GATE XE 2024: Engineering Sciences
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words
[walk → jog → sprint] is analogous to [bothered → ________ → daunted].
Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?
(A) phased
(B) phrased
(C) fazed
(D) fused
Q.2 Two wizards try to create a spell using all the four elements, water, air, fire, and
earth. For this, they decide to mix all these elements in all possible orders. They
also decide to work independently. After trying all possible combination of
elements, they conclude that the spell does not work.
How many attempts does each wizard make before coming to this conclusion,
independently?
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 16
(D) 12
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.3 In an engineering college of 10,000 students, 1,500 like neither their core branches
nor other branches. The number of students who like their core branches is 1/4th of
the number of students who like other branches. The number of students who like
both their core and other branches is 500.
The number of students who like their core branches is
(A) 1,800
(B) 3,500
(C) 1,600
(D) 1,500
Q.4 For positive non-zero real variables x and y, if
x+y 1
ln ( ) = [ln(x) + ln(y)]
2 2
x y
then, the value of + is
y x
(A) 1
(B) 1/2
(C) 2
(D) 4
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.5 In the sequence 6, 9, 14, x, 30, 41, a possible value of x is
(A) 25
(B) 21
(C) 18
(D) 20
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.6 Sequence the following sentences in a coherent passage.
P: This fortuitous geological event generated a colossal amount of energy and
heat that resulted in the rocks rising to an average height of 4 km across the
contact zone.
Q: Thus, the geophysicists tend to think of the Himalayas as an active geological
event rather than as a static geological feature.
R: The natural process of the cooling of this massive edifice absorbed large
quantities of atmospheric carbon dioxide, altering the earth’s atmosphere and
making it better suited for life.
S: Many millennia ago, a breakaway chunk of bedrock from the Antarctic Plate
collided with the massive Eurasian Plate.
(A) QPSR
(B) QSPR
(C) SPRQ
(D) SRPQ
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.7 A person sold two different items at the same price. He made 10% profit in one
item, and 10% loss in the other item. In selling these two items, the person made a
total of
(A) 1% profit
(B) 2% profit
(C) 1% loss
(D) 2% loss
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.8 The pie charts depict the shares of various power generation technologies in the
total electricity generation of a country for the years 2007 and 2023.
Year Solar Year
2007 5% 2023
Solar Coal
Coal 20% 20%
Hydro
35%
30% Gas
15%
Hydro
Gas 35%
25%
Wind
Wind
10%
5%
The renewable sources of electricity generation consist of Hydro, Solar and Wind.
Assuming that the total electricity generated remains the same from 2007 to 2023,
what is the percentage increase in the share of the renewable sources of electricity
generation over this period?
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 77.5%
(D) 62.5%
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.9 A cube is to be cut into 8 pieces of equal size and shape. Here, each cut should be
straight and it should not stop till it reaches the other end of the cube.
The minimum number of such cuts required is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 8
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.10 In the 4 × 4 array shown below, each cell of the first three rows has either a
cross (X) or a number.
The number in a cell represents the count of the immediate neighboring cells
(left, right, top, bottom, diagonals) NOT having a cross (X). Given that the last row
has no crosses (X), the sum of the four numbers to be filled in the last row is
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 9
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Engineering Mathematics (XE-A)
Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 Let
π + x, − π ≤ x < 0,
f(x) = {
0,0 ≤ x < π,
with f(x + 2π) = f(x). If F(x) represents the Fourier series of f(x), then the
π
value of F (− 2 ) + F(0) is
(A) 0
(B) π
2
(C) π
(D) 3π
2
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.12 Let y be a non-zero quadratic polynomial satisfying the differential equation
2)
d2y dy
(2 + x + x − ky = 0,
dx 2 dx
where k is a real constant. If y(1) = 1, then the value of the integral
1
∫ 2ydx
0
is
(A) 1
3
(B) 2
3
(C) 1
(D) 4
3
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.13 There are four cities, namely, C1 , C2 , C3 and C4 . The cities are directly connected
by four roads as shown in the picture given below, that is, C1 is connected with C2 ,
C2 is connected with C3 , C3 is connected with C4 , and C4 is connected with C1 .
1
The probability of any road getting independently blocked is 3 . Let E1 be the event
of travelling from C1 to C3 via C2 and E2 be the event of travelling from C1 to C3
via C4 . Then, which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) 56
P(E1 ∪ E2 ) =
81
(B) 8
P(E1 ∪ E2 ) =
9
(C) 4
P(E1 |E2 ) ≠ P(E1 ) =
9
(D) P(E1 ∩ E2 ) = 0
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.14 Assume that f: [0, 1] → ℝ is continuous on [0, 1] and differentiable on (0, 1) such
that f(x + ℎ) = f(x) + ℎf′(x + θℎ) for some 0 < θ < 1. If f(x) = x 2 (1 + x),
and θ is expressed in terms of x and ℎ, then the value of
lim θ(x, ℎ)
ℎ→0
is
(A) 1
3
(B) 1
2
(C) 1
4
(D) 4
5
Q.15 Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix whose eigenvalues are 2, 3, 4 and let I be the identity
matrix of order 3. If
1 2 13
A−1 = (A − 9A) + I
2k k
for some integer k ≠ 0, then the value of k is ______
Q.16 For some integer k, the differential equation
2
d2y dy
x − 3x + (k + 2)y = 0
dx 2 dx
d
is transformed into (D − 2)2 y = 0, where D = dt and t = log e x. Then, the value
of k is _____
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.17 The approximate value (rounded off to two decimal places) of the integral
1/2
2
∫ e −x dx,
0
1
using the Trapezoidal rule with step-size ℎ = 8 , is ______
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.18 – Q.21 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.18 Consider f(z) = e z , where z = x + iyand i = √−1. Which of the following
statements is correct ?
(A) f is periodic
(B) f is not periodic
(C) |f| = 1
(D) arg(f) = y ± nπforalln = 0, 1, 2, …
Q.19 Let P and Q be two square matrices of the same order. Then, which of the following
matrices is/are necessarily equal to (P + 2Q)2 ?
(A) P2 + 4PQ + 4Q 2
(B) P(P + 2Q) + Q(2P + 4Q)
(C) (P + 2Q)(2Q + P)
(D) P2 + 2PQ + 2QP + 4Q 2
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 20 If
α 1
3
∫ ∫ e y dydx = e − 1, α > 0,
0 √x/α
then the value (in integer) of α is _____
Q. 21 Consider the vector field ⃗⃗⃗
F = (2x + y 2 )î + (2xy + 3y)ĵ and αm = ∫C ⃗⃗⃗
F ⋅ dr,
m
m = 1, 2, where C1 is an arc of the unit circle connecting the points (1, 0) and (0, 1)
and C2 is the straight line connecting the points (1, 0) and (0, 1). Then, the value
(in integer) of 2(α12 + 3α22 ) is ______
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Fluid Mechanics (XE – B)
Q.22 – Q.30 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.22 Which one of the following figures shows the CORRECT dependence of
apparent viscosity (η) on rate of shear strain (du/dy) for pseudoplastic fluids?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.23 The locus of temporary locations of all particles that have passed through
a fixed point in the flow field at a particular instant is known as
(A) streamline.
(B) streakline.
(C) pathline.
(D) timeline.
Q.24 Consider the velocities u, v, and w in x-, y-, and z-directions, respectively.
The vorticity expression in the y-z plane is
(A) ∂v ∂u
−
∂x ∂y
(B) ∂v ∂w
−
∂y ∂z
(C) ∂w ∂v
−
∂y ∂z
(D) ∂u ∂w
−
∂z ∂x
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.25 For the laminar, incompressible flow over a flat plate with uniform free stream
velocity, the axial pressure gradient within the boundary layer is
(A) greater than zero.
(B) less than zero.
(C) equal to zero.
(D) equal to the axial velocity gradient.
Q.26 ⃗ , and m be position vector, velocity vector, and mass, respectively in a
Let r, V
control mass system. Which one of the following properties is considered as
conserved extensive property in Reynolds Transport Theorem to obtain the angular
momentum equation?
