Fraud involves
(C) VOUChing
(A) Errors of commission
(D) Management Audit
(8) Errors of omission
(C) Misappropriation of assets 128. Failure to perform the fundamental duty
(D) Errors of principles cast upon the auditor is known as
(A) Carelessness
123. Audit evidence is obtained through
(8) Gross negligence
(A) Valuation (8) Inspection
(C) Negligence
(C) Investigation (D) Measurement
(D) Fraud
124. Risk of misstatement in a control free
situation is known as 129. One of the following is not a problem of
(A) Control risk an economy
(8) Inherent risk (A) What to produce?
(C) Detection risk (8) How to produce?
(D) Material risk (C) For whom to produce?
(D) Where to produce?
125. Examination, review and appraisal
of various policies and actions of 130. Improved methods or machinery which
management is known as are available to the whole industry is an
(A) Internal audit example for
(8) Operational audit (A) Internal economies
(C) Management audit (8) Economies of scale
(D) Statutory audit (C) External economies
126. Profits made from business which (D) Spread economy
has been purchased and before,
the certificate of commencement of 131. The value of next best alternative that
business has been granted to the is sacrificed to go with another decision
company is known as is known as
(A) Net profit (A) Opportunity cost
(8) Divisible profit (8) Alternative cost
(C) Free profit (C) Sunk cost
(D) Capital profit (D) Scrap cost
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132. A firm which .operates at the lowest 137. Macroeconomic aspects concerned
point of long run average cost curve-of with institutional structure of a financial
production is known as decision involve
(A) Maximum firm (A) Financial intermediaries
(B) Optimum firm (B) Customers
(C) Efficient firm (C) Production system
(D) Super firm (D) Competitors
133. Government intervention in economy is 138. The primary principle of economics
needed, because applied to financial management is
(A) To correct failure of market (A) Time value of money
economy (B) Marginal analysis
(B) To give equity and justice to (C) Opportunity cost
people (D) Realisation concept
(C) To provide public good
139. One of the following is not a major
(D) All of these
financial management decision.
134. Antitrust laws (A) Investment
(A) Prevent merger (B) Financing
(B) Promote competition (C) Budgeting
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Dividend policy
(D) None of these 140. The discount rate that reflects time and
risk preferences of suppliers of capital
135. When an economic unit creates benefits
is also known as
for the other members of the society
(A) Time rate
with anything in return is known as
(B) Risk rate
(A) External economies
(C) Interest rate
(B) Internal economies
(D) Capitalisation rate
(C) External diseconomies
(D) Economic losses 141. Possibility of default by anyone party
to the forward contract transaction is
136. One of the feature of Public goods is known as
(A) Presence of competition (A) Future risk
(B) Exclusive in consumption (B) Counter risk
(C) Non-rival in consumption (C) Counter party risk
(D) Enjoyed by few (D) Liquidity risk
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142. A future contract that gives its owners 147. Sale of securities to the existing
the right to buy or sell underlying shares shareholders is known as
is known as (A) Rights issue
(A) Options (B) Bonus issue
(B) Share options (C) Placing securities
(C) Stock futu res (D) Public issue
(D) Dividend futures
148. The stated price at which a bond may be
143. Price of stock futures when no dividend repurchased by the use of a call feature
expected prior to maturity is known as
(A) Spot price (A) Call premium
(B) Spot price x Cost of carry (B) Call price
(C) Cost of future (C) Future call
(D) Cost of financing (D) Put premium
A behavioural approach that uses a 149. A compound statementof two statements
144.
will be true if either of them is true or
number of possible values for a given
both are true is known as
variable to assess its impact on firm's
returns is known as (A) Compounding
(A) Sensitivity analysis (B) Comprehension
(B) Simulation analysis (C) Disjunction
(C) Behavioural analysis (D) Dysfunction
(D) Impact analysis 150. A set containing only one element is
called
145. convert direct financial
(A) Empty set (B) Null set
assets into indirect securities.
