GATE AG 2018: Agricultural Engineering
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GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-4
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 “When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) stairs, stares (B) stairs, stairs
(C) stares, stairs (D) stares, stares
Q.2 “In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) rational (B) reasonable (C) errant (D) good
Q.3 For 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π, sin x and cos x are both decreasing functions in the interval ________.
π π 3π 3π
(A) (0, 2 ) (B) ( 2 , π) (C) (π, 2 ) (D) ( 2 , 2π)
Q.4 The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Q.5 Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:
(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm
(ii) A cube of side 8 cm
(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm
(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns to city A by the same route. The
speed of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys were constant at 60 km/h and
90 km/h, respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the entire journey?
(A) 72 (B) 73 (C) 74 (D) 75
GA 1/2
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GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-4
Q.7 A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many
parallelograms are formed?
(A) 20 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 72
Q.8 To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of
6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000
candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was
answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions A and B were answered
correctly by 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B and C were answered correctly by
90,000 candidates. Both questions A and C were answered correctly by 80,000 candidates.
If the number of students answering all questions correctly is the same as the number
answering none, how many candidates failed to clear the test?
(A) 30,000 (B) 2,70,000 (C) 3,90,000 (D) 4,20,000
1
Q.9 If x 2 + x − 1 = 0 what is the value of x 4 + ?
x4
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
Q.10 In a detailed study of annual crow births in India, it was found that there was relatively no
growth during the period 2002 to 2004 and a sudden spike from 2004 to 2005. In another
unrelated study, it was found that the revenue from cracker sales in India which remained
fairly flat from 2002 to 2004, saw a sudden spike in 2005 before declining again in 2006.
The solid line in the graph below refers to annual sale of crackers and the dashed line refers
to the annual crow births in India. Choose the most appropriate inference from the above
data.
(A) There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.
(B) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.
(C) If cracker sale declines, crow birth will decline.
(D) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GA 2/2
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GATE 2018 Agricultural Engineering
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1 The general solution to the second order linear homogeneous differential equation
y″ - 6y′ + 25y = 0 is
(A) e3x (a cos 4x + b sin 4x) (B) e3ix (a cos 4x + b sin 4x)
(C) e4x (a cos 3x + b sin 3x) (D) e4ix (a cos 3x + b sin 3x)
Q.2 Solution of f(x) = x4 +2 x3 – 4 x2 + 3 x – 1 = 0 is
(A) 0.333 (B) 0.646 (C) 0.658 (D) 1.000
Q.3 D/2 2R2 x dx
Integration of ∫ is
0 (R 2 + x 2 )2
2 4R2
R
(A) 2 2 (B)
R +D 4R2 + D2
2 D2
D
(C) 2 2 (D)
R +D 4R2 + D2
Q.4 n 3
The type of the sequence an = (n−1) is
(A) oscillatory (B) bounded
(C) converging (D) diverging
Q.5 For accepting or rejecting a null hypothesis, which one of the following is NOT used as a
significance test method in statistics?
(A) Z-test (B) Student’s t-test
(C) Pearson’s correlation (D) Relative standard deviation
Q.6 For a two-wheel drive tractor, use of differential lock in adverse field condition ensures
(A) equal distribution of torque to both the drive wheels.
(B) equal distribution of power to both the drive wheels.
(C) distribution of higher amount of torque to the wheel under poor traction.
(D) distribution of higher amount of torque to the wheel under better traction.
