GATE ME 2024: Mechanical Engineering
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Mechanical Engineering (ME)
General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words
[smile → giggle → laugh] is analogous to [disapprove → ________ → chide].
Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?
(A) reprove
(B) praise
(C) reprise
(D) grieve
Q.2 Find the odd one out in the set: {19, 37, 21, 17, 23, 29, 31, 11}
(A) 21
(B) 29
(C) 37
(D) 23
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Mechanical Engineering (ME)
Q.3 In the following series, identify the number that needs to be changed to form the
Fibonacci series.
1, 1, 2, 3, 6, 8, 13, 21,…
(A) 8
(B) 21
(C) 6
(D) 13
Q.4 The real variables x, y, z, and the real constants p, q, r satisfy
x y z
2
= 2
=
pq − r qr − p rp − q 2
Given that the denominators are non-zero, the value of px + qy + rz is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) pqr
(D) p2 + q 2 + r 2
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Mechanical Engineering (ME)
Q.5 Take two long dice (rectangular parallelepiped), each having four rectangular faces
labelled as 2, 3, 5, and 7. If thrown, the long dice cannot land on the square faces
and has 1/4 probability of landing on any of the four rectangular faces. The label on
the top face of the dice is the score of the throw.
If thrown together, what is the probability of getting the sum of the two long dice
scores greater than 11?
(A) 3/8
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/16
(D) 3/16
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Mechanical Engineering (ME)
Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.6 In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)−(iv). Select the best match for all the
blanks.
(i) (ii)
Prof. P merely a man who narrated funny stories. in his blackest
moments he was capable of self-deprecating humor.
(iii) (iv)
Prof. Q a man who hardly narrated funny stories. in his blackest
moments was he able to find humor.
(A) (i) was (ii) Only (iii) wasn’t (iv) Even
(B) (i) wasn’t (ii) Even (iii) was (iv) Only
(C) (i) was (ii) Even (iii) wasn’t (iv) Only
(D) (i) wasn’t (ii) Only (iii) was (iv) Even
Q.7 How many combinations of non-null sets A, B, C are possible from the subsets of
{2, 3, 5} satisfying the conditions: (i) A is a subset of B, and (ii) B is a subset of C?
(A) 28
(B) 27
(C) 18
(D) 19
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Mechanical Engineering (ME)
Q.8 The bar chart gives the batting averages of VK and RS for 11 calendar years from
2012 to 2022. Considering that 2015 and 2019 are world cup years, which one of
the following options is true?
140
120
Batting Average
100 VK RS
80
60
40
20
0
2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022
Calendar Year
(A) RS has a higher yearly batting average than that of VK in every world cup year.
(B) VK has a higher yearly batting average than that of RS in every world cup year.
(C) VK’s yearly batting average is consistently higher than that of RS between the two
world cup years.
(D) RS’s yearly batting average is consistently higher than that of VK in the last three
years.
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Q.9 A planar rectangular paper has two V-shaped pieces attached as shown below.
This piece of paper is folded to make the following closed three-dimensional object.
The number of folds required to form the above object is
(A) 9
(B) 7
(C) 11
(D) 8
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Q.10 Four equilateral triangles are used to form a regular closed three-dimensional object
by joining along the edges. The angle between any two faces is
(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
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Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 dy
In order to numerically solve the ordinary differential equation = −y for
dt
t > 0, with an initial condition y(0) = 1, the following scheme is employed
yn+1 − yn 1
= − (yn+1 + yn ).
