GPSC Assistant Engineer 2019: Preliminary, Assistant Engineer (Civil) Class-2, Roads and Building Department
Text of page 1
AHQ
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of the Post Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, Roads and Building Department.
Advertisement No 79/2018-19
Preliminary Test Held on 23/06/2019
Que. No. 1-300 GS & Concerned Subject
Publish Date 25/06/2019
Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) 02/07/2019
Note:-
(1) All Suggestionsare to be sent with reference to website published
Question paper with Provisional Answer Key Only.
(2) All Suggestions are to be sent in the given format only.
(3) Candidate must ensure the above compliance.
(૧) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-�ૂચનો ર�ૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર પ્રસસધ્ધ થયેલ
સનયત ન�ૂનાનો ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(૨) ઉમેદવારોએ પોતાને પર�ક્ષામાં મળેલ સીર�ઝની પ્ર�પુ�સ્તકામાં
છપાયેલ પ્ર�ક્રમાંક �ુજબ વાંધા- �ૂચનો ર�ૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા-�ૂચનો વેબસાઇટ પર પ્રસસધ્ધ થયેલ પ્રોસવઝનલ
આન્સર ક�ના પ્ર�ક્રમાંક �ુજબ અને તે સંદભર્માં ર�ૂ કરવા.
(૩) ઉમેદવારોએ ઉક્ત � ૂચના� ંુ અ�ુક પાલન કરવું અન્યથા વાંધા-� ૂચનો
�ગે કરેલ ર�ૂઆતો ધ્યાને લેવાશે નહ�.
Text of page 13
M
101. The observed bearings of a traverse are given below:
Line FB BB
A. AB 40o27' 220o27'
B. BC 100o15' 281o15'
C. CD 210o17' 30o27'
D. DE 322o45' 142o45'
The station(s) most likely to be affected by local attraction is/are
(A) Only C (B) Only A
(C) C and D (D) B and C
102. The plan of a map was photocopied to a reduced size such that a line originally 120 mm, measures
90 mm. The original scale of plan was 1:1000. What will be the revised scale?
(A) 1: 1200 (B) 1: 1232
(C) 1: 1333 (D) 1: 1121
103. A lighthouse is visible above the horizon at a certain station at the sea level. If the distance between
the station and the lighthouse is 40 km, then the height of lighthouse is approximately
(A) 108 m (B) 126 m
(C) 132 m (D) 148 m
104. In a topographical map of a proposed reservoir, the area enclosed by contour lines is shown below.
Contour (m) Area enclosed (ha)
105 100
110 150
115 350
120 500
125 900
The volume of impounded water using trapezoidal formula will be
(A) 5000 ha-m (B) 7500 ha-m
(C) 8200 ha-m (D) 10000 ha-m
105. The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S52o30'W. If the magnetic declination is 4o15'W, then the true
bearing of the line will be
(A) S48°15'E (B) S56°45'W
(C) S48°15'W (D) S56°45'E
AHQ - MASTER ] 13 [P.T.O.
Text of page 14
M
106. If the spacing of cross-hairs in a stadia diaphragm of tacheometer is 16 mm and the focal length
of the objective glass is 32 cm, then the multiplying constant for the tacheometer will be
(A) 10 (B) 2 (C) 0.05 (D) 20
107. Two tangents intersect at a point ‘V’, the deflection angle being 45o. The length of curve having
radius of 320 m would be
(A) 40 m (B) 251 m (C) 314 m (D) 320 m
108. The total length of eight links in a ‘Revenue chain’ is
(A) 16.5 feet (B) 33 feet (C) 26 feet (D) 13 feet
109. 10 divisions of the Vernier scale will have the same length as
(A) 1 division of the Main Scale (B) 5 divisions of the Main Scale
(C) 9 divisions of the Main Scale (D) 11 divisions of the Main Scale
110.
Which of the following angular method(s) of laying curves do/does not use any distance
measurement?
(i) Rankine Method
(ii) Two-theodolite Method
(iii) Tacheometric Method
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (iii)
111. A 2° curve of chord length 20 m has a radius of
(A) 573 m (B) 286.5 m (C) 143 m (D) 72.5 m
112. The length of the long chord of a simple circular curve is approximately
(A) twice the apex distance (B) twice the mid ordinate
(C) twice the tangent length (D) twice the radius of the curve
113. A compound curve has
(A) a simple circular curve and a transition curve at one end
(B) a simple circular curve and transition curves at both the ends
(C) two or more simple circular curves of different radii
(D) two simple circular curves having centers in opposite directions
114. A transition curve is essentially used to
(A) generate more frictional forces for stability
(B) allow vehicles to have increased speed while driving
(C) negate the effect of centrifugal forces
(D) avoid abrupt change in radius from a straight line to a finite radius curve
AHQ - MASTER ] 14 [Contd.
Text of page 15
M
115. When you transit the telescope, you rotate the telescope about the
(A) trunnion axis
(B) vertical axis
(C) optical axis of the telescope
(D) line of collimation
116. In the method of repetition for measuring horizontal angles, to rotate the instrument without
changing the readings,
(A) lower clamp screw is tightened and upper clamp is loosened
(B) lower clamp screw is loosened and upper clamp is tightened
(C) any one of the clamp screw is loosened
(D) both the clamp screws are loosened
117. Optical plummet is used
(A) in optic theodolite for compensating any tilt in the axis
(B) in electronic theodolite for compensating any tilt in the axis
(C) for accurate centering of the theodolite over a station
(D) for accurate levelling of the theodolite
118. In which of the following methods of the Plane Table Survey, orientation of the table is not
required?
(A) Radiation (B) Intersection
(C) Traversing (D) Resection
119. When you have to come across a water body while performing levelling operations, then the best
method is
(A) fly levelling (B) reciprocal levelling
(C) check levelling (D) differential levelling
120. Dip of the horizon is the angle
(A) made by the line of sight with the horizontal
(B) between the lone of sight and the level surface
(C) between the line of sight and the tangent to the level surface
(D) made by the line of sight with the plumb line
121. Asthenosphere is the
(A) plastic layer of the mantle (B) layer beneath the mesosphere
(C) topmost layer of hydrosphere (D) bottommost layer of the mantle
AHQ - MASTER ] 15 [P.T.O.
Text of page 16
M
122. Crystals those are developed equally in all directions are known as
(A) Isotropant (B) Equant
(C) Prismatic (D) Dendritic
123. The average density of earth may be taken as
(A) 5.51 g/cc (B) 5.51 kg/cum
(C) 3.9 g/cc (D) 3.9 kg/cum
124. In ‘mafic’ type of igneous rocks, the percentage of silica is
(A) <45% (B) 45 – 55%
(C) 55 – 60% (D) 60 – 70%
125. The branch of geology which deals with various aspects of rocks is called
(A) Lithology (B) Mineralogy
(C) Petrology (D) Rockology
126. The objective of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana is to provide all-weather roads to the eligible
unconnected Habitations in the rural areas with a population of
(A)
250 persons and above in Plain areas and 100 persons and above in Hilly and
Desert areas
(B)
500 persons and above in Plain areas and 250 persons and above in Hilly and
Desert areas
(C)
1000 persons and above in Plain areas and 500 persons and above in Hilly and
Desert areas
(D)
2000 persons and above in Plain areas and 500 persons and above in Hilly and
Desert areas
127. The length of National Highway (Km) as per Lucknow road plan is given by
(A) Area of the country (Km2) / 75 (B) Area of the country (Km2) / 50
(C) Area of the country(Km2) / 40 (D) Area of the country(Km2) / 25
128. As per IRC, the camber value recommended for Water Bound Macadam roads in localities of
heavy rainfall is
(A) 1 in 50 (B) 1 in 40
(C) 1 in 33 (D) 1 in 25
129. As per IRC, the design speed (ruling and minimum) on a National Highway in plain terrain are
(A) 100 & 80 kmph (B) 100 & 65 kmph
(C) 80 & 65 kmph (D) 65 & 50 kmph
AHQ - MASTER ] 16 [Contd.