Q.7 During field evaluation of a combine harvester, total grain collected at the grain tank was
135 kg. Amount of threshed grain found over walker and shoe were 0.65 kg and 2.4 kg,
respectively. Unthreshed grain lost with straw and chaff were 4.54 kg and 0.28 kg,
respectively. Threshing efficiency of the combine harvester in percent is
(A) 94.37 (B) 94.49 (C) 96.50 (D) 96.63
AG 1/9
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GATE 2018 Agricultural Engineering
Q.8 Match the following items of Column I with the corresponding items of Column II:
Column I Column II
P. Cetane number 1. Beam radiation
Q. Pyrheliometer 2. Anti-knock quality
R. Octane number 3. Total solar radiation
S. Pyranometer 4. Ignition quality
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
Q.9 Constituents of the producer gas contributing to its heating value are
(A) CO and CO2 (B) CH4 and CO2 (C) CO and H2 (D) CO2 and H2
Q.10 One of the key assumptions made by Dupuit-Forchheimer about the flow behavior in the
porous medium towards subsurface drains is
(A) homogeneous medium (B) isotropic medium
(C) horizontal streamlines (D) uniform recharge
Q.11 The depths from the soil surface to subsurface tile drains, impermeable soil layer and the
highest water table are measured as 2.8 m, 5.0 m and 0.8 m, respectively. The effective
hydraulic head for drainage in meter is
(A) 0.8 (B) 2.0 (C) 2.2 (D) 4.2
Q.12 The discharge from a sprinkler nozzle depends on
(A) operating pressure and nozzle geometry.
(B) operating pressure and distribution pattern.
(C) application rate and nozzle angle.
(D) operating pressure and application rate.
Q.13 If the void ratio of a soil column is 0.43, the soil porosity is
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.40 (C) 0.70 (D) 0.75
Q.14 Which one of the following is a WRONG statement?
(A) The head generated by a centrifugal pump at zero discharge is the ‘shutoff head’.
(B) To avoid cavitation in centrifugal pumps, the net positive suction head should be more
than the theoretical atmospheric pressure.
(C) According to the affinity laws of centrifugal pumps, the head varies with the square of
the impeller speed.
(D) Most of the turbine pumps have operational characteristics closer to those of the
centrifugal pumps than the propeller pumps.
AG 2/9
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GATE 2018 Agricultural Engineering
Q.15 If the departure and latitude of a line during Theodolite survey are 70.03 m and -100 m,
respectively, the whole circle bearing of this line in degree is
(A) 55 (B) 125 (C) 135 (D) 145
Q.16 Convective film heat transfer coefficient (h) of air (thermal conductivity=0.025 W m-1 K-1)
in W m-2 K-1, trapped between two parallel glass panes in a window 1.5 mm apart, is
(A) 3.75 (B) 16.67 (C) 37.52 (D) 60.21
Q.17 Log mean temperature difference (LMTD) correction factor (F) is applicable to
(A) Spiral tube heat exchanger (B) Steam jacketed kettle
(C) Plate heat exchanger (D) Evaporator tubes
Q.18 Which one of the following statements related to parboiling of paddy is NOT correct?
(A) Irreversible granule swelling occurs during heating.
(B) Parboiling process is used to salvage wet or damaged paddy.
(C) Parboiled rice takes less time to cook as compared to raw rice due to starch
gelatinization.
(D) Milling yield of paddy increases due to starch gelatinization.
Q.19 In refining of the rice bran oil for edible purpose, neutralization process is carried out
mainly to remove
(A) wax and organic impurities (B) gums and mucilage
(C) saturated glycerides (D) free fatty acids
Q.20 Which one of the following chemicals is NOT used for fumigation in either horizontal or
vertical storage structures to kill insects?
(A) Methyl bromide (B) Phosphine
(C) Phostoxin (D) Silver sulphate
Q.21 Match the following agricultural/food by-products in Column I with their respective
value added products in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Banana pseudostem 1. Silicon tetrachloride
Q. Coconut shell 2. Protein food
R. Meat waste 3. Starch
S. Rice husk 4. Furfural
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
AG 3/9
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GATE 2018 Agricultural Engineering
Q.22 An epicyclic gear train consists of a sun gear, four planet gears pinned on a planet carrier
(which is mounted on the sun gear) and a fixed ring gear (in which the entire sun-planet
gear assembly is inserted). If the ring gear has 56 teeth and each planet gear has 18 teeth,
the number of teeth on the sun gear is _______.
