GATE Life Sciences 2026
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Life Sciences (XL)
General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 Suresh said, “I did it yesterday.”
Which one of the following options is the correct form of this sentence in indirect
speech?
(A) Suresh said that I did it yesterday.
(B) Suresh says I did it yesterday.
(C) Suresh says that he did it the day before.
(D) Suresh said that he had done it the day before.
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Life Sciences (XL)
Q.2 To continue the sequence of tiles shown, the tile indicated by the question mark
should be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Life Sciences (XL)
Q.3 Consider an art gallery whose walkways are shown as lines in the diagram. A
black dot represents a junction of two walkways. A guard may be placed at a
junction to watch over the walkways that join at that junction. The minimum
number of guards needed to watch all the walkways is ________.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
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Life Sciences (XL)
Q.4 The 2nd of June is a Thursday in a certain year. Which day of the week is the
3rd of July in that year?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday
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Life Sciences (XL)
Q.5 A coin with heads facing up is shown as and a coin with tails facing up is
shown as .
Six coins are placed in the Starting Arrangement, as shown in the figure below.
A “step” is defined as interchanging a pair of adjacent coins without flipping
them. The minimum number of steps needed to go from the Starting Arrangement
to the Final Arrangement, as shown in the figure, is ________.
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 12
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Life Sciences (XL)
Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.6 Exacerbate : Mitigate :: ___________
Choose the option with the correct pair of words to fill the blank.
(A) Aggravate : Alleviate
(B) Alleviate : Precipitate
(C) Aggravate : Precipitate
(D) Emancipate : Exonerate
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Life Sciences (XL)
Q.7 A paper shown in Panel I is folded along the dashed lines (- - -) to construct a
cube. The shaded regions shown in Panel I appear on the outer surface of the cube.
Referring to cubes shown in Panel II, which one of the options is correct?
(A) Only (i) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
(B) Only (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
(C) Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
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Life Sciences (XL)
Q.8 In a population, patients who have high cholesterol also have high blood-pressure
(BP). Some patients with high BP also have diabetes. There are no patients who
have both high cholesterol and diabetes. Furthermore,
1. the total number of patients with at least one of these conditions is 75,
2. the number of patients with high cholesterol is 10,
3. the number of patients with high BP is 45, and
4. the number of patients with only high BP and no other conditions is 20.
Then the number of patients who have both diabetes and high BP is _______
(A) 0
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 10
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Life Sciences (XL)
Q.9 Four people P, Q, R, and S, of different ages, make the following observations.
P – I am younger than S.
Q – I am neither the youngest nor the oldest.
R – P is older than me.
Based on these observations, the youngest person is ______.
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
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Life Sciences (XL)
Q.10 Circles C1 , C2 , and C3 , with centers O1, O2, and O3 , and radii r1 , r2 , and r3 ,
respectively, touch each other as shown in the following figure. Given r1 = 2 cm,
r2 = 1 cm and the angle ∠O1 O3 O2 is 90°, r3 = _____ cm.
(A) 1
(−3 + √17 )
2
(B) 1
(3 + √17 )
2
(C) 1
(−2 + √17 )
2
(D) 1
(−3 + 2√17 )
2
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Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.12 Upon hydrolysis of the pentapeptide Glu-Arg-Gly-Phe-Ala (represented from N- to
C- terminus) with trypsin, the peptide fragments obtained are
(A) Glu-Arg and Gly-Phe-Ala
(B) Glu-Arg-Gly-Phe and Ala
(C) Glu and Arg-Gly-Phe-Ala
(D) Glu-Arg-Gly and Phe-Ala
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Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.13 The major product formed in the following reaction is
COOH conc. HNO3
30 oC
COOH
(A) COOH
NO2
COOH
NO2
(B) COOH
COOH
NO2
(C) COOH
O2N COOH
(D) COOH
NO2
COOH
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Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.15 The CORRECT combination(s) of element and their ground state electronic
configuration is/are
(Atomic Numbers: Ar-18, Sc-21, Cr-24, Mn-25 and Fe-26)
(A) Sc – [Ar] 4s2 3d1
(B) Cr – [Ar] 4s2 3d4
(C) Mn – [Ar] 4s2 3d5
(D) Fe – [Ar] 4s2 3d6
Q.16 The major component(s) of phosphate buffer at physiological pH of 7.4 is/are
(A) H3PO4
(B) H2PO4─
(C) HPO42─
(D) PO43─
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Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.17 The total number of distinct stereoisomers for the following compound is
_______________ (in integer).
Cl Cl
H3C CH3
Q.18 For the reaction A → products,
the half-life is independent of the initial concentration of A.
The order of the reaction is ________________ (in integer).
Q.19 Among the following, the number of molecules possessing one or more lone pairs
on the central atom is ________________ (in integer).
BeCl2 SnCl2 BF3 NH3 SF4 PF5 and SF6
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Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.20 – Q.27 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.20 An ideal gas in an insulated container expands against zero external pressure. For
this expansion, the CORRECT statement is
(A) Work is done by the gas
(B) Work is done on the gas
(C) Pressure of the gas remains unchanged
(D) Temperature of the gas remains unchanged
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Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.21 The major products P and Q obtained in the following reactions are
CN
P
Cl Acetone
CH3OH
Q
I
(A)
P= ;Q=
CN OMe
(B)
P= ;Q=
CN OMe
racemic
(C)
P= ;Q=
CN OMe
racemic
(D)
P= ;Q=
CN OMe
racemic racemic
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Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.23 Match the coordination complexes given in Column I with their most appropriate
properties in Column II.
