GATE Chemistry 2016
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GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 An apple costs Rs. 10. An onion costs Rs. 8.
Select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage.
(A) The price of an apple is greater than an onion.
(B) The price of an apple is more than onion.
(C) The price of an apple is greater than that of an onion.
(D) Apples are more costlier than onions.
Q.2 The Buddha said, “Holding on to anger is like grasping a hot coal with the intent of throwing it at
someone else; you are the one who gets burnt.”
Select the word below which is closest in meaning to the word underlined above.
(A) burning (B) igniting (C) clutching (D) flinging
Q.3 M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no other children. E is the mother of P and daughter-in-
law of M. How is P related to M?
(A) P is the son-in-law of M. (B) P is the grandchild of M.
(C) P is the daughter-in law of M. (D) P is the grandfather of M.
Q.4 The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is ________.
(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64
Q.5 It takes 10 s and 15 s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to
completely pass a telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is
150 m. The magnitude of the difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ____________.
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0
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GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 The velocity V of a vehicle along a straight line is measured in m/s and plotted as shown with
respect to time in seconds. At the end of the 7 seconds, how much will the odometer reading
increase by (in m)?
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Q.7 The overwhelming number of people infected with rabies in India has been flagged by the World
Health Organization as a source of concern. It is estimated that inoculating 70% of pets and stray
dogs against rabies can lead to a significant reduction in the number of people infected with rabies.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentences?
(A) The number of people in India infected with rabies is high.
(B) The number of people in other parts of the world who are infected with rabies is low.
(C) Rabies can be eradicated in India by vaccinating 70% of stray dogs.
(D) Stray dogs are the main source of rabies worldwide.
Q.8 A flat is shared by four first year undergraduate students. They agreed to allow the oldest of them to
enjoy some extra space in the flat. Manu is two months older than Sravan, who is three months
younger than Trideep. Pavan is one month older than Sravan. Who should occupy the extra space in
the flat?
(A) Manu (B) Sravan (C) Trideep (D) Pavan
Q.9 Find the area bounded by the lines 3x+2y=14, 2x-3y=5 in the first quadrant.
(A) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35
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GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4
Q.10 A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a
slope of −0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit?
(A) −0.030 (B) −0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1 [CpMoCl2]2 obeys the 18 electron rule. The correct structure of this compound is
(atomic number of Mo = 42)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Cl
Cl
Mo Mo
Cl
Cl
Q.2 During oxygen transport by hemerythrin, oxygen is bound as
(A) O2 ̶ to one Fe(III) only
(B) HO2 ̶ to one Fe(III) only
(C) O22 ̶ to one Fe(II) and one Fe(III)
(D) O22 ̶ to two Fe(II)
Q.3 Among the following, the most stable isotope to radioactive decay is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.4 At pH 7.2 and 10 Torr oxygen partial pressure, the extent of O2 binding is
(A) high for both hemoglobin and myoglobin
(B) high for hemoglobin and low for myoglobin
(C) high for myoglobin and low for hemoglobin
(D) low for both hemoglobin and myoglobin
Q.5 In the first row high-spin transition metal complexes [M(H2O)6]Cl2 with d5 and d7 metal ions, the
d-d transitions are
(A) spin-forbidden for both
(B) spin-allowed for both
(C) spin-forbidden for d5 and spin-allowed for d7
(D) spin-allowed for d5 and spin-forbidden for d7
Q.6 Among the given boranes and heteroboranes, the example which belongs to 'closo' type is
(A) B5H8 ̶ (B) [C2B9H11]2 ̶ (C) GeC2B9H11 (D) B6H10
CY 1/19
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.7 The reaction of P2O5 with HNO3 and HClO4, respectively, gives
(A) NO2 and ClO2
(B) N2O5 and Cl2O6
(C) N2O3 and Cl2O7
(D) N2O5 and Cl2O7
Q.8 When crystals of sodium chloride are heated in the presence of sodium vapor, they turn yellow.