(A) ⃗
r × mV
(B) ⃗
r×V
(C) ⃗
mV
(D) m
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.27 The hydraulic diameter for a circular pipe of radius R is
(A) 0.5R
(B) R
(C) 2R
(D) 4R
Q.28 For incompressible, laminar, fully-developed flow through a circular pipe, Darcy
friction factor and Fanning friction factor are represented as f and Cf , respectively.
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) f = 0.25Cf
(B) f = 0.5Cf
(C) f = 2Cf
(D) f = 4Cf
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.29 For an immersed neutrally buoyant body to be in stable equilibrium, the center of
gravity of the body is directly
(A) above the metacenter.
(B) below the metacenter.
(C) above the center of buoyancy.
(D) below the center of buoyancy.
Q.30 The absolute pressure in a chamber is measured as 400 mm Hg at a location where
the atmospheric pressure is 700 mm Hg. A vacuum gauge connected to the chamber
reads ________ mm Hg (answer in integer).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.31 – Q.43 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.31 A thin film of an incompressible, Newtonian liquid (density ρ,viscosity μ) with an
uniform thickness (h) is flowing down on a vertical plate. The flow is driven by
gravity (g) alone. Assume zero shear stress condition at the free surface.
The maximum velocity is given by
(A) 1
ρgℎ2
2μ
(B) 1
ρgℎ2
4μ
(C) 1
ρgℎ2
μ
(D) 1
ρgℎ2
8μ
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.32 A one-eighth scale model of a car is to be tested in a wind tunnel. If the air velocity
over the car is 16 m/s, what should be the air velocity (in m/s) in the wind tunnel in
order to achieve similarity between the model and the prototype?
(A) 2
(B) 16
(C) 64
(D) 128
Q.33 A set of basic dimensions, mass, length, and time are represented by M, L, and T,
respectively. What will be the dimensions of pressure in M-L-T system?
(A) ML−1T −2
(B) MLT −2
(C) MLT −1
(D) ML−1T −1
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.34 Consider a fluid flow around an airfoil as shown in figure.
The directions of drag force and lift force, respectively are along
(A) OA and OC.
(B) OA and OD.
(C) OB and OC.
(D) OB and OD.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.35 A vessel which contains a volatile liquid and its vapour is connected with
a mercury manometer as shown in figure. Both the liquid and vapour phases are at
equilibrium. The vapour pressure and density of the volatile liquid are 107.6 kPa and
700 kg/m3, respectively. The density of the mercury is 13600 kg/m3.
Acceleration due to gravity (g) is 10 m/s2 and atmospheric pressure is 101 kPa.
Hydrostatic pressure created by the weight of the vapour is neglected.
The height, h (in m, rounded off to two decimal places) of the mercury column
in figure is _________.
a
Q.36 The velocity in a one-dimensional flow is given by u(x) = (b−x)2 m/s,
where a = 8 m3/s and b = 4 m. The acceleration (in m/s2, answer in integer)
at x = 2 m is _____.
Q.37 Consider two parallel plates separated by a distance of 1 cm filled with a Newtonian
fluid of viscosity 10-3 Pa.s. The top plate is moving with a velocity of 1 m/s whereas
the bottom plate is stationary. The shear stress (in Pa, rounded off to one decimal
place) on the top plate is _____ .
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.38 A circular water jet of diameter 50 mm impinges with a velocity of 18 m/s normal
to a plate. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 and gravity force is neglected.
The magnitude of net force (in N, rounded off to two decimal places) imparted by
the jet on the stationary plate is _______________.
Q.39 Consider the steady, incompressible flow of water in a horizontal pipe of constant
diameter 1 m with an inlet velocity of 12 m/s.
As shown in figure, water is lost through a circular hole of diameter 0.6 m at the rate
of 4.53 m3/s. The outlet velocity (in m/s, rounded off to two decimal places) of water
in the pipe is ______.
Q.40 The axial velocity profile of a laminar, incompressible and fully-developed flow in
1 ∂p r2
a circular pipe of radius (R) is given as uz = − 4μ ∂z R 2 (1 − R2), where r, z, μ, and
p are radial direction, axial direction, fluid viscosity, and pressure, respectively.
1 R 2 ∂p
If the average velocity of the flow is given by uz,avg = K (− μ ∂z ), then
the value of K (answer in integer) is ______.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.41 The velocity potential function in a two-dimensional flow field is given by
φ(x, y) = −(axy + bx 2 − by 2 ) m2/s where a = 2 per second and b = 0.5 per
second. The magnitude of the velocity (in m/s, answer in integer) at x = 2 m,
y = 1 m is _____.
Q.42 Consider the incompressible, steady and irrotational flow through a concentric
reducer in a horizontal pipeline. The pipe diameter reduces from d1 = 12 cm to
d2 = 4 cm as shown in figure. The pressure at position 1 and position 2 of the reducer
is p1 = 55 kPa and p2 = 27 kPa, respectively. The specific weight of fluid is
7 kN/m3. Acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2.
Neglecting frictional effects, the mass flow rate (in kg/s, rounded off to two decimal
places) of the fluid through the reducer is _____.
Q.43 Consider the incompressible fluid flow over a flat plate with a free stream velocity,
U∞ = 1 m/s. The fluid kinematic viscosity is 10−6 m2/s and density is 1 kg/m3.
The velocity profile within the boundary layer at any location x is given by
3y 1 y2 4.64x
u(y) = U∞ (2 δ − 2 δ2 ), where boundary layer thickness, δ = . The local wall
√Rex
shear stress at x = 1 m from the leading edge is _____ × 10 -3 N/m2 (rounded off to
two decimal places).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Materials Science (XE-C)
Q.44 – Q.52 Carry ONE mark Each
Q. 44 The correct combination of phases in the one-component H2O phase diagram, as
given below, is
(A) α – water; β – vapour; γ – ice
(B) α – ice; β – water; γ – vapour
(C) α – vapour; β – ice; γ – water
(D) α – water; β – ice; γ – vapour
Q. 45 Mechanical behaviour of a crystalline ceramic material is best described as
(A) ductile
(B) brittle
(C) viscoelastic
(D) Viscoplastic
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 46 Differential scanning calorimetry involves measurement of
(A) weight change
(B) entropy
(C) heat
(D) vapour pressure
Q. 47 In ball milling of ceramic powder, selection of grinding media depends on the
_____________ difference between grinding media and powder particles.
(A) thermal conductivity
(B) dielectric constant
(C) hardness
(D) density
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 48 Which one of the following unit cell parameters represents a tetragonal crystal
system?
(A) a=b=c; α = β = γ ≠ 90
(B) a≠b≠c; α = β = γ = 90
(C) a=b≠c; α = β = 90, γ = 120
(D) a=b≠c; α = β = γ = 90
Q. 49 Which of the following types of materials exhibit(s) positive magnetic
susceptibility?
(A) Paramagnetic
(B) Diamagnetic
(C) Ferrimagnetic
(D) Ferromagnetic
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 50 Which of the following is/are responsible for pitting corrosion in a metal ?
(A) Rough surface
(B) Grain boundaries
(C) Polished surface
(D) Polymer coated metal surface
Q. 51 In thermogravimetric analysis (TGA), weight change of a material sample during
decomposition with temperature is shown in the figure below.
Wi and Wf represent the weight of the material, corresponding to temperatures
Ti and Tf , respectively. Which of the following factor(s) can influence Ti and Tf ?
(A) Heating rate
(B) Particle size of the material
(C) Atmosphere in the sample chamber
(D) Initial weight of the sample
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 52 The work done by a body expanding from an initial state A to the final state B, as
shown in the P-V diagram below, is (in units of litre-atm) ___________
(rounded off to nearest integer).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.53 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q. 53 A binary phase diagram is given below.
Which one of the following figures qualitatively represents the G-X
(Gibbs free energy – composition) plot at temperature T0 shown in the phase
diagram?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.54 Which one of the following figures corresponds to the density of states g(E) of a
typical intrinsic semiconductor? (E represents the energy level of a charge carrier)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 55 The Miller indices for the shaded plane shown in the unit cell below is
(A) [632]
(B) [123]
(C) (632)
(D) (123)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 56 Which one of the following curves best represents the E vs. f(E) behavior of the hot
end of a metal rod demonstrating Seebeck Effect? ( f(E) is the probability of electron
occupancy at an energy state E ; EF is the Fermi energy)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 57 In a typical light emitting diode (LED), which of the following type(s) of materials
is/are used?