Text of page 17
M
130. As per IRC, the coefficient of longitudinal friction for calculating Stopping Sight Distance of
vehicle having speed in the range of 60 to 65 kmph is
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.38
(C) 0.36 (D) 0.34
131. In highway geometric design, once the cumulative speed distribution is drawn, the design speed is
checked at which percentile?
(A) 85th percentile (B) 95th percentile
(C) 98th percentile (D) 99th percentile
132. When the speed of the traffic flow becomes zero, then
(A) Traffic density attains its maximum value whereas traffic volume becomes zero
(B) Traffic density and traffic volume both attain respective maximum values
(C) Traffic density and traffic volume both becomes zero
(D) Traffic density becomes zero whereas traffic volume attains its maximum value.
133. It was noted that on a section of road, the free speed was 80 kmph and the jam density was 70
vpkm. The maximum flow in vph that could be expected on this road is
(A) 800 (B) 1400
(C) 2800 (D) 5600
134. Travel time and delay studies on a defined section of highway are conducted by
(i) Traffic Counters (ii) Floating Car Method
(iii) Moving vehicle method (iv) Radar Gun
(A) Only (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
135. The most efficient traffic signal system is
(A) Simultaneous system (B) Alternate system
(C) Flexible progressive system (D) Simple progressive system
136. At highway stretches where the required Overtaking Sight Distance cannot be provided, in such
sections it is necessary to incorporate at least
(A) Three times the Stopping Sight Distance
(B) One-third of the required Intermediate Sight Distance
(C) Half of the required Intermediate Sight Distance
(D) Twice the Stopping Sight Distance
AHQ - MASTER ] 17 [P.T.O.
Text of page 18
M
137. Strength, stability and bearing power of a highway depend on
(A) Sub base course (B) Sub grade
(C) Base course (D) Wearing course
138. The instrument used to measure Roughness index is
(A) Profilometer (B) Deflectometer
(C) Brinellnometer (D) Bump integrator
139. 30th highest hourly volume means Annual Average Daily Traffic exceeded
(A) 29 times in an hour (B) 29 times in a year
(C) 30 times in an hour (D) 30 times in a year
140. The area of most acute vision of a driver is a cone of
(A) Less than 3° (B) 3° to 5°
(C) 10° to 12° (D) 18° to 22°
141. The purpose of a ‘divisional island’ is to eliminate
(A) Nose to tail collision (B) Head-on collision
(C) Side collision (D) Tail to tail collision
142. If the average spacing between vehicles in a traffic stream is 50 m, then the density (in veh/km) of
the stream is
(A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 25 (D) 30
143. The group index value of a soil sub grade is 7. The sub grade soil is rated as
(A) Poor (B) Very poor
(C) Good (D) Fair
144. The consistency and flow resistance of bitumen can be determined from which of the following?
(A) Ductility test (B) Penetration test
(C) Softening point test (D) Viscosity test
145. Dowel bars in concrete pavement are placed
(A) Perpendicular to the direction of traffic
(B) Along the direction of traffic
(C) Along 45° to the direction of traffic
(D) Can be placed along any direction
AHQ - MASTER ] 18 [Contd.
Text of page 19
M
146. Which of the following strength parameter of concrete is used in the design of a plain jointed
cement concrete pavement:
(A) Tensile strength (B) Compressive strength
(C) Shear strength (D) Flexural strength
147. As per IRC: 67-2001, a traffic sign indicating the speed limit on a road should be of
(A) Circular shape with red background and white border
(B) Triangular shape with red background and white border
(C) Circular shape with white background and red border
(D) Triangular shape with white background and red border
148. The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is
(A) Load stress + warping stress – frictional stress
(B) Load stress + warping stress + frictional stress
(C) Load stress + warping stress
(D) Load stress + frictional stress
149. For the Pavement design, Benkelman Beam Team is used for which of the following?
(A) Design of bituminous concrete mix
(B) Overlay design
(C) Gradation of asphalt design
(D) Determination of softening point
150. As per IRC guidelines for designing flexible pavement by CBR method, the load parameter
required is
(A) Number of commercial vehicles per day
(B) Cumulative standard axles in msa
(C) Equivalent single axle load
(D) Number of vehicles (all types) during design life
151. For a concrete-mix ratio of 1:2:4, the bulking of sand is 15%. If bulking correction is not applied
to sand, then what would be the ratio of dry sand per unit volume of cement?
(A) 2 (B) 2.35 (C) 1.74 (D) Data insufficient
152.
Which of the following bond for brickwork is used in half-brick thick leaves of
cavity walls?
(A) English bond (B) Garden wall bond
(C) American bond (D) Stretcher bond
AHQ - MASTER ] 19 [P.T.O.
Text of page 20
M
153. The ratio of 28 days minimum compressive strength of mortar grade M1 to M2 is
(A) 3.0 (B) 0.67 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.33
154. A rectangular specimen is normally used for carrying out specific gravity test on timber. Dimensions
of the specimen is taken as
(A) 5 cm × 5 cm × 15 cm (B) 2 cm × 2 cm × 10 cm
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
155. In dry process of cement manufacturing, a rotary kiln is charged at a temperature
(A) Less than 1200°C (B) Between 1300°C and 1450°C
(C) Between 1500°C and 1800°C (D) More than 1800°C
156. As specified in IS: 3087, the average modulus of rupture of ‘flat pressed three layer’ of Grade - I
pre-laminated particle board is
(A) 15 N/mm2 (B) 10 N/mm2 (C) 12.5 N/mm2 (D) 11 N/mm2
157. As per IS 427: 2013, the maximum permissible limit for using lead in Distemper is
(A) 300 ppm (B) 250 ppm (C) 400 ppm (D) 200 ppm
158. ‘10 DT 24’ represents
(A) Frame of double shutter window with a width of 24 modules and height of 10 modules
(B) Frame of double shutter window with a width of 10 modules and height of 24 modules
(C) Frame of double shutter door with a width of 24 modules and height of 10 modules
(D) Frame of double shutter door with a width of 10 modules and height of 24 modules
159. A good building stone should have a wearing resistance less than
(A) 1.5% (B) 3% (C) 5% (D) 7%
160.
Load applied during the compressive strength test of brick till its failure is at the rate
of _____ kg/cm2 per minute.
