GATE Life Sciences 2025
Text of page 1
Life Sciences (XL)
General Aptitude
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 Even though I had planned to go skiing with my friends, I had to __________ at the
last moment because of an injury.
Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.
(A) back up
(B) back of
(C) back on
(D) back out
Q.2 The President, along with the Council of Ministers, ___________ to visit India next
week.
Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.
(A) wish
(B) wishes
(C) will wish
(D) is wishing
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 1 of 76
Text of page 2
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.3 An electricity utility company charges ₹ 7 per kWh (kilo watt-hour). If a 40-watt
desk light is left on for 10 hours each night for 180 days, what would be the cost of
energy consumption? If the desk light is on for 2 more hours each night for the 180
days, what would be the percentage-increase in the cost of energy consumption?
(A) ₹ 604.8; 10%
(B) ₹ 504; 20%
(C) ₹ 604.8; 12%
(D) ₹ 720; 15%
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 2 of 76
Text of page 3
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.4 In the context of the given figure, which one of the following options correctly
represents the entries in the blocks labelled (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv), respectively?
N U F (i)
21 14 9 6
H L (ii) O
12 (iv) 15 (iii)
(A) Q, M, 12, and 8
(B) K, L, 10 and 14
(C) I, J, 10, and 8
(D) L, K, 12 and 8
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 3 of 76
Text of page 4
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.5 A bag contains Violet (V), Yellow (Y), Red (R), and Green (G) balls. On counting
them, the following results are obtained:
(i) The sum of Yellow balls and twice the number of Violet balls is 50.
(ii) The sum of Violet and Green balls is 50.
(iii) The sum of Yellow and Red balls is 50.
(iv) The sum of Violet and twice the number of Red balls is 50.
Which one of the following Pie charts correctly represents the balls in the bag?
(A)
V
10%
G R
40% 20%
Y
30%
(B)
G
30% V
40%
Y
20% R
10%
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 4 of 76
Text of page 5
Life Sciences (XL)
(C)
G
20% V
30%
Y
10%
R
40%
(D)
G
10% V
20%
Y
40% R
30%
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 5 of 76
Text of page 6
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.6 “His life was divided between the books, his friends, and long walks. A solitary
man, he worked at all hours without much method, and probably courted his fatal
illness in this way. To his own name there is not much to show; but such was his
liberality that he was continually helping others, and fruits of his erudition are
widely scattered, and have gone to increase many a comparative stranger’s
reputation.”
(From E.V. Lucas’s “A Funeral”)
Based only on the information provided in the above passage, which one of the
following statements is true?
(A) The solitary man described in the passage is dead.
(B) Strangers helped create a grand reputation for the solitary man described in the
passage.
(C) The solitary man described in the passage found joy in scattering fruits.
(D) The solitary man worked in a court where he fell ill.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 6 of 76
Text of page 7
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.7 For the clock shown in the figure, if
O* = O Q S Z P R T, and
X* = X Z P W Y O Q ,
then which one among the given options is most appropriate for P* ?
(A) P U W R T V X
(B) P R T O Q S U
(C) P T V Q S U W
(D) P S U P R T V
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 7 of 76
Text of page 8
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.8 Consider a five-digit number PQRST that has distinct digits P, Q, R, S, and T, and
satisfies the following conditions:
P<Q
S>P>T
R<T
If integers 1 through 5 are used to construct such a number, the value of P is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Q.9 A business person buys potatoes of two different varieties P and Q, mixes them in
a certain ratio and sells them at ₹ 192 per kg.
The cost of the variety P is ₹ 800 for 5 kg.
The cost of the variety Q is ₹ 800 for 4 kg.
If the person gets 8% profit, what is the P:Q ratio (by weight)?
(A) 5:4
(B) 3:4
(C) 3:2
(D) 1:1
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 8 of 76
Text of page 9
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.10 Three villages P, Q, and R are located in such a way that the distance PQ = 13 km,
QR = 14 km, and RP = 15 km, as shown in the figure. A straight road joins Q and
R. It is proposed to connect P to this road QR by constructing another road. What
is the minimum possible length (in km) of this connecting road?
Note: The figure shown is representative.
P
13 km 15 km
Q R
14 km
(A) 10.5
(B) 11.0
(C) 12.0
(D) 12.5
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 9 of 76
Text of page 10
Life Sciences (XL)
Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.11 – Q.19 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 The rate of solvolysis for the following tertiary halides in 80% aqueous ethanol at
25 °C follows the order
(A) I < II < III
(B) II < III < I
(C) III < II < I
(D) II < I < III
Q. 12 The CORRECT order of boiling points for the hydrogen halides is
(A) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
(B) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(C) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(D) HI > HF > HBr > HCl
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 10 of 76
Text of page 11
Life Sciences (XL)
Q. 13 The bond order in N22− species is
(A) 2
(B) 2.5
(C) 3
(D) 3.5
Q. 14 The standard enthalpy of the reaction,
C (graphite) + H2 O (g) → CO (g) + H2 (g) is found to be +131.3 kJ mol-1
and the ∆f H 0 value for CO (g) is ‒110.5 kJ mol-1.
The value of ∆f H 0 (in kJ mol-1) for H2O (g) is
(The standard enthalpies of formation of elements in their reference states are zero
at all temperatures)
(A) +241.8
(B) 0.0
(C) −241.8
(D) +20.8
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 11 of 76
Text of page 12
Life Sciences (XL)
Q. 15 The temperature dependence of reaction rates is generally given by the Arrhenius
equation. A plot of ln kr against 1/T is a straight line from which the pre-
exponential factor ‘A’ and the activation energy ‘Ea ’ can be determined.
The CORRECT option regarding this plot is
(A) Slope: − Ea ⁄R ; Intercept on the y-axis: ln A
(B) Slope: + Ea ⁄2.303R ; Intercept on the y-axis: A
(C) Slope: +Ea /R; Intercept on the y-axis: A
(D) Slope: − Ea ⁄2.303R ; Intercept on the y-axis: ln A
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 12 of 76
Text of page 13
Life Sciences (XL)
Q. 16 The isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from Vi to Vf at temperature,
T occurs in two ways.