(C) Void set (D) Singleton
(A) Financial markets
(B) Brokers 151. Xm x xn x Xp is equal to
(C) Financial intermediaries (A) Xm+n+p (B) Xmnp
(D) Stock exchanges (C) Xmnp (D) X
146. The work of investigation and analysis 152. Groups which can be made by taking
and processing of new issue proposals some or all of things at a time are known
of shares is known as as
(A) New issue (A) Permutations
(B) Organisation (B) Combination
(C) Underwriting (C) Set
(D) Origination (D) Matrix
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153. Judicial declsions or precedents are 158. The President of National Consumer
called Commission is or has been a Judge of
(A) Custom laws Supreme Court appointed by
(A) Supreme Court Chief Justice
(8) Case laws
(8) Central Government
(C) Statute laws
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Common laws
(D) Ministry of Consumer Affairs
154. A transport company running a bus in 159. Foreign currency held up to for
a particular route is to carry the personal use is exempted in India.
passengers for a fare. (A) Rs. 2,000 (8) US$ 2000
(A) Express offer (C) US$ 5000 (D) Rs. 50,000
(8) Tender offer
160. One of the following is not classified as
(C) Implied offer a Internet fraud.
(D) General offer (A) Illegal activities on the Internet
(8) Credit card frauds
155. When the parties to the contract not
(C) Hacking and Cracking
aware of law and done something which
(D) Altering digital information
ought not to done is called
(A) Fraud 161. Digital Signature is legally recognised
(8) Ignorance according to __ Section of Information
Technology Act, 2000.
(C) Mistake of fact
(A) 4 (8) 5
(D) Mistake of law (C) 6 (D) 7
156. Actual or threatened violence over the 162. Find the false statement with reference
contracting party or related ones to to Competition Act, 2002.
obtain consent is called (A) It encourages fair competition
(A) Duress (8) Prohibits negative trade practices
(8) Undue influence (C) It established CCI
. (C) Fraud (D) It punishes the competitors
(D) Mistake
163. Sale of goods or provision of services
157. Find the false statement with reference at a price below the cost as determined
by provisions, with view to reduce
to patents.
competitions is known as
(A) Gives right over ones inventions
(A) Minimum Retail Price
(8) Gets right to sell (8) Predatory Price
(C) Can be licensed for consideration (C) Maximum Retail Price
(D) Non-transferrable (D) Dominator Price
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164. The tenure of Chairpersonof Competition 169. Section 80 DDB of Income Tax Act
Commission of India shall be relates to deduction in respect of
(A) 5 Years (A) Medical treatment
(B) 6 Years (B) Education loan interest
(C) 4 Years (C) Mediclaim insurance premium
(D) As decided by Central (D) Donation to PMNRF
Government
170. Deduction in Respect of Contribution
165. Income Tax Laws in India covers Given by any Person to Political Parties
or an Electoral Trust is covered under
(A) Income Tax Act
Section of Income Tax Act.
(B) Income Tax Rules
(A) 80 G
(C) Finance Act (B) 80GG
(D) All of the above
(C) 80GGC
166. The rates of Income Tax are fixed by (D) 80GGB
(A) Finance Act
171. One of the following is a capital asset.
(B) Income Tax Act
(A) Circulating asset
(C) Income Tax Rules (B) Gold
(D) None of these (C) Jewellery
167. Any casual emolument or benefit (D) Rural agricultural land
attached to an office or position in
172. One of the following is treated as
addition to salary or wages is known
agricultural income according to Income
as Tax Act.