(A) 100 (B) 120 (C) 140 (D) 160
161.
The length of time for which a concrete mixture will remain plastic is usually more
dependent on
(A) the setting time of cement than on the amount of mixing water and atmospheric temperature
(B) the atmospheric temperature than on the amount of mixing water and setting time of cement
(C) the setting time of cement and the amount of mixing water than on atmospheric temperature
(D) the amount of mixing water used and the atmospheric temperature than on the setting time
of cement.
AHQ - MASTER ] 20 [Contd.
Text of page 21
M
162. The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40
163. The ratio of Young’s modulus of high tensile steel to that of mild steel is about
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.0
164. A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more than
(A) 15% (B) 18% (C) 20% (D) 22%
165. Number of bricks required for one cubic meter of masonry are
(A) 400 (B) 450 (C) 500 (D) 550
166. Which of the following surfaces will give highest coefficient of traction while using crawler track
tractors?
(A) Ice (B) Earth (C) Loose sand (D) Concrete
167. In time-cost optimization of a project, crashing is done
(A) on all the activities.
(B) on original critical activities and those that become critical at any stage of crashing in order
of ascending cost slope.
(C) on all activities lying on the original critical path.
(D) only on activities lying on original critical path and having flatter cost slopes.
168. The time estimates obtained from four contractors A, B, C and D for excavating same size of pit
are as under:
Contractor Optimistic Time (tO) Most Likely Time(tL) Pessimistic Time (tP)
A 5 10 13
B 6 10 12
C 5 10 14
D 4 10 13
Which one of these contractors is more certain about completing job in time?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
169. For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation equipment used is
(A) Hoe (B) Shovel (C) Dragline (D) Clamshell
170. In building estimate, cornice are measured in
(A) Number (nos.) (B) Running meter
(C) Square meter (D) Cubic meter
AHQ - MASTER ] 21 [P.T.O.
Text of page 22
M
171.
If T is the thickness of lintel and S is the clear span of opening, then length of lintel (L) is
given by
(A) L=S+T (B) L=S+2T
(C) L=S+3T (D) L=S+4T
172. In Plastering, for opening more than 3 square meter deduction is made for
(A) Both faces of opening
(B) Both faces of opening plus jambs
(C) Both faces of opening plus soffit and sills
(D) Both faces of opening and jambs, soffits and sills.
173. Revised estimate is needed to be prepared when original estimate is exceeded or likely to exceed
by more than
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20%
174. Which of the following is not related with the International Federation of Consulting Engineers
(FIDIC) form of contract?
(A) 1987 Red Book (B) 1987 Yellow Book
(C) 1990 Blue Book (D) 2007 Gold Book
175. Consider the following pairs:
i. Difference between total float and free float = Interfering float
ii. Sum of independent float and tail slack = Free float
iii. Sum of independent float, tail slack and interfering float = Total float.
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
(A) i, ii and iii (B) i and ii
(C) i and iii (D) ii and iii
176. Bulk modulus for ideal fluids is
(A) Infinity (B) Unity
(C) Zero (D) Any value less than one
177.Two ‘venturimeters’ have their head ratios as 9 : 16. If all other parameters remain unaffected, then
their respective discharge ratio would be
(A) 1.75:1 (B) 0.75:1
(C) 1.25:1 (D) 1:1.25
178. For a broad-crested weir, if discharge is maximum for available head of 24 m, then what would be
the critical depth of weir?
(A) 8m (B) 12 m (C) 16 m (D) 24 m
AHQ - MASTER ] 22 [Contd.
Text of page 23
M
179. In a laminar flow between two parallel plates, the approximate ratio between average velocity and
maximum velocity would be
(A) 0.66 (B) 1.50 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.33
180. Weber number is a ratio of
(A) Surface tension force to inertia force
(B) Surface tension force to elastic force
(C) Inertia force to surface tension force
(D) Elastic force to surface tension force
181. If at a hydraulic jump, the depths at the two sides are 1 m and 2 m, then the head loss due to jump
would be
(A) 0.55 m (B) 1.25 m (C) 1.50 m (D) None of the above
182. For turbulent flow in a smooth pipe, if the Reynolds number is 10,000, then what would be the
approximate value of friction factor for the pipe?
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.03 (D) 0.04
183.
If relationship between discharge and head for a measuring equipment is given by
Q = kH7/2, and error in the head measurement is 2.5%; then the error in discharge measurement
would be
(A) 9.25% (B) 7.50% (C) 4.75% (D) 8.75%
184. In a steady flow, the velocities at points A and B, which were 100 cm apart, were 3 m/s and 6 m/s,
respectively. If the velocity varies linearly between A and B, then what would be the convective
acceleration at B?
(A) 18 m/s2 (B) 9 m/s2 (C) 12 m/s2 (D) None of the above
185. At 20°C temperature and standard pressure condition, kinematic viscosity of air would be
approximately _______ times that of water
(A) 20 (B) 8 (C) 15 (D) 12
186. If the load on a hydro power plant varies from a minimum of 12000 kW to peak of
42000 kW for a certain period, the load factor would be
(A) 35.72% (B) 50% (C) 100% (D) 64.28%
187. For a single acting reciprocating pump, if theoretical and actual discharges are 5.6 liters/second
and 4.6 liters/second respectively, then slip for pump would approximately be
(A) 14.3% (B) 9.9% (C) 17.8% (D) None of the above
188. A horizontal water jet with a velocity of 14 m/s and cross-sectional area of 10 mm2 strikes a flat
plate held normal to the flow direction. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3. The total force on the
plate due to the jet would be
(A) 1.96 N (B) Zero (C) 0.196 N (D) 19.6 N
AHQ - MASTER ] 23 [P.T.O.
Text of page 24
M
189. Specific speed of a turbine is defined as the speed of a unit of such a size that it
(A) delivers unit discharge at unit head
(B) delivers unit discharge at unit power
(C) produces unit power for unit head
(D) produces unit power from unit discharge
190. Boundary layer thickness is the
(A) distance from the boundary where velocity is 99% of the uniform velocity
(B) distance from the boundary by which the main flow can be assumed to be shifted
(C) distance from the boundary layer where from the flow ceases to be laminar
(D) region near the boundary where viscous stress is also present
191. When elaborate under drainage arrangements cannot be provided, and the soil strata is sandy, the
preferred material for canal lining would be
(A) cement concrete lining (B) soil cement lining
(C) brick lining (D) shotcrete lining
192. The soil become practically infertile when its pH value is
(A) 5 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 13
193. A rainfall with intensity greater than 4 mm/h but less than 6.5 mm/h, referred as
(A) Excessive rain (B) Moderate rain
(C) Light rain (D) Severe rain
194. A 6-h storm has 10 cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 4 cm. For the same infiltration
index, what would be the runoff for a 12-hour storm having a rainfall of 16 cm?
(A) 4 cm (B) 6 cm
(C) 3 cm (D) None of the above
195. The drainage density is expressed as
(A) Ratio of shortest length of channel to the total drainage area
(B) Ratio of total drainage area to the total channel length
(C) Ratio of total channel length to the total drainage area
(D) Ratio of longest length of channel to the total drainage area
196. If the porosity of an aquifer material is 0.80 and specific retention is 0.30, then the ratio of specific
retention to specific yield would be __
(A) 1.93 (B) 0.85
(C) 1.67 (D) 0.60
AHQ - MASTER ] 24 [Contd.