(A) Indirect bandgap semiconductor with transition metal impurities
(B) Direct bandgap semiconductor
(C) Indirect bandgap semiconductor with isoelectronic impurities
(D) Indirect bandgap semiconductor without any impurity
Q. 58 Which of the following options is/are true for glass transition temperature Tg ?
(A) Above Tg , glass transforms from an amorphous solid to a viscous liquid.
(B) At Tg , glass transforms from an amorphous solid to a crystalline solid.
(C) Tg is dependent on the heating rate.
(D) Below Tg , nucleation and growth takes place in glass.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 59 Which of the following figures schematically represent(s) either the Frenkel defect
or the Schottky defect in ionic solids?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 60 Given that k is the first order reaction rate constant and T is the temperature in
absolute scale, the temperature dependence of rate constant is/are represented by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 61 For chemical vapour deposition (CVD) process, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
(A) Target material is stripped off by the bombardment of positive ions
(B) Source material is vapourized and thermally decomposed
(C) Partial hydrolysis of alkoxide in water solvent
(D) Suitable for preparing films of high density and uniform thickness
Q. 62 At room temperature, the electrical conductivity and electron mobility for
aluminium are 3.8 × 107 ( m)−1 and 0.0012 m2 (V s)−1, respectively. Density of
free electrons for aluminium at room temperature is (in units of m−3) ______ × 1027
(rounded off to nearest integer).
Given: Electrical charge on an electron is 1.6 × 10−19 C.
Q. 63 A 2 mm thick palladium sheet of 1000 mm2 cross section is used as a diffusional
membrane to purify hydrogen. The hydrogen concentration is maintained at a steady
state with ch = 1.5 kg m−3 and cl = 0.3 kg m−3 on the two sides of the membrane as
shown in the figure below.
The rate of hydrogen purification is (in units of kg hr−1) ________× 10−6 (rounded
off to one decimal place).
Given: The diffusion coefficient of hydrogen in palladium is 1.0 × 10−8 m2 s−1
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q. 64 In X-ray powder diffraction pattern obtained from a face centered cubic (FCC)
metal, the first five reflections are at = 21.65, 25.21, 37.06, x and 47.58. The
Bragg angle, of the fourth reflection is missed out and is represented by x. The
value of x is (in degree) __________ (rounded off to one decimal place).
Q. 65 Consider a unidirectionally aligned continuous glass fibre reinforced epoxy
composite with 40 vol. % reinforcement. The elastic modulus of the composite
along the fibre direction is (in units of GPa) ________ (rounded off to one decimal
place).
Given: Elastic modulus of epoxy is 6.9 GPa and that of glass fibre is 69 GPa.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Solid Mechanics (XE-D)
Q.66 – Q.74 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.66 The engineering stress (σ) vs. engineering strain (ε) curve obtained by conducting
uniaxial tension test on a steel specimen is shown in the figure (the sketched curve
is not to the scale). The specimen exhibits cup-and-cone failure within its gage
length. Which point on the curve corresponds to the beginning of necking in the
test specimen?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.67 An L-shaped rigid member is fixed at the midpoint of a simply-supported beam, as
shown in figure (i). The member is subjected to a vertically downward force P at its
free end. In an equivalent system, the member along with the applied load is
replaced with a force Q = P and a moment M (see figure (ii)). Which of the
following statements is correct?
(Neglect the mass of the beam and of the rigid member)
(A) M=Pa
(B) M=Pb
(C) M = P (a + b)
(D) M=0
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.68 A block of weight W, placed on a surface, is subjected to a horizontal force P as
shown in the figure. The line of action of force P passes through the center-of-
gravity of the block. The magnitude of P is such that the block remains at rest. If N
is the resultant normal reaction exerted by the surface, and F is the frictional force
acting on the bottom surface of the block, then which of the following represents
the correct free body diagram of the block?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.69 A mass M is hung from a frictionless, massless pulley. The pulley is suspended by
using an inextensible, massless rope of which one end is directly fixed to a support,
and the other end is connected to the support through a linear spring of stiffness
constant k (see figure). The natural frequency of this system is
(A)
4k
√
M
(B)
2k
√
M
(C)
k
√
M
(D)
k
√
2M
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.70 A simply-supported beam of rectangular cross-section (width w and height h) is
subjected to the loads as shown in the figure (i). The enlarged view of the beam
cross-section is shown in figure (ii). The coordinate system is indicated in the
figures. Assuming Euler-Bernoulli beam approximation, the shear stress τxz and
normal stress σxx at the origin, O are respectively given by
(A) 3P 3PL
,
2wℎ 2wℎ2
(B) 3PL
0,
2wℎ2
(C) 3P
, 0
2wℎ
(D) 0,0
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.71 An ice-skater starts spinning during her performance. As she retracts her arms and
legs closer to her body, her angular velocity _________________.
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains the same
(D) goes to zero
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.72 A solid circular shaft of diameter 100 mm is subjected to a torque 3π kNm. Which
of the following statements about the state of stress in the shaft is/are correct?
(A) The maximum shear stress is 48 MPa
(B) The maximum tensile stress is 48 MPa
(C) The magnitude of maximum compressive stress is 48 MPa
(D) The magnitude of shear stress is 48 MPa at all points in the shaft
Q.73 A spring is connected to an elastic bar as shown in the figure. The spring has a
stiffness constant of 107 N/m. The bar is 70 mm long, and has an area of cross-
section 10 mm2. The Young’s modulus of the bar material is 70,000 MPa. A force
F = 5000 N is applied at point O along the axis of the bar and the spring. The
resulting deflection of Point O in mm (rounded to one decimal place) is ______
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.74 A particle of mass 1 kg is attached to one end of a spring having stiffness of 125
N/m. The free length of the spring is 100 mm. The system is rotated about the other
end of the spring at a uniform angular velocity of 5 rad/s. Ignore gravity and
consider that the elongation of the spring may be comparable to the free length of
the spring. The elongation of the spring (in mm, rounded off to the nearest integer)
is ______ .
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.75 – Q.87 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.75 A 0-45-90 strain gauge rosette is mounted on an aircraft wing. The co-ordinate
system is placed such that the strain gauges p, q and r are oriented at angles 0o, 45o
and 90o, respectively, from the x axis (see figure). The strain readings associated to
p, q and r are denoted by εp , εq , and εr , respectively. While conducting a test the
strain gauges show the following readings.
εp = 150 × 10−6 , εq = 180 × 10−6 , εr = −90 × 10−6
The developed engineering shear strain γxy associated to the strain gauge data is
(A) 120 × 10−6
(B) 180 × 10−6
(C) 300 × 10−6
(D) 240 × 10−6
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.76 A rigid bar PQR is hinged at its end P. As shown in the figure, the bar is pin-
connected through two identical links QS and RT at points Q and R, respectively.
The other ends of the links, S and T, are fixed. Both links are made of the same
material. If the temperature of the links is uniformly increased by T, then which
one of the following statements is correct? (Neglect the weight of the rigid bar)
(A) Both QS and RT will be stress free.
(B) Both QS and RT will be under tension.
(C) Both QS and RT will be under compression.
(D) QS will be under compression and RT will be under tension.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.77 A pin-jointed truss has a pin support at the point E and a roller support at the point
F. A horizontal force P is applied at pin H as shown in the figure. Which one of the
members is in compression ?
(A) EF
(B) FG
(C) EG
(D) EH
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.78 Two identical rigid slender bars of length 2L and mass m are acted upon by a
transverse force F at one of the ends as shown in the figure. In the first case, the bar
is pinned at the other end. In the second case, the bar is pinned at its mid-point.
What should be the magnitude of the force F such that the resulting angular
accelerations of the two bars are equal?