Q.23 A self-propelled power reaper with a 1.2 m wide cutter bar was operated at a forward speed
of 4 km h-1. Turning loss during operation was observed to be 25 minutes per hectare.
Neglecting any other losses, the field efficiency of the reaper will be ________%.
Q.24 The porosity and compressibility of a 7.8 m thick confined aquifer are 0.25 and
1×10-8 m2 N-1, respectively. The storage coefficient of the aquifer is 6.5×10-4. To release
650 m3 of water from 1 km2 of this aquifer, the average decline in hydraulic head will
be ________m.
Q.25 Molecular diffusivity (DAB) of water vapour in air is 2.6×10-5 m2 s-1 over an effective
distance of 3 mm. Density and coefficient of viscosity of air are 1.2 kg m-3 and
2×10-5 kg m-1 s-1, respectively. Sherwood Number (NSh) for water vapour in air
is _________.
Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 5 3 −3 −1
Rank of a matrix [ 3 2 −2 −1] is
2 −1 2 8
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
2 particle is subjected to forces P = 2 i - 5 j + 6 k and Q = - i + 2 j – k. The positional
Q.27 A
vectors are ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑
OA = 4 i – 3 j – 2 k and ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑
OB = 6 i + j – 3 k. Work done by the resultant force
(F = P + Q) to move the particle from A to B is
A B
⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑
OA ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑
OB
O
(A) 2 (B) -5 (C) 12 (D) -15
AG 4/9
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GATE 2018 Agricultural Engineering
Q.28 A two-wheel drive tractor weighing 18 kN has a wheel base 1.8 m. Its centre of gravity is
located 600 mm ahead of the rear axle centre, under static condition, on a level ground.
When this tractor is used to pull a disc plough hitched at a height of 390 mm from the
ground, the draft observed is 6 kN. The change in reaction on rear wheels of the tractor due
to pull in kN is
(A) 1.30 (B) 1.95 (C) 3.90 (D) 5.85
Q.29 Match the following items in Column I with the corresponding items in Column II:
Column I Column II
P. Flownet 1. Soil erosion
Q. EI30 Index 2. Curve number
R. Groynes 3. Equipotential line
S. Isobath 4. Groundwater
T. Runoff 5. River bank
(A) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3, T-1 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5, T-2
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-4, T-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4, T-5
Q.30 The velocity (v) of a tractor, which starts from rest, is given at fixed intervals of time (t) as
follows:
t (min) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
v (m min-1) 0 0.8 1.5 2.1 2.4 2.7 1.7 0.9 0.4 0.2 0
Using Simpson’s 1/3rd rule, the distance covered by the tractor in 20 minutes will be
_________m.
Q.31 In a box, there are 2 red, 3 black and 4 blue coloured balls. The probability of drawing 2
blue balls in sequence without replacing, and then drawing 1 black ball from this box is
_________%.
Q.32 An open belt drive system transmits 5 kW power using a flat belt of width and thickness as
80 mm and 5 mm, respectively. The driving shaft speed is 1500 rpm and the driven shaft
speed is 500 rpm. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley is 0.20, and the
wrap angle of the belt is 168°. If diameter of the smaller pulley is 200 mm, maximum stress
induced in the belt will be _________ MPa.
AG 5/9
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GATE 2018 Agricultural Engineering
Q.33 A 2 m3 biogas plant is to be operated using cow-dung as feedstock. The cow-dung is mixed
with water in proportion of 1:1 (by weight) to form a slurry of density 1090 kg m-3. The
yield of biogas is 0.036 m3 kg-1 of cow-dung. If the hydraulic retention time is 40 days,
volume of the digester of the biogas plant will be ________ m3.
Q.34 A power tiller with diesel engine produces 12 kW of brake power with a brake thermal
efficiency of 30%. If the air-fuel ratio in the combustion process is 14:1 and heating value
of the fuel is 45 MJ kg-1, air consumption rate of the engine will be ________ kg h-1.