Path I: a reversible isothermal expansion;
Path II: free expansion against zero external pressure
The CORRECT option for the values of ∆U, q and w for Path I and Path II is
(A) Path I: ∆U = 0, q > 0, w < 0
Path II: ∆U = 0, q = 0, w = 0
(B) Path I: ∆U = 0, q > 0, w < 0
Path II: ∆U > 0, q > 0, w = 0
(C) Path I: ∆U = 0, q < 0, w > 0
Path II: ∆U = 0, q > 0, w < 0
(D) Path I: ∆U = 0, q < 0, w > 0
Path II: ∆U < 0, q = 0, w = 0
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 13 of 76
Text of page 14
Life Sciences (XL)
Q. 17 The CORRECT statement(s) regarding the given molecules is(are)
(A) Both I and II are achiral molecules.
(B) Both II and III are chiral molecules.
(C) IV is a chiral molecule.
(D) Both III and IV are chiral molecules.
Q.18 The CORRECT statement(s) about [Ni(CN)4 ]2− , [Ni(CO)4 ] and [NiCl4 ]2− is(are)
(Given: Atomic number of Ni: 28)
(A) Both [Ni(CN)4 ]2− and [Ni(CO)4 ] are square planar complexes.
(B) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− is diamagnetic and [NiCl4 ]2− is paramagnetic.
(C) Both [Ni(CO)4 ] and [NiCl4 ]2− are paramagnetic.
(D) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− is square planar and [NiCl4 ]2− is tetrahedral in shape.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 14 of 76
Text of page 15
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.19 Consider the two pKa values of valine as 2.32 and 9.62. The isoelectric point (pI)
of this amino acid is ______. (rounded off to two decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 15 of 76
Text of page 16
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.20 – Q.27 Carry TWO marks Each
Q. 20 A few species are given in Column I. Column II contains the hybrid orbitals used
by the central atom of the species for bonding.
The CORRECT match for the species to their central atom hybridization is
(Given: Atomic numbers of B: 5; C: 6; O: 8; F: 9; P: 15; Cl: 17; I: 53)
Column I Column II
Species Hybrid orbitals used by the
central atom for bonding
i. I3− a. sp
ii. PCl3 b. sp2
iii. BF3 c. sp3
iv. CO2 d. sp3d
(A) i−d, ii−c, iii−b, iv−a
(B) i−a, ii−d, iii−b, iv−c
(C) i−d, ii−c, iii−a, iv−b
(D) i−d, ii−b, iii−c, iv−a
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 16 of 76
Text of page 17
Life Sciences (XL)
Q. 21 For product formation from only one type of reactant (e.g. A → product), the
CORRECT match for the order of the reaction (given in Column I) with the half-
life expression (given in Column II) is
([A]0 is the initial concentration and kr is the rate constant)
Column I Column II
Order Half-life expression
i. Zero P. ln 2⁄
kr
[A]0
ii. First Q. ⁄2k
r
iii. Second R. 1⁄
kr [A]0
2kr
S. ⁄[A]
0
(A) i−R, ii−P, iii−S
(B) i−Q, ii−P, iii−R
(C) i−S, ii−R, iii−Q
(D) i−Q, ii−P, iii−S
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 17 of 76
Text of page 18
Life Sciences (XL) Q. 22 The CORRECT statement(s) for the given reactions is(are) (A) P is formed as the major product in reaction I. (B) P is formed as the major product in reaction II. (C) Q is formed as the major product in reaction IV. (D) R is formed as the major product in reaction III. Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 18 of 76
Text of page 19
Life Sciences (XL)
Q. 23 Addition of a few drops of concentrated HCl to an aqueous solution of CoCl2
forms a dark blue complex X.
The CORRECT statement(s) for this reaction is(are)
(Given: Atomic number of Co: 27)
(A) X is a centrosymmetric complex.
(B) The oxidation state of cobalt does not change in this reaction.
(C) The number of unpaired electrons on cobalt in X and in CoCl2 (aqueous solution)
are the same.
(D) The spin only magnetic moment value for X is 3.87 BM.
Q. 24 The CORRECT statement(s) regarding biomolecules is(are)
(A) The N-terminal amino acid of a polypeptide can be identified by Edman’s reagent
(phenyl isothiocyanate).
(B) L-Threonine has only one chiral center.
(C) Cytosine is present both in RNA and DNA.
(D) A mixture of different amino acids can be separated by ion-exchange
chromatography.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 19 of 76
Text of page 20
Life Sciences (XL)
Q. 25 Energy of the transition from nℎ = 4 to nl = 2 for hydrogen atom is E × 103 cm-1.
Given: Rydberg constant for hydrogen: 1.097 x 107 m−1.
Value of E is ______________. (rounded off to two decimal places)
Q. 26 A non-volatile solute has a molecular weight of 180 g mol-1. Assume that the solute
does not associate or dissociate in water, and the boiling-point constant
(ebullioscopic constant) of water is 0.51 K kg mol-1.
The amount (in g) of solute added to 500 g of water to elevate the boiling point by
0.153 K is ______. (answer in integer)
Q. 27 The standard potentials (E 0 ) for the Fe3+/Fe and Fe3+/Fe2+ couples are −0.04 V
and +0.76 V, respectively.
Given: Faraday constant = 96500 C mol-1.
The value for E 0 (Fe2+/Fe), in V, is ____________. (rounded off to two decimal
places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 20 of 76
Text of page 21
Life Sciences (XL) Biochemistry (XL-Q) Q.28 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each Q.28 Zinc is essential for the function of (A) carboxypeptidase A. (B) chlorophyll a. (C) myoglobin. (D) vitamin B12 . Q.29 Which one of the following molecules captures CO2 in the C4 cycle? (A) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (B) Oxaloacetate (C) Phosphoenolpyruvate (D) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 21 of 76
Text of page 22
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.30 Which one of the following methods separates biomolecules based on their
hydrodynamic volumes?
(A) Anion-exchange chromatography
(B) Cation-exchange chromatography
(C) Size-exclusion chromatography
(D) Thin-layer chromatography
Q.31 Which one of the following restriction endonucleases is a blunt cutter?
(A) BamHI
(B) EcoRI
(C) HindIII
(D) EcoRV
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 22 of 76
Text of page 23
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.32 Which one of the following DNA repair systems requires DNA glycosylases?