Δt 2
Here, Δt is the time step and yn = y(nΔt) for n = 0, 1, 2, …. This numerical scheme
will yield a solution with non-physical oscillations for Δt > ℎ. The value of ℎ is
(A) 1
2
(B) 1
(C) 3
2
(D) 2
Q.12 The value of the surface integral
∯ zdxdy
S
where S is the external surface of the sphere x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = R 2 is
(A) 0
(B) 4πR 3
(C) 4π 3
R
3
(D) πR 3
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Q.13 Let f(z) be an analytic function, where z = x + iy. If the real part of f(z) is
cosh x cos y, and the imaginary part of f(z) is zero for y = 0, then f(z) is
(A) cosh x exp (−iy)
(B) cosh z exp z
(C) cosh z cos y
(D) cosh z
Q.14 Consider the system of linear equations
x + 2y + z = 5
2x + ay + 4z = 12
2x + 4y + 6z = b
The values of a and b such that there exists a non-trivial null space and the system
admits infinite solutions are
(A) a = 8, b = 14
(B) a = 4, b = 12
(C) a = 8, b = 12
(D) a = 4, b = 14
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Q.15 Let f(. ) be a twice differentiable function from ℝ2 → ℝ. If p, x0 ∈ ℝ2 where ‖p‖
is sufficiently small (here ‖. ‖ is the Euclidean norm or distance function), then
1
f(x0 + p) = f(x0 ) + ∇f(x 0 )T p + 2 pT ∇2 f(ψ)p where ψ ∈ ℝ2 is a point on the
line segment joining x0 and x0 + p. If x0 is a strict local minimum of f(x), then
which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) ∇f(x 0 )T p > 0 and pT ∇2 f(ψ)p = 0
(B) ∇f(x 0 )T p = 0 and pT ∇2 f(ψ)p > 0
(C) ∇f(x 0 )T p = 0 and pT ∇2 f(ψ)p = 0
(D) ∇f(x 0 )T p = 0 and pT ∇2 f(ψ)p < 0
Q.16 The velocity field of a two-dimensional, incompressible flow is given by
⃗ = 2 sinh x î + v(x, y) ĵ
V
where î and ĵ denote the unit vectors in x and y directions, respectively. If
v(x, 0) = cosh x, then v(0, −1) is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
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Q.17 A plane, solid slab of thickness L, shown in the figure, has thermal conductivity k
that varies with the spatial coordinate x as k = A + Bx, where A and B are positive
constants (A > 0, B > 0). The slab walls are maintained at fixed temperatures of
T(x = 0) = 0 and T(x = L) = T0 > 0. The slab has no internal heat sources.
Considering one-dimensional heat transfer, which one of the following plots
qualitatively depicts the steady-state temperature distribution within the slab?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Q.18 Consider incompressible laminar flow over a flat plate with freestream velocity of
u∞ . The Nusselt number corresponding to this flow velocity is Nu1 . If the
freestream velocity is doubled, the Nusselt number changes to Nu2 . Choose the
correct option for Nu2 /Nu1 .
(A) √2
(B) 2
(C) 1.26
(D) 1
Q.19 Consider a hydrodynamically fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe
with the flow along the axis (i.e., z direction). In the following statements, T is the
temperature of the fluid, Tw is the wall temperature and Tm is the bulk mean
temperature of the fluid. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) ∂T
For a thermally fully developed flow, = 0, always.
∂z
(B) dT
For constant wall temperature of the duct, dzm = constant.
(C) Nusselt number varies linearly along the z direction for a thermally fully developed
flow.
(D) dTm
For constant wall temperature (Tw > Tm ) of the duct, increases exponentially
dz
with distance along z direction.
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Q.20 A furnace can supply heat steadily at 1200 K at a rate of 24000 kJ/min. The
maximum amount of power (in kW) that can be produced by using the heat supplied
by this furnace in an environment at 300 K is
(A) 300
(B) 150
(C) 18000
(D) 0
Q.21 Which one of the following statements regarding a Rankine cycle is FALSE?
(A) Superheating the steam in the boiler increases the cycle efficiency.
(B) The pressure at the turbine outlet depends on the condenser temperature.
(C) Cycle efficiency increases as condenser pressure decreases.
(D) Cycle efficiency increases as boiler pressure decreases.
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C n
For a ball bearing, the fatigue life in millions of revolutions is given by L = (P) ,
Q.22
where P is the constant applied load and C is the basic dynamic load rating. Which
one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) n = 3, assuming that the inner racing is fixed and outer racing is revolving
(B) n = 1/3, assuming that the inner racing is fixed and outer racing is revolving
(C) n = 3, assuming that the outer racing is fixed and inner racing is revolving
(D) n = 1/3, assuming that the outer racing is fixed and inner racing is revolving
Q.23 The change in kinetic energy ∆E of an engine is 300 J, and minimum and maximum
shaft speeds are ωmin = 220 rad/s and ωmax = 280 rad/s, respectively. Assume
that the torque-time function is purely harmonic. To achieve a coefficient of
fluctuation of 0.05, the moment of inertia (in kg.m2) of the flywheel to be mounted
on the engine shaft is
(A) 0.113
(B) 0.096
(C) 0.071
(D) 0.053
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Q.24 A ram in the form of a rectangular body of size l = 9 m and b = 2 m is suspended
by two parallel ropes of lengths 7 m. Assume the center-of-mass of the body is at
its geometric center and g = 9.81 m/s2. For striking the object P with a horizontal
velocity of 5 m/s, what is the angle θ with the vertical from which the ram should
be released from rest?
