GATE AE 2023: Aerospace Engineering
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 “You are delaying the completion of the task. Send _______ contributions at the
earliest.”
(A) you are
(B) your
(C) you’re
(D) yore
Q.2 References : ______ : : Guidelines : Implement
(By word meaning)
(A) Sight
(B) Site
(C) Cite
(D) Plagiarise
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.3 In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram with PS = 7 cm, PT = 4 cm and
PV = 5 cm. What is the length of RS in cm? (The diagram is representative.)
7
P S
5 90°
4
90° V
Q T R
(A) 20
7
(B) 28
5
(C) 9
2
(D) 35
4
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Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.4 In 2022, June Huh was awarded the Fields medal, which is the highest prize in
Mathematics.
When he was younger, he was also a poet. He did not win any medals in the
International Mathematics Olympiads. He dropped out of college.
Based only on the above information, which one of the following statements can be
logically inferred with certainty?
(A) Every Fields medalist has won a medal in an International Mathematics Olympiad.
(B) Everyone who has dropped out of college has won the Fields medal.
(C) All Fields medalists are part-time poets.
(D) Some Fields medalists have dropped out of college.
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.5 A line of symmetry is defined as a line that divides a figure into two parts in a way
such that each part is a mirror image of the other part about that line.
The given figure consists of 16 unit squares arranged as shown. In addition to the
three black squares, what is the minimum number of squares that must be coloured
black, such that both PQ and MN form lines of symmetry? (The figure is
representative)
P N
M
Q
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.6 Human beings are one among many creatures that inhabit an imagined world. In
this imagined world, some creatures are cruel. If in this imagined world, it is given
that the statement “Some human beings are not cruel creatures” is FALSE, then
which of the following set of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?
(i) All human beings are cruel creatures.
(ii) Some human beings are cruel creatures.
(iii) Some creatures that are cruel are human beings.
(iv) No human beings are cruel creatures.
(A) only (i)
(B) only (iii) and (iv)
(C) only (i) and (ii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q.7 To construct a wall, sand and cement are mixed in the ratio of 3:1. The cost of sand
and that of cement are in the ratio of 1:2.
If the total cost of sand and cement to construct the wall is 1000 rupees, then what
is the cost (in rupees) of cement used?
(A) 400
(B) 600
(C) 800
(D) 200
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
The World Bank has declared that it does not plan to offer new financing to Sri
Q.8 Lanka, which is battling its worst economic crisis in decades, until the country has
an adequate macroeconomic policy framework in place. In a statement, the World
Bank said Sri Lanka needed to adopt structural reforms that focus on economic
stabilisation and tackle the root causes of its crisis. The latter has starved it of
foreign exchange and led to shortages of food, fuel, and medicines. The bank is
repurposing resources under existing loans to help alleviate shortages of essential
items such as medicine, cooking gas, fertiliser, meals for children, and cash for
vulnerable households.
Based only on the above passage, which one of the following statements can be
inferred with certainty?
(A) According to the World Bank, the root cause of Sri Lanka’s economic crisis is that
it does not have enough foreign exchange.
(B) The World Bank has stated that it will advise the Sri Lankan government about how
to tackle the root causes of its economic crisis.
(C) According to the World Bank, Sri Lanka does not yet have an adequate
macroeconomic policy framework.
(D) The World Bank has stated that it will provide Sri Lanka with additional funds for
essentials such as food, fuel, and medicines.
Q.9 The coefficient of x 4 in the polynomial (x − 1)3 (x − 2)3 is equal to _______.
(A) 33
(B) ̶ 3
(C) 30
(D) 21
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.10 Which one of the following shapes can be used to tile (completely cover by
repeating) a flat plane, extending to infinity in all directions, without leaving any
empty spaces in between them? The copies of the shape used to tile are identical
and are not allowed to overlap.
(A) circle
(B) regular octagon
(C) regular pentagon
(D) rhombus
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 The direction in which a scalar field ( x, y, z) has the largest rate of change at
any point with position vector r = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ is the same as that of the vector
(A)
(B) ( r )
(C) r
(D) (∇φ • dr⃗)r⃗
Q.12 If a monotonic and continuous function y = f ( x) has only one root in the
interval x1 x x2 , then
(A) f ( x1 ) f ( x2 ) 0
(B) f ( x1 ) f ( x2 ) = 0
(C) f ( x1 ) f ( x2 ) 0
(D) f ( x1 ) − f ( x2 ) = 0
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
u u
= 0 for − x , t 0 .