(A) Base-excision
(B) Direct
(C) Mismatch
(D) Nucleotide-excision
Q.33 Which one of the following ion channels opens to repolarize the neuronal
membrane when an action potential is generated?
(A) Ca2+ channel
(B) H + channel
(C) Na+ channel
(D) K + channel
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 23 of 76
Text of page 24
Life Sciences (XL)
Q. 34 Which one of the following is the most sensitive immunoassay?
(A) Immunoelectrophoresis
(B) Immunofluorescence
(C) Radial immunodiffusion
(D) Radioimmunoassay
Q.35 Which of the following statements about antibodies is/are correct?
(A) Different antibody classes have different effector functions.
(B) Each antibody chain consists of an amino-terminal constant region and a carboxy-
terminal variable region.
(C) Variable domains harbour complementarity-determining regions.
(D) All antibodies have same half-life.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 24 of 76
Text of page 25
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.36 – Q.46 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.36 Which one of the following molecules does NOT contain phosphoanhydride
bond(s)?
(A) Adenosine diphosphate
(B) Adenosine triphosphate
(C) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(D) Pyrophosphate
Q.37 For an enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics, a competitive inhibitor
(A) increases both Km and Vmax .
(B) decreases both Km and Vmax .
(C) increases Km but does not affect Vmax .
(D) decreases Km but does not affect Vmax .
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 25 of 76
Text of page 26
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.38 Fӧrster Resonance Energy Transfer does NOT depend on the
(A) relative orientation of donor and acceptor.
(B) fluorescence quantum yield of acceptor.
(C) distance between donor and acceptor.
(D) overlap between donor’s emission and acceptor’s absorption spectra.
Q.39 Phospholipid vesicles prepared in 50 mM KCl were diluted in water. Based on
this information, statements P and Q are made.
P: The diluted vesicles will develop membrane potential.
Q: There is a K + concentration difference across the vesicular membrane.
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) Both P and Q are true.
(B) P is true but Q is false.
(C) P is false but Q is true.
(D) Both P and Q are false.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 26 of 76
Text of page 27
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.40 Peptide-binding cleft in MHC-I is formed by
(A) α1 and α2 domains.
(B) α1 and α3 domains.
(C) α1 domain and β2-microglobulin.
(D) α2 domain and β2-microglobulin.
Q.41 Which of the following peptides do/does NOT absorb ultraviolet light above
250 nm wavelength?
(A) MQRTVWG
(B) YDEIGVL
(C) PLASNGK
(D) GSQTKRL
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 27 of 76
Text of page 28
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.42 Which of the following is/are peptide hormone(s)?
(A) Calcitonin
(B) Glucagon
(C) Serotonin
(D) Thyroxine
Q.43 Which of the following is/are heteropolysaccharide(s)?
(A) Chondroitin-4-sulfate
(B) Chitin
(C) Cellulose
(D) Heparin
Q.44 The equilibrium dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.74 × 10−5 M. The pKa
of acetic acid (rounded off to one decimal place) is _____ .
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 28 of 76
Text of page 29
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.45 The DNA double helix measures 0.34 nm/bp. The diameter of a nucleosome core
particle is 11 nm. If the ratio of wrapped DNA length to nucleosome diameter is
4.51, the length of DNA around the nucleosome (to the nearest integer)
is _____ bp.
Q.46 E. coli is grown exclusively in a medium containing 15NH4 Cl as the sole nitrogen
source. Subsequently, the cells were shifted to a medium containing 14NH4 Cl. The
molar ratio of hybrid DNA (15N-14N) to light DNA (14N-14N) after four generations
(rounded off to two decimal places) will be _____ .
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 29 of 76
Text of page 30
Life Sciences (XL)
Botany (XL-R)
Q.47 – Q.54 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.47 Correctly match the names of the plant taxonomists (Group I) with the titles of
the books they authored (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) John Hutchinson (1) Classification of Flowering Plants
(Q) Adolf Engler and Karl Prantl (2) Evolution and Classification of
Flowering Plants
(R) Arthur Cronquist (3) Die Naturlichen Pflanzenfamilien
(S) Alfred Barton Rendle (4) The Families of Flowering Plants
(A) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1
(B) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
(C) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3
(D) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
Q.48 Which one of the following mature cell types is live but usually lacks nucleus?
(A) Phloem parenchyma
(B) Phloem companion
(C) Phloem sieve element
(D) Phloem-pole pericycle
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 30 of 76
Text of page 31
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.49 Correctly match the carnivorous plants (Group I) with the organs (Group II)
they modify to trap the prey.
Group I Group II
(P) Pitcher plant (Nepenthes) (1) Leaf
(Q) Bladderwort (Utricularia) (2) Fruit
(R) Sundew (Drosera) (3) Stem
(S) Venus flytrap (Dionaea) (4) Tendril
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-1
(B) P-1; Q-1; R-1; S-1
(C) P-2; Q-2; R-2; S-2
(D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-1
Q.50 Which one of the following commercially important carbohydrates is naturally
produced only by the members of the plant kingdom?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Pectin
(C) Chitin
(D) Starch
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 31 of 76
Text of page 32
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.51 Which one of the following agents causes the necrotic ring spot disease in stone
fruits?
(A) Fungi
(B) Bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) Nematodes
Q.52 Identify the correct statement(s) with respect to plant disease.
(A) Hairy root disease in tobacco is caused by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(B) Loose smut of barley is caused by Ustilago nuda
(C) Stem rust of grape is caused by Plasmopara viticola
(D) Fire blight in pear is caused by Erwinia amylovora
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 32 of 76
Text of page 33
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.53 Which of the following molecular approaches can be used to generate complete
knock-out of a target gene in plants?
(A) Homologous recombination
(B) CRISPR-Cas9
(C) Antisense RNA technique
(D) Activation tagging
Q.54 If an egg cell of a diploid plant species has 10 chromosomes, the expected
number of chromosomes in a double trisomic somatic cell of this species
would be _______________ (Answer in integer).