(A) mg
(B) mg
2
(C) mg
4
(D) mg
6
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.79 A critical point on a component is subjected to the state of stress [σ] as given in the
following. The yield strength of the material is 400 MPa. By considering maximum
shear stress (Tresca) theory, the possible value(s) of σ0 at the onset of yielding
is/are,
280 0 0
[σ ] = [ 0 σo 0 ] MPa
0 0 −60
(A) 340
(B) 680
(C) ̶ 120
(D) ̶ 460
Q.80 A plane passing through a point Q inside a body is shown. The unit normal of the
plane is n̂ = 0.6î + 0.8ĵ , as shown in the figure. The traction (stress) vector on
the plane at point Q is given by t = (50î + 20ĵ) MPa. Given that at point Q,
σxx = σyy , the shear stress component τxy (in MPa, rounded off to two
decimal places) is ___________ .
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.81 A rigid massless bar PQR is hinged at its end P and supported through a spring of
stiffness k at point Q. A vertically downward force W = 560 N is applied at the
free end R of the bar. If the vertical component of the displacement at R is 30 mm,
then the stiffness of the spring (in kN/m, rounded off to one decimal place) is ___.
Q.82 A beam of rectangular cross-section, as shown in the figure, is made of two
perfectly bonded layers of different materials and equal thickness. The Young’s
moduli of the two materials are E1 and E2 , where E1 = 2E2 . The beam is
subjected to pure bending. If t = 1 mm, the distance of the neutral plane from the
top surface of the beam is ______ (in mm, rounded off to two decimal places).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.83 A stepped beam is made of a material whose Young’s modulus is E. The dimensions
of the two stepped sections are such that the sectional moments of inertia, I1 and
I2 , are related as I1 = 8I2 . The beam is fixed at one end and a load of F is applied
at the free end as shown in the figure. Under this loading condition, if the strain
F 2 L3
energy of the stepped beam is written as U = β , then the value of β is
EI1
________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
Q.84 A cylindrical pressure vessel is constructed by bolting two symmetric halves of
flanged semi-cylindrical shells. A cross-sectional view of the vessel is shown in the
figure. The inner diameter of the vessel is 2 m and the length is 10 m. Each row
comprises 100 bolts along the length of the vessel. If the vessel is pressurized to a
net pressure of 6 x 105 N/m2, and assuming the end caps of the vessel do not take
any load in the radial direction, then the load borne by each bolt is __________ (in
kN, rounded off to one decimal place)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.85 A turn-table is rotating about its center with an angular velocity of 2 rad/s in the
counter-clockwise direction. There is a groove in the turn-table within which a
marble moves with a constant speed v m/s relative to the turn-table. At a given
instant, the marble is at a radial distance of 1 m from the center and the line joining
the center of the turn-table with the marble makes an angle of 30° with the groove.
The value of v (in m/s, rounded off to one decimal place) for which there is no radial
acceleration for the marble at this instant is _____.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.86 The system shown in the figure is in static equilibrium. The spring is massless and
has a spring constant of K=1 kN/m. The free length of the spring is 1 m. All bodies
in the system except the spring are rigid and have mass of M=1 kg. All surfaces are
frictionless and pin joints are ideal. The elongation of the spring (in mm, rounded
off to the nearest integer) in this configuration is ______. Take the acceleration due
to gravity g = 10 m/s2.
Q.87 A square block of side 1 m and mass 10 kg is resting on a horizontal surface. The
coefficient of static friction between the block and the surface is 0.75. A horizontal
force P acts on the block as shown in the figure. The force P is gradually increased
from zero until the block either slides or topples. The maximum value of ℎ (in m,
rounded off to two decimal places) for which the block slides without toppling is
_____. Take the acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Thermodynamics (XE - E)
Q.88 – Q.96 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.88 A heat source at temperature TH transfers the same amount of heat to a sink under
the following situations:
Case A: Sink is at temperature TL,1
Case B: Sink is at temperature TL,2
If TL,1 < TL,2 , which one of the following statements is TRUE?
The reversibility is the same, and the entropy generation is greater than zero for
(A)
Cases A and B
(B) Case B is less reversible with the entropy generation greater than zero
(C) Case B is more reversible with the entropy generation greater than zero
(D) Case B is more reversible with the entropy generation equal to zero
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.89 Given v is the molar specific volume, P is the pressure, T is the temperature, R is
the Universal gas constant, and a, b are van der Waal’s constants.
The van der Waal’s equation of state is
RT a
P= − 2
v−b v
∂v ∂P ∂T
The value of ( ) (∂v ) (∂P) is
∂T P T v
a
(A)
b2
(B) −1
(C) 1
b2
(D)
a
Q.90 The temperature of 10g of liquid water (cp = 4.2J/g.K) in an insulated container
is raised by 5K by stirring. The amount of heat transferred to the water (in J) is
(A) 210
(B) 420
(C) 0
(D) 105
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.91 The figure shows four different processes labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4 for the same closed
system containing an ideal gas. The curves labeled T1 , T2 , and T3 are isotherms. For
which one of the these four processes, the magnitude of internal energy change is
the highest?
(A) Process 1
(B) Process 2
(C) Process 3
(D) Process 4
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.92 A power plant operates on a simple ideal Rankine cycle. If superheating is added to
this cycle, then which one of the following options is CORRECT ?
Pump work increases, turbine work output increases, cycle efficiency increases, and
(A)
moisture content at turbine exit increases
Pump work remains same, turbine work output increases, cycle efficiency increases,
(B)
and moisture content at turbine exit increases
Pump work remains same, turbine work output increases, cycle efficiency increases,
(C)
and moisture content at turbine exit decreases
Pump work decreases, turbine work output increases, cycle efficiency increases,
(D)
and moisture content at turbine exit decreases
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.93 A closed system containing an unknown substance undergoes an adiabatic process
governed by the relation PV γ = constant, where P is pressure, V is volume, and
γ is the ratio of specific heats. For this scenario, which of the following statements
is/are always TRUE?
(A) The substance is an ideal gas and process is reversible
(B) The substance is a liquid and process is reversible
(C) The substance is a non-ideal gas and process is reversible
(D) The substance is an ideal gas and process is NOT reversible
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.94 Two rigid, impermeable containers A and B are filled with an ideal gas. They are
allowed to exchange heat only with each other and not with the surroundings.
P, V, N, and T represent the pressure, total volume, number of moles, and
temperature, respectively. At equilibrium, which of the following conditions is/are
necessarily satisfied?
(Subscripts A and B represent properties of the gas in the respective containers.)
(A) PA = PB
(B) TA = TB
PA VA PB VB
(C) =
NA NB
PA PB
(D) =
VA VB
Q.95 Following data is for an actual vapour compression refrigeration cycle.
Enthalpy at compressor inlet: 246kJ/kg
Enthalpy at compressor exit: 286kJ/kg
Heat load on the evaporator: 158kJ/kg
The enthalpy at the exit of the condenser in kJ/kg is ________ (rounded off to the
nearest integer).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.96 A rigid tank, initially at 1bar and300K, contains 5moles of O2, 4moles of N2 ,
and 3moles of H2 . From this tank, 2moles of O2 are removed keeping the
temperature constant. Assuming ideal gas behaviour, the final partial pressure of O2
(in bar) inside the tank is _______ (rounded off to three decimal places).
Use R = 8.314J/mol.K
Molecular weights of H2 , N2 and O2 are 2g/mol, 28g/mol, and 32g/mol
respectively.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.97 – Q.109 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.97 A fixed mass of an ideal gas undergoes two different cycles M and N as shown in
the Pressure (P) – Volume (V) diagrams. Based on the information provided, which
one of the following statements is always TRUE ?
(A) Heat input in Cycle M is equal to heat input in Cycle N
(B) Heat rejected in Cycle M is equal to heat rejected in Cycle N
(C) Net heat transfer in Cycle M is equal to net heat transfer in Cycle N
(D) Thermal efficiency of Cycle M is equal to thermal efficiency of Cycle N
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.98 In a graph with Helmholtz function on the y–axis and volume on the x–axis, the
slope of the isothermal curves for a finite volume system containing an ideal gas is
(A) always zero
(B) infinite
(C) finite, positive, and non-zero
(D) finite, negative, and non-zero
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.99 Match each quantity in Column M with the appropriate relation from Column N.
Here, ψ is Helmholtz function, P is pressure, v is specific volume, T is temperature,
ℎ is specific enthalpy, and s is specific entropy.
