DSSSB 2019: 1 September, Technical Assistant
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MKG-XXIlITECHTAl1T/05
Write here Roll Number and Answer Sheet No.
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Time Allowed: 2 hours OBJECTIVE TYPE TIER-ONE EXAMINATION Maximum Marks: 200
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following Sections'
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No. of Page
Sections Test Components (3'1) i) ~ ~ 20 2-5 ~
Questions No.
ii)~~<lm
(A) i) General Awareness 20 2-5
ii) General Intelligenceand ~~ 20 6-11 tr E(
iii)
Reasoning Ability
Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
20
20
6-11
12-15
iii) ~v.ci~~ 20 12-15 ~!;
iv) Hindi Language and Comprehension 20 16-17 iv) ~ 1W!T 3fu: oitt< 20 16-17 tt: tr
v) EnglishLanguageand Comprehension 20 18-19 v) 3W;;ft 'IfI1!IT 3fu: oOt:! 20 18-1 9 ~ ~
(B) Post Specific Subject-Related (Of) ~~~-lfaitft>rR 20-45
i
100
Questions 100 20-45
l
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read carefully before actually answering the questions.
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12. No Rough Work is to be done on the Answer Sheet. 12. ~~'i6Ff~~~;r@~t I tt
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Go through instructions given in Page No. ~ (Back Cover Page)
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MKG-XXllrreCHT Al1 T/OS IlmlliglilllllJg~UIIWIOIIIII!lIlIllIlillmH~llIIlImIHllllllllmgll
SECTION-A
i) General Awareness
1. Mangifera indica is the scientific name 5. ____ is the capital of Bhutan.
of which of the following? (A) Katmandu
(A) Mango (B) Banana (B) Lhasa
(C) Mustard (0) Neem (C) Oarjiling
(0) Thimphu
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MKG-XXIlITECHT Al1 T/05 IUmllllmIWI~UIIIIIIII~~I~III~IIWU~~IIIIII~IUIIIIIIIII~111
10. Which country recently withdrew from the 16. India launched its Chandrayaan .
Paris Climate Agreement of 2015? Mission II on -
(A) Germany
(A) 21 June 2019
(B) Kingdom of Tonga
(C) United States of America (B) 26 July 2019
(D) South Sudan (C) 22 July 2019
(D) 20 July 2019
11. India established diplomatic relations
with the State of Israel in which year? 17. Which High Court has the jurisdiction over
(A) 1948 (B) 196~
the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(C) 1988 (D) 1992
(A) Madras
12. is the current National (B) Culcutta
Security Advisor (NSA) of India. (C) Kerala
(A) Shivashankar Menon
(D) Andh ra Pradesh
(B) Ajit Doval
(C) Brajesh Mishra
18. Name the current Chairman of
(D) M.K. Narayanan
Rajya Sabha.
13. Which Indian Act allows the National (A) am Birla
Investigation Agency to designate' an (8) Venkiah Naidu
individual as a terrorist?
(C) Sumitra Mahajan
(A) POTA (B) TADA
(C) UAPA (D) Hamid Ansari
(D) NOTA
14. What is the name of the scheme 19. The Mercalli scale is used to measure
announced by the Prime Minister Modi which of the following?
in 2019 for Water Conservation and (A) The magnitude of Earthquake
Household Pipeline Supply?
(8) The average rainfall of a region
(A) PM Jal Abhiyan
(C) The intensity of Earthquake
(B) Jal Shakti Mission
(C) Jal Jeevan Mission (D) The density of water
(D) Jal Nidhi Mission
20. The UNSC Resolution 1267 was in the
15. The 123 Agreement is the civil nuclear news recently is related to
agreement between India and which (A) Climate Change Accord
country ?
(B) Designate Masood Azhar as a
(A) Australia
(B) Japan global terrorist
(C) United States of America (C) Peace and Stability in Africa
(D) Russia (D) Children in armed conflict
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MKG-XXIIITECHT Al1 T/05 Iglllllllllllill HI nlll gllill umIIIMI.IIIIIIIIIIIIII~IIII~ RII IIHIII II 111111m1111
ii) General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
21. Two clocks are set correctly at 9 a.m. 24. Statements: All players are doctors.
on Monday. Both the clocks gain 3 Some doctors are actors.
min. and 5 min. respectively in an
Conclusions: I. Some doctors are
hour. What time will the second clock
register, if the first clock which gains 3 players as well as
min. in an hour shows the time as 27 actors.
min. past 6 p.m. on the same day?
II. All actors are doctors.
(A) 6:27 p.m. (B) 6:45 p.m.
(A) Only Conclusion I follows
(C) 6:25 p.m. (0) 6:50 p.m.
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
22. Arun said, "This girl is the wife of the
grandson of my mother". Who is Arun to
(C) Either I or II follows
the girl ? (0) Neither I nor II follows
(A) Father
(B) Grandfather 25. While facing East you turn to your left
(C) Husband and walk 10 yards. Then, turn to your
(0) Father-in-law teft and walk 10 yards and now turn
45° to your right and go straight to
23. Study the following information cover 50 yards. Now, in what direction
carefully to answer the question.
are you with respect to the starting
i. Eight friends A, B, C, 0, E, F, G and
point?