Q.13 Consider the one-dimensional wave equation +
t x
For an initial condition u( x,0) = e− x , the solution at t = 1 is
2
(A)
u( x,1) = e−( x−1)
2
u ( x,1) = e−1
(B)
(C)
u( x,1) = e− x
2
(D) − ( x +1)2
u( x,1) = e
Q.14 A two-dimensional potential flow solution for flow past an airfoil has a streamline
pattern as shown in the figure. Which of the following conditions is additionally
required to satisfy the Kutta condition?
(A) Addition of a source of strength Q 0
(B) Addition of a source of strength Q 0
(C) Addition of a circulation of strength 0 (counter-clockwise)
(D) Addition of a circulation of strength 0 (clockwise)
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.15 Consider the Blasius solution for the incompressible laminar flat plate boundary
layer. Among the following options, select the correct relation for the
development of the momentum thickness with distance x from the leading
edge along the length of the plate.
(A)
x2 3
(B)
x1 2
(C)
x1 7
(D)
x−2 3
Q.16 In a two-dimensional potential flow, the doublet is a limit of the superposition of
(A) a uniform stream and a source
(B) a source and a sink of equal strength
(C) a uniform stream and a sink
(D) a source and a vortex
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.17 An ideal glider has drag characteristics given by CD = CD + CD , where
0 i
C D = KC L2 is the induced drag coefficient, C L is the lift coefficient, and K is a
i
constant. For maximum range of the glider, the ratio CD CD is
0 i
(A) 1
(B) 1
3
(C) 3
(D) 3
2
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.18 The figures shown in the options are schematics of airfoil shapes (not to scale).
For a civilian transport aircraft designed for a cruise Mach number of 0.8, which
among them is aerodynamically best suited as a wing section?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.19 For a longitudinally statically stable aircraft, which one of the following
represents the relationship between the coefficient of pitching moment about the
center of gravity Cmcg and absolute angle of attack a ?
(Note: nose-up moment is positive.)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.20 In a single-spool aviation turbojet engine, which of the following is the correct
relationship between the total work output WT of a 2-stage axial turbine and the
total work required WC by a 6-stage axial compressor, neglecting losses?
(A) WT = 2 WC
(B) WT = 6 WC
(C) WT = WC
(D) WT = 3 WC
Q.21 For a stage of a 50% reaction ideal axial flow compressor (symmetrical blading),
select the correct statement from the options given.
(A) The stagnation enthalpy rise across the rotor is 50% of the rise across the stage.
(B) The static enthalpy rise across the rotor is 50% of the rise across the stage.
(C) Axial velocity component of the flow at the rotor exit is 50% of that at the rotor
entry.
(D) The static pressure rise across the rotor is 50% of the rise across the stator.
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.22 An aircraft is cruising with a forward speed Va and the jet exhaust speed relative
to the engine at the exit is V j . If V j Va = 2, what is the propulsive efficiency?
(A) 0.50
(B) 1.00
(C) 0.33
(D) 0.67
Q.23 Consider the four basic symmetrical flight loading conditions corresponding to the
corners of a typical V-n diagram. For one of these flight loading conditions, it is
observed that (i) the compressive bending stresses have a maximum value in the
bottom aft region (see figure) of the wing cross-section; and (ii) the tensile
bending stresses are maximum in the upper forward region (see figure) of the
wing cross-section. For the preceding observations, select the corresponding flight
loading condition from the options given.
(A) Positive high angle of attack
(B) Positive low angle of attack
(C) Negative high angle of attack
(D) Negative low angle of attack
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.24 Which one of the following figures represents the qualitative variation of absolute
dV
deceleration with altitude h (measured from the mean sea level) for a space
dt
vehicle undergoing a ballistic entry into the Earth’s atmosphere?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.25 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about harmonically excited forced
vibration of a single degree-of-freedom linear spring-mass-damper system?
(A) The total response of the mass is a combination of free vibration transient and
steady-state response.
(B) The free vibration transient dies out with time for each of the three possible
conditions of damping (under-damped, critically damped, and over-damped).
(C) The steady-state periodic response is dependent on the initial conditions at the
time of application of external forcing.
(D) The rate of decay of free vibration transient response depends on the mass, spring
stiffness and damping constant.
Q.26 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the state of stress in a plane?
(A) Maximum or major principal stress is algebraically the largest direct stress at a
point.
(B) The magnitude of minor principal stress cannot be greater than the magnitude of
major principal stress.