Column M Column N
(M1)v ∂ψ
(N1)− |
∂v T
∂ψ
(M2)P (N2) |
∂v T
(M3)s (N3)
∂ψ
|
∂T v
(M4)T ∂ψ
(N4)− |
∂T v
∂ℎ
(N5) |
∂P s
∂ℎ
(N6)− |
∂s P
∂ℎ
(N7) − |
∂P s
∂ℎ
(N8) |
∂s P
(A) M1-N5, M2-N1, M3-N4, M4-N7
(B) M1-N6, M2-N2, M3-N3, M4-N8
(C) M1-N5, M2-N1, M3-N4, M4-N8
(D) M1-N8, M2-N1, M3-N4, M4-N5
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.100 10kg of water at 300K is poured into a bucket containing 10kg of water at
350K. Heat capacity of water is 4.2kJ/kg.K . Neglecting any heat losses to the
surroundings, the change in the entropy (in kJ/K) of the system during this process
(rounded off to two decimal places) is
(A) 0.00
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.75
Q.101 A Carnot engine operates between two temperatures T1 and T2 such that T1 > T2. If
the thermal efficiency of the engine is to be increased by changing one of the
temperatures by a constant amount ∆T > 0, which one of the following cases will
give the highest increase in efficiency?
(A) Increasing T1 by ∆T while keeping T2 constant
(B) Decreasing T1 by ∆T while keeping T2 constant
(C) Increasing T2 by ∆T while keeping T1 constant
(D) Decreasing T2 by ∆T while keeping T1 constant
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.102 The equation of state for a non-ideal gas is
Pv
= 1 + BP
RT
where P is pressure, v is specific volume, R is the specific gas constant, T is
temperature, and B is a temperature dependent parameter. For this gas, the partial
derivative of enthalpy with respect to pressure at constant temperature is
(A) BRT
dB
(B) −RT 2 ( )
dT
dB
(C) BRT − RT 2 ( )
dT
(D) 0
Q.103 Consider the following data from a Brayton cycle.
Enthalpy at inlet to turbine: 1400kJ/kg
Enthalpy at exit of turbine: 880kJ/kg
Enthalpy at exit of compressor: 600kJ/kg
On adding a regenerator of effectiveness equal to 0.8, the absolute value of
percentage change in heat addition is __________ (rounded off to the nearest
integer).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.104 An ideal gas undergoes a series of reversible steady state, steady flow processes
between states 1, 2, and 3. Process 1→2 satisfies the relation P + 800v = 900,
where pressure, P is in kPa and specific volume, v is in m3 /kg. Process 2→3 is
P3
isochoric. Given that v1 = 0.5m3 /kg, v2 = v3 = 1m3 /kg, = 4, the
P2
total work done per unit mass (in kJ/kg) in the series of processes 1→2→3 is
_________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Q.105 Air (assumed as an ideal gas) with a mass flow rate of 2.5kg/s enters a horizontal
nozzle at 350K, 350kPa with a velocity of 3m/s. The air exits the nozzle at a
9
pressure of 101.5kPa and temperature 305K with a Mach number of . Assuming
7
steady state operation and constant properties given in the data, the ratio of inlet area
to exit area required to satisfy the exit condition is ___________ (rounded off to one
decimal place).
Use the following data: γ = 1.4, cp = 1.011kJ/kg.K, R = 0.287kJ/kg.K
Q.106 The melting point of a substance at 1bar is 273K. The following property data is
available for this substance at 1bar.
Density of the solid phase 900kg/m3
Density of the liquid phase 1000kg/m3
Latent heat for melting 300kJ/kg
Assuming that the above properties are constant, the melting point (in K) of the
substance at 101bar is ________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.107 100moles of moist air at 70% relative humidity is cooled from 70o C to 50o C at a
constant pressure of 1bar. The vapour pressures of water are given in the table. The
number of moles of water left in the moist air at the end of this process is
_________(rounded off to two decimal places).
Temperature(o C) VapourPressure(kPa)
50 12.34
70 31.16
Q.108 A rigid insulated tank containing an ideal gas at 300 K and 1bar is being filled from
an external pressurized line supplying the same gas at 300 K and 10bar. When the
mass of gas inside the tank has doubled, its temperature (in K) is _______ (rounded
off to the nearest integer).
Assume ratio of specific heats to be constant for this process and equal to 1.4.
Q.109 A piston-cylinder system contains 2kg of wet steam at 90o C with quality of 0.1 .
The piston is loaded with a linear spring. The steam expands to 800kPa and 250o C
on heating. The work done (in kJ) in this process is ______ (rounded off to two
decimal places).
Use the following data:
At 90o C: Psat = 70kPa, vf = 0.001m3 /kg, vg = 2.4m3 /kg
At 250o C and 800kPa: v = 0.29m3 /kg
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Polymer Science and Engineering (XE – F)
Q.110– Q.118 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.110 Phenol-formaldehyde resin is prepared by
(A) condensation polymerization
(B) cationic polymerization
(C) anionic polymerization
(D) ring opening polymerization
Q.111 Melting phenomenon in a semi-crystalline polymer is a ________ order phase
transition.
(A) zeroth
(B) first
(C) second
(D) third
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.112 A certain polymer synthesized in the laboratory shows that all the chains have same
number of repeat units (i.e., same degree of polymerization). The relationship
between weight-average (M ̅w ), number-average (M ̅n ), and z-average (M ̅z )
molecular weights for this polymer can be expressed as
(A) ̅z > M
M ̅w > M
̅n
(B) ̅z = M
M ̅w = M
̅n
(C) ̅z < M
M ̅w < M
̅n
(D) ̅z > M
M ̅w < M
̅n
Q.113 Nitrile rubber is the copolymer of
(A) styrene and butadiene
(B) styrene and isoprene
(C) styrene and acrylonitrile
(D) butadiene and acrylonitrile
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.114 A suitable physical compatibilizer of a binary blend of poly(ethylene) and
poly(propylene) is ________.
(A) poly(caprolactam)
(B) poly(lactic acid)
(C) poly(ethylene-block-propylene)
(D) poly(carbonate)
Q.115 The ‘die swell’ phenomenon exhibited by a polymer melt is due to
(A) viscous deformation
(B) plastic deformation
(C) viscous and elastic deformation
(D) elastic recovery
Q.116 Thermoforming operation of semi-crystalline polymers with glass transition
temperature, Tg , and melting temperature, Tm , is carried out at a temperature T, in
the range of
(A) Tg < T < Tm
(B) Tg < T > Tm
(C) Tg > T = Tm
(D) Tg > T > Tm
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.117 Feedstock recycling of poly(ethylene terephthalate) is carried out by
(A) hydrogenation
(B) dehydrogenation
(C) hydrolysis
(D) ozonation
Q.118 Which of the following polymers is/are synthesized by ring opening
polymerization?
(A) Poly(lactic acid)
(B) Poly(-caprolactone)
(C) Poly(styrene)
(D) Poly(aniline)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.119 – Q.131 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.119 The propagation step of a free radical copolymerization is represented by the following
possible reaction steps:
P1:M1∗ + M1 → M1∗ , rate constant = k11
P2:M1∗ + M2 → M2∗ , rate constant = k12
P3:M2∗ + M1 → M1∗ , rate constant = k21
P4:M2∗ + M2 → M2∗ , rate constant = k22
where, M1 and M2 are two monomers and M1∗ and M2∗ are the active radicals of M1 and
M2 , respectively. kij (i, j = 1, 2) represents the rate constant of each step as shown
above.
If the reactivity ratios of M1 and M2 are expressed as: r1 = k11 ⁄k12 and r2 = k22 ⁄k21 ,
respectively, and feed mole ratio, F is expressed as F = [M1 ]⁄[M2 ] (where, [M1 ] and
[M2 ] are the concentrations of M1 and M2 , respectively), the probability of the reaction
P2 is ________.
(A) r1
r1 F + 1
(B) 1
r1 F + 1
(C) 1
r2 + F
(D) r2
F + r2
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.120 Match the following additives to their respective functions for poly(vinyl chloride)
compounding.
Additive Function
P. Dibutyltin maleate 1. Lubricant
Q. Epoxydized soybean oil 2. Extender
R. Chlorinated paraffin wax 3. Heat stabilizer
S. Calcium stearate 4. Plasticizer
(A) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
(B) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(C) P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-4
(D) P-4; Q-2; R-1; S-3
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.121 Match the following properties with their respective units.