H are seated in a circle facing the
(A) North-East
centre.
(B) North
ii. 0 is between Band G and F is
(C) South-East
between A and H.
iii. E is second to the right of A. (0) North-West
Then, which of the following is A's 26. If 1st October is Sunday, then 1st
position? November will be
(A) Left of F (A) Monday
(B) Right of F (B) Tuesday
(C) Between E and F (C) Wednesday
(0) Cannot be determine (0) Thursday
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MKG-XXIlITECHT AllT/05 11111I11~ml~I~II~IIIII~IIRIIII~IIIIIIIII~II~~mllmmllllllm~II
27. Three persons A, Band Care 30. Vikas is more, competent than Keshav,
standing in a queue. There are five Shiv is less competent than Ashu but
persons between A and B and eight
more competent than Keshav. Vikas is
persons between Band C. If there
less competent than Shiv. Who is the
are three persons ahead of C and
most competent in the group?
21 behind A, then what could be the
(A) Ashu
minimum number of persons in the
(B) Keshav
queue?
(A) 27 (C) Vikas
(B) 28
(C) 40 (D) 41 (D) Shiv
28. If a meaningful word beginning with B 31. 'Pen' is related to 'Pencil' in the same way
can be formed from HACEB, then the as 'Hockey' is related to
fourth letter of that word is (A) Football (B) Ground
(A) A (C) Team (D) Players
(B) C 32. In a family, there are six members A, B,
(G) E C, D, E and F. A and B are a married
couple, A being the male member. D is
(D) None of these the only son of C, who is the brother of A.
E is the sister of D. B is the daughter-
29. Mahu goes 40 km North, turns right and in-law of F, whose husband has died.
Then who is C to B?
goes 80 km, turns right again and goes
(A) Brother (8) Brother-in-law
30 km. In the end, he turns right again
(C) Nephew (D) Son-in-law
and goes 80 km. How far is he from his
starting point if he goes straight ahead 33. Five girls are sitting in a row. Kalpitha
another 50 km and turns left to go his is to the left of Mridula. Megha is to
last 10 km ? the right of Arpana. Sangeetha is in
the middle of Megha and Kalpitha.
(A) 30 km
Who among the following is to the
(B) 35 km
extreme right of the row ?
(C) 40 km (A) Mridula (B) Arpana
(D) 50 km (C) Kalpitha (D) Sangeetha
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MKG-XXIlITECHT Al1T/05 IIIl II11111I ~IIIIIIIIIWIIIIIII~IIIII~ IIIIIIIIIIIIII~I
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34. In a certain code language, 'si po re' 38. Choose the correct alternative that will
means 'book is thick', 'ti na re' means continue the same pattern.
'bag is heavy', 'ka si' means 'interesting 1,3,4,8,15,27, ?
book' and 'de ti' means 'that bag'. What
(A) 37 (B) 44
should stand for 'that is interesting' in
(C) 50 (D) 55
that code language?
(A) ka de re (B) ti po ka 39. In a. garden,
,
there are 10 rows and
(C) ka re na (D) de si re 12 columns of mango trees. The
distance between the two trees is
35. In a certain code, BASIC is written as 2 meters and a distance of one meter is
DDULE. How is LEADER written in
left from all sides of the boundary of the
that code?
garden. The length of the garden is
(A) NGCFGT (A) 20 m (B) 22 m
(B) NHCGGU (C) 24 m (D) 26 m
(C) OGDFHT
40. i. Five friends P, Q, R, Sand T travelled to
(D) OHDGHU
five diHerentcities of Chennai, Koikata,
36. If Thursday was the day after the day Delhi, Bangalore and Hyderabad by
different modes of transport of Bus,
before yesterday five days ago, what
Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from
is the least number of days ago when
Mumbai.
Sunday was three days before the day
ii. The person who travelled to Delhi did
after tomorrow?
not travel by boat.
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Five iii. R wentto Bangalore bycarand Q went
to Kolkata by aeroplane.
37. If in the word DISTURBANCE, the first iv. S travelled by boat whereas T travelled
letter is interchanged with the last letter, by train.
the second letter is interchanged with
v. Mumbai is not connected by bus to
the tenth letter and so on, which letter Delhi and Chennai.
would come after 'T' in the newly formed
Then, which of the following combinations
word?
of person and mode is not correct?
(A) (B) N (A) P-Bus (B) Q-Aeroplane
(C) S (D) U
(C) R-Car (D) T-Aeroplane
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MKG-XXllrrECHT Al1T/05 11111111
~m~II~ 1IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIImii g~ IIIIIII~ 1111"gll IIII 111mI IIgl III III
iii) Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
1 46. If T is the set of all triangles in the
xdx =
41. J tr:»2
o "\'1 + x Euclidean plane and let R be a relation
on T defined as
J22- 1 (8) J2-1 R = {(a, b)/a, bET, a is congruent to b},
(A)
then R is
(C) tan" 2 - % (0) none of these (A) reflexive but not transitive
(8) transitive but not symmetric
42. Let A = {1, 2, 3} and R is a relation (C) equivalence
defined on A as R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (0) none of these
(3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (1, 3)}, then R is
(A) Reflexive but not symmetric
(8)
(C)
Reflexive but not transitive
Symmetric and transitive
47. If A = I~
l3 ~~J 0 0
then matrix A is
.