(C) The planes of maximum shear stress are inclined at 90 degrees to the principal
axes.
(D) The normal stresses along the planes of maximum shear stress are equal.
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.27 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the ribs of an airplane wing
with semi-monocoque construction?
(A) For a rectangular planform wing, the dimensions of the ribs DO NOT depend on
their spanwise position in the wing.
(B) Ribs increase the column buckling stress of longitudinal stiffeners connected to
them.
(C) Ribs increase plate buckling stress of the skin panels.
(D) Ribs help in maintaining aerodynamic shape of the wing.
Q.28 From the options given, select all that are true for turbofan engines with
afterburners.
(A) Turning afterburner ON increases specific fuel consumption.
(B) Turbofan engines with afterburners have variable area nozzles.
(C) Turning afterburner ON decreases specific fuel consumption.
(D) Turning afterburner ON increases stagnation pressure across the engine.
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.29 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to eigenvalues and
eigenvectors of a matrix?
(A) The sum of the eigenvalues of a matrix equals the sum of the elements of the
principal diagonal.
(B) 1
If is an eigenvalue of a matrix A, then is always an eigenvalue of its
transpose (AT).
(C) If is an eigenvalue of an orthogonal matrix A, then
1
is also an eigenvalue of
A.
(D) If a matrix has n distinct eigenvalues, it also has n independent eigenvectors.
Q.30 For studying wing vibrations, a wing of mass M and finite dimensions has been
idealized by assuming it to be supported using a linear spring of equivalent
stiffness k and a torsional spring of equivalent stiffness k as shown in the figure.
The centre of gravity (CG) of the wing idealized as an airfoil is marked
in the figure. The number of degree(s) of freedom for this idealized wing vibration
model is _________. (Answer in integer)
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Q.31 The system of equations
x − 2y + z = 0
2x + y − 4z = 0
x− y+z =0
has a non-trivial solution for = ______. (Answer in integer)
Q.32 An airplane weighing 40 kN is landing on a horizontal runway during which it is
retarded by an arresting cable mechanism. The tension in the arresting cable at a
given instant, as shown in the figure, is 100 kN. Assuming that the thrust from the
engine continues to balance airplane drag, the magnitude of horizontal load factor
is ________. (round off to one decimal place)
Q.33 The ratio of the speed of sound in H2 (molecular weight 2 kg/kmol) to that
in N2 (molecular weight 28 kg/kmol) at temperature 300 K and pressure 2 bar
is ____. (round off to two decimal places)
Q.34 Airplane A and Airplane B are cruising at altitudes of 2 km and 4 km,
respectively. The free stream density and static pressure at altitude 2 km are
1.01 kg/m3 and 79.50 kPa, respectively, and at altitude 4 km, they are 0.82 kg/m3
and 61.70 kPa, respectively. The differential pressure reading from the pitot-static
tubes is 3 kPa for both the airplanes. Assuming incompressible flow, the ratio of
cruise speeds of Airplane A to Airplane B is ______.
(round off to two decimal places)
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Q.35 A supersonic vehicle powered by a ramjet engine is cruising at a speed of
1000 m/s. The ramjet engine burns hydrogen in a subsonic combustor to produce
thrust. The heat of combustion for hydrogen is 120 MJ/kg. The overall efficiency
of the engine o , defined as the ratio of propulsive power to the total heat release
in the combustor, is 40%. Taking acceleration due to gravity g0 = 10 m/s2, the
specific impulse of the engine is _____________ seconds.
(round off to the nearest integer).
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Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.36 Given the function y( x) = ( x + 3)( x − 2) , for −4 x 4 . What is the value of x at
which the function has a minimum?
(A) 3
−
2
(B) 1
−
2
(C) 1
2
(D) 3
2
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Q.37 A supersonic aircraft has an air intake ramp that can be rotated about the leading
edge O such that the shock from the leading edge meets the cowl lip as shown in
the figure. Select all the correct statement(s) as per oblique shock theory when the
flight Mach number M is increased.
(A) It is always possible to find a ramp setting RAMP such that the shock still meets
the cowl lip ( SHOCK remains the same).
(B) If RAMP is held fixed, the shock angle SHOCK will increase.
(C) If M exceeds a critical value, it would NOT be possible to find a ramp setting
RAMP such that the shock still meets the cowl lip ( SHOCK remains the same).