(A) 67.1∘
(B) 40.2∘
(C) 35.1∘
(D) 79.5∘
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Q.25 A linear spring-mass-dashpot system with a mass of 2 kg is set in motion with
viscous damping. If the natural frequency is 15 Hz, and the amplitudes of two
successive cycles measured are 7.75 mm and 7.20 mm, the coefficient of viscous
damping (in N.s/m) is
(A) 4.41
(B) 7.51
(C) 2.52
(D) 6.11
Q.26 Which one of the following failure theories is the most conservative design
approach against fatigue failure?
(A) Soderberg line
(B) Modified Goodman line
(C) Gerber line
(D) Yield line
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Q.27 A rigid massless tetrahedron is placed such that vertex O is at the origin and the
other three vertices A, B, and C lie on the coordinate axes as shown in the figure.
The body is acted on by three point loads, of which one is acting at A along x-axis
and another at point B along y-axis. For the body to be in equilibrium, the third
point load acting at point O must be
(A) along z-axis
(B) in x − y plane but not along x or y axis
(C) in y − z plane but not along y or z axis
(D) in z − x plane but not along z or x axis
Q.28 The phases present in pearlite are
(A) austenite and ferrite
(B) cementite and austenite
(C) ferrite and cementite
(D) martensite and ferrite
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Q.29 The “Earing” phenomenon in metal forming is associated with
(A) deep drawing
(B) rolling
(C) extrusion
(D) forging
Q.30 The grinding wheel used to provide the best surface finish is
(A) A36L5V
(B) A54L5V
(C) A60L5V
(D) A80L5V
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Q.31 The allowance provided to a pattern for easy withdrawal from a sand mold is
(A) finishing allowance
(B) shrinkage allowance
(C) distortion allowance
(D) shake allowance
Q.32 The most suitable electrode material used for joining low alloy steels using Gas
Metal Arc Welding (GMAW) process is
(A) copper
(B) cadmium
(C) low alloy steel
(D) tungsten
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Q.33 The preparatory functions in Computer Numerical Controlled (CNC) machine
programing are denoted by the alphabet
(A) G
(B) M
(C) P
(D) O
Q.34 A set of jobs U, V, W, X, Y, Z arrive at time t = 0 to a production line consisting of
two workstations in series. Each job must be processed by both workstations in
sequence (i.e., the first followed by the second). The process times (in minutes) for
each job on each workstation in the production line are given below.
Job U V W X Y Z
Workstation 1 5 7 3 4 6 8
Workstation 2 4 6 6 8 5 7
The sequence in which the jobs must be processed by the production line if the
total makespan of production is to be minimized is
(A) W-X-Z-V-Y-U
(B) W-X-V-Z-Y-U
(C) W-U-Z-V-Y-X
(D) U-Y-V-Z-X-W
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Q.35 A queueing system has one single server workstation that admits an infinitely long
queue. The rate of arrival of jobs to the queueing system follows the Poisson
distribution with a mean of 5 jobs/hour. The service time of the server is
exponentially distributed with a mean of 6 minutes. In steady state operation of the
queueing system, the probability that the server is not busy at any point in time is
(A) 0.20
(B) 0.17
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.83
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Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.36 1 a
The matrix [ ] (where a > 0) has a negative eigenvalue if a is greater than
8 3
(A) 3
8
(B) 1
8
(C) 1
4
(D) 1
5
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Q.37 In the pipe network shown in the figure, all pipes have the same cross-section and
can be assumed to have the same friction factor. The pipes connecting points W, N,
and S with point J have an equal length L. The pipe connecting points J and E has a
length 10L. The pressures at the ends N, E, and S are equal. The flow rate in the pipe
connecting W and J is Q. Assume that the fluid flow is steady, incompressible, and
the pressure losses at the pipe entrance and junction are negligible. Consider the
following statements:
I : The flow rate in pipe connecting J and E is Q/21.
II: The pressure difference between J and N is equal to the pressure difference
between J and E.
Which one of the following options is CORRECT?
(A) I is True and II is False
(B) I is False and II is True
(C) Both I and II are True
(D) Both I and II are False
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Q.38 A company orders gears in conditions identical to those considered in the economic
order quantity (EOQ) model in inventory control. The annual demand is 8000 gears,
the cost per order is 300 rupees, and the holding cost is 12 rupees per month per gear.