Property Unit
P. Notched Izod impact strength 1. Pa s
Q. Flexural strength 2. J m−1
R. Dielectric strength 3. MPa
S. Complex viscosity 4. kV cm−1
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4
(B) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
(C) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1
(D) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.122 Melt flow index (MFI) of a polymer depends on its molecular weight (MW) and
melt viscosity (η). Select the correct relation(s) from the following.
(A) 1
MFI ∝
MW
(B) MFI ∝ MW
(C) 1
MFI ∝
η
(D) MFI ∝ η
Q.123 Biaxially oriented poly(propylene) exhibits high clarity because layering of the
crystalline structures
(A) decreases the variation in refractive index across the film thickness
(B) decreases the amount of light scattering
(C) increases the variation in refractive index across the film thickness
(D) increases the amount of light scattering
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.124 If a given poly(ethylene) sample with specific volume, v = 1.042 × 10−3 m3 kg−1
shows:
specific volume of the crystalline fraction, vc = 0.989 × 10−3 m3 kg−1 and
specific volume of the amorphous fraction, va = 1.160 × 10−3 m3 kg−1 ,
then the % crystallinity (based on mass fraction) of the poly(ethylene) sample is
______ % (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Q.125 The glass transition temperature (Tg ) of poly(2,6-dimethyl-p-phenylene oxide)
(PPO) is 206.8 °C and the Tg of poly(styrene) (PS) is 90 °C. The Tg of a 50/50
(wt/wt) miscible blend of PPO/PS is _________ °C (rounded off to the nearest
integer).
Q.126 A unidirectional composite is prepared using 70% by volume of epoxy matrix and
30% by volume of carbon fibre. The elastic modulus of the epoxy matrix is 3.5 GPa
and the elastic modulus of the carbon fibre is 350 GPa. The longitudinal elastic
modulus of the composite is ________ GPa (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Q.127 Polyamide 66 is prepared by the condensation polymerization of 0.08 mol of
hexamethylenediamine with 0.08 mol of adipic acid. At the end of the
polymerization reaction, the reaction product contained 0.002 mol of unreacted
carboxylic acid groups. The molecular weight of the repeat unit of
polyamide 66 is 226 gmol−1. The number-average molecular weight (M ̅n ) of the
−1
polyamide 66 in the reaction product is ________ gmol (rounded off to the
nearest integer).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.128 A monodisperse polymer sample of molecular weight 10,000 gmol−1 is mixed with
another monodisperse sample of the same polymer of molecular weight
50,000 gmol−1. The total mass of the mixture is 1,000 g and the total number of
moles of the polymer in the mixture is 0.04 mol. The weight-average molecular
weight (M ̅w ) of the polymer mixture is ________ gmol−1 (rounded off to the
nearest integer).
Q.129 For a polymer solution, the dependence of viscosity (η) on shear rate (γ̇ ) is described
by the three-parameter Carreau model given by
η = η0 [1 + (λγ̇ )2 ](n−1)/2
where, η0 , λ, and n are the three parameters of the model. Here, all three parameters
are positive quantities. As the shear rate increases from 1 s−1 to 100 s −1 , the
viscosity of the polymer solution decreases by a factor of 10. For a polymer solution
with n = 0.4 and η0 = 15 Pa s, the value of the parameter λ is ________ s
(rounded off to two decimal places).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.130 The dilute solution viscometry data for two samples of a polymer with two different
molecular weights are shown in the figure, where ηsp ⁄c has been plotted against
c. Here, ηsp is the specific viscosity and c is the mass concentration of the polymer
solution. The slopes and intercepts of the plots for both the samples are shown in
the figure. The plotted data for both samples are described by the Huggins equation
of dilute solution. The value of the Mark-Houwink constant ‘a’ for both polymer
samples is 0.5.
The ratio of the viscosity-average molecular weight (M ̅v ) of polymer sample 1 to
that of polymer sample 2, i.e., (M ̅v )1 /(M
̅v )2 , is ________ (rounded off to two
decimal places).
Q.131 The linear viscoelastic behaviour of a polymer is described by the Kelvin-Voigt
model consisting of a spring element of elastic modulus 10 MPa in parallel with a
dashpot of viscosity 3.6 × 1011 Pa s. A fixed stress of 40 MPa is suddenly applied
to the polymer and maintained thereafter. The value of the strain after one hour from
the sudden application of the stress is __________ (rounded off to two decimal
places).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Food Technology (XE-G)
Q.132– Q.140 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.132 Which one of the following fungi produces aflatoxins?
(A) Aspergillus niger
(B) Fusarium verticillioides
(C) Aspergillus flavus
(D) Rhizopus oligosporus
Q.133 Under standard conditions in animal feeding studies, the weight gained (in grams)
per gram of protein consumed by an animal is termed as
(A) Net Protein Ratio
(B) Net Protein Utilization
(C) Coefficient of Protein Digestibility
(D) Protein Efficiency Ratio
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.134 Xeropthalmia is caused due to the deficiency of
(A) Thiamin
(B) Pantothenic acid
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin C
Q.135 Which one of the following steps is used to remove phosphatides from crude oil in
the refining process?
(A) Neutralization
(B) Bleaching
(C) Degumming
(D) Deodorization
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.136 The unique flavor of chocolate and cocoa is due to the formation of
(A) 5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal
(B) Cyclotene
(C) Furaneol
(D) Maltol
Q.137 Which one of the following statements regarding Hazard Analysis Critical Control
Point (HACCP) plan is NOT correct?
(A) HACCP is a management tool for ensuring food safety.
(B) HACCP involves five preliminary steps and seven principles.
(C) HACCP is not effective without prior implementation of prerequisite programs.
(D) HACCP plan involves establishment of corrective actions as second principle.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.138 The product of cabbage fermentation by Leuconostoc mesenteroides is
(A) Tempeh
(B) Natto
(C) Sauerkraut
(D) Miso
Q.139 Which one of the following absorbents is NOT used as an ethylene absorber in
active packaging of fruits and vegetables?
(A) Potassium permanganate
(B) Activated carbon
(C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) Silica gel
Q.140 Thermal resistance constant (z-value) is defined as the change in temperature
required to reduce the decimal reduction time of a microorganism by __________
percent (Answer in integer).
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.141 – Q.153 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.141 Which one of the following statements regarding moisture sorption isotherms of a
dried food is NOT correct?
(A) At a given temperature, the difference between adsorption and desorption moisture
isotherms is known as hysteresis.
(B) At a given temperature and water activity, an adsorption isotherm exhibits higher
equilibrium moisture content than a desorption isotherm in hysteresis.
(C) At a given moisture content, effect of temperature on a moisture sorption isotherm
follows the Clausius- Clapeyron equation.
(D) The Guggenheim-Anderson-de Boer (GAB) equation is a multilayer moisture
sorption model.
Q.142 Processing of fluid milk at 72 ℃ for 15 seconds is termed as
(A) High-temperature, short-time (HTST) pasteurization
(B) Low-temperature, long-time (LTLT) pasteurization
(C) Ultra high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization
(D) Homogenization process
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.143 Match the anti-nutritional factor in Column I with their corresponding activity
given in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Lectin 1. Flatulence
Q. Stachyose 2. Chelates with divalent cations and reduces their
bio-availability
R. Phytate 3. Inhibits trypsin and chymotrypsin
S. Knuitz type inhibitor 4. Hemagglutination
(A) P-4,Q-1, R-2,S-3
(B) P-3,Q-1, R-2,S-4
(C) P-2,Q-1, R-4,S-3
(D) P-1,Q-2, R-3,S-4
Q.144 Which of the following fatty acids is/are known to increase the low density
lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol?
(A) Omega-3 Fatty acids
(B) Trans Fatty acids
(C) Conjugated Linoleic acids
(D) Saturated Fatty acids
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.145 The addition of which of the following to high-methoxyl pectin will result in gel
formation?
(A) Calcium ions
(B) Hydrogen ions
(C) Sodium ions
(D) Sugar
Q.146 Which of the following steps in food processing is/are used to reduce the acrylamide
formation in food products?