This is due to the formation of
(A) Schottky defects
(B) Frenkel defects
(C) F-centres
(D) H-centres
Q.9 One mole of an ideal gas is compressed from 5 L to 2 L at constant temperature. The change in
entropy, in J K-1, of the gas is ____________. (R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1)
Q.10 The linear momentum of a particle described by the wavefunction is
(A) ℎ (B) − ℎ
(C) ℏ (D) − ℏ
Q.11 For an elementary bimolecular gas phase reaction, activation energy is 5.5 kJ mol-1. Enthalpy of
activation, in kJ mol-1, at 300 K is _____________. (R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.12 The titration of a strong acid with a strong base is represented by the plot
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.13 Of the following inequalities, the criterion/criteria for spontaneity of a chemical reaction is/are
(i) (∆ ) , < 0 (ii) (∆ ) , > 0 (iii) (∆ ) , > 0
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (i) and (iii)
Q.14 A protein sample consists of an equimolar mixture of ribonuclease (molar mass = 13.7 kg mol˗1),
hemoglobin (molar mass = 15.5 kg mol˗1), and myoglobin (molar mass = 17.2 kg mol˗1). The
statement that is true about the weight-average molar mass ( ), the number-average molar mass
( ), and the polydispersity index (PDI) for this sample is
(A) > = 15.5 kg mol˗1 and PDI > 1 (B) > = 15.5 kg mol˗1 and PDI < 1
(C) = 15.5 kg mol˗1 > and PDI > 1 (D) = 15.5 kg mol˗1 < and PDI < 1
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.15 The band structure given below represents a
(A) n-type semiconductor formed by doping Si with B
(B) n-type semiconductor formed by doping Si with P
(C) p-type semiconductor formed by doping Si with P
(D) p-type semiconductor formed by doping Si with B
Q.16 The experimental ionization energies of hydrogen and helium atoms in their ground states are,
respectively, 13.6 eV and 24.6 eV. The ground state energy of helium atom, in eV, is
(A) − (13.6) ˗ 24.6 (B) −4(13.6) ˗ 24.6
(C) − (13.6) ˗ 24.6 (D) −2(13.6) ˗ 24.6
Q.17 Ring flipping of the compound in the following conformation leads to
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.18 The total number of lines expected (due to spin-spin coupling of proton with fluorine and deuterium
nuclei) in the 1H NMR spectrum of the following compound is __________.
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.19 The compound in 'R' configuration is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.20 The most suitable reagent for performing the following transformation, is
(A) LiAlH4 (B) H2, Pd/C (C) PPh3, H2O (D) Li, liq. NH3
Q.21 The major product obtained in the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.22 The favourable transition state leading to the formation of the product in the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.23 The major product of the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.24 The major product obtained in the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.25 The major product formed in the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
CY 7/19
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 The Larmor frequency of 1H at 1 Tesla (T) is 42.57 MHz. If the magnetogyric ratios for 1H and 13C
are 26.75 × 107 rad T-1 s-1 and 6.72 × 107 rad T-1 s-1, respectively, the Larmor frequency of 13C, in
MHz, at 1 Tesla will be __________.
Q.27 At 1 bar and 298 K, for the process ( ) ⟶ ( ), the ∆G is 200 J mol-1 and the ∆Vm is −2 × 10-6
m3 mol-1. The minimum pressure, in bar, at which the process becomes spontaneous at 298 K is
_________. (1 bar = 105 Pa)
Q.28 The reaction, ⇋ , is first order in both the directions. The forward and reverse rate constants are
4.2 × 10-4 s-1 and 1.04 × 10-3 s-1, respectively. The relaxation time for this reaction, in seconds, in a
temperature jump experiment is _____________.
Q.29 Adsorption of CO on charcoal at 273 K follows Langmuir isotherm. A plot of P (kPa) / V (cm3)
versus P (kPa) is linear with a slope of 0.01 and y-intercept of 0.5. The equilibrium constant, K
(kPa-1), for the adsorption is ___________.
Q.30 For the following reaction,
if steady state approximation can be applied on [I], the observed rate constant of product formation,
in L mol-1 s-1, will be __________.