Text of page 25
M
197. An imaginary line joining points of equal rainfall of a particular duration with a particular return
period is called
(A) Isopluvial (B) Isochrone
(C) Isohyet (D) Isopod
198. The direct runoff hydrograph of a storm obtained from a catchment is triangular in shape
with a base width of 400 hours. The peak flow rate is 50 m3/s. If the catchment area is
300 km2, then what would be the effective rainfall?
(A) 9 cm (B) 6 cm
(C) 14 cm (D) 12 cm
199. The rainfall in three raingauge stations P, Q and R in a catchment are 6, 8 and 10 cm, respectively.
The Theissen polygonal areas of these three raingauges are respectively 100, 200 and 200 km2. The
average depth of rainfall over the catchment would be
(A) 6.5 cm (B) 8 cm
(C) 8.4 cm (D) 9.2 cm
200.
If the electrical conductivity of water is in the range of 250-750 micromhos/cm, then it is
classified as
(A) low saline water (B) moderate saline water
(C) high saline water (D) very high saline water
201. Garret’s diagram is based on
(A) Kennedy’s Theory (B) Lacey’s Theory
(C) Khosla’s Theory (D) Bligh’s Theory
202. Wetted Perimeter of a regime channel for a discharge of 100 cumecs as per Lacey’s theory will be
(A) 4.75 m (B) 9.5 m
(C) 47.5 m (D) 95.0 m
203. A channel designed by Lacey’s theory has a mean velocity of 1 m/s. If the silt factor is 1, the
hydraulic mean radius will be
(A) 1.0 m (B) 0.5 m
(C) 2.0 m (D) 2.5 m
204.
According to Indian Standards, the number of rain gauge stations for an area of
5,200 km2 in plains should be
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 20
AHQ - MASTER ] 25 [P.T.O.
Text of page 26
M
205. Double Mass analysis is adopted to
(A) estimate the missing rainfall data
(B) obtain intensities of rainfall at various duration
(C) check the consistency of the data
(D) estimate the reservoir capacity
206. A plane inclined at an angle ‘Ф’ to the horizontal at which the soil is expected to stay in the absence
of any lateral support is known as the
(i) natural slope line (ii) repose line
(iii) Ф line (iv) phreatic line
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
207. Rise of water table above the ground surface causes
(A) Equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress
(B) Equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress
(C) Increase in pore water pressure but decrease in total stress
(D) Decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress
208. If Porosity is ‘n’ and Void ratio is ‘e’, then the relation between the two is
(A) e = n/(1-n) (B) n = e/(1-e)
(C) 1-e = n (D) (1+n)/n = e-1
209. The most commonly used sampler for obtaining a disturbed sample of soil is
(A) Split spoon sampler (B) Open drive sampler
(C) Piston Sampler (D) Thin wall shell by tube sampler
210. The number of blows observed in a Standard Penetration Test (SPT) for different penetration
depths are given as follows:
Penetration of sampler Number of blows
0-150 mm 6
150-300 mm 8
300-450 mm 10
The Standard Penetration Number (N) will be
(A) 8 (B) 14 (C) 18 (D) 24
211. The degree of disturbance of the sample collected by the sampler is expressed by a term called
“area ratio”. If the outer diameter and inner diameter of the sampler are Do and Di respectively,
then the area ratio is given by
(A) (Di2- Do2)/ Di2 (B) (Do2- Di2)/ Di2
(C) (Do2- Di2)/ Do2 (D) (Di2- Do2)/ Do2
AHQ - MASTER ] 26 [Contd.
Text of page 27
M
212. In an active state of plastic equilibrium in a non-cohesive soil with horizontal ground surface,
(A) the major principal stress is horizontal
(B) the minor principal stress is vertical
(C) the major principal stress is vertical
(D) the minor and major principal stresses are equally inclined to horizontal
213. If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of the sample is
(A) Less than specific gravity of soil
(B) Equal to specific gravity of soil
(C) Greater than specific gravity of soil
(D) Independent of specific gravity of soil
214. If the percentage of soil passing 0.075 mm sieve is 65%, its liquid limit is 45% and its plastic limit
is 20%, then as per IS soil classification system, the soil would be
(A) SM (B) CI
(C) CL (D) CH
215. A constant head permeameter is used for
(A) Coarse-grained soils (B) Silty soils
(C) Clayey soils (D) Organic soils
216. A flow net can be used to determine
(A) Seepage, coefficient of permeability and uplift pressure
(B) Seepage, coefficient of permeability and exit gradient
(C) Seepage, exit gradient and uplift pressure
(D) Seepage and exit gradient only
217. Consolidation time of a soil sample
(A) increases with an increase in permeability
(B) increases with a decrease in permeability
(C) increases with an increase in compressibility
(D) increases with a decrease in compressibility
218. Water content of soil can
(A) be less than 0% (B) never be greater than 100%
(C) only be between 0% and 100% (D) be greater than 100%
AHQ - MASTER ] 27 [P.T.O.
Text of page 28
M
219. If c is cohesion, б is normal stress and Ф is angle of internal friction of soil, then Coulomb’s
equation of shear strength (s) can be represented as
(A) c = s + б tanФ (B) s = б + c tanФ
(C) c = s – б tanФ (D) s = c – б tanФ
220. According to the Indian Standards, the specific gravity is the ratio of the unit weight of soil solids
to that of water at a temperature of
(A) 24°C (B) 15°C (C) 20°C (D) 27°C
221. In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing
capacity of soils is to
(A) Increase the depth of foundation (B) Drain the soil
(C) Compact the soil (D) Replace the poor soil
222. The length/diameter ratio of cylindrical specimens used in triaxial test is generally
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
223. The following represents the slope of the linear portion of the pressure void ratio curve in the
consolidation test.
(A) Coefficient of compressibility
(B) Coefficient of volume compressibility
(C) Compression Index
(D) Coefficient of consolidation
224. Which one of the following correctly defines the term ‘Activity’ of clays?
(A) Plasticity index ÷ percentage of clay
(B) Plastic limit ÷ Liquidity index
(C) Unconfined compression strength ÷ cohesion
(D) Unconfined compression strength of remoulded sample ÷ unconfined compression strength
of undisturbed sample
225. If H is the drainage path and Cv is the coefficient of consolidation, then the time ‘t’ required for
attaining a certain degree of consolidation of clay layer is proportional to
(A) H2 and Cv (B) H2 and 1/Cv
(C) 1/H2 and Cv (D) 1/H2 and 1/Cv
226. Consider the following factors pertaining to flow through soil
1. Hydraulic gradient 2. Grain size
3. Void ratio 4. Cross-sectional area of sample
Of these, the factors affecting permeability include
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
AHQ - MASTER ] 28 [Contd.
