GATE Chemistry 2014
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GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination
1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.
2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
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GATE 2014 Examination
CY: Chemistry
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed
before the choice.
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any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.
Declaration by the candidate:
“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.
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GATE 2014 SET- 1 General Aptitude -GA
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.
The word closest in meaning to comprehension is
(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability
Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.
(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength
20
Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.
Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
Q.4
14
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.
If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3
(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0
(C) is parallel to the x-axis
(B) has a slope of +1
(D) has a slope of −1
Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
E
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?
G
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
AT
Q.6
Q.7
Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK
Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisal’s floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?
Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal
(A) 6 2 5 1 3 4
(B) 2 6 5 1 3 4
(C) 4 2 6 3 1 5
(D) 2 4 6 1 3 5
GA 1/2
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GATE 2014 SET- 1 General Aptitude -GA
Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?
Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25
Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)
2014
E
(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December
(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
GAT
(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall
(A) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
(B) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
GA 2/2
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GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY – CY
USEFUL DATA – CY CHEMISTRY
COMMON DATA
Gas constant : 8.314 J K−1 mol−1
: 0.083 L bar K−1 mol−1
Faraday constant : 96500 C mol−1
2.303RT/F at 300 K : 0.06 V
NA : 6.02 × 1023
Atomic numbers : B = 5, N = 7, Mg = 12, S = 16, Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25
Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Rh = 45, Ta = 73
)
14
20
E
AT
(G
Y
C
CY 1/10
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GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY – CY
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1 The maximum non-PV work that a system can perform at constant P is
(A) ∆H (B) ∆G (C) ∆S (D) ∆A
Q.2 Consider the reaction:
A+B C
The unit of the thermodynamic equilibrium constant for the reaction is
(A) mol L−1 (B) L mol−1 (C) mol2 L−2 (D) dimensionless
Q.3 The number of IR active vibrational normal modes of CO2 is ______________
Q.4 The number of C2 axes in CCl4 is ______________
)
Q.5
Q.6
The value of the magnetic quantum number of a px orbital is
(A) −1 (B) 0 (C) +1
14 (D) undefined
The molecular partition function for a system in which the energy levels are equispaced by ε , is
Q.7
(A) (B) 20
(C) (D)
A monoatomic gas, X, adsorbed on a surface, follows Langmuir adsorption isotherm. A plot of the
fraction of surface coverage, θ, against the concentration of the gas [X], for VERY LOW
(A)
E
concentration of the gas, is described by the equation
(B) 1
Q.8
(C) AT (D)
At a given temperature and pressure, the ratio of the average speed of hydrogen gas to that of
helium gas is approximately ______________
Q.9 (G
An example of nido-borane from the following is
(A) B4H10
(C) B6H12
(B) B6H10
(D) B8H14
Q.10Y The geometries of Ni(CO)4 and [NiCl4]2−, respectively, are
(A) tetrahedral and square planar
C (B) square planar and tetrahedral
(C) tetrahedral and tetrahedral
(D) square planar and square planar
Q.11 The number of S−S bonds in H2S5O6 is ______________
Q.12 In atomic absorption spectroscopy, the atomization process utilizes
(A) flame (B) electric field (C) magnetic field (D) electron beam
Q.13 At room temperature, the number of singlet resonances observed in the 1H NMR spectrum of
Me3CC(O)NMe2 (N,N-dimethyl pivalamide) is ______________
CY 2/10
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GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY – CY
Q.14 Amongst the following, the metal that does NOT form homoleptic polynuclear metal carbonyl is
(A) Mn (B) Fe (C) Cr (D) Co
Q.15 The reaction of [Cp2TaMe2]I (Cp = C5H5−) with NaOMe yields
(A) [Cp2Ta(OMe)2]I (B) [Cp2Ta(Me)OMe]I (C) Cp2Ta(Me)=CH2 (D) Cp2Ta(OMe)=CH2
Q.16 The complexes [Co(H2O)4Cl2]NO2 and [Co(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl are
(A) linkage isomers
(B) positional isomers
(C) ionization isomers
(D) optical isomers
Q.17 The major product of the following reaction is
)
(A) (B) (C)
14 (D)
20
Q.18 Amongst the following, the structure of guanosine is
(A)
E (B)
(C)
AT (D)
(G
Q.19Y The correct order of IR stretching frequency of the C=C in the following olefins is
C (A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I (C) III > II > I (D) III > I > II
Q.20 The correct order of the rate of solvolysis for the following chlorides in acetic acid is
(A) II > I > III (B) III > II > I (C) III > I > II (D) I > III > II
CY 3/10
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GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY – CY
Q.21 Formation of the product in the following photochemical reaction involves
H O
Ph h
O Ph
Ph Ph
H
(A) di-π-methane rearrangement (B) Paterno-Buchi reaction
(C) [2,3]-sigmatropic rearrangement (D) Norrish type I reaction
Q.22 The correct order of stability for the following conformations of cyclohexane is
(A) I > II > III (B) I > III > II (C) II > I > III )
(D) III > I > II
Q.23 The major product formed in the following reaction is
14
(A) (B)
20
(C) (D)
Q.24 The overall yield (in %) for the following reaction sequence is ______________
E
Q.25
AT
The most suitable reagent combination to effect the following conversion is
BzO BzO
O (G
OH
OBn
O
OBn
(A) i. NaH, CS2, then MeI; ii. Bu3SnH, AIBN, C6H6, reflux
(B) i. I2, PPh3, imidazole; ii. H2, 10% Pd-C, AcOH, high pressure
(C) i. Me3SiCl, pyridine, DMAP; ii. Bu3SnH, AIBN, C6H6, reflux
Y (D) i. MsCl, pyridine, DMAP; ii. LiAlH4, THF, reflux
Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.