(Given: Atomic number of Mn-25; Co-27; Cu-29):
Column I Column II
Coordination Complexes Properties
E. [CuCl5]3─ I. Facial and meridonal isomerism
F. [Co(NH3)3Cl3] II. µspin-only = 3.87 BM
G. [Co(NH3)4Cl2] III. Very faintly coloured
H. [Mn(H2O)6]2+ IV. Trigonal bipyramidal
(A) E-IV, F-III, G-II, H-I
(B) E-II, F-IV, G-I, H-III
(C) E-IV, F-I, G-II, H-III
(D) E-I, F-III, G-IV, H-II
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Chemistry (XL-P) Q.24 The CORRECT statement(s) about a competitive inhibitor of an enzyme is/are (A) The competitive inhibitor binds to the substrate-binding site of the enzyme (B) The competitive inhibitor binds to the substrate (C) The competitive inhibitor is less effective at higher substrate concentration (D) The competitive inhibitor is more effective at higher substrate concentration Organizing Institute: IIT Guwahati Page 21 of 81
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Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.25 Among the following, the occupied molecular orbital(s) of carbon monoxide is/are
(A)
C O
(B)
C O
(C)
C O
(D)
C O
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Chemistry (XL-P)
Q.26 The option(s) with the CORRECT order of ionisation energy is/are
(A) Al+ < Al2+ < Al3+ < Al4+
(B) Al4+ < Al3+ < Al2+ <Al+
(C) Cl─ < Cl < Cl+
(D) Cl+ < Cl < Cl─
Q.27 The pH of 10─8 M HCl (aq.) is ____________ (rounded off to two decimal
places).
Given, pKw = 14.
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.28 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.28 Which one of the following immunoglobulins is known for its role in both allergy
and asthma?
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgD
(D) IgE
Q.29 In which kind of organism, the glycerol moiety of lipid is found primarily in the
R-configuration?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Mammals
(C) Archaea
(D) Yeast
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.30 The Kennedy pathway of cellular phospholipid biosynthesis is associated
with ______ .
(A) peroxisome
(B) mitochondria
(C) nucleus
(D) endoplasmic reticulum
Q.31 Which of the following options show(s) the correct pairing of a complement protein
with its function?
(A) C5a : inflammation
(B) C3b : opsonization
(C) C3a : opsonization
(D) C5b : inflammation
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.32 Fluorescence is a result of which one or more of the following?
(A) The transition of electrons from singlet ground state to singlet transition state.
(B) The transition of electrons from lower singlet excited state to singlet ground state.
(C) The release of energy in the form of light of wavelength higher than the incident
wavelength.
(D) The release of energy in the form of light of lower wavelength than the incident
wavelength.
Q.33 A 25 amino acid α-helical protein is spanning the thickness of a mammalian cell
membrane. Using the average dimensional parameters of a typical -helix, the
thickness of the membrane will be ______ Å (rounded off to one decimal place).
Q.34 The oxidative phase of the hexose monophosphate pathway generates __________
moles of NADPH per mole of glucose 6-phosphate (answer in integer).
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.35 Partial double digestion of the DNA shown below with EcoRI, and XhoI will
yield ______ bands after gel electrophoresis (answer in integer).
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.36 – Q.46 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.36 Chymotrypsin cleaves polypeptides preferentially on the carbonyl side of aromatic,
and some other bulky nonpolar residues. Trypsin cleaves on the carbonyl side of
positively charged residues. Digestion of a polypeptide having the composition-
Ala2, Gly, Lys2, Phe, Thr, Trp, Val, independently by these two proteases yielded
peptide fragments as shown in the figure below.
Which one of the following is the correct primary structure of the polypeptide?
(A) Ala-Ala-Trp-Gly-Lys-Lys-Thr-Phe-Val
(B) Thr-Phe-Val-Lys-Ala-Ala-Trp-Gly-Lys
(C) Val-Lys-Ala-Ala-Trp- Gly-Lys-Thr-Phe
(D) Thr-Phe-Ala-Ala-Trp-Val-Lys-Gly-Lys
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Biochemistry (XL-Q) Q.37 Which one of the following enzymes is NOT inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate? (A) Hexokinase I (B) Hexokinase II (C) Hexokinase III (D) Hexokinase IV Organizing Institute: IIT Guwahati Page 29 of 81
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.38 The following diagram represents energy states of different protein folding steps,
which includes-
1. Folded
2. Transition
3. Molten globule
4. Unfolded
Find the correct match of folding steps (1 to 4) with the energy state (P to S) in the
diagram.
(A) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
(B) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q
(C) 1-R, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-P
(D) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.39 The correct path of transfer of electrons in the light harvesting photosystems in
vascular plants is _____________.
(A) H2O → Photosystem II → Cyt b6f → Photosystem I → NADP+
(B) H2O → Photosystem I → Cyt b6f → Photosystem II → O2
(C) H2O → Photosystem II → Cyt b6f → Photosystem I → O2
(D) H2O → Photosystem I → Cyt b6f → Photosystem II → NADP+
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.40 For a simple enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics, kinetic data was
collected in the absence (dotted line, -I), or presence (solid line, +I) of an
uncompetitive inhibitor (I). Which one of the following Eadie-Hofstee plots best
describes the expected result?
(vo = initial velocity, [S] = free substrate concentration)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.41 Which statement(s) is/are true about the 5′-capping of eukaryotic mRNA?
(A) Triphosphatase enzyme removes the γ-phosphate from the 5′-terminal nucleotide.
(B) A transferase links ATP to the dephosphorylated nucleotide of mRNA at its 5′-end.
(C) Methyl transferase adds a –CH3 group to the N-7 position of the newly added
guanine base.
(D) 5′-capping happens shortly after mRNA emerges from the exit tunnel of RNA
polymerase.
Q.42 Which of the following statements about pertussis toxin is/are NOT true?
(A) It causes whooping cough.