(D) 1
Shock angle SHOCK sin
−1
M
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Q.38 Two missiles A and B powered by solid rocket motors have identical specific
impulse, liftoff mass of 5600 kg each, and burn durations of t A = 30 s
and t B = 70 s, respectively. The propellant mass flow rates, mA and mB , for
missiles A and B, respectively, are given by
mA = 120 kg/s, 0 t 30
mB = 70 kg/s, 0 t 70
Neglecting gravity and aerodynamic forces, the relationship between the final
velocities V A and VB of missiles A and B, respectively, is given by
(A) VA = 4.1VB
(B) VA = VB
(C) VA = 0.5 VB
(D) VA = 0.7 VB
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Q.39 A perfect gas stored in a large reservoir exhausts into the atmosphere through a
convergent duct. The reservoir pressure is P0 and temperature is T0. The jet emerges
from the nozzle at choked conditions with average velocity u, Mach number M,
pressure p, temperature T, and density . If the reservoir pressure is increased,
then
(A) u, M, p, T, and increase
(B) u, p, T, and increase, but M remains the same
(C) u, M, and T remain the same, but p and increase
(D) u, M, T and remain the same, but p increases
Q.40 Consider a general aviation airplane with weight 10 kN and a wing planform area
of 15 m2. The drag coefficient of the airplane is given as CD = CD + KCL2 with
0
CD = 0.025 and K = 0.05 . For level flight at an altitude where the density is
0
0.60 kg/m3 and thrust 1 kN, the maximum cruise speed is
(rounded off to the nearest integer)
(A) 87 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 36 m/s
(D) 101 m/s
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Q.41 A scramjet engine features an intake, isolator, combustor, and a nozzle, as shown
in the schematic. Station 3 indicates the combustor entry point. Assume stagnation
enthalpy to be constant between Stations 1 and 3, and air to be a calorically perfect
gas with specific heat ratio γ. Select the correct expression for Mach number M3 at
the inlet to the combustor from the options given.
(A)
2 T
M3 = M − 1
− 1 T3
(B)
2 T − 1 2
M3 = 1 + M − 1
− 1 T3 2
(C) T
M3 = M
T3
(D)
+ 1 T 2
M3 = − 1 M − 1
2 T3
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Q.42 dy
Consider the equation + ay = sin x , where a and ω are constants. Given
dx
y = 1 at x = 0 , select all correct statement(s) from the following as x → .
(A) y → 0 if a 0
(B) y → 1 if a = 0
(C) y → A exp ( a x ) if a 0 ; A is a constant
(D) y → B sin ( x + C ) if a 0 ; B and C are constants
Q.43 Given the vectors
A = 9iˆ − 5 ˆj + 2kˆ
B = 11iˆ + 4 ˆj + kˆ
C = −7iˆ + 14 ˆj − 3kˆ
which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
(A) Vectors A , B and C are coplanar
(B) The scalar triple product of the vectors A , B and C is zero
(C) A and B are perpendicular
(D) C is parallel to A B
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Q.44 Consider a one-dimensional inviscid supersonic flow in a diverging duct with heat
addition (Qin) as shown. Which of the following statement(s) is/are always TRUE?
(A) Mach number, M 2 M1
(B) Stagnation pressure, P1 P2
o o
(C) Static pressure, P2 P1
(D) Stagnation temperature, T1 T2
o o
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Q.45 Consider the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) with h being the
dT
geopotential altitude (in km) and being the temperature gradient (in K/m).
dh
dT
Which of the following combination(s) of h, is/are as per ISA?
dh
(A) ( 7, − 6.5 10−3 )
(B) (9, 4 10−3 )
(C) (15, 0)
(D) (35, 310−3 )
Q.46 For an airfoil, which of the relations given about the critical Mach number M cr
and drag divergence Mach number M dd is/are correct?
(A) M cr M dd
(B) M cr 1.0
(C) M dd 1.0
(D) M cr 1.0
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Q.47 Which of the following statement(s) about the elastic flexural buckling load of
columns is/are correct?
(A) The buckling load increases with increase in flexural rigidity of the column.
(B) The buckling load increases with increase in the length of the column.
(C) The boundary conditions of the column affect the buckling load.
(D) The buckling load is NOT directly dependent on the density of the material used
for the column.