(0) Neither symmetric nor transitive (A) scalar matrix
43. If n(A) = m, n(8) = n, then the total number (8) diagonal matrix
of non-empty relations from set A to (C) unit matrix
set 8 is
(0) square matrix
(A) m"
(C) mn-1
cosa sinal
48. If A = [ and A' = A-1
-sina COSa
44. The identity element for the binary
then a=
operation * defined on Q - {O} as
(A) 1
a * b = ~b for all a, b E Q - {O} is
(8) 0
(A) 1 (8) 0
(C) ~
(C) 2 (0) 1 (0) any real number
2
45. The domain of the function
49. Let f : R ~ R be a real function defined
X2 + 2x + 1 .
f()x = IS by f(x) = x3 + 5, then f-1 (x) =
x2 -x-6
(A) (X+5)X (8) (X-5)X
(A) R - {3, 2} (8) R - {- 3, 2}
(C) R - {3, - 2} (0) R - (3, - 2) (C) (5-X)X (0) 5- x
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MKG-XXllfTECHT AllT/OS IllIUllllmlml1IIIIIIRIIIIINIII~llnll.III~11111I
50. A bag contains 5 red and 3 blue balls.
56. If A, B are square matrices of same
If 3 balls are drawn at random without order and B'is skew symmetric, then
replacement, the probability of getting A'BAis
exactly one red ball is (A) Symmetric matrix
45 135 (B) Skew symmetric
(A) 196 (B) 392
(C) 15 (0) 15 (C) Neither symmetric nor skew
56 29 symmetric
(0) Null matrix
51. The intercept made by the plane
2x - 3y + 5z + 4 = 0 on the x axis is
(A) - 2 (B) %
(C) -Ys (0) 2
(A) (2,1) (B) (1, 2)
. ydx-xdy
52. The general solution of = 0 .IS (C) (-1,2) (0) (2,-1)
Y
(A) xy = c (B) x = cy2
(C) y = cx a dx
(0) Y = cx2 1t
58. f
If 0 1+ 4x2 = 8 ' then a =
53. Value of tan-1 (sin( -~)) = 1
(A) 1 (B)
2
(A) % (B) -%' (C)
1
2 (0) 0
(C) -% (0) -% rt
59. If sin-1 x + sirr ' y = 2" ' then the value of
54. If jaxtW +ja.tW = 144 and cos' x + cos-1 y =
1 a 1= 4, then I 6 1= (A) 2
1t
(B) 1t
(A) 13 (B) 9
(C) ± 3 (0) 3 21t
(C) 0 (0) 3
55. The maximum value of the determinant
1 1 1
60. If x3'1' = (x + y)9, then dy =
1 1+ sinS 1 dx
=
1 1 t- cosa
(A) Yx (8) X
(A) 1 (B) 1
(C) 2
2
(0) None of these (C) -Yx (0) -X
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MKG-XXIlITECHT Al1T/05 I~IIIIIIIIIIIIIII~ IIIIIIIIIIIII~.IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII~ nlllll~ 111111111011111111111
~II
v) English Language and Comprehension
~~3ffi~
Choose the correct one word substitution for 86. He enquired that
the following: (A) what is my name
81. "That which can't be defeated". (B) what my name is
(A) inexplicable .(C) what was my name
(B) invincible (0) what my name was
(C) incomparable
(0) incredible
Fill in the blanks with suitable idiomatic phrase:
82. "One who knows everything".
(A) ostracize 87. The High Court has the
(B) omniscient order passed by the Trial Court.
(C) omnipotent
(A) set aside
(0) omnipresent
(B) set up
Fill in the blanks with correct word from the (C) .set down
given options :
(0) set in
83. An friend is alway's a
conceited person. 88. There can be no rule for
(A) egotist trust.
(B) egoist
(C) ego (A) null and void
(0) none of the above (B) hard and fast
(C) by and large
84. The State of Rajasthan has _
in western region. (0) to and fro
(A) dessert
(B) dessart Select the sentence which is grammatically
(C) desert correct from the following:
(0) desart
89. (A) He looks as if he was ill.
Complete the sentence with correct option :
(8) He was very kind if rather vain.
85. Book early lest (C) He won both a medal and a
(A) you miss this chance
scholarship.
(B) you don't miss this chance
(C) you shouldn't miss the chance (0) This boy has either stolen my purse
(0) you won't miss the chance or that girl.
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MKG-XXIlITECHT Al1T/05
Complete the sentences using correct form of 96. Consequently he refused to go.
the verb from the given options: (A) Adverb
(B) Pronoun
90. The Chinese printing.
(C) Noun
(A) invented
(B) have invented (0) Adjective
(C) had invented
(0) invent Select correct preposition to fill in the blanks:
91. Linda has lost her passport again, it's 97. We stayed ___ Preetam Nagar.
the second time this to her.
