GATE AE 2024: Aerospace Engineering
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words
[dry → arid → parched] is analogous to [diet → fast → ________ ].
Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?
(A) starve
(B) reject
(C) feast
(D) deny
Q.2 If two distinct non-zero real variables x and y are such that (x + y) is proportional
x
to (x − y) then the value of
y
(A) depends on xy
(B) depends only on x and not on y
(C) depends only on y and not on x
(D) is a constant
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.3 Consider the following sample of numbers:
9, 18, 11, 14, 15, 17, 10, 69, 11, 13
The median of the sample is
(A) 13.5
(B) 14
(C) 11
(D) 18.7
Q.4 The number of coins of ₹1, ₹5, and ₹10 denominations that a person has are in the
ratio 5:3:13. Of the total amount, the percentage of money in ₹5 coins is
(A) 21%
(B) 2
14 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 30%
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.5 For positive non-zero real variables p and q, if
log (p2 + q 2 ) = log p + log q + 2 log 3 ,
p4 +q4
then, the value of is
p2 q 2
(A) 79
(B) 81
(C) 9
(D) 83
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.6 In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)−(iv). Select the best match for all the
blanks.
(i) (ii)
Steve was advised to keep his head before heading to bat;
(iii)
for, while he had a head batting, he could only do so with a cool head
(iv)
s his shoulders.
(A) (i) down (ii) down (iii) on (iv) for
(B) (i) on (ii) down (iii) for (iv) on
(C) (i) down (ii) out (iii) for (iv) on
(D) (i) on (ii) out (iii) on (iv) for
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.7 A rectangular paper sheet of dimensions 54 cm × 4 cm is taken. The two longer
edges of the sheet are joined together to create a cylindrical tube. A cube whose
surface area is equal to the area of the sheet is also taken.
Then, the ratio of the volume of the cylindrical tube to the volume of the cube is
(A) 1/π
(B) 2/π
(C) 3/π
(D) 4/π
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.8 The pie chart presents the percentage contribution of different macronutrients to a
typical 2,000 kcal diet of a person.
Macronutrient energy contribution
Trans
fat
5%
Saturated fat
20% Carbohydrates
35%
Unsaturated fat
20%
Proteins
20%
The typical energy density (kcal/g) of these macronutrients is given in the table.
Macronutrient Energy density (kcal/g)
Carbohydrates 4
Proteins 4
Unsaturated fat 9
Saturated fat 9
Trans fat 9
The total fat (all three types), in grams, this person consumes is
(A) 44.4
(B) 77.8
(C) 100
(D) 3,600
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.9 A rectangular paper of 20 cm × 8 cm is folded 3 times. Each fold is made along the
line of symmetry, which is perpendicular to its long edge. The perimeter of the final
folded sheet (in cm) is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 20
(D) 21
Q.10 The least number of squares to be added in the figure to make AB a line of
symmetry is
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 7
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 The following system of linear equations
7x − 3y + z = 0
3x − y + z = 0
x−y−z =0
has:
(A) infinitely many solutions
(B) a unique solution
(C) no solution
(D) three solutions
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.12 The acceleration of a body travelling in a straight line is given by a = −C1 − C2 v 2
where v is the velocity, and C1 , C2 are positive constants. Starting with an initial
positive velocity vo , the distance travelled by the body before coming to rest for the
first time is:
(A) 1 C2
ln (1 + vo2 )
2C2 C1
(B) 1 C2
ln (1 − vo2 )
2C2 C1
(C) 1
ln(C1 + C2 vo2 )
2C2
(D) 1
ln(1 + C2 vo2 )
2C2
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Q.13 The three-dimensional stress-strain relationship for an isotropic material is given as
σxx P Q Q 0 0 0 εxx
σyy Q P Q 0 0 0 εyy
σzz Q Q P 0 0 0 εzz
τyz = 0 0 0 R 0 0 γyz
τxz 0 0 0 0 R 0 γxz
τ
{ xy } [ 0 0 0 0 0 R ] {γxy }
where, P, Q and R are the three elastic constants, σ and τ represent normal and shear
stresses and ε and γ represent normal and engineering shear strains. Which one of
the following options is correct?