Text of page 29
M
227. In a typical deposit of submerged soil, the approximate depth at which the inter-granular pressure
is equal to 50 KN/m2 is
(A) 2.5 m (B) 5.0 m
(C) 7.5 m (D) 10.0 m
228. Undisturbed soil samples are required for
(A) Specific gravity test (B) Hydrometer test
(C) Shrinkage limit test (D) Consolidation test
229. A raft foundation is to be constructed on a sandy soil. As per I.S. code, the maximum differential
settlement and maximum limiting settlement range are respectively
(A) 40 mm, 65 mm to 100 mm (B) 40 mm, 40 mm to 65 mm
(C) 25 mm, 65mm to 100 mm (D) 25 mm, 40 mm to 65 mm
230. A soil sample has been found to have natural moisture content of 30%, Liquid limit of 60% and
plastic limit of 28%. It can therefore be said to possess
(A) Very soft consistency (B) Soft consistency
(C) Stiff consistency (D) Medium consistency
231. In a raft foundation, the ratio of intensity of soil pressure ‘p’ and the average settlement ‘s’ is
known as
(A) Modulus of subgrade reaction (B) Reaction coefficient
(C) Settlement coefficient (D) Compressibility coefficient
232. Rise of water table in cohesionless soils upto ground surface reduces the net ultimate bearing
capacity approximately by
(A) 25% (B) 33%
(C) 50% (D) 75%
233.
For a two dimensional flow in an anisotropic soil, if Kx and Ky are the permeabilities
in x and y directions, then the effective permeability Keq for the soil is given by
(A) Kx + Ky (B) Kx / Ky
(C) (Kx2 + Ky2)1/2 (D) (Kx.Ky) 1/2
234. At liquid limit, all soils possess
(A) same shear strength of small magnitude
(B) same shear strength of large magnitude
(C) different shear strengths of small magnitude
(D) different shear strengths of large magnitude
AHQ - MASTER ] 29 [P.T.O.
Text of page 30
M
235. Rankine’s theory of earth pressure assumes that the back of the wall is
(A) plane and smooth (B) plane and rough
(C) vertical and smooth (D) vertical and rough
236. A beam of uniform flexural rigidity supports a set of loads as shown in figure below.
9kN 2W 9kN
R R
3m 4m 3m
What is the value of ‘W’ if bending moment at mid-span and at support of the beam are numerically
equal?
(A) 27 kN (B) 9 kN (C) 18 kN (D) 24 kN
237. “The deflection of a point in the real beam is numerically equal to the shear force at the
corresponding point in the conjugate beam”. This theorem is used for analysis of beams in which
of the following methods?
(A) Castigliano’s method (B) Moment area method
(C) Conjugate beam method (D) None of the above
238. Beam AB of span 15 m and having uniform flexural rigidity of 104 kN-m2 is subjected to a rotation
of 0.003 radian at end B. What is the fixed end moment (kN-m) at A?
A B
15m
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 3
239. The plane stresses on x and y faces are 4.2 N/mm2 and 9.6 N/mm2 respectively. The value of normal
stress at point where shear stress is maximum, would be
(A) 6.9 N/mm2 (B) 2.7 N/mm2
(C) 5.4 N/mm2 (D) 13.8 N/mm2
240. For a Poisson’s ratio of 0.3, the ratio of volumetric strain to hoop strain in thin spherical cell is
(A) 3 (B) 0.33
(C) 9.5 (D) None of the above
AHQ - MASTER ] 30 [Contd.
Text of page 31
M
241. What is the polar moment of inertia (in cm4) for a solid circular shaft of radius 10 cm?
(A) 7850 (B) 15700 (C) 3925 (D) 18500
242. A beam of uniform strength has at every cross-section same
(A) Bending moment (B) Bending stress
(C) Deflection (D) Stiffness
243. A beam of triangular cross-section is placed with its base horizontal. The maximum shear stress
intensity in the section will be
(A) At the neutral axis (B) At the base
(C) Above the neutral axis (D) below the neutral axis
244. For ductile materials the most appropriate failure theory is
(A) Maximum shear stress theory
(B) Maximum principal stress theory
(C) Maximum principal strain theory
(D) Shear strain energy theory
245. The resultant cuts the base of the circular column of diameter ‘d’ with an eccentricity equal to
‘d/4’. The ratio between the maximum compressive stress and maximum tensile stress is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) infinite
246. If a shaft is simultaneously T and a bending moment M, the ratio of maximum bending stress to
maximum shearing stress is
(A) M/T (B) T/M (C) 2M/T (D) 2T/M
247. For a given material if the Young’s modulus is 200 GN/m2 and modulus of rigidity is 80GN/m2,
then the Poisson’s ratio will be
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.30
248. The material of a rubber balloon has Poisson’s ratio of 0.5. If uniform pressure is applied to blow
the balloon, the volumetric strain of the material will be
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.20 (D) 0.00
249. The angle between maximum shear strain axis and principal strain axis is
(A) 0° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 90°
250. Strain energy stored in a member is given by
(A) 0.5 × stress × volume (B) 0.5 × strain × volume
(C) 0.5 × stress × strain × volume (D) 0.5 × stress × strain
AHQ - MASTER ] 31 [P.T.O.
Text of page 32
M
251. The carry over factor in a prismatic member whose far end is fixed is
(A) 0 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.75 (D) 1
252. If the shape of a cable is a parabola, it implies that it is subjected to
(A) Point Loads
(B) Uniformly distributed load
(C) Uniformly varying load
(D) Uniformly varying load with point loads
253. The Castigliano’s second theorem can be used to compute deflections
(A) in statically determinate structures only
(B) for any type of structure
(C) at point load under the load only
(D) for beams and frames only
254. A single rolling load of 8 kN rolls along a girder of 15m span. The absolute maximum bending
moment will be
(A) 8 kN-m (B) 15 kN-m
(C) 30 kN-m (D) 60 kN-m
255. The Influence line diagram for horizontal thrust in a two-hinged parabolic arch is
(A) Parabolic (B) Cubic
(C) Quadric (D) Rectangular
256. The displacement method is also referred to as ___________ ?
(A) Minimum strain energy method (B) Maxwell-Mohr method
(C) Consistent deformation method (D) Slope-deflection method
257. Between the point loads the variation of shear is
(A) Linear (B) Constant (C) Parabolic (D) Cubic
258. Which of the following is commonly used software for non-linear analysis of structures?
(A) STAAD Pro (B) STRAP (C) CADS (D) SAP2000
259. Muller-Breslau principle is applicable to get influence line for which one of the following?
(A) Reaction at ends of a simple beam
(B) Bending moment at a section
(C) Shear force at a section
(D) Forces and moments at any section.
AHQ - MASTER ] 32 [Contd.