(A) has happened (A) in
(B) happens (B) on
(C) happened
(C) at
(0) none of the above
(0) through
92. I asked the driver to slow down. She
__ too fast.
98. ____ -----'-"
a pencil she wants a
(A) drives
(B) was driving paper.
(C) used to drive (A) Beside
(0) were driving
(B) Besides
93. Ann didn't see me wave to her. She (C) For
____ in the other direction.
(0) Of
(A) look
(B) looks
(C) was looking 99. She will arrive there
(0) had looked 4 O'clock.
(A) by
Select correct option for the underlined words
in the following sentences: (B) on
(C) still
94. It looks as though it might rain.
(A) Noun (0) till
(B) Verb
(C) Conjunction 100. She lives the Circuit House.
(0) Interjunction
(A) on
95. Many were killed in the" accident. (B) up
(A) Noun
(C) below
(B) Adjective
(C) Indefinite pronoun (0) at
(0) Adverb
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MKG-XXllfTECHT Al1T/05 1IIIIIIIm II 11111111111111111111111111111111 DII~IIII RII
SECTION-B
Post Specific Subject - Related au~stiOrTS
101. Which among the following is not a criteria 105. What is the disinfectant recommended
should be considered in formulating a for disinfecting sampling tools?
sampling plan?
(A) Isopropyl alcohol! ethyl alcohol
(A) Method of preparation of food
product (B) Dettol
(B) The degree of hazard to human (C) .Lysol
health
(D) Chlorhexidine
(C) The potential for fraud
(D) Degree of confidence required so 106. Direct contact with rodent-urine
that the test result is valid
contaminated materials should be
102. Choose the correct statement from avoided as much as possible. The
below: moist urine of chronically infected
(A) Objective sampling should not be rodents can contain _
done on a random basis. organisms that may be transmitted
(B) In dealing with selective sampling, to man, contact with bruised skin
random sampling is necessary ..
or mucous membranes being the
(C) Objective sampling is also known suspected mode of transmission.
as selective sampling.
(A) Pasturelia
(D) When lots are contaminated,
adulterated, defective, the FSO or (B) Leptospira
Authorised Officer will. proceed for (C) Clostridium
a biased sampling.
(D) Coliforms
103. Unless otherwise specified, refrigerated
samples should not be analyzed more. 107. The category of analysis for foods should
than hours after collection. be defined according to the requirement
(A) 24 (B) 36 for regulatory or monitoring purpose.
(C) 48 (D) 72 Which among the following category is
useful for the detection of extraneous
104. In case of flour containing live insects,
the sampling method adapted is matter, damaged product in the samples ?
(A) Objective sampling (A) Chemical analysis
(B) Biased sampling (B) Microbial analysis
(C) Sampling using random tables
(C) Physical analysis
(D) None of the above
(D) Sensory analysis
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MKG-XXllfTECHT Al1T/05 InmlllRlIIlllllllll1 ~III~IliDllll1 ~n lUll 1011111101111
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108. Choose the Micro-organisms with severe 112. Where no specific instructions are given, .
hazard or with moderate direct health the general rule is to collect samples from
hazard of potentially extensive spread ______ of the number of units
in food. in the lot.
(A) Clostridium botulinum (A) The square root
(B) Aerobic micro-organisms (B) The square root, plus one
(C) Psychrotrophic micro-organisms (C) The square root, minus one
(D) Lactic acid bacteria (0) None of the above
109. should not be used for 113. is an example for products
pesticides samples. manufactured under non-homogeneous
conditions.
(A) Plastic bags or containers
(A) Chocolates
(B) Stainless steel containers
(B) Canned Fruits and vegetables
(C) Glass containers
(C) Butter
(D) Aluminium containers
(0) Ice creams
110. Wide mouthed jars are used for the
114. Aseptictechniques are used inthe collection
sampling of
of samples for
(A) Meat
(A) Chemical examinations
(B) Butter
(B) Physical examinations
(C) Pesticides
(C) Microbiological examinations
(D) Oils
(0) Sensory examinations
111. Which among the following is true for an
115. Regulatory bodies of Govemments have
objective sampling?
employed three methods to control
(A) Objectivesamplingmust beconducted microbiological hazards. Which among
on a random basis the following methods is not included in
(B) Eachunitshouldhavean equalchance the same?
of being picked as a sample (A) Creating awareness by education
and training
(C) The best way to assure this is by
picking a sample according to (B) Inspection of facilities and food
a predetermined time from a processing units
production chain (C) Microbiological testing
(D) All of the above (0) Documentation of incidence
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MKG-XXIlITECHTAl1T/05 1~lllIllllm IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII~ IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII~ 11111111111111111111111111
116. ICMSF stands for 119. The optimum temperature for growth of
mesophilic organism is
(A) International Commission
on Microbiological Specifications for (A) 40 - 45°C
Foods (B) 30 - 40°C
(B) IndianCommission on Microbiological (C) 10 - 15°C
Specifications for Foods (0) 25 - 30°C
(C) International Council for
120. In industry,microbes are used to synthesise
Microbiological Standards for Foods
a number of products valuable to human
(0) Indian Council for Microbiological beings. Beverages and antibiotics
Standards for Foods are some examples. Production on
an industrial scale, requires growing
117. Every sampling plan has a certain amount microbes in very large vessels called
of risk by which a good lot is rejected or
(A) Fermentors
a bad lot is accepted. In other words,
(B) Autoclaves
this can be classed as a Consumers'
or Producers' risk. The producers' risk (C) Ovens
describes (0) Incubators
(A) The probability that an acceptable
121. Which am,ong the following is not the
lot if offered will be falsely rejected
three basic activities involved in analysis
(B) The probability that a bad lot when of food products?