The company uses an order size that is 25% more than the optimal order quantity
determined by the EOQ model. The percentage change in the total cost of ordering
and holding inventory from that associated with the optimal order quantity is
(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 0
(D) 12.5
Q.39 At the current basic feasible solution (bfs) v0 (v0 ∈ ℝ5 ), the simplex method yields
the following form of a linear programming problem in standard form.
minimize z = −x1 − 2x2
s. t. x3 = 2 + 2x1 − x2
x4 = 7 + x1 − 2x2
x5 = 3 − x1
x1 , x2 , x3 , x4 , x5 ≥ 0
Here the objective function is written as a function of the non-basic variables. If the
simplex method moves to the adjacent bfs v1 (v1 ∈ ℝ5 ) that best improves the
objective function, which of the following represents the objective function at v1 ,
assuming that the objective function is written in the same manner as above?
(A) z = −4 − 5x1 + 2x3
(B) z = −3 + x5 − 2x2
(C) z = −4 − 5x1 + 2x4
(D) z = −6 − 5x1 + 2x3
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Q.40 Steady, compressible flow of air takes place through an adiabatic converging-
diverging nozzle, as shown in the figure. For a particular value of pressure difference
across the nozzle, a stationary normal shock wave forms in the diverging section of
the nozzle. If E and F denote the flow conditions just upstream and downstream of
the normal shock, respectively, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
(A) Static pressure at E is lower than the static pressure at F
(B) Density at E is lower than the density at F
(C) Mach number at E is lower than the Mach number at F
(D) Specific entropy at E is lower than the specific entropy at F
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Q.41 Which of the following beam(s) is/are statically indeterminate?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.42 If the value of the double integral
4 2
dydx
∫ ∫ 2
x=3 y=1 (x + y)
is log e (a/24), then a is ___________ (answer in integer).
Q.43 If x(t) satisfies the differential equation
dx
t + (t − x) = 0
dt
subject to the condition x(1) = 0, then the value of x(2) is ________ (rounded off
to 2 decimal places).
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Q.44 Let X be a continuous random variable defined on [0,1] such that its probability
density function f(x) = 1 for 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and 0 otherwise. Let Y = log e (X + 1).
Then the expected value of Y is_____. (rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Q.45 Consider an air-standard Brayton cycle with adiabatic compressor and turbine, and
a regenerator, as shown in the figure. Air enters the compressor at 100 kPa and 300 K
and exits the compressor at 600 kPa and 550 K. The air exits the combustion chamber
at 1250 K and exits the adiabatic turbine at 100 kPa and 800 K. The exhaust air from
the turbine is used to preheat the air in the regenerator. The exhaust air exits the
regenerator (state 6) at 600 K. There is no pressure drop across the regenerator and
the combustion chamber. Also, there is no heat loss from the regenerator to the
surroundings. The ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and volume is cp ⁄cv =
1.4. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is _________ % (answer in integer).
Q.46 A piston-cylinder arrangement shown in the figure has a stop located 2 m above the
base. The cylinder initially contains air at 140 kPa and 350 C and the piston is
resting in equilibrium at a position which is 1 m above the stops. The system is now
cooled to the ambient temperature of 25 C. Consider air to be an ideal gas with a
value of gas constant R = 0.287 kJ/(kg.K).
The absolute value of specific work done during the process is________kJ/kg
(rounded off to 1 decimal place)
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Q.47 A heat pump (H.P.) is driven by the work output of a heat engine (H.E.) as shown
in the figure. The heat engine extracts 150 kJ of heat from the source at 1000 K.
The heat pump absorbs heat from the ambient at 280 K and delivers heat to the
room which is maintained at 300 K. Considering the combined system to be ideal,
the total amount of heat delivered to the room together by the heat engine and heat
pump is _______kJ (answer in integer).
Q.48 Consider a slab of 20 mm thickness. There is a uniform heat generation of
q̇ = 100 MW/m3 inside the slab. The left and right faces of the slab are
maintained at 150 C and 110 C, respectively. The plate has a constant thermal
conductivity of 200 W/(m.K). Considering a 1-D steady state heat conduction, the
location of the maximum temperature from the left face will be at _____mm
(answer in integer).
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Q.49 A condenser is used as a heat exchanger in a large steam power plant in which
steam is condensed to liquid water. The condenser is a shell and tube heat
exchanger which consists of 1 shell and 20,000 tubes. Water flows through each
of the tubes at a rate of 1 kg/s with an inlet temperature of 30 C. The steam in the
condenser shell condenses at the rate of 430 kg/s at a temperature of 50 C. If the
heat of vaporization is 2.326 MJ/kg and specific heat of water is 4 kJ/(kg.K), the
effectiveness of the heat exchanger is ________ (rounded off to 3 decimal places).