(B) It is a heterodimeric protein.
(C) It causes ADP-ribosylation of the -subunit of Gi.
(D) It inhibits adenylate cyclase.
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.43 Telomerase has which one or more of the following activities?
(A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(B) Reverse transcriptase
(C) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(D) 5′→3′ exoribonuclease
Q.44 To a 10 × 10−9 M solution of a receptor, its specific ligand was added, and
incubated. At equilibrium, the concentration of the free ligand was 5 × 10−9 M,
and the concentration of the receptor-ligand complex was 6 × 10−9 M. The
dissociation constant for the receptor-ligand interaction is _________× 10−9 M
(rounded off to two decimal places).
Assuming that there are 5 × 1013 cells in the human body, and that ATP is turning
Q.45 over at a rate of 109 ATP molecules per minute in each cell, then the human body
is utilizing ________ watts (rounded off to two decimal places).
[Assume that hydrolysis of ATP yields 12 kcal per mole. 1 watt = 1 joule/sec,
1 calorie = 4.18 joules, Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 1023 ]
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Biochemistry (XL-Q)
Q.46 A solution shows a transmittance of 20% when taken in a cuvette of 2.5 cm path
length. If the molar absorption coefficient of the solution is 12000 dm3 /mol. cm,
the concentration of the solution is ______ × 105 mol/dm3 (rounded off to two
decimal places).
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Botany (XL-R)
Q.47 – Q.54 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.47 Which one of the following plant families is characterized by the gynobasic style
of female reproductive organ?
(A) Lamiaceae
(B) Euphorbiaceae
(C) Malvaceae
(D) Poaceae
Q.48 Which one of the following plant organs typically exhibits all the four features listed
below?
(i) Starch-enriched endodermis
(ii) Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundle
(iii) Endarch xylem
(iv) Presence of medullary rays
(A) Dicot root
(B) Monocot root
(C) Dicot leaf
(D) Dicot stem
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Botany (XL-R)
Q.49 Correctly match the following molecules/methods in Group-I with their major uses
in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
(P) CRISPR-Cas9 (1) Global gene expression analysis
(Q) DNA Microarray (2) Molecular marker
(R) Vir genes (3) Targeted gene editing
(S) RAPD (4) Agrobacterium-mediated plant
transformation
(A) P−1; Q−3; R−2; S−4
(B) P−3; Q−1; R−4; S−2
(C) P−3; Q−1; R−2; S−4
(D) P−1; Q−3; R−4; S−2
Q.50 Which one of the following commercial products is used as a systemic fungicide
to control plant diseases?
(A) Captan
(B) Phaltan
(C) Thiram
(D) Benomyl
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Botany (XL-R)
Q.51 Which one of the following terms best describes the plants that are adapted to grow
in acidic soil?
(A) Halophytes
(B) Oxylophytes
(C) Lithophytes
(D) Chasmophytes
Q.52 Which of the following plant genera is/are example(s) of partial stem parasite?
(A) Striga
(B) Orobanche
(C) Viscum
(D) Cuscuta
Q.53 Which of the following amino acids contain(s) only one chiral center?
(A) Serine
(B) Threonine
(C) Isoleucine
(D) Leucine
Q.54 If an endosperm cell of a typical diploid angiosperm species has 15 chromosomes,
then the number of chromosomes in a microspore mother cell of this species under
normal circumstances would be___________ (in integer).
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Botany (XL-R)
Q.55 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.55 Which one of the following class(es) of genes, when deleted, would result in sepal
formation in all the floral whorls of Arabidopsis, as per the rules of the typical ABC
model of floral organ patterning?
(A) Class A only
(B) Class A and class B
(C) Class B and class C
(D) Class B only
Q.56 Correctly match the following molecular assemblies in Group-I with their
functions in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
(P) Photosystem I (1) Utilizes proton gradient for ATP
synthesis
(Q) Photosystem II (2) Transfers electron from reduced
plastoquinone to oxidized
plastocyanin
(R) Cytochrome b6f complex (3) Drives transfer of electron from
plastocyanin to ferredoxin
(S) CF0 − CF1 complex (4) Oxidises H2O and reduces
plastoquinone
(A) P−3; Q−4; R−1; S−2
(B) P−3; Q−4; R−2; S−1
(C) P−2; Q−4; R−3; S−1
(D) P−4; Q−1; R−2; S−3
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Botany (XL-R)
Q.57 Correctly match the following secondary metabolites in Group-I with their
chemical classes in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
(P) Codeine (1) Flavones
(Q) Podophyllotoxin (2) Alkaloids
(R) Resveratrol (3) Lignans
(S) Linamarin (4) Monoterpenes
(T) Limonene (5) Cyanogenic glycosides
(6) Stilbenes
(A) P−1; Q−2; R−6; S−5; T−4
(B) P−2; Q−5; R−6; S−3; T−4
(C) P−2; Q−3; R−5; S−4; T−1
(D) P−2; Q−3; R−6; S−5; T−4
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Botany (XL-R)
Q.58 Correctly match the following plant diseases in Group-I with their causal
organisms in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
(P) Red rot of sugarcane (1) Albugo candida
(Q) Tikka disease of groundnut (2) Cercospora personata
(R) Late blight of potato (3) Plasmodiophora brassicae
(S) White rust of mustard (4) Phytophthora infestans
(5) Colletotrichum falcatum
(A) P−1; Q−2; R−4; S−3
(B) P−5; Q−1; R−4; S−2
(C) P−5; Q−2; R−4; S−1
(D) P−5; Q−3; R−1; S−2
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Botany (XL-R)
Q.59 Correctly match the following plant species in Group-I with their main
economically important products in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
(P) Gossypium arboreum (1) Rubber
(Q) Dalbergia sissoo (2) Spices
(R) Hevea brasiliensis (3) Fibre
(S) Pelargonium graveolens (4) Timber
(5) Essential oil
(A) P−3; Q−4; R−1; S−5
(B) P−3; Q−4; R−1; S−2
(C) P−2; Q−4; R−1; S−3
(D) P−3; Q−1; R−2; S−5
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Botany (XL-R)
Q.60 Two genes X and Y are involved in root development in such a way that all the
following three homozygous mutants show rootless phenotype.