Q.48 The thickness of a uniform hollow circular shaft is equal to the difference between
the outer radius and the inner radius. The ratio of the inner diameter to outer
diameter of the shaft is 0.5. For the shaft reacting to an applied torque, the ratio of
the maximum shear stress to the maximum shear stress thin − wall obtained using
the thin-wall approximation is . (round off to one decimal place)
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Q.49 A rigid bar AB is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 100 N/m as shown in
the figure. The bar is supported by rod CD, with A, C, and D as pin joints. The rod
CD has axial stiffness of 40 N/mm. The vertical deflection at point D
is __________ mm. (round off to nearest integer)
Q.50 A cantilever beam of length 2a is loaded at the tip with force F as shown in the
figure. The beam is supported in the middle by a roller with a pin. The magnitude
of moment reaction at the built-in end of the beam is Fa, where is ______ .
(round off to one decimal place)
Q.51 A single degree-of-freedom spring-mass-damper system has viscous damping ratio
of 0.1. The mass is given an initial displacement of 10 cm without imparting any
velocity. After exactly two complete cycles of oscillation (i.e., after time 2 Td , where
Td is the period of the damped vibration), the amplitude of the displacement is
______ cm. (round off to two decimal place)
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Q.52 The shear flow distribution in a single cell, thin-walled beam under the action of
an arbitrary shear load s y applied at the shear centre S is shown in the figure. The
cell has horizontal symmetry with booms marked by 1 to 4 that carry direct
stresses. The shear modulus G is the same for all the walls, and the area of the cell
is 135000 mm2. With respect to the point O marked in the figure, the distance to
the shear centre S is ______ mm. (round off to the nearest integer)
Q.53 Consider a thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessel made of an alloy with yield
strength of 300 MPa. The vessel has end caps to contain the pressure. The ratio
of radius of the vessel to its wall thickness is 100. As per the von Mises yield
criterion, the internal pressure that would cause the failure of the vessel
is _____ MPa. (round off to two decimal places)
Q.54 Consider the differential equation
d2y dy
x2
2
+ 4 x + 2 y = 0 for x 1
dx dx
dy
with initial conditions y = 0 , = 1 at x = 1 . The value of y at x = 2 is ____ .
dx
(round off to two decimal places)
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Q.55 The operating characteristics of a pump were measured to be CP = a , where
2
P
power coefficient C P = , is the flow coefficient, a is a constant, D is a
3 D 5
length scale, is the rotation rate, is fluid density, and P is the power
required. The flow coefficient is a dimensionless volume flow rate scaled with
and D . Assuming that the flow rate remains the same, if the rotation rate is
increased to 1.25 , the power changes to P . The value of is ________ .
(round off to two decimal places)
Q.56 A thin cambered airfoil has lift coefficient cl = 0 at an angle of attack = −1.1o .
Assuming that stall occurs at much larger , the cl at = 4o is _______.
(round off to two decimal places)
Q.57 In a potential flow, a uniform stream of strength U directed along the x-axis and
− −
four line sources (2-dimensional) of strengths , , , are placed along
2 3 4 5
the x-axis at x = 0, 1, 2 and 3, respectively. The strength of an additional line
source to be placed at x = 4 such that a closed streamline encircles all five sources
is _____. (round off to two decimal places).
Q.58 Enstrophy is defined as the square of the magnitude of vorticity.
For the three-dimensional velocity field
V = (4 x − 1.5 y + 2.5z )iˆ + (1.5x − 1.5 y) ˆj + ( 0.7 xy ) kˆ ,
the enstrophy at location (1, 1, 1) is ________ .
(round off to two decimal places)
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Q.59 An airplane with wing planform area of 20 m2 and weight 8 kN is flying straight
and level with a speed of 100 m/s. The total drag coefficient is 0.026 and the air
density is 0.7 kg/m3. The total thrust required to introduce a steady climb angle of
0.1 radians is ____ N. (round off to the nearest integer)
Q.60 The maximum permissible load factor and the maximum lift force coefficient for
an airplane is 7 and 2, respectively. For a wing loading of 6500 N/m2 and air
density 1.23 kg/m3, the speed yielding the highest possible turn rate in the vertical
plane is ___________ m/s. (round off to the nearest integer)
Q.61 A gas turbine combustor is burning methane and air at an equivalence ratio
F A
= 0.5 , where = and [ F A]stoich is the ratio of mass flow rate of fuel
F A stoich
to the mass flow rate of air at stoichiometry. If the air flow rate is mair = 20 kg/s
then the mass flow rate of methane is ______ kg/s.
(round off to two decimal places)
Q.62 The universal gravitational constant is 6.67 10−11 Nm2/kg2. For a planet of mass
6.4169 1023 kg and radius 3390 km, the escape velocity is _____ km/s.