(A) P−Q
R=
2
(B) Q−P
R=
2
(C) P−R
Q=
2
(D) R−P
Q=
2
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.14 Consider the free vibration responses P, Q, R and S (shown in the figure) of a single
degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system with the same initial conditions. For
the different damping cases listed below, which one of the following options is
correct?
1. Overdamped
2. Underdamped
3. Critically damped
4. Undamped
(A) P – 1, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 3
(B) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3
(C) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 1
(D) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1
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Q.15 For a single degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system subjected to harmonic
forcing, the part of the motion (response) that decays due to damping is known as:
(A) transient response
(B) steady-state response
(C) harmonic response
(D) non-transient response
Q.16 For an ideal gas, the specific heat at constant pressure is 1147 J/kg K and the ratio
of specific heats is equal to 1.33. What is the value of the gas constant for this gas
in J/kg K?
(A) 284.6
(B) 1005
(C) 862.4
(D) 8314
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Q.17 A surrogate liquid hydrocarbon fuel, approximated as C10H12, is being burned in a
land-based gas turbine combustor with dry air (79% N2 and 21% O2 by volume).
How many moles of dry air are required for the stoichiometric combustion of the
surrogate fuel with dry air at atmospheric temperature and pressure?
(A) 61.9
(B) 30.95
(C) 13
(D) 10
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Q.18 In the figure shown below, various thermodynamics processes for an ideal gas are
represented. Match each curve with the process that it best represents.
(A) aa’ – Isentropic; bb’ – Isothermal; cc’ – Isobaric; dd’ – Isochoric
(B) aa’ – Isothermal; bb’ – Isentropic; cc’ – Isochoric; dd’ – Isobaric
(C) aa’ – Isothermal; bb’ – Isentropic; cc’ – Isobaric; dd’ – Isochoric
(D) aa’ – Isothermal; bb’ – Isobaric; cc’ – Isentropic; dd’ – Isochoric
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Q.19 In an airbreathing gas turbine engine, the combustor inlet temperature is 600 K. The
heating value of the fuel is 43.4 × 106 J/kg. Assume Cp to be 1100 J/kg K for air and
burned gases, and fuel-air ratio f << 1.0. Neglect kinetic energy at the inlet and exit
of the combustor and assume 100% burner efficiency. What is the fuel-air ratio
required to achieve 1300 K temperature at the combustor exit?
(A) 0.0177
(B) 0.0215
(C) 0.0127
(D) 0.0277
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Q.20 Which one of the following figures represents the drag polar of a general aviation
aircraft?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.21 In the context of steady, inviscid, incompressible flows, consider the superposition
of a uniform flow with speed U along the positive x-axis (from left to right), and a
source of strength Λ located at the origin. Which one of the following statements is
NOT true regarding the location of the stagnation point of the resulting flow?
(A) It is located to the left of the origin
(B) It moves closer to the origin for increasing Λ, while U is held constant
(C) It moves closer to the origin for increasing U, while Λ is held constant
(D) It is located along the x-axis
Q.22 On Day 1, an aircraft flies with a speed of V1 m/s at an altitude where the
temperature is T1 K. On Day 2, the same aircraft flies with a speed of √1.2 V1 m/s
at an altitude where the temperature is 1.2 T1 K. How does the Mach number M2 on
Day 2 compare with the Mach number M1 on Day 1?
Assume ideal gas behavior for air. Also assume the ratio of specific heats and
molecular weight of air to be the same on both the days.
(A) M2 = 0.6 M1
(B) M2 = M1
(C) 1
M2 = M1
√1.2
(D) M2 = √1.2 M1
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Q.23 Consider a steady, isentropic, supersonic flow (Mach number M > 1) entering a
Convergent-Divergent (CD) duct as shown in the figure. Which one of the
following options correctly describes the flow at the throat?
(A) Can only be supersonic
(B) Can only be sonic
(C) Can either be sonic or supersonic
(D) Can only be subsonic
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Q.24 Consider steady, incompressible, inviscid flow past two airfoils shown in the figure.
The coefficient of pressure at the trailing edge of the airfoil with finite angle, shown
in figure (I), is CPI while that at the trailing edge of the airfoil with cusp, shown in
figure (II), is CPII . Which one of the following options is TRUE?