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 33 of 76
Text of page 34
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.55– Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.55 In the history of photosynthetic research, the empirical reaction of photosynthesis
was first proposed for green plants (equation 1), followed by another reaction for
purple sulfur bacteria (equation 2), leading to a generalized equation for
photosynthesis (equation 3)
CO 2 + H 2 O ⎯⎯⎯
light
→ (CH 2 O) + O 2 (equation 1)
CO 2 + 2H 2S ⎯⎯⎯
light
→ (CH 2O) + H 2O + 2S (equation 2)
CO 2 + 2H 2 A ⎯⎯⎯
light
→ (CH 2 O) + H 2O + 2A (equation 3)
where H2A in equation 3 is a generalized electron donor.
Which one of the following statements is DISPROVEN by equation 3?
(A) The source of oxygen produced in photosynthesis in green plants is CO2
(B) The source of oxygen produced in photosynthesis in green plants is H2O
(C) Light is essential in every form of photosynthesis
(D) Glucose is the end product in all forms of photosynthesis
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 34 of 76
Text of page 35
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.56 Consider a diploid plant species where the cells in the epidermis (the outermost
single cell layer) always divide in the anticlinal orientation. If one such cell within
the central zone of the shoot apical meristem (SAM) spontaneously becomes
tetraploid at the seedling stage, which one of the following cellular arrangements
would be most likely observed if the meristem is examined at the adult stage?
(A) Only one tetraploid cell in the epidermis
(B) Many tetraploid cells in the epidermis
(C) All cells in the entire SAM tetraploid
(D) All cells in the entire SAM diploid
Correctly match the photosynthetic pathways (Group I) with their first
Q.57
stable products (Group II) in respective plants (Group III)
Group I Group II Group III
(P) C3 cycle (1) 3-Phosphoglycerate (a) Wheat
(Q) C4 cycle (2) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (b) Sugarcane
(R) CAM (3) Oxaloacetate (c) Pineapple
(A) P-1-a; Q-3-b; R-3-c
(B) P-1-a; Q-2-b; R-3-c
(C) P-1-b; Q-3-a; R-2-c
(D) P-1-b; Q-2-c; R-2-a
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 35 of 76
Text of page 36
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.58 The following table summarizes the flowering time behavior (days to flower)
and the transcript levels in four genotypes of a plant species.
Genotype Days to Transcript level Transcript level
flower of gene A of gene B
Wild type 30 Normal Normal
a mutant 15 Nil Increased
b mutant 60 Normal Nil
ab double mutant 60 Nil Nil
Which one of the following genetic pathways best explains the observations
shown in the table?
(A) A gene activates B, which suppresses flowering transition
(B) A gene suppresses B, which promotes flowering transition
(C) B gene activates A, which suppresses flowering transition
(D) B gene suppresses A, which promotes flowering transition
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 36 of 76
Text of page 37
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.59 Correctly match the economically important specialized metabolites (Group I)
with their broad chemical classes (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) Azadirachtin (1) Monoterpene
(Q) Saponin (2) Alkaloid
(R) Gallocatechin (3) Triterpene glycoside
(S) Cocaine (4) Polyphenol
(T) Menthol (5) Triterpene
(A) P-5; Q-3; R-2; S-4; T-1
(B) P-2; Q-4; R-3; S-1; T-5
(C) P-5; Q-3; R-4; S-2; T-1
(D) P-3; Q-5; R-4; S-2; T-1
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 37 of 76
Text of page 38
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.60 Correctly match the following Arabidopsis genes (Group I) and the biological
processes they primarily regulate (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) CLAVATA3 (1) Organ identity in flower
(Q) CONSTANS (2) Cell-type specification in root meristem
(R) SCARECROW (3) Meristem size in shoot
(S) AGAMOUS (4) Photoperiodic floral transition
(A) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(B) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
(C) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
(D) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 38 of 76
Text of page 39
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.61 Correctly match the enzymes used as selectable markers (Group I) and the
chemicals used for their selection (Group II).
Group I Group II
(P) Neomycin phosphotransferase (1) Bialaphos
(Q) Phosphinothricin acetyltransferase (2) Kanamycin
(R) Dihydrofolate reductase (3) Glyphosate
(S) 5-Enolpyruvyl shikimate 3-phosphate (4)
Methotrexate
synthase
(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(B) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4
(C) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(D) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
Q.62 Which of the following sequential reactions correctly represent(s) the flow of
electrons from NADH to O2 in plant mitochondrial electron transport chain?
(A) NADH dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone → Succinate dehydrogenase →
Cytochrome bc1 → Cytochrome c → Cytochrome c oxidase
(B) NADH dehydrogenase → Succinate dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone →
Cytochrome c → Cytochrome bc1 → Cytochrome c oxidase
(C) NADH dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone → Alternative oxidase
(D) NADH dehydrogenase → Alternative oxidase → Ubiquinone
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 39 of 76
Text of page 40
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.63 If rabbits are introduced in an isolated grassland for the first time, which
of the following growth curves (shown using dashed line) is/are theoretically
possible population dynamics over time?
(P) (Q)
(R) (S)
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 40 of 76
Text of page 41
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.64 Which of the following reactions in plants is/are catalyzed by the malic enzymes?
(A) Malate + NAD+ → Pyruvate + CO2 + NADH
(B) Malate + NAD+ ⇌ Oxaloacetate + NADH
(C) Malate ⇌ Fumarate
(D) Malate + NADP+ → Pyruvate + CO2 + NADPH
Q.65 In a genetic cross between a true-breeding tall parent bearing red flowers and a
true-breeding dwarf parent bearing white flowers, only tall plants with red
flowers are obtained in the F1 population. Considering these two traits segregate
independently, if one tall individual is selected from the F2 population, the
probability that it would be genotypically homozygous for plant height and
make red flowers is __________ (Round off to two decimal places).
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 41 of 76
Text of page 42
Life Sciences (XL)
Microbiology (XL-S)
Q.66 – Q.73 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.66 Which one of the following metabolites is associated with bacterial stringent
response?
(A) Cyclic di-GMP (CDG)
(B) Guanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp)
(C) Cyclic-AMP (cAMP)
(D) Cyclic-GMP (cGMP)
Q.67 India is aiming to be free of tuberculosis by 2025. One of the key approaches
for this program is DOTS. Which one of the following options is the full form
of DOTS?