Q.35 Air enters into an engine cylinder at a pressure of 100 kPa and temperature of 300 K in the
suction stroke of an ideal Otto cycle. The cylinder clearance volume is 600 cm 3 and
compression ratio is 8:1. The expansion stroke of the cycle is polytropic in nature. The
pressure at the beginning of the expansion stroke is 10 MPa and the temperature at the end
of the expansion stroke is 1800 K. The polytropic exponent of the expansion stroke is
________.
Q.36 A tractor drawn five-tine sweep type cultivator is set at an angle (load angle) of 45o with
the soil surface during its operation. The sweep of each tine experiences a normal force of
960 N on its surface. If the coefficient of soil-metal friction is 0.3, the total draft
requirement of the cultivator is ________ kN.
Q.37 A two-wheel drive tractor with rear wheel rolling radius of 600 mm develops a tractive
force of 18.5 kN at a wheel slip of 12%. The engine speed is 2400 rpm and the
transmission ratio from the engine to the rear wheels is 120:1. If the tractor experiences a
motion resistance of 1.75 kN, the drawbar power developed by the tractor will be
________ kW.
Q.38 A single plate dry clutch transmits 15 kW power at 1200 rpm. The clutch sustains a
maximum axial load of 2.65 kN. The ratio of outer to inner diameter of the frictional
surface is 1.25:1. Considering uniform wear with a coefficient of friction of 0.3 on both the
frictional surfaces, the outer diameter of the clutch plate is ________ mm.
Q.39 A precision seed planter can plant 10 seeds per revolution of the metering plate with a row
to row distance of 450 mm at a speed of 6 km h-1. A plant population of 36 plants per
square meter is desired for the crop. The germination percentage of the seed is 90%. If the
planter ground wheel has a rolling radius of 350 mm, the speed ratio of metering plate to
the ground wheel required to obtain the desired plant population is ________.
AG 6/9
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GATE 2018 Agricultural Engineering
Q.40 The elevations of pressure gauge and porous cup of the tensiometer installed in unsaturated
zone are 145.8 m and 144.2 m, respectively. Pressure measured at the gauge is
-19.62×103 N m-2. The specific weight of water is 9810 N m-3. The estimated pressure at
the porous cup is ________ N m-2.
Q.41 The drawdown at the well face of a 30 cm diameter fully penetrating well in a confined
aquifer is 3 m. The radius of influence of this well is 3 km. For the same discharge and
aquifer condition, the drawdown at 300 m away from the centre of the well is ______m.
Q.42 A permanent matured orchard has a tree spacing of 4 m×5 m. Each tree has a shading area
of 40% to be irrigated with the ‘pig tail’ pattern multi-exit drip emitters. The effective
wetting geometry of each emitter is 2 m×2 m. The emitters have discharge constant and
exponent of 0.3 and 0.6, respectively. The coefficient of variation of emitter discharge is
0.06. The average and minimum operating pressures are 120 kPa and 100 kPa,
respectively. The emission uniformity of the emitters is ________%.
Q.43 The 6-hour unit hydrograph of a watershed is represented by an isosceles triangle with the
peak of 180 m3 s-1 and time to peak of 18 hours. The phi-index (∅) of this watershed is
3.0 mm h-1 and the constant baseflow is 20 m3 s-1. The accumulated rainfall received in this
watershed at 6 h and 12 h from the start of the storm are 38 mm and 106 mm, respectively.
The resulting peak of the flood hydrograph due to this storm event is _______ m3 s-1.
Q.44 Three geometrically identical Lysimeters (A, B and C) installed in a paddy field have
uniform initial ponding depths of 12 cm. After a week, the recorded water depths in A, B
and C are 10.4 cm, 8.6 cm, and 7.0 cm, respectively. Rainfall received during this week is
15 mm, and the crop coefficient of paddy is 0.94. Lysimeter ‘A’ has a closed bottom with
no plant. Lysimeter ‘B’ has an open bottom with no plant. Lysimeter ‘C’ has an open
bottom with paddy plants. Neglecting the boundary effects and groundwater contribution in
the Lysimeters, the weekly potential evapotranspiration will be _______ cm.