Text of page 33
M
260. If in a Pin jointed plane frame (m+r)>2j, then the frame is
(A) Stable and statically indeterminate
(B) Stable and statically determinate
(C) Unstable
(D) Unstable and statically indeterminate
261. The ratio of maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of span ‘l’ with (i) a load of ‘W’ at the free
end & (ii) a uniformly distributed load over entire length of total ‘W’ is given by
(A) 8/5 (B) 8/3 (C) 3/8 (D) 5/8
262. Vertical reactions at the supports for the given truss are
(A) 35 kN, 35 kN
(B) 35 kN, 70kN
(C) 70kN, 70kN
(D) 70kN, 35 kN
263. The force in member 2 – 5 in the truss shown in fig is
30kN
(A) 22.5 kN compression
4 5
(B) 7.5 kN tension
(C) 8.66 kN compression 60°
1 3
2
(D) 8.66 kN tension 4m 4m
264. If f is frequency and T is the time period, then the Angular frequency of a Simple Harmonic
Motion is
(A) 2π (B) 2πf
(C) 2πT (D) 1/T
265. In Column analogy method, the moment of inertia of an analogous column for a fixed beam of
span L and flexural rigidity EI taken as
(A) L3/3EI (B) L3/4EI (C) L3/12EI (D) L3/48EI
266. The fixed support in a real beam becomes ________ in the corresponding conjugate beam
(A) Roller support (B) Hinged support
(C) Free end (D) Fixed support
AHQ - MASTER ] 33 [P.T.O.
Text of page 34
M
267. Beam for the below shown Bending Moment Diagram
(A) must be a Simply Supported Beam.
(B) must be a Cantilever Beam.
(C) can either be a Simply Supported Beam or a Cantilever Beam.
(D) can neither be a Simply Supported Beam nor a Cantilever Beam.
268. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Algebraic sum of Area of Shear Force Diagram between two sections is equal to the difference
between Bending Moment values at those sections.
(ii) Algebraic sum of Area of Bending Moment Diagram between two sections is equal to the
difference between Shear Force values at those sections.
(iii) In Simply Supported Beams, algebraic sum of Area of Shear Force Diagram on left side of
any section is same as that on the right side of that section.
(iv) In Simply Supported Beams, algebraic sum of Area of Bending Moment Diagram on left
side of any section is same as that on the right side of that section.
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
269. A Rectangular section is to be prepared by cutting a Circular log of timber having diameter D. What
should be the width of the Strongest Rectangular section to resist the moment?
(A) D/2 (B) D/√2
(C) D/√3 (D) D/3
270. Which one of the following methods is more accurate for Approximate Analysis of building frames
subjected to Horizontal Loading, when Stiffness of the members is different?
(A) Dunkerley’s Method (B) Cantilever Method
(C) Portal Method (D) Factor Method
271. In which of the following method, safety measures in design are introduced by appropriate choice
of ‘Load Factor’?
(A) Working Stress Method (B) Ultimate Strength Method
(C) Limit State Method (D) All of the above
272. The mode of failure of a very short masonry member having height/thickness ratio of less than 4
is by
(A) shear (B) vertical tensile splitting
(C) buckling (D) any of the above
AHQ - MASTER ] 34 [Contd.
Text of page 35
M
273. Which of the following losses is present in Post-tensioning but absent in Pre-tensioning?
(A) Relaxation of Stress in Steel (B) Creep of Concrete
(C) Shrinkage of Concrete (D) Anchorage Slip
274. The ultimate tensile strain in steel is in the range of
(A) 0.012 – 0.020 (B) 0.0012 – 0.0020
(C) 0.12 – 0.20 (D) None of these
275. The cracking moment of a beam made of M25 concrete having a size of 600 mm × 300 mm is
_____________
(A) 63 × 106 MPa (B) 64 × 106 MPa
(C) 65 × 106 MPa (D) 61 × 106 MPa
276. The Young’s modulus of M25 grade concrete?
(A) 25 × 104 N/mm2 (B) 25 × 105 N/mm2
(C) 25 × 103 MPa (D) 25 × 106 MPa
277. As per IS 456, the minimum cover to be provided for columns is
(A) 50 mm (B) 40 mm (C) 25 mm (D) 30 mm
278. For limit state method of design, permissible bearing stress for M20 grade concrete is
(A) 9 N/mm2 (B) 11.25 N/mm2 (C) 13.40 N/mm2 (D) 17 N/mm2
279. As per code, minimum grade of concrete in reinforced concrete design, where concrete surface is
exposed to sea water spray is
(A) M30 (B) M40 (C) M35 (D) M20
280. The minimum cover prescribed in the code for flexural reinforcement in all footings
(A) 75mm (B) 40mm (C) 50mm (D) 60mm
281. If the beam is prestressed using mild steel at an initial stress of 140N/mm2, then the initial strain is
(take E of Mild steel as 2 × 105 N/mm2)
(A) 0.006 (B) 0.007 (C) 0.028 (D) 0.0028
282. In limit state approach spacing of reinforcements primarily controls
(A) Collapse (B) Cracking (C) Deflection (D) Durability
283. An under-reinforced section means
(A) Steel is provided at under side only
(B) Steel provided is insufficient
(C) Steel is provided on one face only
(D) Steel will yield first
AHQ - MASTER ] 35 [P.T.O.
Text of page 36
M
284. The grade of concrete for prestresses members should be in the range of
(A) M20 – M30 (B) M80 – M100
(C) M30 – M60 (D) M15 – M30
285. Prestressing is possible by using
(A) Mild Steel (B) High strength deformed bars
(C) High tensile steel (D) High carbon steel
286. If H is the overall height of a retaining wall retaining a surcharge, the width of the base of the slab
usually provided is
(A) 0.7 H (B) 0.4 H (C) 1.0 H (D) 0.8 H
287. For earthquake resistant design, both ends of vertical stirrups on a beam should be bent at an
angle of
(A) 45 (B) 90 (C) 135 (D) 175
288. The factor of safety for steel in working stress method is
(A) 1.7-1.8 (B) 3 (C) 1.15 (D) 1.5
289. The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and superimposed
load is
(A) 300 (B) 250 (C) 200 (D) 180
290. As per IS 800:1984, the permissible stress in axial tension in the net effective area of the section
shall not exceed ____ (where fy is minimum yield stress in steel in N/mm2)
(A) 0.85 fy (B) 1.15fy
(C) 0.65fy (D) 0.6fy
291. The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for rivets upto 25mm diameter is
(A) 1mm (B) 1.5mm
(C) 2mm (D) 2.5mm
292. The magnitude of tensile and compressive residual stress in rolled sections may reach
(A) 0.2fy & 0.8fy (B) 0.3fy & 0.5fy
(C) 0.4fy & 0.5fy (D) 0.3fy & 0.6fy
293. The thickness of the web for unstiffened girder with clear distance ‘d’ between the flanges shall
not be less than
(A) d/200 (B) d/85
(C) d/100 (D) d/50
AHQ - MASTER ] 36 [Contd.
Text of page 37
M
294. Upper yielding point in a stress-strain curve of structural steel can be avoided by
(A) Cold working (B) Hot working
(C) Quenching (D) Galvanizing
295. According to IS 800:1984, lacing bars should resist a transverse shear equal to ________ of the
axial load in the member.