(A) Directly observed therapy short-course
(B) Directly observed tuberculosis short-course
(C) District operated therapy system
(D) Directly operated therapy short-course
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 42 of 76
Text of page 43
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.68 Correctly match the bacterial type in Column I with their corresponding
environmental niche in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Psychrophile i. Pressure greater than 380 atm
Q. Barophile ii. Temperature between 15°C and 45°C
R. Mesophile iii. Temperature below 15°C
S. Halophile iv. pH less than 3.0
v. Salt concentration greater than 2M
(A) P - iii; Q - i; R - ii; S - v
(B) P - ii; Q - iii; R - i; S - v
(C) P - i; Q - iv; R - iii; S - v
(D) P - v; Q - iii; R - iv; S - i
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 43 of 76
Text of page 44
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.69 Robert Koch used a meat-infused nutrient medium for which one of the
following purposes?
(A) To grow disease causing microorganisms.
(B) To demonstrate presence of microorganisms in air.
(C) To test the efficiency of sterilization approaches.
(D) To demonstrate antimicrobial activity of soil isolates.
Q.70 A penicillin sensitive Escherichia coli population is exposed to a lethal dose
(200 µg/ml) of penicillin. Assuming density-independent mortality, which
one of the following relationships would describe the number of surviving
bacteria (N) over time (T)?
(A) Exponential
(B) Linear
(C) Sigmoidal
(D) Parabolic
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 44 of 76
Text of page 45
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.71 A bacterium obtains energy from a chemical source by the oxidation of reduced
NO2− , with CO2 as the principal carbon source. Which one of the following
nutritional groups does this bacterium belong to?
(A) Photoautotroph.
(B) Photoheterotroph.
(C) Chemoautotroph.
(D) Chemoheterotroph.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 45 of 76
Text of page 46
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.72 The origin of the Escherichia coli chromosome on the genetic map is shown
below.
Bidirectional replication is a feature of this system and both replication forks
move at the same rate. Which one of the following sequences of replication
of the genes is correct?
(A) ABCDEFG
(B) AGBFCDE
(C) GAFBECD
(D) GAFEBCD
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 46 of 76
Text of page 47
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.73 Which of the following sites is/are the location(s) of ATP generation through
oxidative phosphorylation in Escherichia coli?
(A) Inner membrane only
(B) Outer membrane only
(C) Both outer membrane and inner membrane
(D) Mesosome
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 47 of 76
Text of page 48
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.74 – Q.84 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.74 The adaptive immune response in an animal involves the generation of
antibodies against an invading bacterial pathogen. The following graph
represents antibody titer levels in a mammal exposed twice to the pathogen.
Which one of the following options correctly pairs antibodies to peak I
and peak II in the graph?
(A) Peak I - IgG; Peak II - IgM
(B) Peak I - IgM; Peak II - IgG
(C) Peak I - IgE; Peak II - IgG
(D) Peak I - IgG; Peak II - IgG
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 48 of 76
Text of page 49
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.75 Carl Woese established that short subunit rRNA sequences can be used to reveal
evolutionary relationships between various organisms. Based on this, which one
of the following options is the established phylogenetic arrangement of the three
domains of life?
(A) I
(B) IV
(C) II
(D) III
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 49 of 76
Text of page 50
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.76 Correctly match the viruses listed in Column I with the nature of their
corresponding genetic materials listed in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Bacteriophage lambda i. dsDNA
Q. Bacteriophage M13 ii. ssDNA
R. Coronavirus iii. ssRNA
S. Reovirus iv. dsRNA
(A) P - i; Q - iv; R - iii; S - ii
(B) P - iv; Q - ii; R - i; S - iii
(C) P - i; Q - ii; R - iii; S - iv
(D) P - i; Q - iii; R - ii; S - iv
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 50 of 76
Text of page 51
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.77 A culture of lac+ Escherichia coli is grown in a medium lacking lactose or any
other -galactoside. The response of the lac operon upon induction by lactose
can be monitored by measuring the levels of lac mRNA, -galactosidase enzyme
and permease enzyme. Which one of the following profiles correctly captures the
on-off response to lactose?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 51 of 76
Text of page 52
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.78 Which option(s) correctly match(es) the structures in a bacterial cell (Column I)
with their corresponding functions (Column II).
Column I Column II
P. Cell wall i. Protection from osmotic stress
Q. Fimbriae ii. Attachment to surfaces
R. Flagella iii. Motility
S. Pili iv. Transfer of genetic material
(A) P - i; Q - ii; R - iii; S - iv
(B) P - i; Q - iii; R - iii; S - iv
(C) P - i; Q - iv; R - ii; S - iii
(D) P - ii; Q - iv; R - i; S - iii
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 52 of 76
Text of page 53
Life Sciences (XL) Q.79 Which of the following statements regarding micro-organisms is/are correct? (A) The free-living bacterium Wolbachia is a human parasite. (B) Myxococcus are a group of predatory bacteria. (C) Dictyostelium is a slime mold that aggregates to form social groups. (D) Actinomycetes in soil are involved in producing earthy odours. Q.80 Which of the following is/are example(s) of animal-microbe mutualism? (A) Human - Mycobacterium tuberculosis (B) Dog - Rabies lyssavirus (C) Human - Lactobacillus plantarum (D) Cow - Ruminococcus albus Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 53 of 76
Text of page 54
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.81 Which of the following reactions is/are catalyzed by aldolase?
(A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate + Glyceraldehye-3-phosphate → Fructose 1,6-
biphosphate
(B) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate + Erythrose-4-phosphate → Sedoheptulose-1,7-
biphosphate
(C) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate → Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(D) Glyceraldehye-3-phosphate + Erythrose-4-phosphate → Sedoheptulose-1,7-
biphosphate
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 54 of 76
Text of page 55
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.82 Which option(s) correctly match(es) the Antibiotic with their corresponding
Target?
Antibiotic Target
P. Penicillin i. Ribosome
Q. Kanamycin ii. RNA polymerase
R. Rifampicin iii. DNA gyrase
S. Nalidixic acid iv. Transpeptidase
T. Ciprofloxacin
(A) P - iv; Q - i; R - ii; S - iii
(B) P - ii; Q - iv; R - i; S - iii
(C) P - iv; Q - i; R - ii; T - iii
(D) P - iv; Q - iii; R - ii; T - i
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 55 of 76
Text of page 56
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.83 The doubling time of Escherichia coli is 30 minutes in a culture medium
containing glucose and yeast extract. Phage T7 has a life cycle of 20 minutes
and a burst size of 200 phage per infected E. coli cell. Phage absorption is
instantaneous and occurs at 1 multiplicity of infection (MOI). Bacteria infected
with multiple or single phage give the same burst. 5000 plaque forming units
of T7 phage are added to a culture of 2 × 107 E. coli cells.