(round off to one decimal place).
Q. 63 A satellite is in a circular orbit around Earth with a time period of 90 minutes. The
radius of Earth is 6370 km, mass of Earth is 5.98 1024 kg and the universal
gravitational constant is 6.67 10−11 Nm2/kg2. The altitude of the satellite above
mean sea level is ____ km. (round off to the nearest integer)
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.64 A centrifugal air compressor has inlet root diameter of 0.25 m and the outlet
diameter of the impeller is 0.6 m. The pressure ratio is 5.0. The air at the inlet of
the rotor is at 1 atm and 25oC. The polytropic efficiency is 0.8 and slip factor is
0.92. Use C p = 1.004 kJ/kg-K and = 1.4 . The impeller speed in revolutions per
minute (RPM) is _________. (round off to the nearest integer)
Q.65 Consider a cryogenic liquid rocket engine using an expander cycle with liquid
hydrogen and liquid oxygen as the two propellants. The mass flow rate of
hydrogen mH into the combustion chamber is 32 kg/s , and the mass flow rate of
2
oxygen mO into the chamber is such that mO mH = 8 . The combustion of
2 2 2
hydrogen and oxygen is at stoichiometry. Assuming that the rate of the forward
reaction is much larger than that of the reverse reaction, the rate of formation of
H2O is ________ kmol/s. (round off to the nearest integer)
END OF QUESTION PAPER
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Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
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GATE 2023 Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Question Type (QT)
Q. No. Session Subject Name (SN) Key/Range (KY) Mark (MK)
MCQ/MSQ/NAT
1 6 MCQ GA B 1
2 6 MCQ GA C 1
3 6 MCQ GA B 1
4 6 MCQ GA D 1
5 6 MCQ GA C 1
6 6 MCQ GA D 2
7 6 MCQ GA A 2
8 6 MCQ GA C 2
9 6 MCQ GA A 2
10 6 MCQ GA D 2
11 6 MCQ AE A 1
12 6 MCQ AE C 1
13 6 MCQ AE A 1
14 6 MCQ AE D 1
15 6 MCQ AE B 1
16 6 MCQ AE B 1
17 6 MCQ AE A 1
18 6 MCQ AE D 1
19 6 MCQ AE D 1
20 6 MCQ AE C 1
21 6 MCQ AE B 1
22 6 MCQ AE D 1
23 6 MCQ AE D 1
24 6 MCQ AE D 1
25 6 MSQ AE A, B, D 1
26 6 MSQ AE A, D 1
27 6 MSQ AE B, C, D 1
28 6 MSQ AE A, B 1
29 6 MSQ AE A, C, D 1
30 6 NAT AE 2 to 2 1
31 6 NAT AE 3 to 3 1
32 6 NAT AE 2.4 to 2.6 1
33 6 NAT AE 3.5 to 4.0 1
34 6 NAT AE 0.89 to 0.91 1
35 6 NAT AE 4800 to 4900 1
36 6 MCQ AE B 2
37 6 MCQ AE A 2
38 6 MCQ AE C 2
39 6 MCQ AE C 2
40 6 MCQ AE A 2
41 6 MCQ AE B 2
42 6 MSQ AE C, D 2
43 6 MSQ AE A, B 2
44 6 MSQ AE B, D 2
45 6 MSQ AE A, C, D 2
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46 6 MSQ AE A, B, C 2 47 6 MSQ AE A, C, D 2 48 6 NAT AE 1.1 to 1.3 2 49 6 NAT AE 10 to 10 2 50 6 NAT AE 0.5 to 0.5 2 51 6 NAT AE 2.80 to 2.86 2 52 6 NAT AE 196 to 198 2 53 6 NAT AE 3.40 to 3.50 2 54 6 NAT AE 0.24 to 0.26 2 55 6 NAT AE 1.24 to 1.26 2 56 6 NAT AE 0.55 to 0.57 2 57 6 NAT AE -0.69 to -0.67 2 58 6 NAT AE 12.61 to 12.81 2 59 6 NAT AE 2615 to 2625 2 60 6 NAT AE 190 to 195 2 61 6 NAT AE 0.57 to 0.60 2 62 6 NAT AE 4.9 to 5.1 2 63 6 NAT AE 260 to 300 2 64 6 NAT AE 15948 to 16048 2 65 6 NAT AE 16 to 16 2
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Source: GATE. Question paper published by GATE.