Q.31 The correct set of infra-red spectral bands (in cm-1) for the νCO stretching mode of the given
carbonyl complex is
(A) 1827, 1783, 1766
(B) 1973, 1827, 1794
(C) 1833, 1775, 1650
(D) 1960, 1918
Q.32 The 19F NMR spectrum of ClF3 when measured at −60 ºC will be observed as a
(A) singlet
(B) doublet
(C) doublet and a triplet
(D) doublet of doublet and a doublet of triplet
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.33 Among the given platinum(II) complexes, the one that is thermally the most unstable is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.34 The shapes of XeF5+ and XeF5 ̶ , respectively, are
(A) pentagonal planar and square pyramidal
(B) pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal
(C) square pyramidal and pentagonal bipyramidal
(D) square pyramidal and pentagonal planar
Q.35 Sodium salts of pseudohalogens X, Y, and Z form colourless solutions in water. Solution of X
decolorizes I3˗ solution with brisk effervescence. Solution of Y gives an intense red colour on
reaction with Fe3+ solution. Solution of Z gives an intense blue colour on reaction with a solution
containing Fe3+ and Fe2+ ions. The pseudohalogens X, Y, and Z, respectively, are
(A) CN˗, N3-, and CNS-
(B) N3-, CNS-, and CN˗
(C) N3-, CN˗, and CNS-
(D) N3-, CNS˗, and CNO-
Q.36 On reacting 1.55 g of a diol with an excess of methylmagnesium iodide, 1.12 L (corrected to STP)
of methane gas is liberated. The molecular mass (g mol-1) of the diol is ____________.
CY 9/19
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.37 The structure of the compound having the following characteristic spectral data, is
IR: 1690 cm-1;
1
H-NMR: 1.30 (3H, t, J = 7.2 Hz); 2.41 (2H, q, J = 7.2 Hz); 2.32 (3H, s); 7.44 (1H, t, J = 7.0 Hz);
7.57 (1H, dt, J = 7.0, 3.0 Hz); 7.77 (1H, t, J = 3.0 Hz); 7.90 (1H, dt, J = 7.0, 3.0 Hz);
EI Mass: m/z 119 (100%); 57 (80%).
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.38 The major products X and Y formed in the following synthetic scheme, are
+
O 1. N , cat. H
H (CH3)2S CH2
benzene (solvent)
X Y
2.
O
3. H+, H2O
4. aq. NaOH, heat
(A)
(B)
O
O
X = Y =
(C)
(D)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.39 The major products S and T formed in the following synthetic scheme, are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.40 Among the following, the transformation(s) that can be accomplished using umpolung concept
is(are)
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) only (D) (i) and (ii)
Q.41 A disaccharide does NOT give a positive test for Tollen's reagent. Upon acidic hydrolysis, it gives
an equimolar mixture of two different monosaccharides, both of which can be oxidized by bromine
water. This disaccharide is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.42 The major products M and N in the following reaction sequence are
O LiPPh2 CH3I CH3
H3C H LiI
M
H3CO CH3
N + PPh2 +
O
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.43 The major products P and Q in the following reaction sequence, are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.44 The major product formed in the following reaction, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.45 The following synthetic transformation can be achieved using
(A) (p) only
(B) (p) and (q)
(C) (q) and (r)
(D) (r) only
Q.46 Consider a two-state system at thermal equilibrium with equal degeneracy where the excited state is
higher in energy than the ground state by 0.1 eV. The ratio of the population of the excited state to
that of the ground state, at a temperature for which kBT = 0.05 eV, is _________.
Q.47 Of the vibrational modes given below, the IR active mode(s) is(are)
(A) (ii) only (B) (iii) only (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (ii) and (iii)
Q.48 A system is described by the following real wavefunction.
The probability (P) of finding the particle in a region dx around points I, II, and III in the figure
obeys the trend
(A) P(I) > P(II) > P(III) (B) P(II) > P(III) > P(I)
(C) P(II) > P(I) > P(III) (D) P(III) > P(I) > P(II)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q.49 The temperature-composition (T-x) phase diagram of the two-component system made of X and Y
is given below. At a temperature of 288 K and starting at the point P, Y is added until the
composition reaches S. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
(A) At P, the solid and liquid are present in almost equal proportions.