Q.45 A rectangular chute spillway is designed for gully erosion control with a drop (H) of 5 m,
peak flow of 1.81 m3 s-1 and maximum inlet water level of 0.81 m. Frictional head loss
over the apron is 20% of H. The design height of chute blocks is equal to the depth of flow
in the water way. Acceleration due to gravity (g) is 9.81 m s-2. If coefficient of discharge of
the weir section is 1.66, height of the chute blocks is _______m.
Q.46 Furrows of 120 m length with 0.5% slope are made at 90 cm spacing. The maximum non-
erosive stream flow rate is applied in a furrow that takes 1.0 hour to reach the lower end.
Then this flow rate is reduced to half of its size and, subsequently, continued for another
1.0 hour. The average depth of applied water is ________ cm.
AG 7/9
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GATE 2018 Agricultural Engineering
Q.47 A cylindrical tank of 1.5 m diameter and 4 m height is filled with a liquid by a pipe of
2.5 cm internal diameter. The density and dynamic viscosity of the liquid are 1050 kg m-3
and 1.6×10-3 N s m-2, respectively. If flow in the pipe is turbulent, the maximum time
required to fill the tank is _______ hours.
Q.48 In a falling film evaporator, the inside and outside diameters of the tube wall are 25 mm
and 27 mm, respectively. The tube is made of SS304 (thermal conductivity=15 W m-1 K-1)
and the inside convective film coefficient is 750 W m-2 K-1. Outside the tube wall, film
coefficient of condensing steam is 7175 W m-2 K-1. Based on the inside area of the tube,
the overall heat transfer coefficient is __________ W m-2 K-1.
Q.49 Mass flow rate of outside air through a duct is 735 kg h-1. Absolute humidity of air is
0.025 kg water vapour per kg dry air at 40°C. This air is mixed with equal quantity of
moist exhaust air coming out of a counter current dryer at 55°C. The mixed air is heated up
to 75°C to dry barley, fed at 174 kg h-1, at an initial moisture content of 31% (wet basis) to
a final value of 7% (dry basis). The absolute humidity of the exhaust air from the dryer in
‘kg water vapour per kg dry air’ will be ________.
Q.50 One ton of marine fishery products are to be brought down from 32°C temperature to
-18°C in half an hour time using a plate freezer. The freezing point of 85% water (based on
total mass of the product) present in the fish is -0.3°C. Specific heat capacities of fresh and
frozen fish solids (15% of total mass) are 3.2 and 1.8 kJ kg-1 K-1, respectively. Specific heat
capacity of fresh water is 4.2 kJ kg-1 K-1 and that of ice is 2.2 kJ kg-1 K-1. Latent heat of
crystallization of water is 335 kJ kg-1. For freezing the products, the compressor power
consumption with a vapour compression refrigeration cycle (coefficient of performance,
3.66) is_________ kW.
Q.51 Mycobacterium tuberculosis is having decimal reduction time of 13.5 s at 72°C. The count
of the organism is to be reduced by eight logarithmic cycles in milk pasteurization with
adequate holding at a temperature of 85°C. If Q10 value for the organism is 7.5, the
minimum holding time for the desired sterility of this particular organism at 85°C
is_________ seconds.
Q.52 A horizontal screw conveyor of length 3.2 m conveys solid grain having bulk density of
725 kg m-3. The screw diameter, shaft diameter and pitch of the screw are 0.6 m, 0.24 m
and 0.48 m, respectively. If the screw is operating with 80% of its volumetric capacity at a
speed of 50 rpm, the actual discharge of the screw is_________ ton h-1.
AG 8/9
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GATE 2018 Agricultural Engineering
Q.53 In a feed milling plant, it has been observed that 80% of the feed passes through IS sieve
340 (3.25 mm opening) and 80% of the ground feed passes through IS sieve 40 (0.42 mm
opening). The power requirement to crush the material with a feed rate of 3 ton h-1 is 6 kW.