(A) Allowance
(A) Income from beehiving
(B) Office expenses (B) Income from dairy farming
(C) Perquisites (C) Income from sale of replanted
(D) None of these trees
(D) Income from poultry farming
168. Transaction where securities are
sold sometime before the due date of 173. A strategy used to converting loss
interest and reacquired after the due making unit into profitable one is known
date is over is known as as
(A) Less tax securities (A) Turnaround strategy
(B) Tax avoiding transactions (B) Profitability strategy
(C) Bond washing transaction (C) Diversification strategy
(D) Tax free transactions (D) Business level strategy
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174. When a business continuously suffered 178. A temporary network of independent
loss and all efforts have failed to make organisations that came together to
it profitable again the strategy needed exploit opportunities is known as
is (A) Virtual Company
(A) Divestment· (8) Virtual Organisation
(8) Diversification (C) Viral Organisation
(C) Intensification (D) Virtual Entity
(D) Liquidation
179. The occurrence of a sudden or major
175. Debt - Equity Swap is a method of misfortune which disrupts the basic
(A) Divestment fabric and normal functioning of a
(8) Financial Restructuring society or community is known as
(C) Capital Budgeting (A) Risk
(D) Portfolio Restructuring (B) Disaster
(C) Uncertainty
176. Diversification into such areas or
products, which are indirectly related (D) Bad Luck
to its existing line of business, is known
180. Collaboration between two or more of
as
the same industry is known as
(A) Horizontal Diversification
(A) Horizontal Strategic Alliance
(8) Vertical Diversification
(8) Vertical Strategic Alliance
(C) Concentric Diversification
(C) Horizontal Business Alliance
(D) None of these
(D) Vertical Business Alliance
177. A formal system of gathering, integrating,
comparing and analyzing and dispersing 181. A refined system of financial reporting
information internal and external to the which is going to benefit all the
enterprise in a timely effective and stakeholders in the coming years,
efficient manner is known as together with improved corporate
(A) Management Information governance and increased free flow of
Systems capital across the globe is known as
(B) Management Communication (A) IFRS
Systems (B) IASB
(C) Management Systems (C) ICAI
(D) Information Systems (D) IAS
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182. If the holding' company purchases the 187. Budgeted contribution divided by
shares of the subsidiary company at a budgeted sales multiplied by 100 will
price more than their paid up value, the give
excess is known as (A) Budgeted margin ratio
(A) Capital Reserve (B) Budgeted contribution ratio
(B) Goodwill (C) Budgeted cost ratio
(C) Capital Profit (D) Budgeted profit volume ratio
(D) Holding Cost
188. The differentialcosts which are important
183. One of the differences between IFRS in replace or retain decisions are
and Indian GAAP is (A) Change in fixed overhead costs
(A) Revenue recognition (B) Loss on sale of old equipments
(B) Depreciation (C) Capital investments
(C) Inventory valuation (D) All of these
(D) Valuation of property and plant
189. The net income of a division, less the
184. Fair Value Measurement is explained imputed capital charge on the assets
in used by that division is called
(A) IFRS 12 (A) Residual income
(B) IFRS 10 (B) Capital profit
(C) IFRS 13 (C) Divisional income
(D) IFRS 08 (D) Imputed profit
185. Fixed cost divided by Contribution 190. Maximum rate minus average rate of
margin per unit would give consumption multiplied by lead time
(A) Break even sales units would give
(B) Break even sales volume (A) Maximum stock level
(C) Break even profits (B) Safety stock level
(D) Cash break even point (C) Average stock level
(D) Danger stock level
186. If the increase in profit is Rs. 4,20,000
and increase in sales is Rs. 15,00,000, 191. The Goods and Services Tax was
than break even sales would be launched in India on
(A) 28% (A) 30-06-2017
(B) Rs. 50,00,000 (B) 27-03-2017
(C) 72% (C) 12-04-2017
(D) None of these (D) 30-03-2017
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192. The supplier 'of goods or services or 196. The method of depreciation which helps
both having the same PAN as that of to replace the asset is
Input Service Distributor is known as (A) Diminishing Balance Method
(A) Giver of credit (B) Annuity Method
(C) Double Method
(B) Recipient of credit
(D) Sinking Fund Method
(C) Sponsor of credit
(D) Input creditor 197. Ifthere istransactionbetweentwo entities
called associate enterprises,
will be computed for income tax
193. Supply made by a taxable person to
purposes.
a recipient consisting of two or more
(A) Resale Price
taxable supplies of goods or services or
(B) Minimum Retail Price
both or any combination thereof bundled (C) Dealer Price
in the normal course of business, one (D) Arms Length Price
of which is a principal supply is known
as 198. means circumstances in which
income tax authorities shall accept the
(A) Combined supply transfer price declared by assessee,
(B) GST supply without going into details of ALP.