(A) CPI < 1, CPII < 1
(B) CPI = 1, CPII = 1
(C) CPI = 1, CPII < 1
(D) CPI < 1, CPII = 1
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.25 Which of the following options is/are correct?
(A)
The stress-strain graph for a nonlinear elastic material is
as shown in the figure
(B) Material properties are independent of position in a homogeneous material
(C) An isotropic material has infinitely many planes of material symmetry
(D)
The stress-strain graph for a linear elastic material is
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.26 Which of the following statements is/are correct about a satellite moving in a
geostationary orbit?
(A) The orbit lies in the equatorial plane
(B) The orbit is circular about the center of the Earth
(C) The time period of motion is 90 minutes
(D) The satellite is visible from all parts of the Earth
Q.27 In a conventional configuration airplane, the rudder can be used:
(A) to overcome adverse yaw during a turning maneuver
(B) to overcome yawing moment due to failure of one engine in a multi engine airplane
(C) for landing the airplane in crosswind conditions
(D) for enhancing longitudinal stability
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.28 Which of the following statements about a general aviation aircraft, while operating
at point Q in the V-n diagram, is/are true?
(A) The aircraft has the highest turn rate
(B) The aircraft has the smallest turn radius
(C) The aircraft is flying with minimum drag
(D) The aircraft is operating at CL,max
Q.29 Two fair dice with numbered faces are rolled together. The faces are numbered from
1 to 6. The probability of getting odd numbers on both the dice is
________________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Q.30 A particle acted upon by a constant force 4î + ĵ − 3k̂ N is displaced from point A
with position vector î + 2ĵ + 3k̂ m to point B with position vector 5î + 4ĵ + k̂ m.
The work done by this force is _______ J (answer in integer).
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Q.31 Using Trapezoidal rule with one interval, the approximate value of the definite
integral:
2
dx
∫ 2
= ______
1 1+x
(rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Q.32 A material has Poisson’s ratio ν = 0.5 and Young’s modulus E=2500 MPa. The
percentage change in its volume when subjected to a hydrostatic stress of magnitude
10 MPa is ______ (answer in integer).
Q.33 An airplane experiences a net vertical ground reaction of 15000 N during landing.
The weight of the airplane is 10000 N. The landing vertical load factor, defined as
the ratio of inertial load to the weight of the aircraft, is __________ (rounded off to
1 decimal place).
Q.34 An aircraft with a turbojet engine is flying with 250 m/s speed at an altitude,
where the density of air is 1 kg/m3. The inlet area of the engine is 1 m2. The
average velocity of the exhaust gases at the exit of the nozzle, with respect to
aircraft, is 550 m/s. Assume the engine exit pressure is equal to the ambient
pressure and the fuel-air ratio is negligible. The uninstalled thrust produced
by the engine at these conditions is _________ N
(rounded off to the nearest integer).
Q.35 Using thin airfoil theory, the lift coefficient of a NACA 0012 airfoil placed at 5o
angle of attack in a uniform flow is _____________ (rounded off to 2 decimal
places).
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Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.36 Given y = e px sin qx , where p and q are non-zero real numbers, the value of
the differential expression
d2y dy
2
− 2p + (p2 + q 2 )y
dx dx
is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) p2 + q 2
(D) pq
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Q.37 The volume of the solid formed by a complete rotation of the shaded portion of the
circle of radius R about the y-axis is kπR3 . The value of k is:
(A) 5
12
(B) 5
24
(C) 7
12
(D) 7
24
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Q.38 As per the International Standard Atmosphere model, which one of the following
options about density variation with increase in altitude in the isothermal layer is
correct?
(A) remains constant
(B) increases linearly
(C) decreases linearly
(D) decreases exponentially
Q.39 At a point in the trajectory of an unpowered space vehicle moving about the Earth,
the altitude above the mean sea level is 600 km, and the speed with reference to a
coordinate system fixed to the center of mass of the Earth is 9 km/s. Assume that
the Earth is a sphere with a radius 6400 km and GMEartℎ = 3.98 × 1014 m3/s2,
where, G is the universal gravitational constant and MEartℎ is mass of the Earth.