(B) At Q, the system is all liquid.
(C) At S, the system has more solid than liquid.
(D) At R, the liquid is pure X.
Q.50 For a system subjected to only P-V work, entropy is given by
(i) − (ii) (iii) − (iv) −
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (i) only (D) (ii) only
Q.51 According to Irving-Williams series, the number of d electrons for the first row transition metal (M)
ion having the highest overall stability constant (log β) for [M(EDTA)]2- is ________.
Q.52 The magnitude of the difference in the crystal field stabilization energies, in ∆o (ignoring pairing
energy), of [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(CN)6]4- is _________.
Q.53 The calculated and observed magnetic moments differ considerably for an aqua complex of a
lanthanide(III) ion as a result of low lying states of high J. The ion, among the following, is
(A) Ce3+ (B) Pr3+ (C) Eu3+ (D) Yb3+
Q. 54. In the electronic spectrum of [CrF6]3-, absorption bands observed at 670, 440, and 290 nm are,
respectively, due to the transitions
(A) 4A2g →4T1g(P), 4
A2g →4T1g(F) and 4A2g →4T2g
(B) 4A2g →4T1g(P), 4
A2g →4T2g and 4A2g →4T1g(F)
(C) 4A2g →4T1g(F), 4
A2g → T1g(P) and 4A2g →4T2g
4
(D) 4A2g →4T2g, 4
A2g →4T1g(F) and 4A2g →4T1g(P)
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GATE 2016 Chemistry
Q. 55. Amongst the following, the group that is bound to the metal ion in coenzyme B12 is
(A) methyl
(B) cyanide
(C) adenosyl
(D) hydroxyl
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
CY 18/19
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GATE 2016 Chemistry CY 19/19
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Q. No Type Section Key Marks 1 MCQ GA C 1 2 MCQ GA C 1 3 MCQ GA B 1 4 MCQ GA C;D 1 5 MCQ GA A 1 6 MCQ GA D 2 7 MCQ GA A 2 8 MCQ GA C 2 9 MCQ GA B 2 10 MCQ GA A 2 1 MCQ CY C 1 2 MCQ CY B 1 3 MCQ CY A 1 4 MCQ CY C 1 5 MCQ CY C 1 6 MCQ CY C 1 7 MCQ CY D 1 8 MCQ CY C 1 9 NAT CY -7.65 : -7.48 1 10 MCQ CY D 1 11 NAT CY 0.50 : 0.52 1 12 MCQ CY C 1 13 MCQ CY D 1 14 MCQ CY A 1 15 MCQ CY D 1 16 MCQ CY B 1 17 MCQ CY B 1 18 NAT CY 5.99 : 6.01 1 19 MCQ CY A 1 20 MCQ CY C 1 21 MCQ CY D 1 22 MCQ CY D 1 23 MCQ CY B 1 24 MCQ CY A 1 25 MCQ CY C 1 26 NAT CY 10.67 : 10.71 2 27 NAT CY 1000.00 : 1001.00 2 28 NAT CY 666.67 : 685.00 2 29 NAT CY 0.019 : 0.021 2 30 NAT CY 99.85 : 100 2 31 MCQ CY A 2 32 MCQ CY C 2 33 MCQ CY C 2 34 MCQ CY D 2 35 MCQ CY B 2 36 NAT CY 61.6 : 62.1 2 37 MCQ CY A 2 38 MCQ CY B 2 39 MCQ CY A 2
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40 MCQ CY D 2 41 MCQ CY D 2 42 MCQ CY A 2 43 MCQ CY C 2 44 MCQ CY B 2 45 MCQ CY B 2 46 NAT CY 0.13 : 0.14 2 47 MCQ CY D 2 48 MCQ CY B 2 49 MCQ CY D 2 50 MCQ CY B 2 51 NAT CY 8.90 : 9.10 2 52 NAT CY 1.90 : 2.10 2 53 MCQ CY C 2 54 MCQ CY D 2 55 MCQ CY C 2
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Source: GATE. Question paper published by GATE.