(i) Gain-of-function mutant of X
(ii) Loss-of-function mutant of Y
(iii) Double mutant of gain-of-function of X and loss-of-function of Y
Which one of the following genetic pathways best describes these observations?
(A) X suppresses Y and Y promotes root development
(B) X promotes Y and Y promotes root development
(C) X suppresses Y and Y supresses root development
(D) X promotes Y and Y supresses root development
Q.61 Which of the following combinations of photosynthetic carbon cycle in plants,
and its matched biochemical reaction is/are correct?
(A) C3 pathway : Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate + CO2 + H2O → 2 3-phosphoglycerate
(B) C2 pathway : 2 Glycolate + 2 O2 → 2 glyoxylate + 2 H2O2
(C) C4 pathway : 2 2-Phosphoglycolate + 2 H2O → 2 glycolate + 2 Pi
(D) CAM pathway : Phosphoenolpyruvate + HCO3− → oxaloacetate + Pi
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Botany (XL-R)
Q.62 Choose the correct combination(s) of alkaloid, source plant, and their main
commercial use.
(A) Vincristine – Catharanthus roseus – anticancer drug
(B) Scopolamine – Hyoscyamus niger – anticholinergic drug
(C) Cocaine – Conium maculatum – antimalarial drug
(D) Pilocarpine – Eschscholzia californica – antidepressant drug
Q.63 Which of the following statements is/are correct about plant movement?
(A) Diaheliotropic refers to orienting the leaves perpendicular to the rays of the sun to
maximize light interception.
(B) Paraheliotropic refers to orienting the leaves parallel to the rays of the sun to
minimize light interception.
(C) Diaheliotropic refers to orienting the leaves parallel to the rays of the sun to
minimize light interception.
(D) Paraheliotropic refers to orienting the leaves perpendicular to the rays of the sun to
maximize light interception.
Q.64 Two completely linked genes A and B regulate plant height and flower colour,
respectively, wherein the recessive mutant aa is dwarf bearing red flowers and the
recessive mutant bb is tall bearing white flowers. If an F1 individual of the
aaBB × AAbb cross is crossed to the mutant aabb, then the probability of an
individual in the next generation bearing white flower would be
___________ (Round off to two decimal places).
Q.65 An enzyme following Michaelis-Menten kinetics, catalyses a reaction with
an initial velocity (V0) of 2 µM s−1 at the substrate concentration of 10 µM. If the
turnover number (kcat) of the enzyme for the given substrate is 500 s−1 and the
enzyme concentration in the reaction is 0.01 µM, then the value of the
Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) would be___________ × 10−6 M (in integer).
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Microbiology (XL-S) Q.66 – Q.73 Carry ONE mark Each Q.66 Which one of the following statements about microbiological stains is CORRECT? (A) Acid-fast stain is a simple stain. (B) Gram stain is used to visualize endospores. (C) Methylene blue is an acidic dye. (D) India ink is used to visualize capsules. Q.67 The genome of which one of the following viruses encodes reverse transcriptase? (A) Human immunodeficiency virus (B) Influenza virus (C) Poliovirus (D) Rabies virus Organizing Institute: IIT Guwahati Page 45 of 81
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Microbiology (XL-S)
Q.68 Protoplasts can be generated from
(A) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
(B) Brucella abortus.
(C) Pasteurella multocida.
(D) Shigella flexneri.
Q.69 Which one of the following molecules is the master regulator of the planktonic-
surface transition in Pseudomonas aeruginosa during biofilm formation?
(A) Cyclic thiolactone
(B) Cyclic dimeric guanosine monophosphate
(C) Cyclic triadenylate
(D) Cyclohexamide
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Microbiology (XL-S) Q.70 Which one of the following is a protozoal disease? (A) Cholera (B) Gonorrhea (C) Kala-azar (D) Syphilis Q.71 Which one of the following drugs is a viral protease inhibitor? (A) Acyclovir (B) Nevirapine (C) Ritonavir (D) Zidovudine Organizing Institute: IIT Guwahati Page 47 of 81
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Microbiology (XL-S)
Q.72 In Escherichia coli, the minimum number of crossovers required between
F − genome and the linear DNA transmitted by Hfr to form a viable recombinant is
_____. (Answer in integer)
Q.73 The decimal reduction time of Escherichia coli at a particular temperature is one
minute. Assuming no bacterial growth and constant death rate, the time required for
one million bacteria to get reduced to one viable bacterium is _____minutes.
(Answer in integer)
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Microbiology (XL-S)
Q.74 – Q.84 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.74 Which one of the following options correctly matches the microbial names in
Column I with their corresponding sources of epithet in Column II?
Column I Column II
(P) Klebsiella pneumoniae (i) causes stupor in mice
(Q) Penicillium chrysogenum (ii) forms pus
(R) Salmonella typhimurium (iii) the disease it causes
(S) Streptococcus pyogenes (iv) produces a yellow pigment
(A) P-i; Q-ii; R-iii; S-iv
(B) Q-i; R-ii; S-iii; P-iv
(C) R-i; S-ii; P-iii; Q-iv
(D) S-i; Q-ii; P-iii; R-iv
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Microbiology (XL-S)
Q.75 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: Silver and copper display bacteriocidal or antiseptic activity.