The trajectory is:
(A) Circular
(B) Elliptic
(C) Parabolic
(D) Hyperbolic
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Q.40 A multistage axial compressor, with overall isentropic efficiency of 0.83, is used to
compress air at a stagnation temperature of 300 K through a pressure ratio of 10:1.
Each stage of the compressor is similar, and the stagnation temperature rise across
each compressor stage is 20 K. Assume Cp = 1005 J/kg K and = 1.4 for air. How
many stages are there in the compressor?
(A) 17
(B) 13
(C) 19
(D) 11
Q.41 An aircraft with a turbojet engine is flying at 250 m/s. The uninstalled thrust
produced by the engine is 60000 N. The heating value of the fuel is 44 × 106 J/kg.
The engine has a thermal efficiency of 35% while burning the fuel at a rate of
3 kg/s. Assume the engine exit pressure to be equal to the ambient pressure. What
is the propulsion efficiency of the engine under these conditions (in percentage)?
(A) 32.5
(B) 35.0
(C) 11.4
(D) 92.4
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Q.42 Consider a flat plate, with a sharp leading edge, placed in a uniform flow of speed
U. The direction of the free-stream flow is aligned with the plate. Assume that the
flow is steady, incompressible and laminar. The thickness of the boundary layer at
a fixed stream-wise location L from the leading edge of the plate is δ. Which one of
the following correctly describes the variation of δ with U?
(A) δ∝U
(B) δ ∝ U 3/2
(C) δ ∝ U 1/2
(D) δ ∝ U −1/2
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Q.43 Shock structures for flow at three different Mach numbers over a given wedge are
shown in the figure below. Assuming that only the weak shock solutions are
possible for the attached oblique shocks, which one of the following options is
TRUE?
(A) M1 < M2 < M3
(B) M1 > M2 > M3
(C) M1 < M3< M2
(D) M3 < M1 < M2
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Q.44 Air flowing at Mach number M = 2 from left to right accelerates to M = 3 across an
expansion corner as shown in the figure. What is the value of δ (the angle between
the Forward and Rearward Mach lines) in degrees?
The values of the Prandtl-Meyer functions are ν(3) = 49.76o and ν(2) = 26.38o .
(A) 23.38
(B) 19.47
(C) 53.38
(D) 33.91
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Q.45 Consider the function
2
f(x) = {x for x<0
x for x≥0
where x is real. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) The function is continuous for all x
(B) The derivative of the function is discontinuous at x = 0
(C) The derivative of the function is continuous at x = 1
(D) The function is discontinuous at x = 0
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Q.46 The figure shows plots of two yield loci for an isotropic material, where σI and σII
are the principal stresses, and σY is the yield stress in uniaxial tension. Which of the
following statements is/are correct?
(A) Criterion P represents the von Mises criterion
(B) Criterion Q represents the Tresca criterion
(C) Criterion P represents the Tresca criterion
(D) Criterion Q represents the von Mises criterion
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Q.47 Which of the following statements about absolute ceiling and service ceiling for a
piston-propeller aircraft is/are correct?
(A) The altitude corresponding to absolute ceiling is higher than that for service ceiling
(B) At the absolute ceiling, the power required for cruise equals the maximum power
available
(C) The altitude corresponding to absolute ceiling is lower than that for service ceiling
(D) At the service ceiling, the maximum rate of climb is 50 ft/min
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Q.48 For an airplane having directional / weathercock static stability, which of the
following options is/are correct?
(A) The airplane when disturbed in yaw, from an equilibrium state, will experience a
restoring moment
(B) The variation of yawing moment coefficient (Cn ) with
sideslip angle (β) for the airplane will look like
(C) The airplane will always tend to point into the relative wind
(D) The airplane when disturbed in yaw will return to equilibrium state in a finite
amount of time after removing the disturbance
Q.49 Which of the following statements is/are TRUE for an axial turbine?
(A) For a fixed rotational speed, the mass flow rate increases with increase in the flow
coefficient
(B) The absolute stagnation enthalpy of the flow decreases across the nozzle row
(C) The relative stagnation enthalpy remains unchanged through the rotor
(D) For a fixed rotational speed, the mass flow rate remains unchanged with a change
in the flow coefficient
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Q.50 Which of the following statements is/are TRUE for a single stage axial compressor?