(A) 2.5% (B) 5%
(C) 7.5% (D) 10%
296. The Coefficient of thermal expansion for steel is taken as
(A) 12 × 10-6 / °C (B) 0.12 × 10-6 / °C
(C) 1.2 × 10-6 / °C (D) 0.012 × 10-6 / °C
297. Minimum pitch in a riveted joint shouldn’t be
(A) Less than 200mm
(B) More than 200mm
(C) Greater than 2.5 times the gross diameter of the rivet
(D) Less than 2.5 times the nominal diameter of the rivet
298. Gusset plates are designed to resist
(A) Torsion & bending (B) Only shear
(C) Shear & bending (D) Shear, bending & torsion
299. Which one of the sections is most efficient for gantry girder
(A) I section with equal flanges
(B) I section with channel attached to the top flange
(C) I section with a wide bottom flange
(D) I section with a heavy connected bottom flange
300. For battened struts the effective lengths will be increased by
(A) 10% (B) 12%
(C) 14% (D) 8%
____________
AHQ - MASTER ] 37 [P.T.O.
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, Roads and Building Department. Advt. No. 79/ 2018-19 P.T. Date :-23-06-2019 (AHQ)
Series : A
FINAL A N S W E R K E Y (REVISED) For Question No. 001 - 300 is declared as below
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 31 B 61 A 91 A 121 C 151 A 181 B 211 B 241 B 271 *
2 A 32 C 62 A 92 A 122 C 152 B 182 B 212 C 242 B 272 B
3 C 33 B 63 B 93 B 123 B 153 A 183 A 213 D 243 B 273 D
4 B 34 D 64 C 94 D 124 A 154 B 184 D 214 B 244 C 274 C
5 C 35 C 65 A 95 A 125 C 155 C 185 B 215 C 245 B 275 C
6 B 36 D 66 B 96 C 126 D 156 B 186 D 216 C 246 D 276 A
7 C 37 A 67 A 97 C 127 A 157 B 187 C 217 C 247 B 277 C
8 B 38 B 68 A 98 B 128 D 158 C 188 C 218 A 248 D 278 A
9 B 39 C 69 B 99 D 129 C 159 A 189 B 219 C 249 D 279 D
10 C 40 A 70 C 100 B 130 B 160 C 190 B 220 D 250 A 280 D
11 A 41 A 71 A 101 C 131 B 161 A 191 A 221 B 251 D 281 B
12 * 42 C 72 D 102 A 132 A 162 C 192 C 222 B 252 B 282 B
13 C 43 A 73 A 103 B 133 A 163 A 193 C 223 B 253 C 283 C
14 C 44 B 74 C 104 B 134 C 164 B 194 D 224 B 254 A 284 A
15 B 45 A 75 C 105 C 135 A 165 C 195 A 225 A 255 B 285 A
16 A 46 A 76 B 106 D 136 A 166 D 196 B 226 A 256 B 286 C
17 D 47 B 77 C 107 B 137 B 167 B 197 C 227 D 257 B 287 C
18 D 48 D 78 A 108 D 138 C 168 A 198 A 228 C 258 D 288 D
19 * 49 C 79 C 109 B 139 A 169 C 199 B 229 B 259 D 289 C
20 A 50 B 80 B 110 B 140 C 170 C 200 C 230 A 260 C 290 C
21 C 51 A 81 A 111 D 141 C 171 D 201 A 231 B 261 A 291 B
22 C 52 D 82 A 112 B 142 D 172 C 202 C 232 A 262 C 292 C
23 B 53 B 83 B 113 B 143 C 173 D 203 D 233 D 263 D 293 B
24 D 54 B 84 D 114 C 144 A 174 A 204 A 234 B 264 B 294 B
25 C 55 D 85 C 115 C 145 B 175 C 205 C 235 A 265 C 295 A
26 A 56 A 86 B 116 B 146 A 176 D 206 * 236 C 266 C 296 C
27 B 57 C 87 A 117 B 147 A 177 C 207 D 237 B 267 A 297 B
28 C 58 A 88 D 118 B 148 D 178 A 208 B 238 A 268 A 298 D
29 C 59 B 89 C 119 A 149 B 179 C 209 A 239 C 269 A 299 C
30 B 60 C 90 B 120 B 150 C 180 A 210 A 240 C 270 C 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
The Final Answer Key of the above examination declared on Dt. 31-08-2019 is Revised and declared FINAL as above. Accordingly, answer of 1 (One) question is changed that is highlighted in different colour.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 09-09-2019
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, Roads and Building Department. Advt. No. 79/ 2018-19 P.T. Date :-23-06-2019 (AHQ)
Series : B
FINAL A N S W E R K E Y (REVISED) For Question No. 001 - 300 is declared as below
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 A 61 C 91 A 121 C 151 A 181 A 211 B 241 D 271 B
2 A 32 C 62 C 92 D 122 A 152 C 182 C 212 A 242 B 272 C
3 B 33 A 63 B 93 A 123 B 153 C 183 A 213 D 243 C 273 D
4 D 34 B 64 D 94 C 124 B 154 D 184 B 214 B 244 A 274 B
5 C 35 A 65 C 95 C 125 C 155 A 185 C 215 A 245 B 275 C
6 B 36 A 66 A 96 B 126 D 156 B 186 D 216 C 246 B 276 C
7 A 37 B 67 B 97 C 127 B 157 C 187 B 217 B 247 B 277 C
8 D 38 D 68 C 98 A 128 D 158 A 188 A 218 A 248 D 278 A
9 C 39 C 69 C 99 C 129 B 159 B 189 C 219 C 249 D 279 C
10 B 40 B 70 B 100 B 130 B 160 C 190 C 220 C 250 C 280 D
11 B 41 A 71 A 101 B 131 C 161 C 191 D 221 A 251 B 281 A
12 C 42 D 72 * 102 B 132 D 162 C 192 C 222 C 252 C 282 C
13 B 43 B 73 C 103 A 133 C 163 B 193 D 223 D 253 B 283 D
14 D 44 B 74 C 104 D 134 A 164 A 194 A 224 A 254 B 284 B
15 C 45 D 75 B 105 B 135 B 165 C 195 C 225 C 255 A 285 C
16 D 46 A 76 A 106 D 136 A 166 D 196 D 226 * 256 C 286 C
17 A 47 C 77 D 107 C 137 A 167 A 197 C 227 D 257 B 287 A
18 B 48 A 78 D 108 C 138 D 168 D 198 A 228 B 258 D 288 A
19 C 49 B 79 * 109 B 139 B 169 C 199 C 229 A 259 C 289 A
20 A 50 C 80 A 110 B 140 C 170 B 200 A 230 A 260 D 290 C
21 D 51 A 81 A 111 B 141 A 171 D 201 B 231 B 261 B 291 *
22 A 52 A 82 A 112 A 142 B 172 B 202 B 232 B 262 B 292 B
23 C 53 B 83 B 113 A 143 A 173 B 203 C 233 B 263 B 293 D
24 B 54 D 84 C 114 C 144 B 174 C 204 A 234 C 264 B 294 C
25 C 55 A 85 A 115 A 145 C 175 C 205 A 235 B 265 A 295 C
26 B 56 C 86 B 116 A 146 B 176 B 206 C 236 D 266 A 296 A
27 C 57 C 87 A 117 B 147 B 177 B 207 C 237 B 267 D 297 C
28 B 58 B 88 A 118 C 148 C 178 B 208 D 238 D 268 C 298 A