Assuming normal division, the E. coli culture will lyse completely by _____ full
cycles of bacterial division.
(Answer in integer)
Q.84 A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) based diagnosis test was performed on a
bacterial sample targeting a specific gene. There are 3 copies of this gene in
the bacterial genome. Prior to DNA extraction, the bacteria were incubated to
allow one cycle of growth. 3072 amplicon copies were obtained after 9 cycles
of the PCR. Assume 100% efficiency at each step.
The initial bacterial count in the sample was _______.
(Answer in integer)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 56 of 76
Text of page 57
Life Sciences (XL)
Zoology (XL-T)
Q.85 – Q.92 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.85 Which one of the following is a “brood parasite” ?
(A) Pigeon
(B) Sparrow
(C) Goose
(D) Cuckoo
Q.86 During the development of a mammalian embryo, “yolk sac” is formed by which
one of the following?
(A) Syncytiotrophoblast
(B) Primitive endoderm (hypoblast)
(C) Amniotic ectoderm
(D) Embryonic epiblast
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 57 of 76
Text of page 58
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.87 The animals belonging to which one of the following phyla are characterized by
“segmented body” ?
(A) Annelida
(B) Cnidaria
(C) Echinodermata
(D) Porifera
Q.88 Which one of the following is a “post-zygotic” isolating mechanism of speciation?
(A) Behavioral isolation
(B) Fertilization failure
(C) Hybrid sterility
(D) Seasonal isolation
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 58 of 76
Text of page 59
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.89 Desmosomes are
(A) intermediate filament-based cell adhesion complexes.
(B) protein synthesizing macromolecular complexes.
(C) subcellular organelles.
(D) DNA-protein complexes.
Q.90 The “foramen of Panizza” is found in which one of the following groups of animals?
(A) Fishes
(B) Crocodiles
(C) Frogs
(D) Dolphins
Q.91 Imagine a population of diploid species in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
The population has two alleles for a gene which are ‘a’ and ‘A’. The number of
individuals with ‘aa’ genotype in this population is 1 in 10000. The frequency of
the allele ‘A’ in the population is ______ (up to two decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 59 of 76
Text of page 60
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.92 A PCR was setup to amplify a 500 nucleotides-long DNA. The dNTPs in the
reaction mixture were radiolabeled. The percentage (%) of radiolabeled single-
stranded DNA after three cycles will be ______ (up to one decimal place)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 60 of 76
Text of page 61
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.93 – Q.103 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.93 Match the molecules in Column-I with their properties/functions mentioned in
Column-II
Column-I Column-II
P. IgM 1. Involved in antigen presentation
Q. IgE 2. Predominant antibody type in
various body secretions
R. IgA 3. Can pass through placenta
S. MHC 4. Associated with allergic reaction
5. Contains ten heavy and light chains
(A) P−3 ; Q−2 ; R−4 ; S−5
(B) P−5 ; Q−4 ; R−2 ; S−1
(C) P−2 ; Q−3 ; R−4; S−1
(D) P−5 ; Q−4 ; R−2 ; S−5
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 61 of 76
Text of page 62
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.94 Match the following human diseases in Column-I with their causal organism in
Column-II
Column-I Column-II
P. Sleeping sickness 1. Trypanosoma cruzi
Q. Chagas disease 2. Trypanosoma brucei
R. Elephantiasis 3. Borrelia burgdorferi
S. Lyme disease 4. Wuchereria bancrofti
5. Rickettsia rickettsii
(A) P−3 ; Q−1 ; R−4 ; S−5
(B) P−1 ; Q−2 ; R−3 ; S−4
(C) P−2 ; Q−4 ; R−1 ; S−3
(D) P−2 ; Q−1 ; R−4 ; S−3
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 62 of 76
Text of page 63
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.95 Match the molecules in Column-I with their correct property/function in Column-
II
Column-I Column-II
P. RNase P 1. rRNA gene transcription
Q. RNA Polymerase-I 2. Gene silencing
R. siRNA 3. Cas9-mediated genome editing
S. Guide RNA 4. Ribozymes
5. tRNA gene transcription
(A) P−4 ; Q−5 ; R−2 ; S−3
(B) P−5 ; Q−1 ; R−3 ; S−4
(C) P−4 ; Q−1 ; R−2 ; S−3
(D) P−1 ; Q−3 ; R−4 ; S−2
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 63 of 76
Text of page 64
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.96 What would be the number of genotypes and phenotypes, respectively, from a cross
between genotypes AaBBCcDd and AaBBCcDd ? Assume independent assortment
and simple dominant-recessive relationship in each gene pair.
(A) 8 and 4
(B) 12 and 4
(C) 27 and 8
(D) 14 and 8
Q.97 Nucleosomes are made up of DNA and histones. Histones undergo various kind of
modifications by different groups of proteins. They are known as histone writers,
readers and erasers. Which of the following is/are histone writer(s)?
(A) Histone acetyl transferases
(B) Histone methyl transferases
(C) Histone deacetylases
(D) DNA methyl transferases
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 64 of 76
Text of page 65
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.98 The expression of a gene is regulated by a transcription factor. Which of the
following techniques can be used to identify the region in its promoter where the
transcription factor binds?
(A) S1 nuclease mapping
(B) Chromatin immunoprecipitation followed by sequencing
(C) Electrophoretic mobility shift assay
(D) DNase I footprinting
Q.99 Which of the following animals in India are included under “critically endangered”
threat category as per the Red Data List of IUCN?
(A) Namdapha Flying Squirrel
(B) Indian Rhinoceros
(C) Nicobar Shrew
(D) Clouded Leopard
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 65 of 76
Text of page 66
Life Sciences (XL)
100. Which of the following statements in relation to cell movement during gastrulation
in Sea urchin is/are correct?