(A) Starting from design condition and keeping the mass flow rate constant, if the blade
RPM is increased, the compressor rotor may experience positive incidence flow
separation (actual relative flow angle greater than the design blade angle)
(B) Starting from design condition at the same blade RPM, if the mass flow rate is
increased, the compressor rotor may experience positive incidence flow separation
(actual relative flow angle greater than the design blade angle)
(C) Keeping the mass flow rate constant, if the blade RPM is increased, the compressor
may experience surge
(D) At the same blade RPM, if the mass flow rate is increased, the compressor may
experience surge
Q.51 5 −4
Consider the matrix A = [ ], where k is a constant. If the determinant of A is
k −1
3, then the ratio of the largest eigenvalue of A to the constant k is ___________
(rounded off to 1 decimal place).
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Q.52 The state of stress at a point is caused by two separate loading cases. One of them
produces a pure uniaxial tension along the x ′ direction, and other one produces a
pure uniaxial compression along the y ′ direction, as shown in the figure. The sum
of maximum and minimum principal stresses for the resultant state of stress caused
by both loads acting simultaneously is ___________ N/mm2 (rounded off to 1
decimal place).
Q.53 In the figure shown below, the magnitude of internal force in member BC
is ___________ N (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
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Q.54 The cross section of a thin-walled beam with uniform wall thickness t, shown in the
figure, is subjected to a bending moment Mx = 10 Nm. If h = 1 m and
t = 0.001 m, the magnitude of maximum normal stress in the cross section
is _________N/m2 (answer in integer).
Q.55 The equations of motion for a two degrees of freedom undamped spring-mass
system are:
mẍ 1 + 2kx1 − kx2 = 0
mẍ 2 − kx1 + 2kx2 = 0
where m and k represent mass and stiffness respectively, in corresponding SI units,
and x1 and x2 are the degrees of freedom. The larger of the two natural frequencies
k
is given by: ω = α√m rad/s. The value of α is ________ (rounded off to 2 decimal
places).
Q.56 Consider the plane strain field given by
εxx = 10 xy 2 , εyy = −5 x 2 y and γxy = A xy (2x − y)
where, A is a constant and γxy is the engineering shear strain. The value of the
constant A for the strain field to be compatible is _____________ (rounded off to 1
decimal place).
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Q.57 A chemical rocket with an ideally expanded flow through the nozzle produces
5 × 106 N thrust at sea level. The specific impulse of the rocket is 200 s and
acceleration due to gravity at the sea level is 9.8 m/s2. The propellent mass flow
rate out of the rocket nozzle is _________ kg/s (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Q.58 A centrifugal compressor is designed to operate with air. At the leading edge of the
tip of the inducer (eye of the impeller), the blade angle is 45o, and the relative Mach
number is 1.0. The stagnation temperature of the incoming air is 300 K. Consider
= 1.4. Neglect pre-whirl and slip. The inducer tip speed is ________ m/s (rounded
off to the nearest integer).
Q.59 Consider the following Fanno flow problem: Flow enters a constant area duct at a
temperature of 273 K and a Mach number 0.2 and eventually reaches sonic
condition (Mach number =1) due to friction. Assume γ = 1.4. The static
temperature at the location where sonic condition is reached is_____________ K
(rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Q.60 Consider an artificial satellite moving around the Moon in an elliptic orbit. The
altitude of the satellite from the Moon’s surface at the perigee is 25 km and that at
the apogee is 134 km. Assume the Moon to be spherical with a radius of 1737 km.
The trajectory is considered with reference to a coordinate system fixed to the center
of mass of the Moon. The ratio of the speed of the satellite at the perigee to that at
the apogee is ___________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Q.61 For an aircraft moving at 4 km altitude above mean sea level at a Mach number of
0.2, the ratio of equivalent air speed to true air speed is _______ (rounded off to 2
decimal places).
The density of air at mean sea level is 1.225 kg/m3 and at 4 km altitude is
0.819 kg/m3 .