29 B 59 D 89 B 119 A 149 A 179 A 209 C 239 D 269 B 299 D
30 C 60 B 90 C 120 C 150 C 180 B 210 C 240 A 270 A 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
The Final Answer Key of the above examination declared on Dt. 31-08-2019 is Revised and declared FINAL as above. Accordingly, answer of 1 (One) question is changed that is highlighted in different colour.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 09-09-2019
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, Roads and Building Department. Advt. No. 79/ 2018-19 P.T. Date :-23-06-2019 (AHQ)
Series : C
FINAL A N S W E R K E Y (REVISED) For Question No. 001 - 300 is declared as below
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 A 61 A 91 B 121 D 151 C 181 C 211 A 241 B 271 B
2 D 32 A 62 D 92 C 122 B 152 A 182 D 212 C 242 B 272 B
3 B 33 B 63 A 93 B 123 B 153 B 183 C 213 D 243 B 273 C
4 B 34 D 64 C 94 D 124 C 154 B 184 A 214 B 244 B 274 A
5 D 35 A 65 C 95 C 125 C 155 C 185 B 215 C 245 A 275 A
6 A 36 C 66 B 96 D 126 B 156 D 186 A 216 C 246 A 276 C
7 C 37 C 67 C 97 A 127 B 157 B 187 A 217 A 247 D 277 C
8 A 38 B 68 A 98 B 128 B 158 D 188 D 218 A 248 C 278 D
9 B 39 D 69 C 99 C 129 A 159 B 189 B 219 A 249 B 279 C
10 C 40 B 70 B 100 A 130 B 160 B 190 C 220 C 250 A 280 C
11 A 41 C 71 A 101 A 131 A 161 D 191 B 221 B 251 A 281 B
12 A 42 C 72 A 102 B 132 C 162 C 192 A 222 C 252 C 282 B
13 B 43 B 73 B 103 A 133 C 163 D 193 A 223 D 253 D 283 B
14 C 44 D 74 D 104 B 134 D 164 A 194 C 224 B 254 A 284 C
15 A 45 C 75 C 105 C 135 A 165 C 195 A 225 C 255 C 285 B
16 B 46 A 76 B 106 B 136 B 166 D 196 A 226 C 256 * 286 D
17 A 47 B 77 A 107 B 137 C 167 C 197 B 227 C 257 D 287 B
18 A 48 C 78 D 108 C 138 A 168 A 198 C 228 A 258 B 288 D
19 B 49 C 79 C 109 A 139 B 169 C 199 A 229 C 259 A 289 D
20 C 50 B 80 B 110 C 140 C 170 A 200 C 230 D 260 A 290 A
21 A 51 D 81 A 111 A 141 C 171 B 201 D 231 B 261 * 291 B
22 * 52 A 82 C 112 C 142 C 172 B 202 B 232 C 262 B 292 A
23 C 53 C 83 A 113 A 143 B 173 A 203 C 233 B 263 D 293 D
24 C 54 B 84 B 114 B 144 A 174 D 204 A 234 B 264 C 294 B
25 B 55 C 85 A 115 C 145 C 175 B 205 B 235 A 265 C 295 A
26 A 56 B 86 A 116 D 146 D 176 D 206 B 236 C 266 A 296 C
27 D 57 C 87 B 117 B 147 A 177 C 207 B 237 B 267 C 297 B
28 D 58 B 88 D 118 A 148 D 178 C 208 D 238 D 268 A 298 A
29 * 59 B 89 C 119 C 149 C 179 B 209 D 239 C 269 D 299 C
30 A 60 C 90 B 120 C 150 B 180 B 210 C 240 D 270 D 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
The Final Answer Key of the above examination declared on Dt. 31-08-2019 is Revised and declared FINAL as above. Accordingly, answer of 1 (One) question is changed that is highlighted in different colour.
GANDHINAGAR Date : 09-09-2019
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2, Roads and Building Department. Advt. No. 79/ 2018-19 P.T. Date :-23-06-2019 (AHQ)
Series : D
FINAL A N S W E R K E Y (REVISED) For Question No. 001 - 300 is declared as below
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 B 61 D 91 A 121 D 151 C 181 D 211 B 241 B 271 A
2 C 32 C 62 A 92 D 122 C 152 C 182 B 212 B 242 C 272 C
3 A 33 B 63 C 93 B 123 D 153 B 183 B 213 C 243 B 273 D
4 B 34 D 64 B 94 B 124 A 154 A 184 C 214 A 244 B 274 B
5 A 35 C 65 C 95 D 125 C 155 C 185 C 215 A 245 A 275 C
6 A 36 D 66 B 96 A 126 D 156 D 186 B 216 C 246 C 276 C
7 B 37 A 67 C 97 C 127 C 157 A 187 B 217 C 247 B 277 A
8 D 38 B 68 B 98 A 128 A 158 D 188 B 218 D 248 D 278 A
9 C 39 C 69 B 99 B 129 C 159 C 189 A 219 C 249 C 279 A
10 B 40 A 70 C 100 C 130 A 160 B 190 B 220 C 250 D 280 C
11 A 41 A 71 A 101 C 131 B 161 C 191 A 221 * 251 B 281 B
12 A 42 A 72 A 102 D 132 A 162 A 192 B 222 B 252 B 282 C
13 B 43 B 73 B 103 C 133 A 163 B 193 A 223 D 253 B 283 D
14 D 44 D 74 C 104 A 134 C 164 B 194 B 224 C 254 B 284 B
15 C 45 A 75 A 105 B 135 A 165 C 195 C 225 C 255 A 285 C
16 B 46 C 76 B 106 A 136 A 166 D 196 B 226 A 256 A 286 C
17 A 47 C 77 A 107 A 137 B 167 B 197 B 227 C 257 D 287 C
18 D 48 B 78 A 108 D 138 C 168 D 198 C 228 A 258 C 288 A
19 C 49 D 79 B 109 B 139 A 169 B 199 A 229 D 259 B 289 C
20 B 50 B 80 C 110 C 140 C 170 B 200 C 230 D 260 A 290 D
21 A 51 C 81 A 111 B 141 A 171 A 201 B 231 B 261 A 291 D
22 D 52 C 82 * 112 B 142 C 172 C 202 B 232 A 262 C 292 B
23 A 53 B 83 C 113 A 143 C 173 A 203 B 233 D 263 D 293 C
24 C 54 D 84 C 114 D 144 D 174 B 204 C 234 B 264 A 294 A
25 C 55 C 85 B 115 B 145 A 175 C 205 B 235 A 265 C 295 B
26 B 56 A 86 A 116 D 146 B 176 D 206 D 236 C 266 * 296 B
27 C 57 B 87 D 117 C 147 C 177 B 207 B 237 B 267 D 297 B
28 A 58 C 88 D 118 C 148 A 178 A 208 D 238 A 268 B 298 D
29 C 59 C 89 * 119 B 149 B 179 C 209 D 239 C 269 A 299 D
30 B 60 B 90 A 120 B 150 C 180 C 210 A 240 C 270 A 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
The Final Answer Key of the above examination declared on Dt. 31-08-2019 is Revised and declared FINAL as above. Accordingly, answer of 1 (One) question is changed that is highlighted in different colour.
GANDHINAGAR Date :09-09-2019Page 1 of 37
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.