Q.50 Consider a hemispherical furnace of diameter D = 6 m with a flat base. The dome
of the furnace has an emissivity of 0.7 and the flat base is a blackbody. The base
and the dome are maintained at uniform temperature of 300 K and 1200 K,
respectively. Under steady state conditions, the rate of radiation heat transfer from
the dome to the base is ________kW (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Use Stefan-Boltzmann constant = 5.67 ×10-8 W/(m2 K4)
Q.51 A liquid fills a horizontal capillary tube whose one end is dipped in a large pool of
the liquid. Experiments show that the distance L travelled by the liquid meniscus
inside the capillary in time t is given by
L = kγ a Rb μc √t,
where γ is the surface tension, R is the inner radius of the capillary, and μ is the
dynamic viscosity of the liquid. If k is a dimensionless constant, then the
exponent a is __________ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
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Q.52 The Levai type-A train illustrated in the figure has gears with module
m = 8 mm/tooth. Gears 2 and 3 have 19 and 24 teeth respectively. Gear 2 is
fixed and internal gear 4 rotates at 20 rev/min counter-clockwise. The magnitude
of angular velocity of the arm is__________ rev/min. (rounded off to 2 decimal
places)
Q.53 A horizontal beam of length 1200 mm is pinned at the left end and is resting on a
roller at the other end as shown in the figure. A linearly varying distributed load is
applied on the beam. The magnitude of maximum bending moment acting on the
beam is _______ N.m. (round off to 1 decimal place)
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Q.54 At the instant when OP is vertical and AP is horizontal, the link OD is rotating
counter clockwise at a constant rate ω = 7 rad/s. Pin P on link OD slides in the slot
BC of link ABC which is hinged at A, and causes a clockwise rotation of the link
ABC. The magnitude of angular velocity of link ABC for this instant is
_________________ rad/s (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
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Q.55 A vibratory system consists of mass m, a vertical spring of stiffness 2k and a
horizontal spring of stiffness k. The end A of the horizontal spring is given a
horizontal motion xA = a sin ωt. The other end of the spring is connected to an
inextensible rope that passes over two massless pulleys as shown. Assume
m = 10 kg, k = 1.5 kN/m, and neglect friction. The magnitude of critical driving
frequency for which the oscillations of mass m tend to become excessively large is
_________ rad/s (answer in integer).
A solid massless cylindrical member of 50 mm diameter is rigidly attached at one
Q.56 end, and is subjected to an axial force P = 100 kN and a torque T = 600 N. m at
the other end as shown. Assume that the axis of the cylinder is normal to the
support. Considering distortion energy theory with allowable yield stress as 300
MPa, the factor of safety in the design is _____ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
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Q.57 The figure shows a thin cylindrical pressure vessel constructed by welding plates
together along a line that makes an angle α = 60° with the horizontal. The closed
vessel has a wall thickness of 10 mm and diameter of 2 m. When subjected to an
internal pressure of 200 kPa, the magnitude of the normal stress acting on the weld
is _________ MPa (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
Q.58 A three-hinge arch ABC in the form of a semi-circle is shown in the figure. The
arch is in static equilibrium under vertical loads of P = 100 kN and Q = 50 kN.
Neglect friction at all the hinges. The magnitude of the horizontal reaction at B is
______ kN (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
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Q.59 A band brake shown in the figure has a coefficient of friction of 0.3. The band can
take a maximum force of 1.5 kN. The maximum braking force (F) that can be
safely applied is _______ N (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Q.60 A cutting tool provides a tool life of 60 minutes while machining with the cutting
speed of 60 m/min. When the same tool is used for machining the same material, it
provides a tool life of 10 minutes for a cutting speed of 100 m/min. If the cutting
speed is changed to 80 m/min for the same tool and work material combination, the
tool life computed using Taylor’s tool life model is____________ minutes
(rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Q.61 Aluminium is casted in a cube-shaped mold having dimensions as 20 mm × 20 mm
× 20 mm. Another mold of the same mold material is used to cast a sphere of
aluminium having a diameter of 20 mm. The pouring temperature for both cases is
the same. The ratio of the solidification times of the cube-shaped mold to the
spherical mold is ________ (answer in integer).