offered wi II be falsely accepted (A) Collection of representative sample
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Sample preparation
(0) None of the above (C) Analysis using appropriate methods
and instruments
118. According to ICMSF, is
(0) Microbiological testing
the sampling frequently used to examine
for hygiene indicators where enumeration 122. Which among the following is a problem
of microbes in a unit-volume or mass is in bulk sampling?
possible. (A) The number of increments to be taken
(A) Two class plan and the size of the increments
(B) Three class plan (B) Selection bias
(C) Four class plan (C) Recall bias
(0) None of the above (0) The risks of accepting bad or rejecting
good lots
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Text of page 26
MKG-XXllffECHT Al1T/05 1mlRll1Rlllllllllllmlllllllllmll •• lglll~lllIllll~ Rlllmin~IIUIIIIIIIII
123. A representative sample is essential 127. Sugars in bread dough are fermented by .
(A) During bulk sampling yeast to
(B) During acceptance sampling (A) Ethanol andG02
(C) When pathogens or toxins are (B) Methanol and CO2
sparsely distributed within the food (C) Ethanol and 02
(D) All of the above (D) Glucose and 02
124. The factor which affects the composition 128. The probability that a lot of food of defined
and nature of each lot is microbial quality will be rejected by a
(A) The homogeneity of the total sample prescribed sampling plan compared to
mass other sampling plans is known as
(B) Uniformity of the total sample (A) Variable plan
mass (B) Stringency
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Precision
(D) None of these (D) Accuracy
125. The useful containers for line samples are 129. The sampling equipments used for
(A) Steel containers sampling of oils and fats are made of
(B) Any metal cans (A) Glass
(C) Plastic bottles only (B) Tin-plate
(D) Sterile plastic bags or plastic bottles (C) Aluminium
(D) Both (A) and (B)
126. The organism that produce acids that
coagulate and partially digest the milk
130. Liquid or semisolid oils in barrels and
proteins is
drums are rolled before sampling for
(A) Bacillus cerus
(A) Bringing to room temperature
(B) Lactobacillus
(B) Mixing
(C) Bacillus subtilis
(C) Avoiding clumping
(D) Escherichia coli
(D) Avoiding air
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Text of page 28
MKG-XXIlITECHT Al1T/05 Illmlli .11111 III 11111IUlm 111111"111110111011 11111 1111111111111111 1m 011
131. While sampling oils and fats, the minimum 135. In sampling, the sample size (n) to be .
size of each test sample shall be tested and the defective units (C) of n
(A) 1 Kg are dependent on the and
___ respectively.
(B) 0.5 Kg
(C) 1 L (A) Batch number and Microbial type
(0) 200 ml (B) Microbial level and Microbial type
(C) Lot size and Microbial level
132. The glass sampling bottles for sampling
(0) .Lot size and Microbial type
of oils and fats should be closed with
(A) Glass stopper 136. Which among the following containers
cannot be used for liquids by the
(B) Rubber stopper
FSOI Authorized Officer?
(C) Velvet corks
(A) Glass
(0) Both (A) and (C)
(B) Stainless metals
133. Which among the following is a system, (C) Plasticmaterial which can be sterilized
whose implementation in the production by heat
and processing of food ensures the (0) None of the above
safety of the food ?
(A) Critical control point 137. Which among the following should be .
considered before collecting any sample
(B) ISO
from the lot by the FSO/Authorized
(C) Hazard analysis Officer?
(0) HACCP (A) Name of the food and lot size
(B) Container size or sizes
134. Growth of micro-organisms and their
(C) Number of consignments
ability to generate energy by the specific
metabolic reactions depend on the (0) All of the above
redox potential (Eh) of foods. What is
138. The most frequently encountered condition
the suitable Eh range for the growth of
in field examination is
anaerobes?
(A) Rodent and insect-contaminated
(A) +500 to +300 mV foods
(B) +100 to - 250mV (B) Pesticide contaminated food
(C) +300 to + 100 mV (C) Microbial contamination
(0) None of the above (0) None of these
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Text of page 30
MKG-XXllfTECHT Al1T/05 Imlmlll gm~ m glmlllllli IIIRgllllllllll~ IIIII~91111n ~ 111111m1111
139. Choose the wrong criteria regarding the 143. A sample which has been taken from
sampling plan. Agmark sealea container, the label shall
bear the following information
(A) The required stringency of plan
should not be considered (A) Grade
(B) Agmark label no. IBatch No.