Reason [r]: Silver and copper effectively demonstrate oligodynamic action.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason of [a].
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason of [a].
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false.
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false.
Q.76 When tryptophan level is low in Escherichia coli, the expression of tryptophan
biosynthesis genes is turned on through an antiterminator stem-loop formation
between
(A) regions 1 and 2 of the leader sequence (trpL) of mRNA.
(B) regions 2 and 3 of the leader sequence (trpL) of mRNA.
(C) regions 2 and 4 of the leader sequence (trpL) of mRNA.
(D) regions 3 and 4 of the leader sequence (trpL) of mRNA.
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Microbiology (XL-S)
Q.77 The effect of mutations in a gene at their transcriptional and translational levels
were analyzed using Northern (N) and Western (W) blot techniques, respectively.
The following figure shows the schematic representation of mRNA and protein
expression profiles of the wild-type and its four different mutants. Which one of the
following mutants contains mutation in the upstream regulatory region of the gene?
(A) Mutant-1
(B) Mutant-2
(C) Mutant-3
(D) Mutant-4
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Microbiology (XL-S) Q.78 Which one of the following leukocytes is the most abundant in a healthy human? (A) Basophils (B) Eosinophils (C) Monocytes (D) Neutrophils Q.79 DNA amplification in the polymerase chain reaction is (A) linear. (B) parabolic. (C) sigmoidal. (D) exponential. Organizing Institute: IIT Guwahati Page 52 of 81
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Microbiology (XL-S)
Q.80 In bacteriophage lambda (λ) life cycle, binding of Cro protein to cI gene operator
region
(A) activates cI gene expression.
(B) directs towards the lysogenic state.
(C) directs towards the lytic cycle.
(D) prevents cI gene expression.
Q.81 Which of the following is/are ring(s) of bacterial flagellum?
(A) C ring
(B) L ring
(C) P ring
(D) Z ring
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Microbiology (XL-S) Q.82 Which of the following bacteria is/are uncultivable? (A) Borrelia burgdorferi (B) Leptospira interrogans (C) Mycobacterium leprae (D) Treponema pallidum Q.83 Which of the following antibiotic(s) inhibit(s) bacterial protein synthesis? (A) Erythromycin (B) Tetracycline (C) Bacitracin (D) Vancomycin Organizing Institute: IIT Guwahati Page 54 of 81
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Microbiology (XL-S)
Q.84 Scientist(s) who contributed in disproving the theory of spontaneous generation
is/are
(A) Ferdinand Cohn.
(B) John Needham.
(C) John Tyndall.
(D) Louis Pasteur.
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.85 – Q.92 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.85 A researcher sets up ten large outdoor tanks, each containing the same amount of
algae and the same number of guppies (herbivorous fish). In five of these tanks,
she also adds gourami fish, which are predators of guppies. Tanks were covered in
mesh so no new species could enter. After 2 months, the researcher counted the
number of guppies and gouramies, and measured the amount of algae. She found
that the amount of algae was much higher in the tanks with gourami fish
compared to those without gourami fish. Which one of the following processes
best explains the differences in amounts of algae between these tanks?
(A) Competition-colonisation trade-off
(B) Competitive exclusion principle
(C) Interference competition
(D) Trophic cascade
Q.86 Immunoglobulins are classified into the following isotypes: IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD,
IgE. What region of the immunoglobulin is used to determine this classification?
(A) The constant region of the heavy chain only
(B) The constant region of the light chain only
(C) The variable region of both the heavy and light chains
(D) The constant region of both the heavy and light chains
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.87 Correctly match the cell types in Column I to their primary function in Column II.
Column I Column II
P) Melanocyte 1) Muscle contraction
Q) Myocyte 2) Pigment production
R) Granulosa 3) Antibody production
S) B-cell 4) Estrogen secretion
(A) P – 1; Q – 3; R – 2; S – 4
(B) P – 2; Q – 1; R – 4; S – 3
(C) P – 1; Q – 2; R – 3; S – 4
(D) P – 2; Q – 3; R – 4; S – 1
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.88 Which one of the following groups includes at least one animal that is
NOT an arthropod?
(A) Group 1: crustaceans, scorpions, mites, insects
(B) Group 2: trilobites, horseshoe crabs, centipedes
(C) Group 3: millipedes, horseshoe crabs, sponges, earthworms
(D) Group 4: butterflies, moths, beetles
Q.89 Females of many insect species mate with multiple different males. Which of the
following is/are an adaptive explanation(s) for multiple mating in insects?
(A) Females obtain more resources by mating with multiple males
(B) Multiple mating increases the genetic variation among the offspring
(C) Multiple mating increases the probability of fertilization
(D) Multiple mating increases relatedness among the offspring
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.90 Which one or more of the following terms describe(s) Toxoplasma gondii?
(A) Virus
(B) Parasite
(C) Bacteria
(D) Fungus
Q.91 Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct about the technique used in
molecular biology?
(A) Southern blotting is used to detect specific DNA sequences
(B) Northern blotting is used to detect RNA expression levels
(C) Western blotting is used to detect proteins using antibodies
(D) ELISA is used to detect specific DNA sequences directly without antibodies
Q.92 Assume that in the oxidative branch of the pentose phosphate pathway, each
glucose-6-phosphate molecule generates the following products: 2 molecules of
NADPH, 1 molecule of CO2 and 1 molecule of ribulose-5-phosphate.
If 30 molecules of glucose-6-phosphate enter this pathway, and you randomly
draw one molecule from the products of the pathway, the probability that this
molecule is NADPH is __________ (round off to one decimal place).