Q.62 A blanking operation is performed on C20 steel sheet to obtain a circular disc
having a diameter of 20 mm and a thickness of 2 mm. An allowance of 0.04 is
provided. The punch size used for the operation is ___________ mm (rounded off
to 2 decimal places).
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Mechanical Engineering (ME)
Q.63 In an arc welding process, the voltage and current are 30 V and 200 A,
respectively. The cross-sectional area of the joint is 20 mm2 and the welding speed
is 5 mm/s. The heat required to melt the material is 20 J/s. The percentage of heat
lost to the surrounding during the welding process is _________ (rounded off to 2
decimal places).
Q. 64 A flat surface of a C60 steel having dimensions of 100 mm (length) × 200 mm
(width) is produced by a HSS slab mill cutter. The 8-toothed cutter has 100 mm
diameter and 200 mm width. The feed per tooth is 0.1 mm, cutting velocity is 20
m/min and depth of cut is 2 mm. The machining time required to remove the entire
stock is _____________ minutes (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
Q.65 In a supplier-retailer supply chain, the demand of each retailer, the capacity of each
supplier, and the unit cost in rupees of material supply from each supplier to each
retailer are tabulated below. The supply chain manager wishes to minimize the total
cost of transportation across the supply chain.
Retailer I Retailer II Retailer III Retailer IV Capacity
Supplier A 11 16 19 13 300
Supplier B 5 10 7 8 300
Supplier C 12 14 17 11 300
Supplier D 8 15 11 9 300
Demand 300 300 300 300
The optimal cost of satisfying the total demand from all retailers is _____ rupees
(answer in integer).
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Organizing Institute: IISc Bengaluru
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Mechanical Engineering (ME)
Final Answer Key
Question
Q. No. Session Section Key/Range Mark
Type
1 2 MCQ GA A 1
2 2 MCQ GA A 1
3 2 MCQ GA C 1
4 2 MCQ GA A 1
5 2 MCQ GA D 1
6 2 MCQ GA B 2
7 2 MCQ GA MTA 2
8 2 MCQ GA C 2
9 2 MCQ GA A 2
10 2 MCQ GA MTA 2
11 2 MCQ ME D 1
12 2 MCQ ME C 1
13 2 MCQ ME D 1
14 2 MCQ ME D 1
15 2 MCQ ME B 1
16 2 MCQ ME C 1
17 2 MCQ ME B 1
18 2 MCQ ME A 1
19 2 MCQ ME MTA 1
20 2 MCQ ME A 1
21 2 MCQ ME D 1
22 2 MCQ ME C 1
23 2 MCQ ME B 1
24 2 MCQ ME C 1
25 2 MCQ ME A 1
26 2 MCQ ME A 1
27 2 MCQ ME B 1
28 2 MCQ ME C 1
29 2 MCQ ME A 1
30 2 MCQ ME D 1
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31 2 MCQ ME D 1
32 2 MCQ ME C 1
33 2 MCQ ME A 1
34 2 MCQ ME MTA 1
35 2 MCQ ME C 1
36 2 MCQ ME A 2
37 2 MCQ ME B 2
38 2 MCQ ME A 2
39 2 MCQ ME A 2
40 2 MSQ ME A; B; D 2
41 2 MSQ ME C; D 2
42 2 NAT ME 25 to 25 2
43 2 NAT ME -1.40 to -1.38 2
44 2 NAT ME 0.38 to 0.39 2
45 2 NAT ME 40 to 40 2
46 2 NAT ME 58.0 to 61.0 2
47 2 NAT ME 1620 to 1620 2
48 2 NAT ME 6 to 6 2
49 2 NAT ME 0.590 to 0.633 2
50 2 NAT ME 2720 to 2740 2
51 2 NAT ME 0.5 to 0.5 2
52 2 NAT ME 15.00 to 16.00 2
53 2 NAT ME 9.0 to 9.5 2
54 2 NAT ME 11.30 to 12.70 2
55 2 NAT ME 29 to 31 2
56 2 NAT ME 4.3 to 4.7 2
57 2 NAT ME 12.3 to 12.7 2
58 2 NAT ME 37.0 to 38.0 2
59 2 NAT ME 115 to 119 2
60 2 NAT ME 21.00 to 22.50 2
61 2 NAT ME 1 to 1 2
62 2 NAT ME 19.84 to 19.92 2
63 2 NAT ME MTA 2
64 2 NAT ME 2.20 to 2.65 2
65 2 NAT ME 12300 to 12300 2
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Source: GATE. Question paper published by GATE.