(B) This should be based on the degree
of hazard to the consumer from (C) Name of packing station
pathogenic or spoilage microbes (D) All the above
(C) The degree of hazard due to storage 144. Major food items prepared and sold at the
conditions must be considered street level and in open markets which
(D) Food-borne disease record of this does not concem from the microbiological
particular food type safety point of view is
(A) Meat
140. The condition of the sample received for (B) Poultry
examination are of primary importance.
(C) Ground nut
Select the situation in which the laboratory
(0) Milk and dairy products
results will become meaningless.
(A) If samples are improperly collected 145. Sampling equipments of milk and milk
products for microbiological examination
(B) Mishandled
should be autoclaved for
(C) Not representative of the sampled (A) Exposure to steam at 121°C + 1°C
lot for not less than 20 minutes in an
(0) All of the above autoclave.
(B) Exposu re to hot ai r at 170°C to
141. Quantity of milk samples to be collected 175°C for not less than two hours
for analysis (C) Exposu re to hot ai r at 170°C to
(A) 200 ml 200°C for not less than two hours
(B) 500ml (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 250ml 146. Preservatives can be added to milk
(0) 750ml when
(A) An instruction to do so is issued by
142. The label on any sample of food sent for the testing laboratory
analysis should not bear (B) The preservative is of a nature that
(A) Code number of the sample does not interfere with subsequent
analysis
(B) Name of the sender with his official
(C) The nature and quantity of
designation
preservative are stated in the
(C) Date and place of collection sampling report
(D) Type of contamination (0) All the above
-30-
Text of page 32
MKG-XXllfTECHT Al1T/05 111111"IWI~m 1IIIIIIWIIllllllllilllHl~gl".nll~l~m
147. is the portion of milk which 151. Detection of one among the following'
is rich in milk fat and which rise to the toxins requires extraction of the toxin
surface of the heated milk on standing. from food and assay against specific
(A) Cheese antibody by microslide precipitation test
using the concentrated test. Identify the
(B) Whey toxin.
(C) Malai (A) Staphylococcus aureus
(D) Curd enterotoxin
(B) Clostridium botulinum toxin
148. What would be the number of units to
(C) Cholera toxin
be selected, when 101-1000 number of
(D) All of the above
units in the lot are present in sampling of
cream? 152. For toxin detection, to activate the
(A) 5 Clostridium botulinum toxins of non
(B) 4 proteolytic types (B&E), a portion of the
extract is treated with
(C) 2
(A) Iodine
(D) 1
(B) Specific antibody
149. Which of the following is not a Sampling (C) Trypsin
Appliances used for sampling cream? (D) Lipase
(A) Plungers
153. Magnetic immunobeads method is used
(B) Tubes
for the detection of which pathogen?
(C) Spatula
(A) Clostridium botulinum
(D) Dippers
(B) Listeria monocytogenes
150. What would be the number of containers (C) Staphylococcus aureus
to be selected when the number of (D) Salmonella spp.
containers in the lot is 2 to 40 while sampling
154. Ingesting a food containing a preformed
ghee?
toxin causes
(A) 2
(A) Food borne intoxication
(B) 5 (B) Food poisoning
(C) 3 (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) 6 (D) Toxicoinfection
-32-
Text of page 34
MKG-XXIlITECHT Al1T/05 IglllIllgml~mgWIIIIIII~mIBIIIN~III~~mlllm~lIll1ll1lmllll
155. The microbial food borne diseases 159. is the application of heat that .
Salmonellosis and hepatitis A are
selectively kills micro-organisms without
examples of
greatly affect the quality of food.
(A) Intoxication
(A) Tyndallization
(B) Infection
(B) Sterilisation
(C) Toxicoinfection
(C) Pasteurization
(D) Bacterial diseases
(D) All of the above
156. The places during processing of a food
160. Identify the sampling device given
where proper control measures need to
below.
be implemented in order to prevent any 0100
risk to consumers are called
(A) Sterile areas
30010 1000
(B) Critical control points
(C) Hazard points
(D) Safety points (A) Plunger
(B) Dipper
157. CIP is
(C) Stirrer
(A) Control-in-place
(D) None of the above
(B) Clean-in-place
(C) Clean-in-process 161. What is the enzyme used in the production
(D) Critical control-in-process of syrups from corn starch?
(A) Lipase (B) Amylase
158. In 1810, devised a canning
process that involved keeping air out of (C) Protease (D) Lactase
cans and heating food in cans.
162. Bacteriological examination shall be
(A) Louis Pasteur
undertaken within of the time
(B) Nicholas Appert of sampling.
(C) Joseph Lister (A) 36 hours (B) 24 hours
(D) Robert Hook (C) 12 hours (D) 18 hours
-34-
Text of page 36
MKG-XXIIITECHTAl1T/05 IlmIIIUIII.II~UWIIIIIIIRII&II"llgUlimIIWllmln"Rllmgll
163. Which among the following preservatives 167. A conical shaped metal probe often -
shall be added to milk sample required referred to as "bag thief" is used to collect
for bacteriological or organoleptic samples from
examination?
(A) Bags of grain
(A) Sorbic acid
(B) Bags of coffee beans
(B) Sodium sorbate
(C) Potassium sorbate (C) Bags of spices
(0) No preservative shall be added (0) All of the above
164. Which among the following Instruments 168. Sampling of elevator boots of large flour
is not recommended for sampling milled mill or bakery is done with
products, excluding pelleted materials?