(A) Delamination leads to the formation of endoderm
(B) Ingression leads to the development of mesoderm
(C) Involution leads to the development of ectoderm
(D) Invagination leads to the development of endoderm
Q.101 Which of the following genetic disorders is/are caused by trinucleotide repeat
expansions?
(A) Huntington’s disease
(B) β-thalassemia
(C) Fragile X syndrome
(D) Cystic fibrosis
Q.102 The mother and the father of five children are carriers (heterozygous) of an
autosomal recessive allele that causes cystic fibrosis. The probability of having
exactly three normal children among five is ______ (up to two decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 66 of 76
Text of page 67
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.103 An enzyme, which follows Michaelis-Menten equation, catalyzes the reaction
A→B. When enzyme and substrate concentrations are 15 nM and 10 µM,
respectively, the reaction velocity is 5 µMs−1. If Km for the substrate A is 5 µM, the
kinetic efficiency of the enzyme will be _______×106 M−1s−1 (in integer)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 67 of 76
Text of page 68
Life Sciences (XL)
Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.104– Q.111 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.104 Which of the following contains the phytonutrient allicin?
(A) Grape
(B) Cauliflower
(C) Garlic
(D) Chilli
Q.105 Which mold is responsible for the characteristic blue marbling in blue-veined
cheese?
(A) Rhizopus oryzae
(B) Penicillium roqueforti
(C) Aspergillus niger
(D) Penicillium camemberti
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 68 of 76
Text of page 69
Life Sciences (XL) Q.106 Which genus of bacteria does NOT have cell wall? (A) Lactobacillus (B) Staphylococcus (C) Mycoplasma (D) Escherichia Q.107 Which of the following pigment does NOT have pro-vitamin A activity? (A) -Carotene (B) -Cryptoxanthin (C) Lycopene (D) -Carotene Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 69 of 76
Text of page 70
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.108 Identify the analysis that must be performed FIRST to judge ‘cleanliness’ of
spice/herb powders.
(A) Acid-insoluble ash content
(B) Pesticide residue levels
(C) Volatile oil content
(D) Mycotoxin levels
Q.109 If there is a delay in oil extraction after bran is separated from the brown rice, the
quality of rice bran oil deteriorates. Identify the suitable CAUSE and EFFECT for
the deterioration in oil quality.
(A) Lipase activity; increase in FFA
(B) Oil hydrolysis; decrease in FFA
(C) Lipase activity; decrease in FFA
(D) Bran stabilization; decrease in lipase activity
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 70 of 76
Text of page 71
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.110 Among the following, which is/are the process(es) that lead to generation of new
fats from existing ones?
(A) Transesterification
(B) Degumming
(C) Hydrogenation
(D) Winterization
Q.111 The true density and bulk density of wheat grains are 1280 kg/m3 and 740 kg/m3,
respectively. The porosity of the grains is ____. (rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 71 of 76
Text of page 72
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.112 – Q.122 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.112 Identify the gas composition (in percent) suitable for packaging cured meat under
MAP conditions.
(A) O2 = 0; CO2 = 50; N2 = 50
(B) O2 = 50; CO2 = 0; N2 = 50
(C) O2 = 0; CO2 = 0; N2 = 100
(D) O2 = 50; CO2 = 50; N2 = 0
Q.113 Which of the following sequence of events occurs during formation of egg-white
gel?
Assume: PN: Native protein; PD: Denatured protein;
PA: Aggregated protein; PG: Protein gel
→: forward reaction; : reversible reaction; ∆: heating; ∇: cooling
∆ ∇ ∇
(A) PN ↔ PD ↔ PA↔ PG
(B) ∆ ∆ ∆
PN ↔ PD → PA→ PG
(C) ∆ ∇
PN ↔ PD → PG
(D) ∆ ∆
PN ↔ PA → PG
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 72 of 76
Text of page 73
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.114 In canning and retorting of foods, which of the following is the correct expression
of Ball process time (B)?
Assume: tp = processor’s process time; tc = come-up time
(A) B = tp + 0.42 tc
(B) B = tp + 0.30 tc
(C) B = tp + 0.50 tc
(D) B = tp + 0.25 tc
Q.115 Which of the following is the most suitable flexible packaging laminate for dry
fruits?
(A) PET/LDPE
(B) PS/LDPE
(C) BOPP/LDPE
(D) Nylon/LDPE
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 73 of 76
Text of page 74
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.116 Identify the CORRECT sequence of operations for dressing of poultry.
(A) Slaughtering and bleeding → scalding → defeathering → eviscerating → chilling
(B) Slaughtering and bleeding → defeathering → scalding → eviscerating → chilling
(C) Slaughtering and bleeding → eviscerating → defeathering → scalding →chilling
(D) Slaughtering and bleeding → defeathering → eviscerating → scalding → chilling
Q.117 Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE for a package of gamma-
irradiated (7.5 kGy) whole chicken?
(A) Nutritional quality of the product deteriorates after irradiation.
(B) Spores of C. botulinum can survive in the irradiated product.
(C) ‘Radura’ symbol does not ensure safety of the irradiated product for consumption.
(D) Energy needed for the irradiation process is much higher than that required for
freezing of the product.
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 74 of 76
Text of page 75
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.118 Match the following food products in Column I with their corresponding processes
in Column II.
Column I Column II
P Idli 1 Baking
Q Parboiled rice 2 Fermentation
R Soda beverage 3 Gelatinization
S Cookies 4 Carbonation
(A) P-2;Q-3;R-4;S-1
(B) P-3;Q-2;R-4;S-1
(C) P-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3
(D) P-2;Q-3;R-1;S-4
Q.119 Which of the following is/are inhibitor(s) of enzymatic browning in peeled
potatoes?
(A) Citric acid
(B) EDTA
(C) Mannitol
(D) Ascorbic acid
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 75 of 76
Text of page 76
Life Sciences (XL)
Q.120 Match the following enzymes in Column I with their applications in Column II.