Power requirement to crush 2 ton h-1 of the same feed using the above system so that 80%
of the ground feed pass through IS sieve 15 (opening 0.157 mm) is _________kW.
Q.54 Solid food particles having nominal size of 0.2 mm with shape factor of 0.8 and density of
1040 kg m-3 are to be fluidized using air at 28°C. The density and pressure of air at the
above-mentioned condition are 1.175 kg m-3 and 1.013×105 Pa, respectively. The voidage
at minimum fluidizing condition is 0.48. Use the value of ‘g’ as 9.81 m s-2. If cross section
of the empty bed is 0.5 m² and contains 520 kg of solids, the pressure drop at minimum
fluidization condition is _______ kPa.
Q.55 A single strength fruit juice is concentrated from 6% total solids (TS) to 24% by
ultrafiltration. The feed stream has a flow rate of 12 kg min-1. The ultrafiltration membrane
tube has an inside diameter of 80 mm and the pressure difference applied across the
membrane is 2 MPa. If the permeability constant is 4×10-5 kg water m-² kPa-1 s-1, the length
of the membrane tube is _________m.
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
AG 9/9
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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 1 MCQ GA A 1 2 MCQ GA C 1 3 MCQ GA B 1 4 MCQ GA C 1 5 MCQ GA D 1 6 MCQ GA A 2 7 MCQ GA C 2 8 MCQ GA D 2 9 MCQ GA C 2 10 MCQ GA A 2 1 MCQ AG A 1 2 MCQ AG C 1 3 MCQ AG D 1 4 MCQ AG C 1 5 MCQ AG D 1 6 MCQ AG D 1 7 MCQ AG D 1 8 MCQ AG B 1 9 MCQ AG C 1 10 MCQ AG C 1 11 MCQ AG B 1 12 MCQ AG A 1 13 MCQ AG A 1
Text of page 13
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 14 MCQ AG B 1 15 MCQ AG D 1 16 MCQ AG B 1 17 MCQ AG C 1 18 MCQ AG C 1 19 MCQ AG D 1 20 MCQ AG D 1 21 MCQ AG B 1 22 NAT AG 20.00 to 20.00 1 23 NAT AG 83.00 to 84.00 1 24 NAT AG 1.00 to 1.00 1 25 NAT AG 1.00 to 1.00 1 26 MCQ AG C 2 27 MCQ AG D 2 28 MCQ AG A 2 29 MCQ AG C 2 30 NAT AG 25.80 to 25.90 2 31 NAT AG 6.80 to 7.20 2 32 NAT AG 1.70 to 1.80 2 33 NAT AG 3.90 to 4.20 2 34 NAT AG 44.50 to 45.00 2 35 NAT AG 1.30 to 1.39 2 36 NAT AG 4.35 to 4.45 2
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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 37 NAT AG 18.00 to 21.00 2 38 NAT AG 166.00 to 168.00 2 39 NAT AG 3.90 to 4.10 2 40 NAT AG ‐3924 to ‐3924 2 41 NAT AG 0.68 to 0.71 2 42 NAT AG 83 to 86 2 43 NAT AG 1280 to 1280 2 44 NAT AG 5.00 to 5.00 2 45 NAT AG 0.13 to 0.14 2 46 NAT AG 6.00 to 6.00 2 47 NAT AG 16.30 to 16.50 2 48 NAT AG 650 to 670 2 49 NAT AG 0.086 to 0.089 2 50 NAT AG 68.00 to 69.00 2 51 NAT AG 7.80 to 8.00 2 52 NAT AG 196.00 to 200.00 2 53 NAT AG 7.90 to 8.10 2 54 NAT AG 9.80 to 10.40 2 55 NAT AG 7.0 to 7.6 2
Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 14
Source: GATE. Question paper published by GATE.