(A) Steel dipper
(A) Electric mechanical screw auger
(B) Borer tubes
(B) Gravity mechanical sampler
(C) Flour trier
(C) Air - assisted samplers
(0) None of the above
(0) All of the above
165. Samples of liquids such as milk is 169. A metal screen and collecting pan is 'used
collected with for checking bulk grains for
(A) Stainless steel dippers (A) Insects
(B) Stainless steel borers (B) Rodent faeces
(C) Special probe
(C) Foreign materials
(0) Aluminium spoons
(0) All of the above
166. Samples of dried milk and milk samples
170. are the building blocks of
are collected with
proteins.
(A) Stainless steel dippers
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Flour trier
(B) Minerals
(C) Ory borer tube
(C) Amino acids
(0) Both (A) and (B)
(0) Fatty acids
-36-
Text of page 38
MKG-XXllrrECHT Al1T/05 I HIUIIIIIIII EIIlIII~ 111111111111111111HII 1111111111111111111 111111111111111111111UII
171. What has to be done for samples 174. Sampling plans should include
collected for analysis of pesticide
(A) Microbe 6r group of microbes of
residue in order to retard degradation interest
of the pesticide residue?
(B) Number of samples to be tested
(A) Preserve with appropriate chemicals (C) Test method
until delivered to the laboratory
(D) All the above
(B) Keep the sample in cold storage
for minimum time, if it is stored 175. Where presence/ absence of a pathogen
is to be detected, the most suitable
and transported in refrigeration in
sampling plan is
commercial practice
(A) Three class sampling plan
(C) Analysis at the earliest time
(B) Two class sampling plan
(D) All of the above
(C) Both (A) and (B)
172. Spoilage by is usually from (D) None of the above
improper heating procedures or
176. Acidic foods can be preserved by heat
leakage.
of 100°C because
(A) Mesophilic bacteria
(A) Micro-organisms that survive are
(B) Thermophilic bacteria not capable of growth in a low pH
(C) Psychrotropic bacteria (B) High heat will make it more fatty
(D) Psychrophilic bacteria (C) Micro-organisms that survive are
not capable of growth in a high pH
173. Which one is having increased chance
(D) None of the above
of detecting contamination, when total
weight of sample collected is same in all 177. Choose the correct statement.
the cases? (A) Three class plans are more effective
(A) Drawing greater number of smaller in reducing producer's risk.
samples (B) Two class plans are more effective
in reducing consumer's risk.
(B) Drawing less number of larger
samples (C) Three class plans are not effective
in reducing consumer's risk.
(C) Drawing single sample
(D) Two class plans are more effective
(D) Both (A) and (B)
in reducing producer's risk.
-38-
Text of page 40
MKG-XXllrrECHT Al1T/05 I1111111
11mIII1I1I1 ~IIIIIIWIIIIY IIIIIU~ II U~~II. 1111111111
gll
178. the most common microscope 181. Which among the following is true for a
used in microbiology laboratories.
Sampling Personnel?
(A) Simple microscope
(A) Authorized person
(8) Compound light microscope
(8) Properly trained in the appropriate
(C) Confocal microscope
technique
(D) Phase contrast microscope
(C) Free from infectious disease
179. According to ICMSF Microbiological
(D) All of the above
criteria is defined as
(A) a statement of the criterion of 182. The jar and bottle for sampling cream
acceptance to be applied to a lot,
shall be closed by means of a screw cap
based on examination of a required
lined with
number of sample units by defined
analytical methods (A) Butter paper
(8) a statement of the criterion of (B) Glass stopper
rejection to be applied to a lot,
(C) Both (A) and (B)
based on examination of a required
number of sample units by defined (D) None of these
analytical methods
(C) a statement of the approved 183. Which is not true about the storage of
analytical methods for the canned food products?
examination and acceptance
(A) Should not be frozen
of a lot
(8) Do not expose to high humidity
.(0) none of the above
(C) Do not expose to excessive heat
180. While analysing the samples for
(D) Should be frozen
microbiological quality, level of
contamination considered to be
184. Which among the following is the
acceptable, if cfu/g -cm where,
m = threshold below which all results characteristic. of a air tight container?
are considered satisfactory and cfu is (A) opaque
(A) Countable functional units
(8) inert
(8) Colony forming units
(C) Coccus forming unit (C) translucent
(D) None of the above (D) all the above
-40-
Text of page 42
MKG-XXIlITECHT Al1T/05 1I1111111111111111111111111111111111111111111~ 1IIIIIIIIIImil R~ 011 111111111Iml 1111011
185. Which sampling technique is used when 189. Which is not a physical toxin?
each item of the lot is easily identifiable
(A) Residual pesticides
and no other information about the
composition of the lot is available? (8) Glass
(A) quota sampling (C) Wood
(8) systematic sampling (D) Insect matter
(C) simple random sampling
190. The lot is rejected, if , where
(D) snowball sampling ~ is the sample mean, s is the standard
deviation, k is the plan stringency value
186. The type of sampling in which a lot
and C is the limit value.
consists of items which can be divided into
a certain number of more homogenous (A) ~ + ks > C
groups is (8) ~ + ks ::; C
(A) cluster (C) ~ + ks 2:': C
(8) stratified (D) ~ + ks = C
(C) systematic random
191. According to FAOIWHO standards for
(D) quota Ice cream, what are the values of n,
c and m, for Salmonella, where n is
187. This method consists of first selecting a number of units making up the sample,
single sample item from the population of m is threshold below which all results
N items and thereafter selecting items at are considered satisfactory, M is the
acceptability threshold and c is number of
regular predetermined intervals to make
units in the sample that can fall between
up the desired sample of size n m and M?