CQ.26 ψ 6 ⁄
cos , is a proposed hydrogenic wavefunction, where Z = Atomic
number, r = radial distance from the nucleus, θ = azimuthal angle, N is a constant. The
INCORRECT statement about ψ is
(A) ψ = 0 in the xy-plane
(B) two radial nodes are present in ψ
(C) one angular node is present in ψ
(D) the size of the orbital decreases with increase in atomic number
Q.27 The van der Waals constants a and b of CO2 are 3.64 L2 bar mol−2 and 0.04 L mol−1, respectively.
The value of R is 0.083 bar dm3 mol−1 K−1. If one mole of CO2 is confined to a volume of 0.15 L at
300 K, then the pressure (in bar) exerted by the gas, is ______________
CY 4/10
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GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY – CY
Q.28 A plot of osmotic pressure against concentration (g L−1) of a polymer is constructed. The slope of
the plot
(A) increases with increase in temperature
(B) increases with increase in molar mass of the polymer
(C) decreases with decrease in concentration of the polymer
(D) decreases with increase in temperature
Q.29 A platinum electrode is immersed in a solution containing 0.1 M Fe2+ and 0.1 M Fe3+. Its potential
is found to be 0.77 V against SHE. Under standard conditions and considering activity coefficients
to be equal to unity, the potential of the electrode, when the concentration of Fe3+ is increased to
1 M, is ______________
Q.30 Molybdenum crystallizes in a bcc structure with unit cell dimensions of 0.314 nm. Considering the
atomic mass of molybdenum to be 96, its density (in kg m−3) is ______________)
Q.31
Q.32
14
The ratio of molecules distributed between two states is 9.22 × 106 at 300 K. The difference in
energy (in kJ mol−1) of the two states is ______________
A Carnot engine operates at 55% efficiency. If the temperature of reject steam is 105 oC, then the
Q.33
20
absolute temperature of input steam is ______________
Of the following plots, the correct representation of chemical potential (µ) against absolute
temperature (T) for a pure substance is (s, l and g denote solid, liquid and gas phases, respectively)
(A) (B)
E (C) (D)
AT
Q.34
(G
The enthalpy of fusion of ice at 273 K is 6.01 kJ mol−1 and the enthalpy of vaporization of water at
273 K is 44.83 kJ mol−1. The enthalpy of sublimation (in kJ mol−1) of ice at 273 K, is ___________
Q.35Y Suppose ψ1 and ψ2, are two hybrid orbitals:
ψ 1 = 0.12ψ 3 s + 0.63ψ 3 px + 0.77ψ 3 p y
C and
ψ 2 = 0.12ψ 3 s − 0.63ψ 3 px − 0.77ψ 3 p y
The angle (in degrees) between them is ______________
Q.36 BCl3 and NH4Cl were heated at 140 oC to give compound X, which when treated with NaBH4 gave
another compound Y. Compounds X and Y are
(A) X = B3N3H3Cl3 and Y = B3N3H6
(B) X = B3N3H9Cl3 and Y = B3N3H6
(C) X = B3N3H3Cl3 and Y = B3N3H12
(D) X = B3N3Cl6 and Y = B3N3H6
CY 5/10
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GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY – CY
Q.37 The number of microstates in term 1G is ______________
Q.38 The set of protons (underlined) in CH3CH2CH2OCH3 that would exhibit different splitting patterns
in high (500 MHz) and low (60 MHz) field 1H NMR, is
(A) CH3CH2CH2OCH3
(B) CH3CH2CH2OCH3
(C) CH3CH2CH2OCH3
(D) CH3CH2CH2OCH3
Q.39 Amongst the following, the complex ion that would show strong Jahn-Teller distortion is
(A) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (B) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ (C) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
Q.40 Amongst the following, the metal carbonyl species having the highest νCO stretching frequency is
(A) [Mn(CO)6]+ (B) Cr(CO)6 (C) [V(CO)6] −
)
(D) [Fe(CO)4]2−
Q.41 14
The correct order of thermal stability for the given compounds is
(A) TiMe4 > Ti(CH2CMe3)4 > TiEt4
(B) TiEt4 > Ti(CH2CMe3)4 > TiMe4
Q.42
(C) TiMe4 > TiEt4 > Ti(CH2CMe3)4
(D) Ti(CH2CMe3)4 > TiMe4 > TiEt4
20
Amongst the following, the complex ion that is expected to show the highest magnetic moment at