(A) Safety rules
(C) Composite goods
(B) Safe harbour rules
(D) Composite supply
(C) Safe transfer rules
194. In one of the following cases GST (D) None of the above
registration is not compulsory 199. Expand GAAR in the context of
(A) Input Service Distributor international taxation
(A) Generally Accepted Accounting
(B) E-Commerce Operator
Rules
(C) Non resident taxable persons (B) Generally Accepted Avoidance
making taxable supplies Rules
(D) Agriculturist to the extent of produce (C) General Anti Avoidance Rules
from cultivable land (D) General Anti Attraction Rules
200. Section of the Income Tax
195. Accounting Standard 06 deals with
Act provide for agreements between
(A) Inventory valuation Government of India and any Country
outside India for granting relief
(B) Depreciation
in respect of Income earned outside.
(C) Balance sheet (A) 90 (B) 70
(D) Profit statement (C) 60 (D) 95
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
~~$~~
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M K G- XX IllITE C H M Al1 T 103 1IIIIIIIIIImIIIIIIIII~I RIIIIII~IIIIRIIIIIIIIIIIII ~~Illfil R~III ~llm 1II11~llm1111
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
3uft~cU{i~~ q~~,*,i~
13. This booklet contains 40 pages. 13. ~ ~ -q 40 iNr t I
14. Directions: Each question or incomplete 14. ~ :~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~
statement is followed by four alternative ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ I~ ~
suggested answers or completions. In each -q 31J1f<it fctim q:;l ~ "it
case, you are required to select the one that ~ '!'f11 t: ~ CfiT~ ~
correctly answers the question or completes the ~~ ~ q:;l ~ eR 3fll: 31J1f<it ~ ~ -q
statement and blacken (e) appropriate circle ~ ln~Itf>1{ ~ A, B, C <:IT D q:;l;fR;n <:IT"Cf)fffi
A, B, C or D by Blue / Black Ball-Point Pen ~_~ t-r-a "Cf)fffi (e) CfiBT t I (~auR«r
againstthe question concerned in the Answer
Sheet. (For V.H. candidates corresponding 3¥Omqcml cfi ~ ~1TIf 1llmq:;n ~ ID"U
circle will be blackened by the scribe) cnwrr~~)
15. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate 15. ~ w-l ~ ~ ~ <[if cr;r ~~iCfl'i ~ 3llHT
circle against each question. The circle
~~ I "¥~~~~~~~ifCf;a ~ I
should be shaded completely without leaving
any space. The correct method of shading is ~~ifCf;aCfR cr;r~ ~ ~ ~ Tf<n t I
given below.
---,
I ~~~~
I ~~~~
I
The Candidate must mark his/her response ~ q:;l 31'RT ~ t41'l'{.4tf> ~ fcRm: ~ ~
I after careful consideration.
I ~CfiBT~ I
I 16. There is only one correct answer to each
I
16. ~ ~ CfiT ~ ~ m~ ~ t I 31J1f<it
question. You should blacken (e) the circle of ~ cffi;m ~ A, B, C <:IT D ~ ln~ 1tf>1{m
I the appropriate column, viz., A, B, C or D. If
__ -l q:;l "Cf)fffi (e) CfiBT t I <rR: 3lN fctim -w.:r ~ wR
you blacken (e) more than one circle against
anyone question, the answer will be treated ~ -a ~ l n~ 1tf>1{m -tt>T ~ (e) err3ll'ltt>T
as wrong. ~~11RT~1
17. In case of any discrepancy between the 17. <rR: fctim ~ ~ ~ om ~ ~ -ij ~
English and Hindi versions of any question, 3Tcn:terr~~q:;lm~~~ I
the English version will be treated as final!
authentic.
18. Use the space for rough work given in the 18. ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ -w.:r -q;r -ij ~ ~ ~ CfiT
Question Booklet only and not on the Answer meR 1~~"<R~~~eR I
Sheet.
19. You are NOT required to mark your answers 19. ~~~~~"3'ffi~~~~1
in this Booklet All answers must be indicated "3'ffi~"3'ffi ~.q ~ ~I
in the Answer Sheet only.
Go through instructions given in Page No.1 (Facing Page)
-40-Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 40
Source: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board. Question paper published by Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board.