(A) random (A) n = 10, c = 0, m = 0
(8) stratified (8) n = 13, c = 0, m = 0
(C) snowball (C) n = 20, c = 0, m = 0
(D) systematic (D) n = 10, c = 2, m = 0
188. Which among the following is not a 192. Quantity of Oilseeds/Nuts/Dry Fruits to
Nutrients? be collected for Analysis
(A) Proteins (A) 300 gms
(8) Antibiotic (8) 250 gms
(C) Trans fats and lipid profile (C) 500 gms
(D) Dietary fiber (D) 150 gms
-42-
Text of page 44
MKG-XXllrrECHT Al1 T/05 IUIIIIIIIII~ III III 11mmaimII II dlllllllllllllllllllllllllllllllllllllnilm 1111
193. In an autoclave, sterilising agent is 197. While taking samples of tea powder from -
(A) Saturated steam a bag of more than 20 kg, what is the
(B) Hot air minimum quantity of sample to be taken
(C) Boiling water is
(0) Hot oil (A) 10 g
(B) 25 g
194. The ionising radiation that can be used
for sterilisation is (C) 50 g
(A) a-rays (0) 100 g
(B) ~-rays
198. Botulism is associated with
(C) "(-rays
(A) Canned food
(0) Infrared rays
(B) Milk
195. According to which clause of Food Safety
(C) Vegetables
And Standards Act - 2006, a sample of
Non-sterilized milk and liquid milk shoulc (0) Pulses
be preserved and transported?
199. Milk protein is
(A) Clause 8
(A) Globulin
(B) Clause 9
(C) Clause 10 (B) Albumin
(0) Clause 11 (C) Casein
(0) Trypsin
196. In case of sterilized milk, UHT milk
and sterilized liquid, milk products in
200. Citric acid, used in foods, is produced
unopened containers what should be the
by
minimum sample size required?
(A) Candida albicans
(A) 10ml
(B) 100 ml (B) Candida lambica
(C) 1000ml (C) Aspergillus niger
(0) 500ml (0) Rhizopus stolonifer
-44-
Text of page 48
M KG- XXIIITECHT Al1 T105 111111111mill lUll IIUIIIII IIiR 11111111111111111111IIIIU 111111111111111111111111111111
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
'3++tl~enij~~"'tr{q~i ~
13. This booklet contains 48 pages. 13. ~ ~ -ij 48 ~ ~I
14. Directions : Each question or incomplete 14. ~ :~ ~ 3l~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~
statement is followed by four alternative -::;;m: "3"ffi: ~ ~ ~ ~ "l"Jit ~ I ~ Gm
suggested answers or completions. In each
case, you are required to select the one that -ij 31ft1CfiT M"Cfcfi Cfil~ ~ \ill ~ q)f ~"3"ffi:
correctly answers the question or completes the ~ ~ ~ Cfil ~ ~ 3fu: 31ft1CfiT "3"ffi: ~ -ij
statement and blacken (e) appropriate circle ~ jn~tCf)1( ~ A, B, C <iT D Cfil-:ftffi <iT ~
A, B, C or D by Blue / Black Ball-Point Pen ~-l:JfR t.:r ~ cnTffi (e) <:fiBT ~ I (~iijtRlo
against the question concerned in the Answer
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circle will be blackened by the scribe) qm;rr~~)
15. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate 15. ~ >w-1 ~ -w:RM ¥ q;r ~~iC&i ~ ~
"3W m I 'fJ cffi m~ ~ ~ Rl~if<R1 ~
circle against each question. The circle
I
should be shaded completely without leaving
any space. The correct method of shading is Rl'i5ii4i1 <.fi8 q;r ~ ~ ~ ~ Tf<rr~ I
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The Candidate must mark his/her response
I attercaretut consideration.
I ~"Cf>GT~ I
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I the appropriate column, viz., A, B, C or D. If
___ .J
you blacken (e) more than one circle against
Cfil~ (e)"Cf>GT~ I ~ 3lf1l~~~mlH
anyone question, the answer will be treated "Cfcfi~ ~ jj)~ICf)1'( ~ Cfil m:it (e) it ~
as wrong .. ~ '."R'Rf lfRl ~ I
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English and Hindi versions of any question,
the English version will be treated as final/
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Question Booklet only and not on the Answer ~~ I "3"ffi:~'R~q;p:f~~ I
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Go through instructions given in Page No.1 (Facing Page)
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Source: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board. Question paper published by Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board.