room temperature is
Q.43
(A) [Ni(CN)4]2−
MnCr2O4 is
E
(B) [Fe(CN)6]3− (C) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Co(CN)6]3−
AT
(A) normal spinel with total CFSE of −15.5 Dq
(B) inverse spinel with total CFSE of −15.5 Dq
(C) normal spinel with total CFSE of −24 Dq
(D) inverse spinel with total CFSE of −24 Dq
Q.44
(G
Mg2+ is preferred in photosynthesis by chlorophyll because
(A) it has strong spin-orbit coupling
(B) it has weak spin-orbit coupling
(C) it is a heavy metal
(D) it binds strongly with chlorophyll
Q.45
Y In Monsanto acetic acid process shown below, the role of HI is
C (A) to covert CH3OH to a stronger nucleophile (CH3O−)
(B) to reduce the Rh(I) catalyst to a Rh(0) species
(C) to reduce a Rh(III) active species to a Rh(I) species in the catalytic cycle
(D) to convert CH3OH to CH3I
CY 6/10
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GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY – CY
Q.46 Formation of the ketone II from the diazoketone I involves
(A) generation of carbene and a [2,3]-sigmatropic rearrangement
(B) generation of carbene and an electrocyclic ring closing reaction
(C) generation of ketene and a [2+2] cycloaddition
(D) generation of ketene and a [3,3]-sigmatropic rearrangement
Q.47 The major products X and Y formed in the following reaction sequence are
)
(A)
14
(B)
20
(C)
Me E Me
(D)
X=
PhS
AT CO2Me
Y=
OH
(G
Y
C
CY 7/10
Text of page 14
GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY – CY
Q.48 The major products X and Y formed in the following reactions are
(A)
(B)
(C)
)
(D)
14
Q.49
20
The major products X and Y formed in the following reaction sequence are
E
(A)
(B)
AT
(C)
(G
Y (D)
C
CY 8/10
Text of page 15
GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY – CY
Q.50 The product of the following reaction gave 6 line 13C NMR spectrum with peaks at δ 175, 52, 50,
46, 37, 33 ppm. The structure of the product is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.51 The major product formed in the following reaction is
)
(A) (B) (C)
14 (D)
Q.52 20
The major products X and Y formed in the following reaction sequence are
(A)
E
(B)
AT
(C)
(G NO2 O
Y X=
OH
Y=
C (D)
CY 9/10
Text of page 16
GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY – CY
Q.53 The major products X and Y formed in the following reaction sequence are
Cbz-Cl
CO2H MeOH (1 equiv.)
X Y
NH2 H2SO4 aq. NaHCO3
HO
(A)
(B)
(C)
)
(D)
14
Q.54
20
Given the fact that 1,3-butadiene has a UV absorption of 217 nm, the absorption wavelength (in
nm) for the conjugated system shown below is ______________
E
(Use these absorption values for auxochromic groups:
Q.55
AT
alkyl: +5; exo-cyclic double bond: +5; every additional conjugated C=C: +30)
The m/z value of the detectable fragment formed by McLafferty like rearrangement of the following
compound in mass spectrometer is ______________
(G END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
Y
C
CY 10/10
Text of page 17
GATE 2014
Answer Keys for CY ‐ Chemistry
Section Q. No. Key / Range Marks Section Q. No. Key / Range Marks
GA 1 A 1 CY 24 56 to 58 1
GA 2 B 1 CY 25 A 1
GA 3 D 1 CY 26 B 2
GA 4 C 1 CY 27 60 to 66 2
GA 5 1300 to 1300 1 CY 28 A 2
GA 6 D 2 CY 29 0.81 to 0.85 2
GA 7 B 2 CY 30 10000 to 10500 2
GA 8 180 to 180 2 CY 31 38 to 42 2
GA 9 D 2 CY 32 830 to 850 2
GA 10 B 2 CY 33 A 2
CY 1 B 1 CY 34 50 to 52 2
CY 2 D 1 CY 35 175 to 185 2
CY 3 3 to 3 1 CY 36 A 2
CY 4 3 to 3 1 CY 37 9 to 9 2
CY 5 D 1 CY 38 B 2
CY 6 D 1 CY 39 A 2
CY 7 A 1 CY 40 A 2
CY 8 1.4 to 1.5 1 CY 41 D 2
CY 9 B 1 CY 42 B 2
CY 10 C 1 CY 43 C 2
CY 11 4 to 4 1 CY 44 B 2
CY 12 A 1 CY 45 D 2
CY 13 3 to 3 1 CY 46 D 2
CY 14 C 1 CY 47 A 2
CY 15 C 1 CY 48 B 2
CY 16 C 1 CY 49 A 2
CY 17 C 1 CY 50 C 2
CY 18 D 1 CY 51 C 2
CY 19 C 1 CY 52 A 2
CY 20 B 1 CY 53 B 2
CY 21 A 1 CY 54 282 to 282 2
CY 22 B 1 CY 55 41 to 41 2
CY 23 C 1Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 17
Source: GATE. Question paper published by GATE.