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.93 – Q.103 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.93 Muscle performance is positively correlated with Darwinian fitness. The graph
below describes the relationship between mean environmental temperature and
muscle performance for two closely related lizard species, one living in temperate
areas (solid line) and another living in tropical areas (dashed line). Current mean
environmental temperatures are marked with vertical dotted lines at (i) for the
temperate species and (ii) for the tropical species. If mean environmental
temperatures at both locations increase at a steady rate over time, which one of the
following is most likely to occur in the near future?
(A) Temperate and tropical species will be negatively impacted to the same extent
(B) Temperate species may be positively impacted but tropical species will be
negatively impacted
(C) Temperate species will be negatively impacted but tropical species will be
positively impacted
(D) Neither temperate nor tropical species will be impacted
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.94 In eukaryotic cells, a mutation reduces the enzymatic activity of pyruvate
dehydrogenase by 90%, without affecting expression. Under aerobic conditions,
which one of the following metabolic changes is most expected in cells with the
mutation compared to cells without?
(A) Mutated cells will accumulate pyruvate and increase lactate production, despite
oxygen being available
(B) Mutated cells will have higher metabolic flux through Krebs cycle, resulting in
higher NADH yield
(C) This mutation will have no effect on metabolism
(D) Mutated cells will have depleted levels of pyruvate and lactate, despite oxygen
being available
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.95 Which one of the following describes the role of enhancers in eukaryotic
gene regulation?
(A) Enhancers always lie immediately upstream of the promoter and function only in a
fixed orientation
(B) Enhancers can act at variable distances from the promoters and may function
upstream, downstream, or within introns of genes
(C) Enhancers directly bind to RNA polymerase II to initiate transcription
(D) Enhancers overlap with the RNA polymerase II binding site
Q.96 Retes are networks of outgoing arteries and returning veins that create a
counter-current pattern. Retes in the flippers of seals that live in temperate areas
function as
(A) sensitivity enhancers to increase pain sensitivity in the flippers.
(B) metabolism blockers to prevent excess nutrients from being made in the flippers.
(C) heat blocks to prevent body heat from being lost to the flippers.
(D) pressure enhancers to spike blood pressure in the flippers.
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.97 Researchers measure the activity of an enzyme in the presence of an inhibitor.
They observe that
Vmax of the enzyme remains unchanged at saturating substrate
concentration
Km increases compared to uninhibited enzyme
Which type of inhibition is most consistent with these observations?
(A) Competitive inhibition
(B) Non-competitive inhibition
(C) Irreversible inhibition
(D) Substrate inhibition
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.98 Below are the numbers of individuals of migratory green warblers and the
frequencies of three genotypes at a single locus for this species. F refers to the
allele for faster migration and S to the allele for slower migration.
FF FS SS Total
Number of 35 20 10 65
individuals
Genotype 0.54 0.30 0.16 1
frequencies
What are the allele frequencies of F and S? (round off to 2 decimal places)
(A) Allele frequency of F = 0.69 and allele frequency of S = 0.31
(B) Allele frequency of F = 0.59 and allele frequency of S = 0.41
(C) Allele frequency of F = 0.31 and allele frequency of S = 0.69
(D) Allele frequency of F = 0.50 and allele frequency of S = 0.50
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.99 A drug was developed to inhibit histone acetyl transferase in eukaryotic cells.
Cells treated with this drug have more compact chromatin and show reduction in
transcription of several genes. Which one of the following statements best
explains why the drug has this effect?
(A) Histone acetylation increases positive charge on histones, thereby tightening DNA
binding and repressing transcription
(B) Histone H1 directly binds the nucleosome core and its acetylation directly causes
nucleosome disassembly
(C) Histone acetylation neutralizes positive charge on histones, thereby loosening
DNA-histone interactions and promoting transcription
(D) Euchromatin is normally condensed, so reduced acetylation of histones converts it
into a transcriptionally active state
Q.100 Two species of snakes, Species P and Species Q, have overlapping geographic
distributions. Species P mainly eats rodents, whereas Species Q mainly eats
invertebrates. Which one or more of the following terms describe(s) the process of
speciation for these two species?
(A) Sympatric speciation
(B) Parapatric speciation
(C) Allopatric speciation
(D) Niche differentiation
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.101 In rivers that range in salinity (ppt) from low to high, researchers found that the
aquatic snail species P (solid curve) and Q (dashed curve) were distributed
according to the pattern illustrated in figure (i) when the species are together. The
researchers then conducted a manipulative experiment in similar rivers with the
same salinity range, where they removed either species P or Q. Figure (ii)
illustrates the number of individuals of species P and Q when they were allowed
to live alone. These snails have no other competitors or predators. Which one or
more conclusions can be drawn from these two figures?
(A) Fundamental niche of P is larger than fundamental niche of Q
(B) Fundamental niche of Q is larger than realized niche of Q
(C) Fundamental niche of P is larger than realized niche of P
(D) Fundamental and realized niches of P are the same
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.102 Which of the following statements is/are correct for the phylogenetic tree depicted
below?
(A) Species R and Species S are reciprocally monophyletic
(B) Species R is sister to a clade comprised of Species P and Q
(C) Species P and Species Q are reciprocally monophyletic
(D) Species P, Q, R and S share a common ancestor
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Zoology (XL-T)
Q.103 In her exploration of the Western Ghats, Dora finds four new species of fungi.
Below is the DNA sequence alignment for a single locus from these new species
that she calls Yeti, Unicorn, Bigfoot and Godzilla. Using the principle of
parsimony and the DNA sequence alignment information below, which one or
more of the following tree topologies represent(s) the relationship between these
species?