(A) Pretreatment using asparaginase
(B) Lowering the pH
(C) Increasing the temperature.
(D) Adding glucose.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.147 Which of the following enzymes is/are used for the production of high fructose
syrup (HFS) from corn starch?
(A) α-Amylase
(B) β-Amylase
(C) Xylose isomerase
(D) Glucoamylase
Q.148 Which of the following is/are typical characteristic(s) of a fungal cell?
(A) Presence of histone proteins
(B) Presence of peptidoglycans in the cell wall
(C) Presence of chitin in the cell wall
(D) Presence of pseudomurein in the cell wall
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.149 Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding food and water borne
disease and the class of causative microorganisms?
(A) Legionellosis is a bacterial disease.
(B) Giardiasis is caused by the protists.
(C) Typhoid fever is caused by the virus.
(D) Listeriosis is a fungal disease.
Q.150 Which of the following statements is/ are true?
(A) Hagen-Poiseuille’s law is used for calculation of molecular diffusion.
(B) Fick’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction.
(C) Rittinger’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction.
(D) Stokes law is used for derivation of terminal velocity.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.151 A 10 kg tomato pulp is concentrated from an initial moisture content of 90% (wet
weight basis) to 35% (wet weight basis). The weight of the concentrate in kg is
__________ (round off to 2 decimal places).
Q.152 The surface temperature of a hot plate is 175 ℃. The ambient air temperature is 25
℃. The rate of heat transfer per unit area in kW.m-2 from the plate to the ambient
air is __________________ (Answer in integer). Assume the convective heat
transfer coefficient is 20 W.m-2.K-1.
Q.153 A tubular bowl centrifuge is used to separate an aqueous phase from an oil phase.
The radii of outlets of the light and heavy liquids are set at 4.5 cm and 4.6 cm,
respectively. The radius in cm of the neutral zone in the centrifuge
is_____________ (round off to 2 decimal places). Assume the density of the
aqueous phase is 950 kg.m-3 and that of oil is 900 kg.m-3.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Atmospheric and Ocean Science (XE - H)
Q.154– Q.162 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.154 A westerly wind is blowing in the Northern Hemisphere. What is the direction of
net mass transport in the Ekman layer?
(A) Southward
(B) Northward
(C) North-Eastward
(D) South-Westward
Q.155 Which one of the following feature is NOT necessary for the formation of Indian
summer monsoon?
(A) Land-sea temperature contrast
(B) El Niño
(C) Seasonal reversal of winds
(D) Meridional pressure gradient
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.156 The work done by Coriolis force is
(A) directly proportional to velocity
(B) a function of latitude
(C) zero
(D) always positive except at the equator
Q.157 If the isobars and isopycnals are parallel to each other, the flow is said to be
(A) baroclinic
(B) barotropic
(C) geostrophic
(D) rotational
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.158 Transfer of energy between ocean and atmosphere in the form of sensible heat
flux is due to
(A) difference in specific humidity between ocean and atmosphere
(B) difference in temperature between upper surface of the ocean and lower part of the
atmosphere
(C) difference in density between upper surface of the ocean and lower part of the
atmosphere
(D) difference in partial pressure of CO2 between ocean and atmosphere
Q.159 A value of outgoing long-wave radiation (OLR) < 200 Wm−2 over the tropical
oceans indicates _____ .
(A) high pressure region
(B) deep convection
(C) high sea surface temperature
(D) clear sky condition
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.160 Which of the following is a correct statement?
(A) Tropics receive more incoming short-wave radiation than the outgoing long-wave
radiation.
(B) Polar regions do not emit any long-wave radiation.
(C) Both tropics and polar regions receive and emit equal amounts of radiation.
(D) Polar regions receive more short-wave radiation than tropics.
Q.161 Upwelling region has _____ .
(A) low sea surface height
(B) high sea surface height
(C) decrease in primary production
(D) low nutrients
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.162 Density of sea-water does not directly depend on _____ .
(A) temperature of sea water
(B) salinity of sea water
(C) pressure of sea water
(D) vorticity of sea water
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.163 – Q.175 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.163 Which of the following is/are true about ocean circulation?
(A) Wind driven circulation, with constant Coriolis force, can produce narrow and fast
western boundary currents.
(B) Wind driven circulation, with Coriolis force varying with latitude, can produce
narrow and fast western boundary currents.
(C) The eastern boundary currents of subtropical gyres are wide and slow.
(D) Wind driven circulation leads to Ekman transport.
Q.164 Svedrup’s equation deals with:
(A) curl of wind stress
(B) pressure gradient force
(C) variation of Coriolis force with latitude
(D) meridional transport of sea water
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.165 pH of the water in the oceans is/are directly affected by:
(A) water temperature
(B) water salinity
(C) total alkalinity
(D) water pressure
Q.166 Billow clouds indicate:
(A) turbulence in the atmosphere
(B) vertical shear of the wind
(C) heavy precipitation
(D) uniform winds
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.167 Consider an atmospheric flow at 45 °N, which is parallel to latitude and isobars.
Which of the following is/are true when there is no friction?
(A) Flow is in gradient wind balance.
(B) Acceleration of the flow is close to zero.
(C) The above description depicts an extratropical cyclone.
(D) A balance between Coriolis force and pressure gradient force.
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.168 The given figure shows a schematic of dry, moist, and environmental lapse rates.
Which of the following is/are correct statements?
(A) The lapse rate of environment below 5 km is -15 °C km−1
(B) The atmosphere is unstable above 5 km
(C) The chances of a deep convective cloud growth above 5 km are less
(D) The atmosphere is conditionally unstable below 5 km
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.169 Balance of forces and different types of flows/weather phenomena in the northern
hemisphere are given. Match the following:
Balance of forces Flow type/weather phenomena
P Balance between pressure X Geostrophic flow
gradient force, centrifugal force
and Coriolis force in
anticlockwise rotation
Q Balance between pressure Y Cyclones
gradient force and centrifugal
force in clockwise/
anticlockwise rotation
R Balance between pressure Z Tornado
gradient force and Coriolis force
in a uniform flow
(A) P - Z; Q - X; R - Y
(B) P - X; Q - Y; R - Z
(C) P - Y; Q - Z; R - X
(D) P - Y; Q - X; R - Z
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.170 During summer monsoon season, water from Arabian Sea spreads over the south-
western Bay of Bengal. This leads to
(A) formation of salt fingers
(B) upwelling
(C) western boundary current
(D) downwelling
Q.171 Net solar radiation of 1360 Wm−2 is incident on the surface of a still lake having
mixed layer depth of 20 m. Find the change in temperature (in SI units) of the mixed
layer of the lake for a day length of 8 hours. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Assume that there is no variation in solar radiation in a day and all radiation incident
on the surface is absorbed uniformly throughout the mixed layer (Density of lake
water is 1025 kgm−3 and Specific heat capacity (Cp) of lake water is 3850
Jkg −1 K −1 ).