Column I Column II
P -Glucanase 1 Fruit juice clarification
Q - and -Amylases 2 Bread making
R Pectinase 3 Meat tenderization
S Papain 4 Brewing
(A) P-3;Q-1;R-2;S-4
(B) P-4;Q-2;R-1;S-3
(C) P-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3
(D) P-1;Q-2;R-3;S-4
Q.121 The F121 value of a known microorganism with Z value of 11 °C is 2.4 min for
99.9999% inactivation. For a 12D inactivation of the said microorganism at
143 °C, the F value (in min) is _____. (rounded off to 3 decimal places)
Q.122 In a typical grinding operation, 80% of the feed material passes through a sieve
opening of 4.75 mm; whereas, 80% of the ground product passes through 0.5 mm
opening. If the power required to grind 2 tonnes/h of the feed material is
3.8 kW, the work index of the material is _______. (rounded off to 2 decimal
places)
Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee Page 76 of 76
Text of page 1
Answer Key for Life Sciences (XL)
Q. No. Session Q. Type Section Key/Range Marks
1 8 MCQ GA D 1
2 8 MCQ GA B 1
3 8 MCQ GA B 1
4 8 MCQ GA C 1
5 8 MCQ GA A 1
6 8 MCQ GA A 2
7 8 MCQ GA B 2
8 8 MCQ GA C 2
9 8 MCQ GA A 2
10 8 MCQ GA C 2
11 8 MCQ XL-P B 1
12 8 MCQ XL-P A 1
13 8 MCQ XL-P A 1
14 8 MCQ XL-P C 1
15 8 MCQ XL-P A 1
16 8 MCQ XL-P A 1
17 8 MSQ XL-P A;C 1
18 8 MSQ XL-P B;D 1
19 8 NAT XL-P 5.96 to 5.98 1
20 8 MCQ XL-P A 2
21 8 MCQ XL-P B 2
22 8 MSQ XL-P A;B;C 2
23 8 MSQ XL-P B;C;D 2
24 8 MSQ XL-P A;C;D 2
25 8 NAT XL-P 20.55 to 20.59 2
26 8 NAT XL-P 27 to 27 2
27 8 NAT XL-P -0.46 to -0.42 2
28 8 MCQ XL-Q A 1
29 8 MCQ XL-Q C 1
30 8 MCQ XL-Q C 1
Page 1 of 4
Text of page 2
31 8 MCQ XL-Q D 1
32 8 MCQ XL-Q A 1
33 8 MCQ XL-Q D 1
34 8 MCQ XL-Q D 1
35 8 MSQ XL-Q A;C 1
36 8 MCQ XL-Q C 2
37 8 MCQ XL-Q C 2
38 8 MCQ XL-Q B 2
39 8 MCQ XL-Q C 2
40 8 MCQ XL-Q A 2
41 8 MSQ XL-Q C;D 2
42 8 MSQ XL-Q A;B 2
43 8 MSQ XL-Q A;D 2
44 8 NAT XL-Q 4.7 to 4.8 2
45 8 NAT XL-Q 146 to 146 2
46 8 NAT XL-Q 0.14 to 0.14 2
47 8 MCQ XL-R A 1
48 8 MCQ XL-R C 1
49 8 MCQ XL-R B 1
50 8 MCQ XL-R B 1
51 8 MCQ XL-R C 1
52 8 MSQ XL-R B;D 1
53 8 MSQ XL-R A;B 1
54 8 NAT XL-R 22 to 22 1
55 8 MCQ XL-R A 2
56 8 MCQ XL-R B 2
57 8 MCQ XL-R A 2
58 8 MCQ XL-R B 2
59 8 MCQ XL-R C 2
60 8 MCQ XL-R C 2
61 8 MCQ XL-R A 2
62 8 MSQ XL-R A;C 2
63 8 MSQ XL-R A;B;D 2
64 8 MSQ XL-R A;D 2
65 8 NAT XL-R 0.24 to 0.26 2
66 8 MCQ XL-S B 1
67 8 MCQ XL-S A 1
68 8 MCQ XL-S A 1
Page 2 of 4
Text of page 3
69 8 MCQ XL-S A 1
70 8 MCQ XL-S A 1
71 8 MCQ XL-S C 1
72 8 MCQ XL-S B 1
73 8 MSQ XL-S A;D 1
74 8 MCQ XL-S B 2
75 8 MCQ XL-S C 2
76 8 MCQ XL-S C 2
77 8 MCQ XL-S A 2
78 8 MSQ XL-S A 2
79 8 MSQ XL-S B;C;D 2
80 8 MSQ XL-S C;D 2
81 8 MSQ XL-S A;B 2
82 8 MSQ XL-S A;C 2
83 8 NAT XL-S 2 to 2 2
84 8 NAT XL-S 1 to 1 2
85 8 MCQ XL-T D 1
86 8 MCQ XL-T B 1
87 8 MCQ XL-T A 1
88 8 MCQ XL-T C 1
89 8 MCQ XL-T A 1
90 8 MCQ XL-T B 1
91 8 NAT XL-T 0.99 to 0.99 1
92 8 NAT XL-T 87.5 to 87.5 1
93 8 MCQ XL-T B 2
94 8 MCQ XL-T D 2
95 8 MCQ XL-T C 2
96 8 MCQ XL-T C 2
97 8 MSQ XL-T A;B 2
98 8 MSQ XL-T B;D 2
99 8 MSQ XL-T A;C 2
100 8 MSQ XL-T B;D 2
101 8 MSQ XL-T A;C 2
102 8 NAT XL-T 0.25 to 0.27 2
103 8 NAT XL-T 100 to 100 2
104 8 MCQ XL-U C 1
105 8 MCQ XL-U B 1
106 8 MCQ XL-U C 1
Page 3 of 4
Text of page 4
107 8 MCQ XL-U C 1
108 8 MCQ XL-U A 1
109 8 MCQ XL-U A 1
110 8 MSQ XL-U A;C 1
111 8 NAT XL-U 0.40 to 0.44 1
112 8 MCQ XL-U A 2
113 8 MCQ XL-U B 2
114 8 MCQ XL-U A 2
115 8 MCQ XL-U C 2
116 8 MCQ XL-U A 2
117 8 MSQ XL-U B;C 2
118 8 MSQ XL-U A 2
119 8 MSQ XL-U A;B;D 2
120 8 MSQ XL-U B;C 2
121 8 NAT XL-U 0.046 to 0.050 2
122 8 NAT XL-U 6.25 to 6.32 2
Page 4 of 4
Page 1 of 76
Source: GATE. Question paper published by GATE.