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Q.62 For a general aviation airplane, one of the complex conjugate pair of eigenvalues
for longitudinal dynamics is given by −0.039 ± 0.0567 i (in SI units). If the
system is disturbed to excite only this mode, the time taken for the amplitude of
response to become half in magnitude is _______ s (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
Q.63 The figure (not to scale) shows a control volume to estimate the forces on the airfoil
with elliptic cross-section. Surfaces 2 and 3 are streamlines. Velocity profiles are
measured at the upstream end (surface 1) and at the downstream end (surface 4) of
D
the control volume. The drag coefficient for the airfoil is defined as Cd = 1 2 ,
ρ U∞ c
2
where D is the drag force on the airfoil per unit span and is the density of the air.
The static pressure, p , is constant over the entire surface of the control volume.
Assuming the flow to be incompressible, two-dimensional and steady, the Cd for
the airfoil is _________ (rounded off to 3 decimal places).
Q.64 An airplane of mass 1000 kg is in a steady level flight with a speed of 50 m/s. The
wing has an elliptic planform with a span of 20 m and planform area 31.4 m2.
Assuming the density of air at that altitude to be 1 kg/m3 and acceleration due to
gravity to be 10 m/s2, the induced drag on the wing is _________ N (rounded off to
1 decimal place).
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Q.65 It is desired to estimate the aerodynamic drag, D, on a car traveling at a speed of
30 m/s. A one-third scale model of the car is tested in a wind-tunnel following the
principles of dynamic similarity. The drag on the scaled model is measured to be
Dm. The ratio D/Dm is _________ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
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Organizing Institute: IISc Bengaluru
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Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Final Answer Key
Question
Q. No. Session Section Key/Range Mark
Type
1 5 MCQ GA A 1
2 5 MCQ GA D 1
3 5 MCQ GA A 1
4 5 MCQ GA C 1
5 5 MCQ GA A 1
6 5 MCQ GA C 2
7 5 MCQ GA A 2
8 5 MCQ GA C 2
9 5 MCQ GA A 2
10 5 MCQ GA A 2
11 5 MCQ AE A 1
12 5 MCQ AE A 1
13 5 MCQ AE A 1
14 5 MCQ AE C 1
15 5 MCQ AE A 1
16 5 MCQ AE A 1
17 5 MCQ AE A 1
18 5 MCQ AE C 1
19 5 MCQ AE A 1
20 5 MCQ AE D 1
21 5 MCQ AE B 1
22 5 MCQ AE B 1
23 5 MCQ AE C 1
24 5 MCQ AE C 1
25 5 MSQ AE B;C;D 1
26 5 MSQ AE A;B 1
27 5 MSQ AE A;B;C 1
28 5 MSQ AE A;B;D 1
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29 5 NAT AE 0.24 to 0.26 1
30 5 NAT AE 24 to 24 1
31 5 NAT AE 0.35 to 0.35 1
32 5 NAT AE 0 to 0 1
33 5 NAT AE 1.5 to 1.5 1
34 5 NAT AE 75000 to 75000 1
35 5 NAT AE 0.54 to 0.56 1
36 5 MCQ AE A 2
37 5 MCQ AE B 2
38 5 MCQ AE D 2
39 5 MCQ AE B 2
40 5 MCQ AE A 2
41 5 MCQ AE A 2
42 5 MCQ AE D 2
43 5 MCQ AE D 2
44 5 MCQ AE D 2
45 5 MSQ AE A;B;C 2
46 5 MSQ AE A;B 2
47 5 MSQ AE A;B 2
48 5 MSQ AE A;B;C 2
49 5 MSQ AE A;C 2
50 5 MSQ AE A;C 2
51 5 NAT AE 1.4 to 1.6 2
52 5 NAT AE 0 to 0 2
53 5 NAT AE 141.0 to 141.5 2
54 5 NAT AE 14900 to 15100 2
55 5 NAT AE 1.72 to 1.74 2
56 5 NAT AE 4.9 to 5.1 2
57 5 NAT AE 2500 to 2600 2
58 5 NAT AE 230 to 240 2
59 5 NAT AE 227.0 to 231.0 2
60 5 NAT AE 1.05 to 1.07 2
61 5 NAT AE 0.80 to 0.84 2
62 5 NAT AE 17.7 to 17.9 2
63 5 NAT AE 0.018 to 0.022 2
64 5 NAT AE 62.0 to 66.0 2
65 5 NAT AE 1.0 to 1.0 2
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Source: GATE. Question paper published by GATE.