Q.172 A homogeneous, incompressible, steady ocean of mixed layer depth of 20 m has a
velocity gradient −5 × 10−8 s−1 and −8.3 × 10−8 s−1 along zonal and meridional
directions, respectively. The vertical mass flux (in kgs −1 ) at the base of the mixed
layer of 100 km × 100 km area is ____________ × 106 kgs −1 (Density of sea water
is 1025 kgm−3 ). (Rounded off to 1 decimal place)
Q.173 Wind blows over the ocean surface at a speed of 10 ms −1. Calculate the magnitude
of wind stress, in Pa, using bulk formulation. (Drag coefficient is 1.4 × 10−3 and
density of air is 1.3 kgm−3 ) (Rounded off to 3 decimal places)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Q.174 Two stations ‘A’ and ‘B’, present at a latitude of 30 °N are separated by a distance
of 10 km. If the difference in sea surface height between these two stations is 1 m,
what will be the magnitude of geostrophic current velocity in SI units? (Assume the
angular velocity of earth is 10−4 s −1) (Answer in integer)
Q.175 A stationary air parcel centered on the equator is moved north-ward by conserving
absolute vorticity. In the new location it has gained a relative vorticity of
−10−4 s −1 . The latitude of its new location is _____ °N. (Assume the angular
velocity of earth is 10−4 s −1). (Answer in integer)
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Engineering Sciences (XE)
Final Answer Key
Question
Q. No. Session Section Key/Range Mark
Type
1 6 MCQ GA C 1
2 6 MCQ GA A 1
3 6 MCQ GA A 1
4 6 MCQ GA C 1
5 6 MCQ GA B 1
6 6 MCQ GA C 2
7 6 MCQ GA C 2
8 6 MCQ GA D 2
9 6 MCQ GA A 2
10 6 MCQ GA A 2
11 6 MCQ XE-A C 1
12 6 MCQ XE-A D 1
13 6 MCQ XE-A A 1
14 6 MCQ XE-A B 1
15 6 NAT XE-A 12 to 12 1
16 6 NAT XE-A 2 to 2 1
17 6 NAT XE-A 0.42 to 0.55 1
18 6 MCQ XE-A A 2
19 6 MSQ XE-A B; C; D 2
20 6 NAT XE-A 3 to 3 2
21 6 NAT XE-A 2 to 2 2
22 6 MCQ XE-B B 1
23 6 MCQ XE-B B 1
24 6 MCQ XE-B C 1
25 6 MCQ XE-B C 1
26 6 MCQ XE-B A 1
27 6 MCQ XE-B C 1
28 6 MCQ XE-B D 1
29 6 MCQ XE-B D 1
30 6 NAT XE-B 300 to 300 1
31 6 MCQ XE-B A 2
32 6 MCQ XE-B D 2
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Text of page 2
33 6 MCQ XE-B A 2
34 6 MCQ XE-B D 2
35 6 NAT XE-B 0.09 to 0.11 2
36 6 NAT XE-B 4 to 4 2
37 6 NAT XE-B 0.1 to 0.1 2
38 6 NAT XE-B 635.00 to 637.00 2
39 6 NAT XE-B 6.00 to 6.50 2
40 6 NAT XE-B 8 to 8 2
41 6 NAT XE-B 5 to 5 2
42 6 NAT XE-B 7.85 to 8.11 2
43 6 NAT XE-B 0.30 to 0.35 2
44 6 MCQ XE-C B 1
45 6 MCQ XE-C B 1
46 6 MCQ XE-C C 1
47 6 MCQ XE-C C 1
48 6 MCQ XE-C D 1
49 6 MSQ XE-C A; C; D 1
50 6 MSQ XE-C A; B 1
51 6 MSQ XE-C A; B; C 1
52 6 NAT XE-C 12 to 12 1
53 6 MCQ XE-C A 2
54 6 MCQ XE-C C 2
55 6 MCQ XE-C D 2
56 6 MCQ XE-C B 2
57 6 MSQ XE-C B; C 2
58 6 MSQ XE-C A; C 2
59 6 MSQ XE-C A; D 2
60 6 MSQ XE-C A; D 2
61 6 MSQ XE-C B; D 2
62 6 NAT XE-C 196 to 200 2
63 6 NAT XE-C 20.0 to 23.2 2
64 6 NAT XE-C 44.0 to 46.0 2
65 6 NAT XE-C 30.0 to 33.0 2
66 6 MCQ XE-D D 1
67 6 MCQ XE-D A 1
68 6 MCQ XE-D B 1
69 6 MCQ XE-D A 1
70 6 MCQ XE-D D 1
71 6 MCQ XE-D A 1
72 6 MSQ XE-D A;B;C 1
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73 6 NAT XE-D 0.9 to 1.1 1
74 6 NAT XE-D 24 to 26 1
75 6 MCQ XE-D C 2
76 6 MCQ XE-D D 2
77 6 MCQ XE-D C 2
78 6 MCQ XE-D B 2
79 6 MSQ XE-D A;C 2
80 6 NAT XE-D 99.00 to 101.00 2
81 6 NAT XE-D 41.0 to 43.0 2
82 6 NAT XE-D 0.80 to 0.85 2
83 6 NAT XE-D 0.29 to 0.33 2
84 6 NAT XE-D 59.5 to 60.5 2
85 6 NAT XE-D 1.9 to 2.1 2
86 6 NAT XE-D 14 to 16 2
87 6 NAT XE-D 0.66 to 0.68 2
88 6 MCQ XE-E C 1
89 6 MCQ XE-E B 1
90 6 MCQ XE-E C 1
91 6 MCQ XE-E A 1
92 6 MCQ XE-E C 1
93 6 MSQ XE-E A 1
94 6 MSQ XE-E B; C 1
95 6 NAT XE-E 88 to 88 1
96 6 NAT XE-E 0.249 to 0.251 1
97 6 MCQ XE-E C 2
98 6 MCQ XE-E D 2
99 6 MCQ XE-E C 2
100 6 MCQ XE-E B 2
101 6 MCQ XE-E D 2
102 6 MCQ XE-E B 2
103 6 NAT XE-E 28 to 28 2
104 6 NAT XE-E 0 to 0 2
105 6 NAT XE-E 49.0 to 51.0 2
106 6 NAT XE-E 271.50 to 272.50 2
107 6 NAT XE-E 10.50 to 11.50 2
108 6 NAT XE-E 359 to 361 2
109 6 NAT XE-E 40.000 to 44.500 2
110 6 MCQ XE-F A 1
111 6 MCQ XE-F B 1
112 6 MCQ XE-F B 1
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113 6 MCQ XE-F D 1
114 6 MCQ XE-F C 1
115 6 MCQ XE-F D 1
116 6 MCQ XE-F A 1
117 6 MCQ XE-F C 1
118 6 MSQ XE-F A;B 1
119 6 MCQ XE-F B 2
120 6 MCQ XE-F A 2
121 6 MCQ XE-F C 2
122 6 MSQ XE-F A;C 2
123 6 MSQ XE-F A;B 2
124 6 NAT XE-F 68 to 71 2
125 6 NAT XE-F 126 to 144 2
126 6 NAT XE-F 107 to 108 2
127 6 NAT XE-F 8680 to 11300 2
128 6 NAT XE-F 39900 to 40500 2
129 6 NAT XE-F 0.48 to 0.54 2
130 6 NAT XE-F 0.36 to 0.40 2
131 6 NAT XE-F 0.36 to 0.40 2
132 6 MCQ XE-G C 1
133 6 MCQ XE-G D 1
134 6 MCQ XE-G C 1
135 6 MCQ XE-G C 1
136 6 MCQ XE-G A 1
137 6 MCQ XE-G D 1
138 6 MCQ XE-G C 1
139 6 MCQ XE-G C 1
140 6 NAT XE-G 90 to 90 1
141 6 MCQ XE-G B 2
142 6 MCQ XE-G A 2
143 6 MCQ XE-G A 2
144 6 MSQ XE-G B; D 2
145 6 MSQ XE-G B; D 2
146 6 MSQ XE-G A; B 2
147 6 MSQ XE-G A; C; D 2
148 6 MSQ XE-G A; C 2
149 6 MSQ XE-G A; B 2
150 6 MSQ XE-G C; D 2
151 6 NAT XE-G 1.50 to 1.60 2
152 6 NAT XE-G 3 to 3 2
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153 6 NAT XE-G 6.05 to 6.18 2
154 6 MCQ XE-H A 1
155 6 MCQ XE-H B 1
156 6 MCQ XE-H C 1
157 6 MCQ XE-H B 1
158 6 MCQ XE-H B 1
159 6 MCQ XE-H B 1
160 6 MCQ XE-H A 1
161 6 MCQ XE-H A 1
162 6 MCQ XE-H D 1
163 6 MSQ XE-H B;C;D 2
164 6 MSQ XE-H A;C;D 2
165 6 MSQ XE-H A;B;C 2
166 6 MSQ XE-H A;B 2
167 6 MSQ XE-H B;D 2
168 6 MSQ XE-H C;D 2
169 6 MSQ XE-H C 2
170 6 MSQ XE-H A 2
171 6 NAT XE-H 0.45 to 0.55 2
172 6 NAT XE-H 27.0 to 27.5 2
173 6 NAT XE-H 0.180 to 0.185 2
174 6 NAT XE-H 1 to 1 2
175 6 NAT XE-H 30 to 30 2
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Source: GATE. Question paper published by GATE.