Yeti: ATGC
Unicorn: ATGT
Bigfoot: ATGA
Godzilla: ATGT
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
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Food Technology (XL-U) Q.104 – Q.111 Carry ONE mark Each Q.104 Ergotism is caused by ingestion of grains infected with (A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Rhizopus stolonifer (C) Lactococcus lactis (D) Claviceps purpurea Organizing Institute: IIT Guwahati Page 69 of 81
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Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.105 Match the bacteria in Column I with their respective characteristic features in
Column II.
Column I Column II
(1) Gram-positive, round-shaped and
(P) E. coli
non-spore formers
(2) Gram-negative, rod-shaped and
(Q) B. subtilis
non-spore formers
(3) Gram-positive, rod-shaped and
(R) S. aureus
spore formers
(4) Gram-positive, rod-shaped and
(S) L. monocytogenes
non-spore formers
(A) P-1; Q-4; R-2; S-3
(B) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
(C) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4
(D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
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Food Technology (XL-U) Q.106 Carmine, a food colorant, is derived from (A) Curcuma longa (B) Dactylopius coccus (C) Beta vulgaris (D) Monascus purpureus Q.107 Which one of the following carbohydrates is NOT a storage polysaccharide? (A) Starch (B) Glycogen (C) Chitin (D) Dextran Organizing Institute: IIT Guwahati Page 71 of 81
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Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.108 Which one of the following statements is true for a high-pressure homogenizer?
(A) Homogenization takes place only due to uniform mixing of solid and liquid
(B) Solid particles in the suspension are disintegrated due to the high shear rate
exerted by the liquid
(C) High pressure steam is injected to dissolve the solids
(D) Solid particles in the suspension are compressed into a cake under high pressure
Q.109 Coconut oil contains a small fraction of unsaturated fatty acids, but still has a low
melting point due to the presence of
(A) large amounts of long chain saturated fatty acids
(B) mostly medium chain saturated fatty acids such as lauric acid
(C) few hydrogen bonds per fatty acid chain
(D) higher cholesterol content
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Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.110 Which of the following amines, produced as a result of protein degradation, is/are
foul smelling?
(A) Histamine
(B) Cadaverine
(C) Tyramine
(D) Putrescine
Q.111 Water is flowing at 100 litres/min through a pipe with a diameter of 5 cm.
Assume the coefficient of viscosity of water to be 0.001 Pa.s and the density
to be 1000 kg/m3. The Reynolds number for this flow is _______
(Round off to nearest integer)
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Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.112 – Q.122 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.112 Match the toxins in Column I with their respective sources in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Aflatoxin 1. Fusarium verticilloides
Q. Nisin 2. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
R. Fumonisin 3. Lactococcus lactis
S. Shiga-like toxin 4. Aspergillus flavus
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4
(B) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
(C) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
(D) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
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Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.113 Match the vitamins in Column I with their respective coenzyme forms listed in
Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Vitamin B1 1. Tetrahydrofolate
Q. Vitamin B2 2. Methylcobalamin
R. Pantothenic acid 3. Thiamine pyrophosphate
S. Vitamin B12 4. Flavin adenine dinucleotide
T. Folic acid 5. Coenzyme A
(A) P-3; Q-4; R-5; S-2; T-1
(B) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-5; T-2
(C) P-1; Q-5; R-4; S-2; T-3
(D) P-5; Q-2; R-4; S-3; T-1
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Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.114 Which one of the following proteins brings about the coagulation of milk in the
stomach of calves?
(A) Rennin
(B) Alpha-lactalbumin
(C) Beta-lactoglobulin
(D) Lactoferrin
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Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.115 Match the class of additives used for food preservation listed in Column I with
their specific examples in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Antioxidants 1. Rice bran wax
Q. Anti-foaming agent 2. Tricalcium phosphate
R. Anti-caking agent 3. Mineral oil
S. Glazing agent 4. Butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA)
(A) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
(B) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
(C) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1
(D) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4
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Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.116 Match the food items listed in Column I with their respective flavoring agents in
Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Cloves 1. Diacetyl
Q. Butter 2. Limonene
R. Orange 3. Eugenol
S. Lemon 4. Diallyl disulfide
T. Garlic 5. Citral
(A) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4; T-5
(B) P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-5; T-4
(C) P-4; Q-2; R-5; S-1; T-3
(D) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-5; T-4
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Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.117 Vegetable oils resist oxidation and maintain their quality for a long period due to
the presence of
(A) tocopherols
(B) hydrolytic enzyme such as lipases
(C) microorganisms such as molds and yeast
(D) carbohydrates
Q.118 For a given temperature difference between the top and bottom surfaces of a flat
metal plate, Fourier’s law of heat conduction implies that
(A) temperature gradient increases with increase in heat transfer area
(B) heat flux is proportional to the thermal conductivity of the metal
(C) heat flux increases with increase in thickness of the metal plate
(D) temperature gradient decreases with increase in thickness of the metal plate
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Food Technology (XL-U) Q.119 Xylooligosaccharides can be produced by (A) hydrolytic degradation of xylan by hydrochloric acid (B) hydrolysis of starch (C) enzymatic hydrolysis of lactose (D) enzymatic hydrolysis of xylan containing lignocellulosic material Q.120 In a α-helix, the R-groups on the amino acid residues (A) are found on the outside of the helix (B) participate in the backbone H-bonding that stabilize the helix (C) allow formation of right-handed helices (D) allow formation of left-handed helices Organizing Institute: IIT Guwahati Page 80 of 81
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Food Technology (XL-U)
Q.121 During constant pressure cake filtration, for an incompressible cake deposited
uniformly over a constant filter surface area,
(A) the cake resistance remains constant
(B) the cake resistance increases in proportion to the cake thickness
(C) the filtration rate remains constant
(D) the filtration rate decreases with time
Q.122 Hot oil is being cooled in a countercurrent, double-pipe heat exchanger from
410 K to 340 K by chilled water entering at 290 K and exiting the exchanger at
330 K. The Log Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD) for this heat transfer
is ________K. (Round off to one decimal place)
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Answer Key for Life Sciences (XL)
Q. No. Session Question Type Section Key/Range Marks
1 1 MCQ GA D 1
2 1 MCQ GA C 1
3 1 MCQ GA B 1
4 1 MCQ GA D 1
5 1 MCQ GA C 1
6 1 MCQ GA A 2
7 1 MCQ GA B 2
8 1 MCQ GA B 2
9 1 MCQ GA C 2
10 1 MCQ GA A 2
11 1 MCQ XL-P B 1
12 1 MCQ XL-P A 1
13 1 MCQ XL-P C 1
14 1 MCQ XL-P D 1
15 1 MSQ XL-P A;C;D 1
16 1 MSQ XL-P B;C 1
17 1 NAT XL-P 3 to 3 1
18 1 NAT XL-P 1 to 1 1
19 1 NAT XL-P 3 to 3 1
20 1 MCQ XL-P D 2
21 1 MCQ XL-P C 2
22 1 MCQ XL-P D 2
23 1 MCQ XL-P C 2
24 1 MSQ XL-P A;C 2
25 1 MSQ XL-P A;B;D 2
26 1 MSQ XL-P A;C 2
27 1 NAT XL-P 6.95 to 6.99 2
28 1 MCQ XL-Q D 1
29 1 MCQ XL-Q C 1
30 1 MCQ XL-Q D 1
31 1 MSQ XL-Q A;B 1
32 1 MSQ XL-Q B;C 1
33 1 NAT XL-Q 36.0 to 38.0 1
34 1 NAT XL-Q 2 to 2 1
35 1 NAT XL-Q 5 to 5 1
36 1 MCQ XL-Q B 2
37 1 MCQ XL-Q D 2
38 1 MCQ XL-Q A 2
39 1 MCQ XL-Q A 2
40 1 MCQ XL-Q D 2
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Text of page 2
Q. No. Session Question Type Section Key/Range Marks
41 1 MSQ XL-Q A;C;D 2
42 1 MSQ XL-Q B;D 2
43 1 MSQ XL-Q B;C 2
44 1 NAT XL-Q 3.30 to 3.40 2
45 1 NAT XL-Q 68.60 to 69.60 2
46 1 NAT XL-Q MTA* 2
47 1 MCQ XL-R A 1
48 1 MCQ XL-R D 1
49 1 MCQ XL-R B 1
50 1 MCQ XL-R D 1
51 1 MCQ XL-R B 1
52 1 MSQ XL-R C 1
53 1 MSQ XL-R A;D 1
54 1 NAT XL-R 10 to 10 1
55 1 MCQ XL-R C 2
56 1 MCQ XL-R B 2
57 1 MCQ XL-R D 2
58 1 MCQ XL-R C 2
59 1 MCQ XL-R A 2
60 1 MCQ XL-R A 2
61 1 MSQ XL-R A;B;D 2
62 1 MSQ XL-R A;B 2
63 1 MSQ XL-R A;B 2
64 1 NAT XL-R 0.49 to 0.51 2
65 1 NAT XL-R 15 to 15 2
66 1 MCQ XL-S D 1
67 1 MCQ XL-S A 1
68 1 MCQ XL-S A 1
69 1 MCQ XL-S B 1
70 1 MCQ XL-S C 1
71 1 MCQ XL-S C 1
72 1 NAT XL-S 2 to 2 1
73 1 NAT XL-S 6 to 6 1
74 1 MCQ XL-S C 2
75 1 MCQ XL-S A 2
76 1 MCQ XL-S B 2
77 1 MCQ XL-S D 2
78 1 MCQ XL-S D 2
79 1 MCQ XL-S D 2
80 1 MSQ XL-S C;D 2
81 1 MSQ XL-S A;B;C 2
82 1 MSQ XL-S C;D 2
*MTA= Marks To All
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Q. No. Session Question Type Section Key/Range Marks
83 1 MSQ XL-S A;B 2
84 1 MSQ XL-S A;C;D 2
85 1 MCQ XL-T D 1
86 1 MCQ XL-T A 1
87 1 MCQ XL-T B 1
88 1 MCQ XL-T C 1
89 1 MSQ XL-T A;B;C 1
90 1 MSQ XL-T B 1
91 1 MSQ XL-T D 1
92 1 NAT XL-T 0.5 to 0.5 1
93 1 MCQ XL-T B 2
94 1 MCQ XL-T A 2
95 1 MCQ XL-T B 2
96 1 MCQ XL-T C 2
97 1 MCQ XL-T A 2
98 1 MCQ XL-T A 2
99 1 MCQ XL-T C 2
100 1 MSQ XL-T A;D 2
101 1 MSQ XL-T B;D 2
102 1 MSQ XL-T B;C;D 2
103 1 MSQ XL-T A;B 2
104 1 MCQ XL-U D 1
105 1 MCQ XL-U C 1
106 1 MCQ XL-U B 1
107 1 MCQ XL-U C 1
108 1 MCQ XL-U B 1
109 1 MCQ XL-U B 1
110 1 MSQ XL-U B;D 1
111 1 NAT XL-U 42000 to 43000 1
112 1 MCQ XL-U C 2
113 1 MCQ XL-U A 2
114 1 MCQ XL-U A 2
115 1 MCQ XL-U C 2
116 1 MCQ XL-U D 2
117 1 MCQ XL-U A 2
118 1 MSQ XL-U B;D 2
119 1 MSQ XL-U A;D 2
120 1 MSQ XL-U A;C;D 2
121 1 MSQ XL-U B;D 2
122 1 NAT XL-U 62.0 to 65.0 2
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Page 1 of 81
Source: GATE. Question paper published by GATE.